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New Jersey Science League Earth Science

EARTH SCIENCE EXAM

Date January 2013

Directions: Each question is worth 1 point for a total of 72 points. For each statement or question, choose the

word or phrase that best answers the question or completes the statement. On the Answer Form fill in the

corresponding blank completely. Take a moment to look over the Reference Tables (last two pages). Refer to

them whenever you need them. A ruler is on the reference tables in both cm and inches.

1.Weighing a lump of yellow

metallic mineral gives a mass of

24.5 grams. Placing the mineral in

a graduated cylinder, you find its

volume to be about 4 cm3. From the

table below, the mineral is

A) gold C) pyrite

B) chalcopyrite D) arsenopyrite

2. You are looking at a mineral

which shows cleavage and which you

can scratch with a copper penny and

your fingernail. It is listed in

the table below. It is

A) selenite C) calcite

B) halite D) fluorite

3. Quartz is a silicate that has no

cleavage. The silicate groups link

together in the crystal to form

A) rings C) two dimensional sheets

B) chains D) three dimensional frameworks

4.The block of galena, shown below,

displays how many directions of

cleavage?

A) 3 C) 9

B) 6 D) 12

5.Which statement is an accurate conclusion based

upon the information in the table? The check in a box

means the mineral is present

A) Most rocks are monomineralic

B) All rocks are polymineralic

C) Many rocks have a number of minerals in

common.

D) Only igneous rocks contain quarts.

6.The Watchung Mountains in New Jersey are old

lava flows. The predominant type of rock, therefore,

is most likely to be which of the following

A) granite C) gneiss

B) basalt D) gabbro



7.The ocean floor is made mostly of

A) granite C) sand

B) basalt D) coral

8.The asthenosphere is the rather soft, plastic part of

the earth that includes parts of the

A) crust and mantle C) inner core and mantle

B) outer core and mantle D) inner core and outer

core

9.Crustal plates are destroyed at

A) transform faults C) oceanic trenches

B) mid-oceanic ridges D) rift valleys

10.What is the average distance

crustal plates move in one year?

A) 5 cm C) 1 meter

B) 0.5 meters D) 1 km

Base your answers to the questions 11 and 12 on the

cross section of two crustal plates and the boundary

between them shown below. The arrows indicate the

direction of rock movement.

11. The mid-oceanic ridge potion best represents

A) convergence of the Nazca Plate and the South

American Plate

B) divergence of the African Plate and the South

American Plate

C) subduction of the Philippine Plate by the China

Plate

D) transform faulting between the Pacific Plate

and the North American Plate

12. What geologic events would most likely occur at

the mid-oceanic ridge plate boundary?

A) magnetic pole reversals and cooling of ocean

water.

B) meteorite impacts and tilting of shorelines

C) hydrospheric pollution and adiabatic heating

D) earthquakes and volcanic eruptions

The map shows an earthquake that occurred slightly

southwest of New Madrid, Missouri on December 16,

1811. The Roman Numerals on the map were

determined from the Modified Mercalli Scale which is

based on the observed effects of the earthquake.

13. What is the approximate location of the

earthquake’s epicenter?

A) 36oN, 90oW C) 36oN, 90oE

B) 90oN, 36oW D) 90oN, 36oE

14. The P-waves travel at approximately 8km/sec.

Then approximately how many minutes did it take the

P-wave to travel from the epicenter to Boston?

A) 4 min C) 5 min

B) 8 min D) 10 min

15. Which statement best describes the earthquake

waves recorded at Boston?

A) P and S waves arrived the same time

B) S-waves arrived before the P-waves

C) P-waves arrived before the S-waves

D) S-waves arrived, but the P-waves did not

arrive

16. Volcanoes on island arcs (like Mt. Fujiama in

Japan) usually have composite cones. They are likely

to have

A) explosive eruptions

B) quiet eruptions

C) unpredictable eruptions (quiet or explosive)

D) no more eruptions



17. The Watchung Mts. in central New Jersey were

formed from at least three separate lava flows. Since

the rock cooled fairly quickly, it is fine grained and

therefore is a

A) felsite C)granite

B) gabbro D)basalt

18. The only large ice sheets found on earth today are

located on

A) Antarctica

B) Antarctica and Greenland

C) Antarctica and Alaska

D) Greenland and Siberia

19. Large depressions (100m in diameter & 20 to 30m

deep) can be found in the terminal moraine of the

Pleistocene glaciers that covered part of New Jersey.

These holes, left by melting blocks of ice, are known

as

A) sinks C) kettles

B) cols D) tarns

20. Because of its broad valley and meandering

course, the developmental age of the Mississippi

River would be classified as

A) young C) old

B) mature D) senile

21. The largest loads are carried by streams that are

developmentally

A) youthful and steep

B) youthful and moderately steep

C) mature and relatively flat

D) old and nearly flat

22. When an intermittent river or stream flows out of

the mountains and onto a desert floor, the sediments

form a

A) delta C) fan

B) cirque D) train

23. A layer of porous and permeable rock through

which water flows is

A) artesian C) an aquifer

B) a water table D) a perched water table

24. The cavern feature, shown by pointer W above, is

a

A) pendant C) stalactite

B) stalagmite D) dripstone

25. Immediately after a moderate rainfall, stream

discharge is greater from a stream that drains a clay

soil than from one that drains a sandy area. The

discharge differs because clay soil is

A) less porous and allows less runoff.

B) more porous and allows more runoff.

C) less permeable and allows more runoff.

D) more permeable and allows less runoff.

26. There is a sand spit extending from the southern

headland into the mouth of a large bay. The spit

strikes due north and the prevailing winds are from the

southeast. The topographic feature that is most likely

to develop from modification of the spit is a

A) hook C) tombolo

B) bar D) barrier beach

27. Most of Earth’s surface ocean current patterns are

primarily caused by

A) the force of gravity

B) the impact of precipitation

C) prevailing winds

D) river currents



28. The photograph below shows an arch of rock from

the western United States. How did the arch most

likely form?

A) An earthquake forced bedrock up into the

shape of an arch

B) The bedrock in the arch was more resistant to

weathering and erosion than the surrounding

bedrock which was removed.

C) Sand and gravel were deposited and

compacted into the shape of an arch.

D) A glacier melted leaving the form of the arch.

29. Which sediment is most easily picked up by the

wind and transported by the wind?

A) cobbles C) sand

B) pebbles D) silt

30. The Era known as the "Age of Mammals" is the

A) pre-Cambrian C) Cenozoic

B) Mesozoic D) Paleozoic

31. Dinosaurs roamed New Jersey about 120 million

years ago, during the

A) Ordovician/Silurian Periods

B) Miocene/Eocene Epochs

C) Triassic/Jurassic Periods

D) preCambrian/Cambrian Periods

32. Geologists have divided geologic time into periods

that are based on

A) carbon dating C) fossil evidence

B) rock types D) mountain building

33. Four substances have a certain amount of

radioactive material X remaining. Which substance is

the oldest?

A. A rock 10% X C. Shell 42% X

B. Wood 33% X D. Bone 52% X

Use the contour map below with questions 34 through

38. The contour interval is 20ft.

34. What is the direction that Elm Brook is flowing?

A) southwest C) northwest

B) southeast D) northeast

35. What is the approximate elevation of the

triangulation point on top of Rock Hill?

A) 240 feet C) 144 ft

B) 139 feet D) 169 ft

36. Which side of Center Hill has the steepest slope?

A) north C) east

B) south D) west

37. What is the average gradient along a straight line

between points X and Y?

A) 30 ft/mile C) 60 ft/mile

B) 40 ft/mile D) 70ft/mile



38. Which diagram best represents the topographic

profile from point A to point B?

39. The State of New Jersey is located at about

A) 72oE 40oN C) 97oE 63oN

B) 72oW 40oN D) 97oW 63oN

40. A heavy pendulum, hanging from the ceiling, is

pulled directly east and released. It knocks down peg

#2 and a short time later knocks down peg #3. The

change in direction of swing is best explained by

A) the rotation of the earth about its axis

B) the inclination of the earth's axis to its orbit

C) the revolution of the earth around the sun

D) the Coriolis Effect

41. The graph below plots the time of sunrise and

sunset vs the month of the year. From which location

could the observations have been made?

A) Australia C) Alaska

B) Pennsylvania D. Central America

42. How many degrees does the Sun appear to move

across the sky in 4 hours?

A) 15o C) 4o

B) 60o D) 48o

43. The diagram below shows the apparent paths of

the Sun at a location in New Jersey on the first day of

each season. Which of the lettered points represents

sunrise on the first day of winter?

A) G C) E

B) F D) D

44. Which statement best explains why the same side

of the Moon is viewed from Earth as the Moon

goes through its phases?

A) The Moon does not rotate as it revolves

around Earth

B) The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s

period of rotation.

C) The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s

period of revolution around the Sun

D) The Moon’s period of rotation equals the

Moon’s period of revolution around Earth.



45. An eclipse of the sun occurs only when the

A) sun passes between the moon and the earth

B) moon passes between the sun and the earth

C) earth passes between the sun and the moon

46. The vernal equinox occurs in spring when the sun

appears to move

A) over the Tropic of Cancer

B) over the Tropic of Capricorn

C) across the equator from north to south

D) across the equator from south to north

The diagram above shows the full moon on the

horizon to your east. Use it with questions 47 and 48

47. The time of day must be about

A) sunrise C) sunset

B) noon D) midnight

48. If you are on the beach at the shore and see the full

moon as shown above, the next low tide will occur in

about

A) 3 hours C) 9 hours

B) 6 hours D) 12 hours

49. One of Keppler’s Laws (the first) states that

planets follow orbits that are

A) circular C) parabolic

B) elliptical D) hyperbolic

50. In the diagrams below the mass of the star is

constant. In which diagram is the force of gravity the

greatest between the star and the planet?

51. Spectral lines from star light often can tell us the

star's

A) composition , only C) composition and

velocity

B) composition and size D) velocity and size

52. Compared to other groups of stars, which group

has relatively low luminosities and relatively low

temperatures?

(Hertzsprung-Russell Diagram in reference tables)

A) red dwarfs C) red giants

B) white dwarfs D) blue supergiants

53. Our Sun’s position in space is best described as

the approximate center of

A) a constellation C) the universe

B) the Milky Way galaxy D) our solar system

54. Which type of galaxies make up the majority of

the member of the local group?

A) spiral C) barred spiral

B) elliptical D) irregular

55. When astronomers look at distance galaxies, what

sort of motion do they observe?

A) galaxies are spinning rapidly

B) the galaxies are moving rapidly toward us

C) the galaxies are moving rapidly away from us

D) the galaxies are revolving around a central galaxy.

56. Which statement best describes the age of our

solar system and the universe?

A) The universe is at least twice as old as our solar

system.

B) Our solar system is at least twice as old as the

universe.

C) Our solar system and the universe are estimated to

be 5 billion years old.

D) Our solar system and the universe are estimated to

be about 10 billion years old.

57. Two 400 ml beakers are placed on a hot plate in an

open room at constant pressure. Beaker A has 150 ml

of boiling water, while beaker B contains 350 ml of

boiling water. A thermometer is placed into each

beaker. The thermometers will show that compared to

the temperature of water in beaker A, the temperature

of the water in beaker B is

A) lower C) the same

B) higher D) Cannot be determined



58. The graph below shows the average temperatures

for cities A and B for one year.

Where are these two cities most likely located?

A) Both cities are in the Northern Hemisphere with

city A inland and B on the coast

B) Both are in the Southern Hemisphere with city A

inland and B on the coast.

C) Both are in the Northern Hemisphere with city A

on the coast and B inland

D) Both are in the Southern Hemisphere with city A

on the coast and B inland.

59. If the winter air temperature is -5oF and the wind is

blowing at a constant 20mph, the wind chill factor is

probably about (use the reference tables at the end of

the test)

A) -25oF C) -47oF

B) -44oF D) -55oF

60. One mercury barometer has twice the cross-

sectional area as another. Mercury in the smaller tube

will rise

A) the same height as the larger tube

B) twice as high as the larger tube

C) four times as high as the larger tube

D) more than four times as high as the larger tube

61. Most of the deserts of the world lie at about 30o

north or south latitude. The most probable

explanation for the locations of these deserts is

A) they are near cold ocean currents with little

evaporation..

B) they are in the rain shadow of mountains that

lie to the west.

C) the air at these latitudes is high pressure and

descending.

D) the air at these latitudes is low pressure and

descending.

62. The highest surface wind speeds generally occur

when there is a

A) 4 millibar air-pressure difference between two

nearby locations

B) 4 millibar air-pressure difference between two

distant locations

C) 20 millibar air-pressure difference between two

nearby locations

D) 20 millibar air-pressure difference between two

distant locations

63. A weather map shows closely spaced isobars over

New Jersey, indicating a steep pressure gradient. The

most likely weather condition over the state is:

A) dry air. C) low temperatures.

B) high winds. D) low visibility.

64. If you swing a psychrometer for a minute and then

read 26oC from the dry bulb thermometer and 24oC

from the wet bulb thermometer, the relative humidity

is (relative humidity charts found in reference tables)

A) 85% C) about 13%

B) 12% D) 2%

65. The reason that barometric pressure decreases as

the absolute humidity rises is that

A) water vapor expands when it is heated.

B) water adds more mass to the air.

C) water molecules are lighter than oxygen and

nitrogen molecules

D) water molecules fit in the spaces between oxygen

and nitrogen molecules.

66. Below are four weather station models.

Which model has the lowest relative humidity?

A) A C) C

B) B D) D

Turn to next page



67. The distance from Chicago to Trenton is about 800

miles. On average, a cold front attached to a low over

Chicago should reach New Jersey in about (cold fronts

travel about 35mph)



68. A warm front, near a center of low pressure, is

often preceded by

A) steady rain or snow C) intermittent showers

B) thundershowers D) fair weather

Use the weather map below with questions # 69 and

70

69. What is the type of air mass over the north central

and north eastern sections of the United States?

A) Pm (Polar maritime)

B) Pc (Polar continental)

C) Tm (Tropical maritime)

D) Tc (Tropical continental)

70. The low pressure system located over the Outer

Banks of North Carolina will probably track

A) to the north C) to the northeast

B) to the east D) to the southwest

Use the weather map above for questions 71 and 72.

71. What do the isolines on the weather map

represent?

A) density C) pressure

B) humidity D) temperature

72. Winds over New Jersey are most likely out of the

A) north east C) southwest

B) north west D) west

New Jersey Science League

Earth Science Exam - Answer Key

January 2013

Test Specifications

Since some earth science courses in New Jersey start with geology, others with astronomy, and still others

with meteorology, each of the four tests will include the following topics. Over time, this provides an equal

opportunity to everyone. The number in parentheses indicates the number of questions for that topic. The

number per topic occasionally varies by one or two, but usually does not.

Minerals (4) Sun (2)

Rocks (2) Moon (2)

Earth Structure (2) Sun-Moon-Earth System (3)

Plate Tectonics (4) Solar System (3)

Faults/Folds/Seismology (3) Stars (2)

Vulcanism (2) Galactic Systems (2)

Glaciation/Deserts (2) Cosmology (2)

Rivers:Erosion & Deposition (3)

Ground Water/Caves (2) Insolation/Temperature/Air Masses (3)

Ocean Shore Line/Currents/Salinity(3) Atmospheric Pressure/Highs/Lows (4)

Weathering/Mass Wasting (2) Moisture in the Atmosphere (3)

Historical Geology (4) Frontal Systems (3)

Map Reading: Road/Topo/Geologic (4) Interpreting Weather Maps (3)

Geodesics/Time/Map Projections (3)

1. D

2. A

3. D

4. A

5. C

6. B

7. B

8. A

9. C

10. A

11. B

12. D

13. A

14. A

15. A

16. C

17. D

18.B

19. C

20. C

21. D

22. C

23. C

24.C

25. C

26. A

27. C

28. B

29. D

30. C

31. C

32. C

33. A

34.A

35. C

36.B

37. C

38. B

39.B

40. A

41. B

42. B

43. D

44. D

45. B

46. D

47. C

48. B

49. B

50. B

51. C

52. A

53. D

54. B

55. C

56. A

57. C

58. C

59. C

60. A

61. C

62. C

63. B

64. A

65. C

66. A

67. B

68. A

69. B

70. C

71. C

72. A

Date Feb 14, 2013 - 1 - Next Page


EARTH SCIENCE EXAM

Date Feb 14, 2013

Directions: Each question is worth 1 point for a total of 72 points. For each statement or question, choose the

word or phrase that best answers the question or completes the statement. On the Answer Form fill in the

corresponding blank completely. Take a moment to look over the Reference Tables (last two pages). Refer to

them whenever you need them. A ruler is on the reference tables in both cm and inches.

1.Galena can be scratched by calcite, but not by

gypsum. Its hardness is about

A) 2 C) 3

B) 2.5 D) 3.5

2.Which of the following minerals is a common ore

for zinc?

A) pyrite C) sphalerite

B) hematite D) galena

3. Hardness is an important property used to identify

minerals. According to Mohs Scale, which of the

following lists of minerals is arranged in order of

increasing hardness?

A) corundum, apatite, gypsum, feldspar

B) gypsum, apatite, feldspar, corundum

C) apatite, gypsum, feldspar, corundum

D) feldspar, corundum, apatite, gypsum

The diagrams above represent samples of the same

substance. Each has a different size and shape.

Use the diagrams for questions # 4 thr 7. The

dimensions of A is 2cm x 2 cm x 2 cm.

4. What order of letters ranks the substance by

volume from the smallest to the largest?

A) C, A, B C) A, B, C

B) B, A, C D) B, C, A

5. What is the density of sample A?

A) 0.00 g/cm3 C) 2.0 g/cm3

B) 3.0 g/cm3 D) 4.0 g/cm3

6. If sample C were compressed, then what would

happen to the volume and density?

A) The volume and density would both decrease

B) The volume and density would both increase

C) The volume would decrease while the density

would increase

D) The volume would increase while the density

would decrease.

7. Which graph would best represent the relationship

between the volume and mass of the substance?

The diagram below represents zones of the Earth’s

interior, identified by letters A through E. The depth

is measured in kilometers.

8. The Moho is a boundary located in zone

A) A C) E

B) B D) D



In the diagram above are heavy broken lines that show

a rift zone. Use the diagram with questions 9 and 10.

9. The magnetic reversals in the bands of rock showed

A) subduction C) a syncline

B) an anticline D) sea floor spreading

10. The horizontal heavy black lines show a feature

known as

A) reverse faults C) transform faults

B) normal faults D) thrust faults

11. Plate Tectonic Theory holds that the continents

came together to form the super continent, Pangea, in

which geologic era?

A) preCambrian C) Mesozoic

B) Cenozoic D) Paleozoic

12. The only large crustal plate on the earth that does

not have a continent on it is the

A) Arctic Plate C) South Atlantic Plate

B) Indian Plate D) Pacific Plate

13. A characteristic of both earthquake compressional

waves (p) and shear waves (s) is that they

A) travel at the same speed

B) travel faster through more dense solid materials

C) travel through solid and liquid materials

D) cause rock particles to vibrate in the same direction

14. A seismograph in Denver records the arrival of

earthquake tremors. The p-wave arrives at 08:27:11.

The s-wave is recorded at 08:34:41. The

seismologists checks the tables (data tables reference

sheets), and concludes that the distance to the

earthquake is

A) 6.0 km C) 8.5 km

B) 6,000 km D) 8,500 km

The map shows an earthquake that occurred slightly

southwest of New Madrid, Missouri on December 16,

1811. The Roman Numerals on the map were

determined from the Modified Mercalli Scale which is

based on the observed effects of the earthquake

15. For which city was the difference in arrival times

between the P-waves and S-waves the smallest?

A) Nashville C) Syracuse

B) Pittsburgh D) Boston

16. The type of rock commonly formed by

solidification of lava from volcanoes around the

Pacific rim is

A) basalt C) gabbro

B) diabase D) andesite

17. Shield volcanoes such as those in the Hawaiian

Islands usually produce lava which is mostly

A) ash C) basalt

B) ash and basalt D) diabase



The diagram below represents a glacier moving out of

a mountain valley. Use it with questions 18 and 19.

18. Deposits of unsorted sediments most probably

would be found at

A) position 5 C) position 3

B) position 6 D) position 4

19. An ice interface between deposition and erosion

by the ice is most likely located at

A) positions 1 and 2 C) positions 3 and 4

B) positions 2 and 3 D) positions 4 and 5

20. At a stream gauging station, the average speed of

the water is measured to be 15 feet per second. The

width of the stream is 200 feet and its average depth is

10 feet. The discharge (rate of flow) of the river is

A) 300 ft3/sec C) 3,000 ft3/sec

B) 2,000 ft3/sec D) 30,000 ft3/sec

21. In a river system, the velocity of water in the

channel is highest

A) in mountain streams

B) through midland valleys

C) across lowland floodplains

22. Stream valleys are deepened by

A) abrasion C) slumping

B) ablation D) saltation

Use the diagram below with question #23

23. The diagram lower left shows two soil samples A

and B. Both became saturated with water after a

rainstorm. After 10 minutes after the storm the soils

appeared as in the diagram below. Which statement

best explains the observed change in the water content

of the two soil samples?

A) the permeability of B is greater than the

permeability of A

B) the surface runoff of B is greater than the

surface runoff of A

C) the capillarity of B is greater than the

capillarity of A

D) the porosity of B is greater than the

porosity of A

24. The section below represents a forest area of our

state. Which two sections will have the greatest

runoff during a heavy rainfall?

A) A and B C) A and E

B) B and D D) C and E

25. Limestone is eroded in a chemical reaction by

carbon dioxide dissolved in ground water. Water and

carbon dioxide form

A) carbolic acid C) hydrochloric acid

B) carbonic acid D) tannic acid



26. Ocean tides are best described as

A) unpredictable and cyclic

B) unpredictable and noncyclic

C) predictable and cyclic

D) predictable and noncyclic

27. Where is the most deposition likely to occur?

A) on the side of a sand dune facing the wind

B) at the mouth of a river flowing into the ocean

C) at a site where glacial ice scrapes bedrock

D) at the top of a steep slope in a streambed

28. The principal agent for transporting weathered

materials in a desert is

A) wind C) sand

B) water D) heat

29. The diagram below shows the surface features of a

landscape. Which erosional agent had the greatest

effect on tree growth, the fence, and the poles?

A) running water C) prevailing winds

B) moving ice D) mass movement

30. The geologic era in which we are living is the

A) Mesozoic C) Archiozoic

B) Cenozoic D) Paleozoic

31. Exogira, belemnites, and many other shell fish

fossils from the Cretaceous Period are found in New

Jersey from Sandy Hook to Cape May. These fossils

are from the

A) Mesozoic Era C) preCambrian Era

B) Cenozoic Era D) Paleozoic Era

32. Uranium has a radioactive half-life of about 4.5

billion years. The earth is estimated to be about 4.5

billion years old. The oldest rocks found on earth

would have a ratio of uranium atoms to lead atoms of

A) less than 1:8 C) about 1:2

B) about 1:4 D) more than 1:1

33. The graph below represents a radioactive

substance, X and the resulting stable decay product.

Which graph below best represents the amounts of X

and its decay product remaining after 15,000 years?

The dark sections represent decay product produced,

while the light sections represents X remaining.



Use the topographic map below for questions

34 through 38

34. The profile below represents a cross section of the

landscape between which points?

A) A and D C) C and A

B) B and C D) I and H

35. What is the approximate gradient along line BD?

A) 25 m/km C) 100 m/km

B) 50 m/km D) 150 m/km

36. In which section of the map has the highest

elevation?

A) northeast C) southeast

B) northwest D) southwest

37. Which locations have the same elevation?

A) A and C C) C and I

B) B and E D) F and G

38. What direction does Deer River flow?

A) northward out of Wolf Pond

B) northward into Wolf Pond

C) southward out of Wolf Pond

D) southward into Wolf pond

39. Which of the following appears as a straight line

on a azimuthal projection, where the point of contact

is the North Pole?

A) great circles C) parallels

B) the equator D) coastlines

40. The latitude of Trenton, New Jersey is closest to

A) 40oE C) 40oN

B) 40oW D) 40oS

41. At the present time, there is evidence that heat

energy from the sun is increasing. A reasonable

conclusion might be that

A) the sun is the cause of global warming.

B) the sun may be contributing to global

warming.

C) global warming is not related to increased

energy from the sun.



42. The graph below shows changes in the Sun’s

magnetic activity and changes in the number of

sunspots over a period of approximately 100 years.

Sunspots are dark, cooler areas within the Sun’s

photosphere that can be seen from Earth. The graph

indicates that years having the greatest number of

sunspots occur

A) randomly and unpredictably

B) precisely at the beginning of each decade

C) in a cyclic pattern, repeating approximately

every 6 years

D) in a cyclic pattern, repeating approximately

every 11 years

43. What is the eccentricity of the Moon’s orbit?

A) 0.017 C) 0.386

B) 0.055 D) 0.723

44. Which statement best explains why the same side

of the Moon is viewed from Earth as the Moon

goes through its phases?

A) The Moon does not rotate as it revolves

around Earth

B) The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s

period of rotation.

C) The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s

period of revolution around the Sun

D) The Moon’s period of rotation equals the

Moon’s period of revolution around Earth.

The world map below shows a solar eclipse that

occurred on May 20, 1947. There are locations

marked as A, B, C, and D. Use with questions # 45,

46, and 47.

45. Which statement best describes the visibility of

this eclipse from locations in New Jersey?

A) The total eclipse was visible all day

B) A total eclipse was visible from noon until

sunset.

C) A partial eclipse was visible from noon until

sunset.

D) A total or partial eclipse was not visible.

46. At which lettered location would an observer have

viewed this total solar eclipse, if the skies were clear?

A) A C) C

B) B D) D

47. Which diagram below best represents the position

of the Earth, the Sun, and the Moon during the solar

eclipse?



The diagram shows the position of the earth relative to

the sun's rays on a given day. Points A, B, C, and D

are locations on the earth's surface. Use the diagram

with questions 48 and 49.

48. What is the latitude of point A?

A) 90oN C) 15oN

B) 23.5oN D) 0o

49. In which direction would an observer at point D

look in order to see Polaris?

A) East C) North

B) South D) West

50. The planets which have their surfaces completely

hidden beneath clouds are

A) Mercury, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn

B) Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, and Neptune

C) Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune

D) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

51. In orbital position from the sun, Venus is

A) first C) third

B) second D) fourth

52. Astronomers determine the composition of stars

from their

A) light C) magnetic fields

B) gravity D) rate of spin

53. When a star is moving toward us the spectral lines

from its light will be

A) shifted toward the red C) fuzzier

B) shifted toward the blue D) narrower

54. The Local Group is

A) a group of about 30 to 50 galaxies containing

the Milky Way galaxy

B) the local group of population II stars in the

solar neighborhood

C) a large super cluster of galaxies centered in

the Milky Way

D) all stars within 10 pc of the sun.

55. Which type of galaxies make up the majority of

the member of the local group?

A) spiral C) barred spiral

B) elliptical D) irregular

56. Evidence that the universe is expanding is best

provided by the

A) red shift of light from distance galaxies

B) spiral shape of the Milky Way Galaxy

C) parallelism of Earth’s axis in orbit

D) change in the swing direction of a Foucault

pendulum on Earth

57. In 1676, Ole Romer measured the speed of light

(186,000 miles/second) by observing eclipses of the

moons of Jupiter. He found that it took longer for

light to reach the earth when Jupiter was most distant

from earth than when it was closest. About how

much longer did it take?

A) 93 seconds C) 1000 seconds

B) 186 seconds D) 93,000 second

58. Air temperature decreases with altitude. The

adiabatic lapse rate predicts a drop of about 1oC for a

rise in altitude of

A) 3 meters C) 30 meters

B) 10 meters D) 100 meters



59. At the ocean shore during a hot summer day, air

above the

A) water rises and breezes blow toward the land

B) water sinks and breezes blow toward the land

C) water rises and breezes blow off the land

D) land sinks and breezes blow off the land

60. Kansas City has hotter summers than Washington,

D.C. because

A) Kansas City is farther south

B) Kansas City is farther from the ocean

C) Kansas City is at a higher elevation

D) Washington is under the jet stream

61. Which date is the closest to that on which New

Jersey receives maximum insolation?

A) June 21 C) August 21

B) July 10 D) September 22

62. The winds of the Roaring 40's (latitude 40oS)

carried clipper ships around the world. They are

A) southwesterlies C) southeasterlies

B) northwesterlies D) northeasterlies

63. The high altitude jet streams over North America

blow generally from

A) north to south C) east to west

B) south to north D) west to east

64. Puffy clouds that have vertical development are

A) cirrus C) stratus

B) cumulus D) altostratus

65. Dark gray clouds which produce precipitation are

A) cirrus C) stratus

B) cumulus D) nimbus

66. What are the dew point and wind direction shown

in the station model below?

A) 72oF wind from the northeast

B) 72oF wind from the southwest

C) 74oF wind from the northwest

D) 74oF wind from the southwest

The diagram below represents two air masses, with

the one on the left (A) moving over the ground toward

the right. Use the diagram for questions 67 and 68.

67. The weather front shown in the diagram is a

A) warm front C) occluded front

B) cold front D) stationary front

68. The wind direction in air mass B is usually from

the

A) north or west C) south or east

B) west or south D) east or north

69. The distance from Chicago to Trenton is about

800 miles. A cold front attached to a low over

Chicago travelling at 35 mph should reach Trenton in

about how many hours?





The weather map of Florida, below, shows a hurricane

in the Gulf of Mexico. Selected isobars are labeled in

inches of mercury. Use it with questions 70 - 72

70. Using the graph below what was the lowest air

pressure recorded at Miami as the Hurricane passed?

A) 27.30 in. C) 27.75 in.

B) 27.60 in. D) 28.60 in.

71. Which type of air mass would most likely be the

source of the moisture that causes the strong winds

and heavy rain associated with this hurricane?

A) cP C) mP

B) cT D) mT

72. Which map shows the most likely track of this

hurricane?

New Jersey Science League

Earth Science Exam - Answer Key Tan Test

February 14, 2013

Test Specifications






Rocks (2) Moon (2)













1. B

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. B

6. C

7. D

8. A

9. D

10. D

11. C

12. D

13. B

14. B

15. A

16. D

17. C

18. C

19. B

20. D

21. A

22. A

23. A

24. B

25. B

26. C

27. B

28. A

29. D

30. B

31. A

32. D

33. D

34. C

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. D

39. A

40. C

41. B

42. D

43. B

44. D

45. D

46. C

47. B

48. D

49. C

50. C

51. B

52. A

53. B

54. A

55. B

56. A

57. C

58. D

59. B

60. B

61. A

62. B

63. D

64. B

65. D

66. B

67. B

68. C

69. B

70. B

71. D

72. A

Earth Science Exam March 14, 2013 Please PRINT your name, school, area, and which test you are taking onto the scan-tron. Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below and fill in the appropriate response on the form. If you change an answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. Reference tables are located at the end of the test. A ruler is also on the reference sheets. 1. The mica minerals are silicates that cleave in thin layers and show a single direction of cleavage. The silicate groups in the crystal structure are linked together to form A) rings C) two dimensional sheets B) chains D) three dimensional frameworks 2. Which of the following minerals is a common ore for zinc? A) pyrite C) sphalerite B) hematite D) galena 3. Which mineral is most frequently found in both granitic continental crust and basaltic oceanic crust? A) olivine C) potassium feldspar B) quartz D) plagioclase feldspar 4. The mineral fragment shown to the right displays how many directions of cleavage? A) none C) three B) two D) six 5. The mineral from question #4 is white, scratches calcite with difficulty and is scratched by calcite with difficulty. From the table above, the mineral must be A) calcite C) borax B) fluorite D) chabazite 6. Which mineral precipitates from oceans and forms rock salt? A) quartz C) olivine B) fluorite D) halite 7. The process that rocks undergo when they are subjected to high pressures or temperatures that are below its melting point is A) saltation C) lithification B) metamorphism D) diastrophism 8. In the diagram of the rock cycle on the right, the process of weathering is represented by A) 2, only C) 2 and 7, only B) 7, only D) 2, 7, and 8 9. Ecosystems based on energy from oxidation with sulfur instead of oxygen are found around hot-spring vents in A) subduction zones C) oceanic trenches B) oceanic rift zones D) plate collision zones 10. Iceland is a portion of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge which extends above the surface of the ocean. Volcanoes on Iceland result from a A) rift zone C) subduction zone B) hot spot D) laccolith 11. Pangea existed about how many million years ago? A) 60 C) 500 B) 180 D) 2,300

NJSL Earth Science Exam Mar 2013 Page 1

12. What appears to be happening to the crosshatched region of eastern Africa? A) The region is moving northward relative to the rest of Africa. B) The region is moving eastward relative to the rest of Africa C. Several volcanic mountains are forming as the rest of Africa subducts under this region. D) A folded mountain range is forming as this region collides with the rest of Africa. 13. Which diagram best represents the polarity of the magnetic field preserved in the ocean-floor bedrock found on both sides of the Mid-Indian Ridge? 14. The cliff, or scarp, shown to the right was created by A) wave action C) a meandering river B) an earthquake D) differential erosion 15. A crack or break in the earth's crust along which movement of the two surfaces has taken place is known as A) an earthquake C) a fault B) a fissure D) cleavage 16. When the rock on a fault is displaced vertically and the head wall (hanging wall) moves down during an earthquake, the fault is a A) normal fault C) thrust fault B) reverse fault D) strike-slip fault 17. Folding of rock is caused by compression when two crustal plates push against each other at A) rift zones C) transform faults B) normal faults D) subduction zones 18. If a sheet or band of basalt cuts through several beds of sedimentary rock, the sheet or band of basalt is A) a dike C) a sill B) a laccolith D) a batholith


19. Most of the world's major deserts are located about 30o north or south latitude. They lie beneath the A) equatorial low pressure belt B) temperate low pressure belt

C) subtropical high pressure belt D) sub polar high pressure belt

The diagram below represents the landscape features associated with a meandering river. Letter W, X, Y, and Z are locations in the floodplain associated with the river. Use these diagrams with questions 20, 21, 22

20. The diagrams below represent stages in the formation of the meandering river. Which sequence of letters best represents the usual changes over time in the river?

A) A → B → C C) C → A → B B) A → C →B D) C → B →A 21. Of the lettered locations on the meandering river diagram which has the greatest erosion? A) W C) X B) Y D) Z 22. The natural levees are ridges of sediment that slope away from the riverbank toward the floodplain. Which process most likely formed these levees? A) weathering of the soil on the riverbanks B) erosion on the inside curves of the meanders C) deposition by the Yazoo stream D) deposition when the river overflowed its banks.


23. Tubes A and B below are filled with equal volumes of round plastic beads of uniform size. Beads in A are smaller than in B. Water was placed in A until all of the pore spaces were filled. The drain valve was then opened and the amount of time for the water to drain from the tube was recorded. The amount of water that remained around the beads was then calculated and recorded. Data Table Tube A Water required to fill pore

spaces 124 ml

Time required for draining 2.1 sec Water remaining around the beads after draining

36 ml

If the same procedure was followed for tube B, then which data below shows the measurements that most likely would be recorded for tube B?

24. Which characteristics of a particle would usually result in the longest settling time for the particle in calm water? A) low density and round shape C) high density and round shape B) low density and flat shape D) high density and flat shape. 25. Which graph shows the effect of soil permeability on the amount of runoff in an area?

26. The direct cause in the formation of barrier beach islands, such as Long Beach Island and Fire Island, by the transport of sand along a coast line is A) wave action at a 90o angle to the beach B) wave action at some angle other than 90o to the beach C) ocean currents parallel to the beach D) fresh water currents from rivers


27. When sand transported along a coast line encounters a shallow bay, it usually forms a A) beach C) tombolo B) barrier island D) bar 28. A sediment that is always formed by the weathering of shale is A) sand C) obsidian B) clay D) tuff 29. Considering the rock cycle, which kind(s) of rock can be the source of deposited sediments? A) igneous and metamorphic rocks, only B) metamorphic and sedimentary rocks, only C) sedimentary rocks, only D) igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks. 30. From most general to most specific, in order, geologic time intervals are A) eras, epochs, periods B) periods, eras, epochs

C) eras, periods, epochs D) epochs, periods, eras

31. A large numbers of dinosaur foot prints have been found in a quarry in Bergen County. These early dinosaur prints were made by animals that lived during the A) Mesozoic Era C) preCambrian Era B) Cenozoic Era D) Paleozoic Era 32. Which of the following may preserve ancient remains of plants and animals? A) foliated schist C) granitic intrusion B) volcanic ash D) folded gneiss 33. For bedded rock formations, unless they have been overturned, the youngest is always A) on the bottom C) near the bottom B) on the top D) near the top 34. A fossilized species of graptolite was found in an outcrop of black shale near Schenectady, New York. Referring to the table below, which of the following might be an appropriate age for the rock formation? Geologic time scale in the reference tables. A) 294 million years C) 417 million years B) 339 million years D) 482 million years


Use the map above with questions 35, 36, 37, 38 35. The contour interval of the topographic map above is A) 2 feet C) 20 feet B) 10 feet D) 100 feet 36. The elevation of Cripple Creek at the lower left edge of the map above is about A) 1100 feet C) 1140 feet B) l200 feet D) 1260 feet 37. At the bottom of the map is a road to a mining camp(lower right side of map). What is the length of the road to the mining camp is about A) 3 miles C) 5.5 miles B) 4.5 miles D) 6 miles 38. What direction is Cripple Creek flowing? A) south C) northeast B) east D) southwest 39. The best map projection for showing great circle routes from one point on the earth to another is a A) cylindrical projection C) conic projection B) polar projection D) polyconic projection 40. How are longitude and latitude lines shown on a globe of the earth? A) Longitude lines are in parallel planes and latitude lines meet at the equator. B) Latitude lines are in parallel planes and longitude lines meet at the equator. C) Longitude lines are in parallel planes and latitude lines meet at the poles. D) Latitude lines are in parallel planes and longitude lines meet at the poles 41. In which direction on the horizon does the Sun appear to rise on July 10 in New Jersey? A) due North C) north of due east B) due South D) south of due east


42. The apparent daily movement of the Sun across the sky is caused by A) Earth’s rotation on its axis B) Earth’s revolution around the Sun C) The Sun’s revolution around the Earth D) The Sun’s rotation during a 24 hour period 43. The Maria, or "seas", on the moon are the large areas which appear to be dark. The material of which they are composed is A) frozen water C) granite B) liquid water D) basalt 44. Which of the following is a true statement? A) The back of the moon always faces the sun. B) The back of the new moon faces the earth. C) The back of the moon never faces the sun. D) The back of the moon never faces the earth. Use the calendar for the phases of the moon with questions 45 and 46.

45. The diagram below represents a phase of the Moon seen from New Jersey. Using the calendar what was the date of this phase of the Moon? A) July 4 C) July 19 B) July 11 D) July 26 46. On which date will the next first-quarter Moon phase occur? A) August 6 C) August 16 B) August 10 D) August 22 47. The usual number of low tides which occur each day at any given place at the ocean shore is A) one C) three B) two D) four


48. In the diagram above are lettered positions, A, B, C, and D of the Earth and Moon revolving around the Sun. What two positions would results in neap tides on Earth? A) A and C C) C and B B) B and D D) D and 49. In orbital position from the sun, the earth is A) first C) third B) second D) farther than third 50. The orbits of the eight planets are A) nearly circular B) steeply inclined to the sun

C) steeply inclined to each other D) nearly in the same plane

51. Why do planets in our solar system have layered internal structure? A) All planets cooled rapidly after being formed B) The Sun’s gravitational force creates the layered structure. C) Cosmic dust settles in layers on the planet’s surfaces. D) Each planet is composed of materials of different densities. 52. The faster a star moves away from us, the more the wavelengths of its light are A) stretched out C) blue shifted B) compressed D) down shifted 53. You observe a star that is just above the eastern horizon. During the next hour the star will appear to A) set below the horizon B) rise another 15o above the horizon

C) rise 90o to your meridian D) remain in the same position.

54. Barnard’s star is about 6 light years away from Earth. How is Barnard’s star’s energy transferred to Earth? A) red shift C) density currents B) conduction D) electromagnetic waves


55. What is the shape of the Milky Way galaxy? A) spiral C) barred spiral B) elliptical D) irregular 56. Most astronomers estimate the age of the Universe to be closest to A) 4,600 years C) 4.6 billion years B) 360 million years D) 13.5 billion years 57. With increasing altitude, the temperature in the troposphere A) increases B) decreases

C) remains constant

58. The primary process of energy transfer by which the Earth loses energy to outer space is A) transpiration C) convection B) conduction D) radiation 59. Air flowing down a mountain side (sometimes known as a Chinook or a Santa Ana) will produce A) a warm, drying wind C) a cool, drying wind B) a warm, moist wind D) a cool, moist wind 60. Which instrument is used to measure wind speed at a weather station? A) Barometer B) Thermometer

C) psychrometer D) anemometer

61. On a hot day in July, the temperature is 90oF, the barometric pressure is 30.12 inches of mercury, and the relative humidity is 95%. The temperature feels like, and heat index for the day, is (use reference tables at end of test) A) 122 C) 132 B) 127 D) 137 62. Which factor has the greatest influence on the number of daylight hours a particular surface on Earth receives? A) longitude C) diameter of the Earth B) latitude D) distance from the Sun 63. Which of the graphs below, best represents the change in atmospheric pressure due to a change in elevation? 64. Planetary winds and ocean currents are deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere. This phenomenon is known as: A) seasonal changes C) the Doppler effect B) Plate tectonics D) the Coriolis effect \


65. Fair weather clouds are usually A) cirrus C) stratus B) nimbus D) cumulus 66. Use the weather map below. Surface winds within this low-pressure system most likely are flowing A) toward the center in a clockwise pattern B) toward the center in a counterclockwise pattern C) away from the center in a clockwise pattern D) away from the center in a counterclockwise pattern 67. Which geographic region are air masses most often warm with high moisture content? A) Central Canada C) North Pacific Ocean B) Gulf of Mexico D) Central Arizona 68. A student reads the dry bulb of a sling psychrometer as 28oC and the wet bulb as 21oC. The relative humidity is closest to (relative humidity charts found in reference tables) A) 7% C) 49% B) 21% D) 53% 69. Use the weather map below. What type of weather front is located southeast of Dallas? A) cold front C) occluded front B) warm front D) stationary front


The weather map below shows high (H) and low (L) pressure centers and weather fronts over the United States. The thin white lines are isobars. Use the map with questions 70-72. 70. The southeastern states are probably experiencing A) fair weather C) stormy weather B) heavy rain D) a hurricane 71. The three Low pressure centers in the Great Planes will most likely move towards the A) south C) northwest B) east D) southeast 72. A good forecast for the weather in New Jersey for the next six to twelve hours would be. A) fair and warmer B) fair and colder

C) warmer with precipitation D) colder with precipitation

New Jersey Science League TAN TEST Earth Science Exam - Answer Key

March 14, 2013

1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. A 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. C 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. D 46. A 47. B 48. B 49. C 50. D 51. D 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. D 57. B 58. D 59. A 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. D 65. D 66. B 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. B


Earth Science Exam April 11, 2013

Please PRINT your name, school, area, and which test you are taking onto the scan-tron. Choose the answer that best completes the statements or questions below and fill in the appropriate response on the form. If you change an answer, be sure to completely erase your first choice. Reference tables are located at the end of the test. A ruler is also on the reference sheets. 1. You have a mineral specimen that has a yellow color and a metallic luster. Weighing it. you find its mass is 50.5g. Displacement of water shows its volume is 12cm3. Using the density table what is the name of the mineral? A) Arsenopyrite C) Chalcopyrite B) Gold D) Pyrite 2. Refer to Moh’s mineral hardness scale at the end of the test. Which statement is best supported by the scale? A) A fingernail will scratch calcite, but not quartz. B) A fingernail will scratch quartz, but not calcite C) A piece of glass can be scratched by quartz, but not by calcite. D) A piece of glass can be scratched by calcite, but not by quartz. 3. The hardness of minerals is most closely related to the A) mineral’s color B) mineral’s abundance in nature C) the iron content of the minerals D) internal arrangement of the atoms in the mineral. 4. The Watchung Mountains in New Jersey are old lava flows. The predominant type of rock, therefore, is most likely to be which of the following A) granite C) gneiss B) basalt D) gabbro Use the Rock Cycle diagram to answer questions #5 and 6. 5. In the diagram of the Rock Cycle, which number represents the process of melting? A) 1 C) 5 B) 2 D) 6 6. In the diagram of the Rock Cycle, the process of metamorphism is shown by A) 4, only C) 4 and 5, only B) 5, only D) 4 and 6, only

NJSL Earth Science Exam April 2013 Page 1

The diagram shows columns of rock to a depth of 50km below sea level at three different positions. Use it with questions 7 & 8. 7. In which group are the layers of the Earth arranged in order of increasing average density? A) mantle, crust, ocean water B) crust, mantle, ocean water C) ocean water, mantle, crust D) ocean water, crust, mantle 8. The division of the Earth's interior into crust and mantle, as shown in the diagram above, is based primarily on the study of A) radioactive dating B) seismic waves

C) volcanic eruptions D) gravity measurements

9. Which material is most likely to be found 7km below sea level at an ocean location? A) basalt C) shale B) granite D) limestone 10. The feature produced when two crustal plates carrying continents on the converging edges collide is a A) mountain range C) mid-oceanic ridge B) trench D) island arc 11. Crustal plates separate and new crust is produced at A) continental mountain ranges B) oceanic trenches

C) mid-oceanic ridges D) island arcs

12. The direction and distance that oceanic plates have moved over millions of years can be inferred from chains of volcanic islands that result from plate movement over A) subduction zones C) rift valleys B) hot spots D) midoceanic ridges 13. Use the map, below, with question #13 The island of Hawaii has active volcanoes on it and is still being built. Kauai is about 5 million years old. Which of the following is true? A) The Pacific Plate is moving NW at about 4 inches/year B) The Pacific Plate is moving SW at about 4 inches/year C) The Pacific Plate is moving NW but the rate cannot be determined. D) Neither the rate nor the direction of motion can be determined from the information given.


14. The supercontinent which existed when all the present continents were last joined is known as A) Gondwanaland C) Laurasia B) Eurasia D) Pangaea 15. The Tuomoto Islands in the South Pacific Ocean are two parallel chains of coral atolls. Most likely, the two chains are each side of A) a subduction zone B) a line of hot spots C) an oceanic ridge D) a transform fault 16. Movement on the San Andreas fault is horizontal, with little or no vertical motion. Thus, the San Andreas is a A) normal fault C) thrust fault B) strike-slip fault D) reverse fault 17. The distance to an earthquake from a seismographic station can be determined because A) S and P waves travel at different speeds B) L waves lose intensity over distance C) S waves do not travel through the center of the earth D) P waves are refracted by the earth. 18. The magnitude of an earthquake is often measured on the Richter Scale. An earthquake having a magnitude of 7.6 produces more ground motion than one with a magnitude of 6.6 by a factor of A) 1 C) 30 B) 10 D) 100 19. An earth quake has occurred in the western part of the US. Locations W, X, Y, and Z are marked on the map. Which one of the lettered locations on the map represents the epicenter of the earthquake? A) W C) Y B) X D) Z 20. Which process could directly lead to the formation of pumice rock? A) precipitation of minerals from evaporating seawater. B) metamorphism of unmelted rock material C) deposition of quartz sand D) explosive eruption of lava from a volcano


21. Shield volcanoes, such as those of the Hawaiian Islands, produce a free flowing fluid type of lava. The rock that results is A) andesite C) rhyolite B) basalt D) dacite 22. Which one of the following is not a common gas in magma? A) sulfur dioxide B) carbon dioxide C) water vapor D) methane 23. Use the world map for the following question. Note the places marked with letters on the map. On the map which lettered locations are considered part of the “ring of fire?” A) A, B, and C B) D, E, and F C) G, H, And F D) D and E 24. The diagram shows a number of features carved out of rock by alpine glaciers. In the diagram below which letter represents the arete? A) U B) X C) Y D) Z 25. The loose, unsorted material deposited by a glacier is called A) detritus C) till B) talus D) breccia 26. A good example in the United States of mountains shaped by mountain glaciers are the A) Grand Teton Mts. in Wyoming B) Appalachian Mts. C) Adirondack Mts. in New York D) Blue Ridge Mts. in Virginia


The map of the United States shows the watershed of the Mississippi River. The dark line shows the watershed boundary. Use it with questions # 27, 28, 29. 27. At which lettered location would the Mississippi River’s discharge most likely be the greatest? A) A C) C B) B D) D 28. Sediments deposited by the river at location B are best described as A) sorted and layered B) sorted and not layered C) unsorted and layered D) unsorted and not layered 29. Which landform is produced at location E where the Mississippi River enters the Gulf of Mexico? A) a delta C) an escarpment B) a drumlin D) an outwash plain 30. Below is a diagram of a portion of the Earth’s surface. Which drainage pattern is most likely present? 31. A stream is transporting particles W, X, Y, and Z. Which particle will most likely settle to the bottom first as the velocity of the stream decreases? A) W C) Y B) X D) Z


32. About what % of the water on Earth is fresh liquid water? A) 1% C) 3% B) 2% D) 97% Below are three containers labeled A, B, and C. They were filled with equal volumes of uniformly sorted plastic beads. Water was poured into each container to determine porosity and infiltration time. Infiltration is the rate of soaking into the ground. The beakers and beads are not drawn to scale.

33. Which data table represents the porosity and infiltration time of the beads in the three containers? Data Table A. Data Table C Beaker and

Beads Porosity (%) Infiltration

time (sec) Beaker and Beads Porosity

(%) Infiltration time (sec)

A 40 5.2 A 20 5.2 B 40 2.8 B 30 2.8 C 40 0.4 C 40 0.4

Date Table B Date Table D Beaker and

Beads Porosity (%) Infiltration

time (sec) Beaker and Beads Porosity

(%) Infiltration time (sec)

A 40 0.4 A 20 0.4 B 40 2.8 B 30 2.8 C 40 5.2 C 40 5.2

34. The refraction (bending) of waves around the end of a sand spit usually results in the formation of a A) hook C) bar B) barrier beach D) tombolo 35. The movement of water along an ocean beach is called the long-shore drift and is caused by A) waves striking the beach at a 90o angle B) waves striking the beach at an angle other than 90o C) ocean currents parallel to the beach D) salt and fresh water density currents 36. A current, dangerous to swimmers, that flows seaward from an ocean beach is A) an undertow C) a rip B) an eddy D) a drift 37. Sand often results from the weathering of A) marble C) slate B) granite D) clay 38. The wearing away of rocks by solid particles carried by wind, water, and other forces is called A) exfoliation C) oxidation B) abrasion D) leaching 39. The Era known as the "Age of Reptiles" is the A) pr-Cambrian C) Mesozoic B) Paleozoic D) Cenozoic


40. The time line below represents the entire geologic history of the Earth. Which lettered position represents the first appearance of humans? A) A B) B C) C D) D

41. A good index (or guide) fossil for use in identifying the sequence or age of rock formations has the following characteristics: A) lived for a short period of time over a small area. B) lived for a long period of time over a small area. C) lived for a short period of time over a wide area. D) lived for a long period of time over a wide area. 42. The epoch when the last ice sheet advanced into New Jersey is known as the A) Pliocene C) Permian B) Paleozoic D) Pleistocene 43. Fossil bones of hyracotherium, the first horse, were found in the South Dakota Badlands. This indicates that the Miocene sediments of the Badlands were deposited in the A) Mesozoic Era C) Paleozoic Era B) Cenozoic Era D) Archeozoic Era The topographic map is of Mount Rainier in Washington State. Use it with question # 44 44. What is the contour interval on the map? A) 20 ft C) 100 ft B) 40 ft D) 200 ft


Use the map below for questions 45 to 47. Points A, B, C, and D are locations on the map.

The top of Patty Hill is marked with a dot in the middle of a triangle. 45. What is the approximate elevation of the top of Patty Hill? A) 160 ft C) 180 ft B) Less than 160 ft D) more than 160 ft but less than 180 ft. 46. A student placed a block of wood at point A. 15 minutes later it arrived at point B. What is the approximate speed of the river in miles per hour? A) 0.1 miles/hour C) 10 miles/hour B) 6 miles/hour D) 12 miles/hour 47. Relief is the difference in elevation between two points on a topographical map. What is the relief from point C to D? A) 20 ft C) 60 ft B) 40 ft D) 80 ft 48. Measuring the angular height of the star, Polaris, above the horizon will tell you your location's A) longitude C) right ascension B) latitude D) declination 49. The model shows the Earth’s latitude and longitude system. Points A and B are marked on the model. On Earth the solar time difference between points A and B is A) 1 hour C) 10 hours B) 5 hours D) 24 hours


50 .The grid below represents the part of the Earth’s latitude and longitude system. What is the latitude and longitude of point L? A) 5o E 30o N C) 5o N 30o E B) 5o W 30o S D) 5o S 30o W 51. Which of the following DOES NOT travel at 186,000 miles per second (the speed of light)? A) Microwaves in your microwave oven B) Radio waves from your local radio C) The solar wind streaming from the sun D) light from a fluorescent light bulb Use the graph, below, with questions # 52 and 53.

52. According to the graph the number of hours of daylight on September 1 was about A) 7 C) 12 B) 8 D) 14 53. At which location could the observations from which the graph was constructed be made? A) mid-latitude in the Southern Hemisphere B) mid-latitude in the Northern Hemisphere C) the equator D) the north pole 54. The large craters, such as Copernicus, on the moon were produced by A) impact of meteors C) collapse of calderas B) volcanic eruptions D) collapse of sinks 55. The ratio of the diameter of the Moon to the diameter of the Earth is about (ratio is moon to Earth) A) 1:1 C) 1:3 B) 1:2 D) 1:4 56. If the distance between the Moon and Earth were double its present distance, the Moon’s cycle of phases would occur A) in reverse order and more slowly B) in reverse order and more quickly C) in the same order but more slowly D) in the same order but more quickly 57. An eclipse of the sun can occur only when the moon is A) full C) gibbous B) crescent D) new


58. We have summer in New Jersey when the A) earth is closest to the sun B) south pole is tilted toward the sun C) north pole is tilted toward the sun D) sun is hottest 59. Mercury has almost no atmosphere mostly because it is A) too hot C) too small B) too close to the sun D) too large 60. The asteroid belt is located between the orbits of A) Mars and Jupiter C) Jupiter and Saturn B) Earth and Mars D) Earth and Venus 61. In the diagrams below the mass of the star is constant. Rank order from lowest to highest the force of gravity between the planet and the star.

A) C< D < A < B C) B < A < C < D B) C < A < B < D D) B < A < D < D 62. The color of a star is used to determine the approximate surface temperature. Which color below would have the hottest surface temperature? A) Blue C) Yellow B) white D) Red-orange 63. The map shows mean annual temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit. Which climatic factor is most important in determining the pattern shown in the eastern half of the United States? A) ocean currents B) mountain barriers C) elevation above sea level D) latitude


64. The graph shows the average temperatures for cities A and B for one year. Where are these two cities most likely located? A) Both cities are in the Northern Hemisphere with city A inland and B on the coast B) Both are in the Southern Hemisphere with city A inland and B on the coast. C) Both are in the Northern Hemisphere with city A on the coast and B inland D) Both are in the Southern Hemisphere with city A on the coast and B inland. 65. The prevailing winds in the latitudes of the United States are from the A) northeast C) northwest B) southeast D) southwest 66. In the diagram of a mountain below, locations a and b are at the same elevation. Compared to the climate at a, the climate at b will be A) warmer and drier C) warmer and wetter B) cooler and drier D) cooler and wetter 67. Below is an incomplete flowchart showing some of the changes that occur in warm air as it rises to form a cloud. Which statement should be placed into the empty box to complete the flow chart?

A) The air warms as it expands B) The air cools until it reaches the dew point. C) The air’s relative humidity decreases to zero D) The warm air enters the thermosphere. 68. The average speed of a cold front moving over the surface is about 35 mph. If a cold front is sweeping eastward and is located over Chicago, it should reach New Jersey (700 miles to the east) in about A) 18 hours C) 24 hours B) 20 hours D) 32 hours


The weather map below shows a low pressure system over the eastern United States. Letters A,B,C,D are weather stations. Use the weather map below for questions 69, 70, 71, and 72

69. Which weather instrument was used to measure the wind speed at station D? A) barometer C) psychrometer B) thermometer D) anemometer 70. Of the lettered locations on the map where are the strongest winds? A) A C) C B) B D) D 71. What type of front extends southward from the center of the low? A) occluded C) warm B) stationary D) cold 72. The Great Lakes are dominated by what type of air mass? A) polar maritime C) tropical maritime B) polar continental D) tropical continental


New Jersey Science League TAN TEST

Earth Science Exam - Answer Key

April 2013

Test Specifications






Rocks (2) Moon (2)













1. C

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. D

8. B

9. A

10. A

11. C

12. B

13. A

14. D

15. C

16. B

17. A

18. B

19. C

20. D

21. B

22. D

23. A

24. A

25. C

26. A

27. D

28. D

29. A

30. B

31. B

32. A

33. A

34. A

35. B

36. C

37. B

38. B

39. C

40. D

41. C

42. D

43. B

44. B

45. D

46. B

47. B

48. B

49. B

50. D

51. C

52. D

53. B

54. A

55. D

56. C

57. D

58. C

59. C

60. A

61. A

62. A

63. D

64. C

65. D

66. A

67. B

68. B

69. D

70. A

71. D

72. B

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