OFFICERS DEFENCE ACADEMY€¦ · plane surface is silvered. The image will form at (a) 60 cm to the...

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OFFICERS DEFENCE ACADEMY

NDA TEST - 2 TIME :- 1 :30 hrs. PHYSICS & G.S M.M : - 80

PHYSICS

1. In young’s double-slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The fringe width is

(a) unchanged (b) halved (c) doubled (d) quadrupled 2 A ray of light from a denser medium strike a rarer

medium at an angle of incidence i (see fig.) The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90o with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are r and r’ The critical angle is

(a) sin-1 (tan r) (b) sin-1 (tan i) (c) sin-1 (tan r’) (d) tan-1(sin i) 3 Two coherent monochromatic light beams of

intensities 1 and 4 I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting bema are

(a) 5 I and I (b) 5 3I and I (c) 9 I and I (d) 9 3I and I 4 Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced by (a) using a monochromatic light (b) using a doublet combination (c) using a circular annular mark over the lens (d) increasing the size of the lens 5 A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5 has

both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On immersion in a medium or refractive index 1.75, it will behave as a

(a) convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R (b) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R (c) divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R (d) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

6 In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is (a) virtual, erect and magnified (b) real, erect and magnified (c) real, inverted and magnified (d) virtual, erect and reduced 7 An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal

surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation

(a) PQ is horizontal (b) QR is horizontal (c) RS is horizontal (d) Any one will be horizontal 8 Focal length of the plano-convex lens is 15 cm. A

small object is placed at A as shown in the figure. The plane surface is silvered. The image will form at

(a) 60 cm to the left of lens (b) 12 cm to be left of lens (c) 60 cm to the right of lens (d) 30 cm to the left of lens 9 A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The

magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 2/3. Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual focal lengths?

(a) -15,10 (b) -10,15 (c) 75,50 (d) -75,50 10 A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with

a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of the combination is

(a) -1.5 dioptres (b) -6.5 dioptres (c) +6.5 dioptres (d) +6.67 dioptres



11 A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque screen

(a) half the image will disappear . (b) complete image will be formed . (c) intensity of the image will increase . (d) Intensity of the image will decrease. 12 A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of

a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to

(a) 1/2u fbf

(b) 1/2

fbu f

(c) u fbf

(d) 2

fbu f

13 Which of the following forms (s) a virtual and erect image for all positions of the object?

(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens (c) Convex mirror (d) Concave mirror 14 STATEMENT – 1 : The formula connecting u, v and f

for a spherical mirror is valid for mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature. because STATEMENT – 2 : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces, but not for large spherical surfaces.

(a) Statement – 1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

15 Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by

(a) polarization (b) interference (c) reflection (d) diffraction 16 To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference,

we require two sources which emit radiation (a) of nearly the same frequency (b) of the same frequency (c) of different wavelengths (d) of the same frequency and having a definite

phase relationship 17 The image formed by an objective of a compound

microscope is (a) virtual and diminished (b) real and diminished (c) real and enlarged (d) virtual and enlarged 18 Which of the following is used in optical fibres ? (a) total internal reflection (b) scattering (c) diffraction (d) refraction 19 A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical

power of -5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive index 1.6 will be

(a) -1D (b) 1D (c) -25D (d) 25D 20 The angle of incidence at which reflected light is

totally polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n)

(a) tan-1(1/n) (b) sin-1(1/n) (c) sin-1(n) (d) tan-1(n)



POLITY

21 Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment

(1) It envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.

(2) It ensures that Panchayat bodies will have an assured duration of five years.

(3) It stipulates that the Chairperson of a Panchayat shall be elected by and from amongst the elected members there of.

(4) It has reserved 33 per cent of the seats to other backward classes in Panchayat Raj Institutions.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 22 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to

the 73rd Amendment to the constitution of India? (1) Constitutional status to Panchayats. (2) Reservation of seats for women belonging to the

scheduled castes or, as the case may be, the scheduled tribes.

(3) Providing permanent structures for district planning.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only 23 If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held

within (a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year 24 In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up

in which one among the following? (a) Calcutta (b) Madras (c) Bombay (d) Delhi 25 Which of the following states has no Panchayati Raj

institutin at all? (a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Tripura (d) Kerala 26 Which among the following are true about the 73rd

constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

(1) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all at all levels.

(2) The states will constitute their finance commissions to allocate resources to panchayati raj institutions.

(3) The panchayati raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children

(4) The elections will be held in six months time if panchayati raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the state government.

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4 27 Match List I with list II and select the correct answer

using the codes given below. List I List II (A) Seventh Amendment 1. To incorporate the

words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ in the Preamble

(B) Eight Amendment 2. To implement the States Reorganisation plan

(C) Fourteenth Amendment

3. To extend the period of reservation of seats in the legislatures for SCs, STs and Anglo Indians upto 1970

(D) Forty-Second Amendment

4. To incorporate Puducherry in First Schedule as a union territory

A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 4 2 28 Fundamental Duties of a citizen of India include (I) To protect and improve the natural

environment (II) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which

inspired our national struggle for Freedom. (III) To develop scientific temper, humanism and

the spirit of inquiry and reform. (IV) To strive towards achieving equal protection of

law. (a) I,II,III,IV (b) I,II (c) II,III,IV (d) I,II,III



29 Match List I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List I (Constitutional

Features)

List II (Sources)

(A) Rule of Law 1. German Constitution (B) Directive Principles 2. Australian

Constitution (C) Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution (D) Suspension of

Fundamental Rights during Emergency

4. British Constitution

A B C D A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 2 3 30 Which one of the following officials are appointed by

the president on the advice of the Prime Minister? (1) The Chief Justice of India. (2) The Chairman of FC. (3) Governors of the states. (4) Judges of the HCs. (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2,3 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 31 Which of the following are requisite qualifications

for a candidate to be eligible for the election as the President of India?

(1) Not less than 35 years of age. (2) Must not hold office of profit. (3) Must be eligible to become a member of the Lok

Sabha. (4) Must be a member of either House of the

Parliament. (a) 1,2,4 (b) 1,2 (c) 1,4 (d) 1,2,3 32 Part V of the Constitution deals with (I) Union Executive (II) Parliament (III) Supreme court and High Court (IV) Comptroller and Auditor General (a) I and II (b) I,II and III (c) I only (d) I,II and IV 33 At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be passed (1) by a simple majority of the total number of

members of both houses (2) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of

members of both houses (3) by a simple majority of the total number of

members of both houses present and voting (4) by a two-third majority of the total number of

members of both houses present and voting

34 In the appointment of which of the following officials has the president say?

(1) Judges of the Supreme court. (2) Judges of high court (3) Judges of district and session court (4) Attorney general of India. (a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,2,4 (c) 1,2 (d) 1,4 35 The president does not appoint. (I) Attorney-General of India. (II) High Court Judges. (III) Members of state public service commissions. (IV) Members of joint public service commission for

a group of states. (a) I and III (b) I II and III (c) III only (d) IV only 36 Which of the following statement(s) regarding the

preamble of the constitution of India is/are correct? (1) The Preamble is an integral part of the

Constitution. (2) The words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ have been a

part of the Preamble since its inception. Select the correct answer using the codes given

below. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 37 Normally, the Parliament can legislate on the

subjects enumerated in the (a) Union list (b) Concurrent list (c) State list (d) Union as well as concurrent list 38 Which one among the following is not a function of

the comptroller and Auditor General of India? (a) Auditing the transactions of central and state

governments relating to contingency funds and public accounts

(b) Compiling the accounts of defence (c) Auditing the accounts of institutions financed by

the government (d) Compiling the accounts of states 39 Who among the following was not a member of the

Drafting committee of the constitution of India? (a) BR Ambedkar (b) KM Munshi (c) Krishnaswamy Iyer (d) MK Gandhi 40 Which of the following statement(s) relating to the

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?

(1) The CAG can attend the sitting of the Committee on Public Accounts.

(2) The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(3) The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the union government.



Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these 41 Match the following List I List II (A) Mandamus 1. Direction to an official

for the performance of duty

(B) Habeas corpus 2. Release of an illegal detained person

(C) Certiorari 3. Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction

(D) Quo warranto 4. Calling upon one to show by what authority he holds or claims a franchise or office

A B C D A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 42 The cyclonic storm occurring over the Caribbean sea

is known as (a) Typhoon (b) Will – Willy (c) Hurricane (d) Cyclone 43 Match the following List I

(Map Showing Ocean Current)

List II

(Name of Ocean Current) (a) Kuroshio (b) Humbolt (c) Benguela (d) Oyashio A B C D A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 44 Which one among the following statements

regarding Chinook winds is not correct? (a) They rise from the Pacific ocean (b) After crossing the Rockies, they descend to the

East of the mountains. (c) They bring rainfall in the Prairies (d) These winds are beneficial to wheat cultivation. 45 Which one among the following rocks does not

belong to the same group? (a) Shale (b) Limestone (c) Slate (d) Sandstone 46 Which of the following is the main characteristic of

Mediterranean climate? (a) High temperature throughout the year (b) Rainfall throughout the year (c) Rain in winter season (d) Convectional rain 47 What would be the date and local time of a place

located at 88o30’ E longitude when the local time at 0o longitude is 19:00 hours, of 28th February, 2013?

(a) 23: 54 h of 28th February (b) 00: 54 h of 1st March (c) 23: 30 h of 28th February (d) 00: 44 h of 1st March 48 Consider the following surface winds 1 Doldrums 2 Trade winds 3 Westerlies 4 Polar winds Which one among the following is the idealized

global pattern of these winds from the Equator to the Pole?

(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,3,2,4 (c) 2,1,4,3 (d) 3,1,2,4 49 The summer and winter seasons in a year are caused

by (a) Aphelion (farthest) and perihelion (nearest)

positions of the Earth from the Sun during the annual revolution

(b) Rotation of the earth on its axis (c) Variation in solar in solation (d) Revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis 50 Match the following List I

(Regions) List II

(Characteristic Vegetations)

(A) Selvas 1. Tropophytes (B) Savanna 2. Mosses and lichens (C) Tundra 3. Epiphytes (D) Monsoon land 4. Grasses and trees A B C D A B C D (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 4 2 1



51 Movements of sides are mostly determined by (a) Albedo effect (b) Wind velocity (c) Rotation of the earth (d) Revolution of the earth 52 Quartzite is metamorphosed from (a) Limestone (b) Plutonic rock (c) Sandstone (d) Shale 53 ‘Yakutsk’ are the nomadic herders of (a) Gobi (b) Sahara (c) Tundra (d) Kalahari 54 Match the following List I

(Regions) List II

(Vegetations ) (A) Salvas 1. Conifers (B) Savannas 2. Mosses and lichens (C) Taiga 3. Epiphytes (D) Tundra 4. Grasses and trees A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3 55 Rain shadow effect is associated (a) Cyclonic rainfall (b) Orographic rainfall (c) Convectional rainfall (d) Frontal rainfall 56 Match the following List I

(clouds) List II

(characteristics) (A) Cirrus 1. Rain giving (B) Stratus 2. Feathery appearance (C) Nimbus 3. Vertically growing (D) Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 57 Consider the following diseases 1 Cholera 2 Tuberculosis 3 Filarial 4 Typhoid Which of the above diseases are caused by bacteria? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4 58 ‘Lubb-dupp’ sound is produced due to the action of (a) Large intestine (b) Lungs (c) Heart (d) Oesophagus 59 Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of (a) Cholesterol (b) Lactic acid (c) Lipoic acid (d) Triglycerides

60 Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?

Vector Disease 1. Anopheles - Malaria 2. Aedes aegypti - Chikungunya 3. Tse-tse fly - Filariasis 4. Bed bugs - Sleeping sickness Select the correct answer using the codes given

below (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) Only 2 61 What is ‘breakbone fever’ most commonly known

as? (a) Typhoid (b) Rhinitis (c) Yellow fever (d) Dengue 62 Which one among the following water-borne

diseases is not caused by a bacteria? (a) Cholera (b) Bacillary dysentery (c) Typhoid (d) Hepatitis - A 63 Who among the following discovered antibiotic

producing fungus from Penicillium genus? (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Sir Alexander Flemming (c) Stanley prusiner (d) Robert Hooke 64 Which one of the following is not a place of action in

human body for the malarial parasite Plasmodium? (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Red blood cell (d) Brain 65 Which one among the following hormones

stimulates the plant cells to grow in a manner such that the plant appears to be bent toward light?

(a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin (c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid 66 Spruce and cedar are tree varieties of (a) Equatorial forest (b) Temperate coniferous forest (c) Monsoon forest (d) Temperate deciduous forest 67 ‘Sal’ tree is a (a) Tropical evergreen tree (b) Tropical semi—evergreen tree (c) Dry deciduous tree (d) Moist deciduous tree 68 Which of the following statements in the context of

Northern hemisphere is/are correct? (1) Vernal equinox occurs on 21st March. (2) Summer solstice occurs on 22nd December. (3) Autumnal equinox occurs on 23rd September



(4) Winter solstice occurs on 21st June Select the correct answer using the codes given

below (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 3 69 During solar eclipse, (a) The Earth comes in between the sun and the Moon (b) The Moon comes in between the sun and the

earth (c) The Moon comes exactly halfway between the

Earth and the Sun (d) The Sun comes in between the Earth and the

Moon Directions (Q70-71) The following five items consist

of two statements, statement I and statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true, but statements II is not the correct explanation of statement I

(c) Statements I is true, but statement II is false (d) Statements I is false, but statement II is true 70 Statement I There is high salinity in Red sea.

Statement II Rate of evaporation is high in Red sea. 71 Statement I Volcanic eruption is accompanied by

earthquakes. Statement II Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

72 Match the following List I

(Peaks in the Eastern Himalaya)

List II (Locations in the

Map)

A B C D A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 73 The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through (a) Odisha (b) Tripura (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Rajasthan

74 The Gulf of Mannar is situated along the coast of (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh 75 Which of the following statement (s) regarding the

Deccan Traps is/are correct? (1) Intense volcanic activity in the form of fissure

eruption took place towards the end of cretaceous period.

(2) The volcanic lava spread out in horizontal sheets.

(3) The Regur soil found here is rich in nitrogen. Select the correct answer using the codes given

below. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these 76 Which of the following has/have been declared as

National waterways in India? (1) The Allahabad – Haldia stretch of river Ganga (2) The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra. (3) The Cherla-Rajahmundry stretch of river

Godavari. Select the correct answer using the codes given

below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) All of these 77 The Amindivi and Cannanore Islands are separated

from Minicoy Island by (a) Ten Degree channel (b) Nine Degree channel (c) Eight Degree channel (d) Duncan passage 78 Match the following List I

(Ports) List II

(Special Features) (A) Kandla 1. Deepest landlocked

protected port (B) Kochi 2. Located at mouth of

lagoon (C) Visakhapatnam 3. Tidal port (D) Kolkata 4. Inland riverine port A B C D A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 79 The Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on (a) 90o E meridian (b) 82 1/2o E meridian (c) 75o E meridian (d) 0o meridian 80 The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Sikkim (d) Meghalaya

OFFICERS DEFENCE ACADEMY€¦ · plane surface is silvered. The image will form at (a) 60 cm to the...

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