MockTime.com

NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by (a) de Vries (b) Carlous Linnaeus (c) Huxley (d) John Ray 2. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for (a) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution (b) reproduction (c) growth and movement (d) responsiveness to touch. 3. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is (a) sexual cycle (b) pre-erythrocytic schizogony (c) exoerythrocytic schizogony (d) post-erythrocytic schizogony 4. The chemical compounds produced by the host plants to protect themselves against fungal infection is (a) phytotoxin (b) pathogen (c) phytoalexins (d) hormone 5. Interferons are synthesized in response to (a) Mycoplasma (b) Bacteria (c) Viruses (d) Fungi 6. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between RNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis? (a) Neomycin

(b) Streptomycin (c) Tetracycline (d) Erythromycin 7. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong? (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses (B) Salvinia is heterosporous (C) The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic (D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees (a) Statements (A) and (C) (b) Statements (A) and (D) (c) Statements (B) and (C) (d) Statements (A) and (B) 8. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits belongs to (a) Pteridophytes (b) Mosses (c) Ferns (d) Gymnosperms 9. Ulothrix can be described as a (a) non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores (b) filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive stages (c) membranous alga producing zoospores (d) filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages 10. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets? (a) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla (b) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis (c) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas (d) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra 11. Association between Sucker Fish (Remora) and Shark is (a) Commensalism (b) Symbiosis (c) Predation (d) Parasitism 12. Earthworm possesses hearts (a) 6 pairs (b) 4 pairs (c) 2 pairs (d) 1 13. Budding is a normal mode of asexual reproduction in

MockTime.com

(a) starfish and Hydra (b) hydra and sponges (c) tapeworm and Hydra (d) sponge and starfish 14. What is common between Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi? (a) Sexual dimorphism (b) Hibernation (c) Anaerobic respiration (d) Metamerism 15. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? (a) Aschelminthes (round worms) (b) Ctenophores (c) Sponges (d) Coelenterates (Cnidarians) 16. Tegmen develops from (a) funiculus (b) chalaza (c) inner integument (d) outer integument 17. Match the following and indicate which is correct (a) Cucurbitaceae – Orange (b) Malvaceae – Cotton (c) Brassicaceae – Wheat (d) Leguminosae – Sunflower 18. Cymose inflorescence is present in: (a) Solanum (b) Sesbania (c) Trifolium (d) Brassica 19. What is true about a monocot leaf (a) Reticulate venation (b) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis (c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and spongy tissues (d) Well differentiated mesophyll

20. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the (a) pollen tube of Pinus (b) cytoplasm of Chlorella (c) mycelium of a green mould such as Aspergillus (d) spore capsule of a moss 21. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in: (a) Sunflower (b) Maize (c) Cycas (d) Pinus 22. Which cells do not form layer and remain structurally separate? (a) Epithelial cells (b) Muscle cells (c) Nerve cells (d) Gland cells 23. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of (a) ligament (b) areolar tissue (c) bone (d) cartilage 24. Which is correct about cell theory in view of current status of our knowledge about cell structure (a) It needs modification due to discovery of subcellular structures like chloroplasts and mitochondria (b) Modified cell theory means that all living beings are composed of cells capable of reproducing (c) Cell theory does not hold good because all living beings (e.g., viruses) do not have cellular organisation (d) Cell theory means that all living objects consist of cells whether or not capable of reproducing 25. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in (a) type of movement and placement in cell (b) location in cell and mode of functioning (c) microtubular organization and type of movement (d) microtubular organization and function 26. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system? (a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome (c) Vacuole

MockTime.com

(d) Lysosome 27. The four elements making 99% of living system are (a) CHOS (b) CHOP (c) CHON (d) CNOP 28. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are (a) hydrophilic (b) hydrophobic (c) neutral (d) zwitter ions 29. Meiosis II performs (a) separation of sex chromosomes (b) synthesis of DNA and centromere (c) separation of homologous chromosomes (d) separation of chromatids 30. During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at (a) Centromere (b) Kinetochore (c) Both centromere and kinetochore (d) Centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining centromere 31. The water potential and osmotic potential of pure water are (a) zero and zero (b) 100 and 100 (c) zero and 100 (d) 100 and zero 32. A pair of insectivorous plants is (a) Drosera and Rafflesia (b) Nepenthes and Bladderwort (c) Dionaea and Viscum (d) Venus fly trap and Rafflesia 33. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (a) Passive transport of nutrients - ATP (b) Apoplast - Plasmodesmata (c) Potassium - Readily immobilisation (d) Bakane of rice seedlings - F. Skoog 34. The carbon dioxide acceptor in Calvin cycle/ C3-plants is (a) Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP)

(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP) (c) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) (d) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP) 35. Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll? (a) Manganese (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium 36. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in (a) HMP (b) Calvin Cycle (c) glycolysis (d) EMP 37. Site of respiration in bacteria is (a) episome (b) ribosome (c) mesosome (d) microsome 38. Which of the following hormones can replace vernalisation? (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Gibberellins (d) Ethylene 39. The response of different organisms to environmental rhythms of light and darkness is called (a) phototaxis (b) photoperiodism (c) phototropism (d) vernalization. 40. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins? (a) Zeatin (b) Ethylene (c) ABA (d) IAA 41. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a vitamin and the deficiency disease related with it? (a) Riboflavin — beri beri (b) Thiamine — xerophthalmia (c) Niacin — pellagra (d) Calciferol — scurvy

MockTime.com

42. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface: (a) pinocytic vesicles (b) microvilli (c) zymogen granules (d) phagocytic vesicles 43. The quantity 1500 ml in the respiratory volumes of a normal human adult refers to (a) maximum air that can be breathed in and breathed out (b) residual volume (c) expiratory reserve volume (d) total lung capacity 44. Carbonic anhydrase occurs in (a) Lymphocytes (b) Blood plasma (c) RBC (d) Leucocytes 45. Systemic heart refers to (a) the two ventricles together in humans (b) the heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system (c) left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates (d) entire heart in lower vertebrates 46. Which one of the following human organs is often called the graveyard of RBCs? (a) Gall bladder (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Liver 47. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys (a) certain types of bacteria (b) all viruses (c) most virus-infected cells (d) certain fungi 48. Ligament is a (a) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue (b) inelastic white fibrous tissue (c) modified white fibrous tissue (d) none of these 49. Retina is most sensitive at (a) optic disc (b) periphery (c) macula lutea

(d) fovea centralis 50. Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina? Rod Cells Cone Cells (a) Visual: High Low acuity (b) Visual: Iodopsin Rhodpsin pigment contained (c) Overall: Vision in Colour function poor light vision and detailed vision in bright light (d) Distribu- More conc- Evenly tion: entrated in distributed retina all over 51. Which one of the following hormone stimulates the “let-down” (release) of milk from the mother’s breasts when the baby is sucking? (a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin (c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin 52. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action? (a) Calcium (b) Sodium (c) cAMP (d) cGMP 53. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by (a) obliteration of blastocoel (b) obliteration of archenteron (c) closure of blastopore (d) closure of neural tube 54. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in anther cultures? (a) Anther wall (b) Tapetal layer of anther wall (c) Connective tissue (d) Young pollen grains 55. The endosperm of gymnosperm is (a) triploid (b) haploid (c) diploid (d) polyploid 56. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place. (b) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell. (c) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.

MockTime.com

(d) Intine is made up of cellulose and - pectin. 57. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation? (a) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost (b) The menstrual fluid can easily clot (c) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones (d) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche 58. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It: (a) secretes estrogen (b) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo. (c) secretes oxytocin during parturition (d) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embyo 59. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour blind. The probability of their daughter becoming colour blind is (a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75% 60. Sex is determined in human beings (a) by ovum (b) at time of fertilization (c) 40 days after fertilization (d) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in foetus 61. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from (a) Down's syndrome (b) Klinefelter's syndrome (c) Turner's syndrome (d) Gynandromorphism 62. A and B genes are linked what shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab? (a) AAbb and aabb (b) AaBb and aabb (c) AABB and aabb (d) None of these 63. The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larvae, are useful in gene mapping because: (a) these are fused

(b) these are much longer in size (c) these are easy to stain (d) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes. 64. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example? (a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds. (b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper (c) XO condition in human as found in Turner syndrome, determines female sex. (d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila. 65. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most probably be (a) single stranded (b) double stranded (c) triple stranded (d) four stranded 66. What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous point mutations? (a) Adenine (b) 5-bromouracil (c) 5-methylcytosine (d) Guanine 67. Genetic map is one that (a) shows the distribution of various species in a region (b) establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome (c) establishes the various stages in gene evolution (d) show the stages during the cell division 68. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a–d) given below about lac operon. (i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it (ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region (iii) The z-gene codes for permease (iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod The correct statements are: (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) 69. Theory of Natural selection dwells on 1993 (a) role of environment in evolution (b) natural selection acting on favourable variations

MockTime.com

(c) changes in gene complex resulting in heritable variations (d) none of these 70. Homo sapiens evolved during (a) Pleistocene (b) Oligocene (c) Pliocene (d) Miocene 71. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth (a) Methane (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour 72. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic origin of life? (a) They were able to reproduce (b) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings (c) They were partially isolated from the surroundings (d) They could maintain an internal environment 73. In which one of the following pairs of diseases both are caused by viruses? (a) Tetanus and typhoid (b) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness (c) Syphilis and AIDS (d) Measles and rabies 74. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as (a) innate non-specific immunity (b) active immunity (c) passive immunity (d) cellular immunity 75. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body? (a) Epithelium of urogenital tract (b) Tears (c) Monocytes (d) Skin

76. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism by utilizing some features of its biology or physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as (a) competition (b) predation (c) biological control (d) physiological control 77. The world’s highly prized wool yielding 'Pashmina' breed is (a) goat (b) sheep (c) goat-sheep cross (d) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross 78. In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called: (a) cross-hybridisation among the selected parents. (b) evaluation and selection of parents. (c) germplasm collection (d) selection of superior recombinants. 79. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group. (a) Fungi (b) Animalia (c) Monera (d) Plantae 80. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using (a) Restriction enzymes (b) Cloning vectors (c) DNA probes (d) Gene targets 81. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to (a) Remove proteins such as histones (b) Precipitate DNA (c) Break open the cell to release DNA (d) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes 82. Which of the following communities is more vulnerable to invasion by outside animals and plants? (a) Tropical evergreen forests (b) Oceanic island communities (c) Mangroves (d) Temperate forests.

MockTime.com

83. The age pyramid with broad base indicates (a) High percentage of young individuals (b) High percentage of old individuals (c) Low percentage of young individuals (d) A stable population 84. Warm ocean surge of the Peru Current reoccurring every 5-8 years or so in the East Pacific of South America is widely known as (a) Gulf Stream (b) El Nino (c) Aye Aye (d) Magnox 85. Identify the possible link “A” in the following food chain: Plant insect - frog “A” Eagle (a) Rabbit (b) WoIf (c) Cobra (d) Parrot 86. Which of the following is the correct matching pair of a sanctuary and its main protected wild animal? (a) Gir-Lion (b) Sariska-Tiger (c) Sunderban- Rhino (d) Kaziranga-Musk deer 87. Which one of the following is an example of Exsitu conservation? (a) Wildlife sanctuary (b) Seed bank (c) Sacred groves (d) National park 88. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its B.O.D, will (a) increase (b) decrease (c) sharply decrease (d) remain unchanged 89. Identify the correctly matched pair. (a) Basal Convention - Biodiversity Conservation (b) Kyoto Protocol - Climatic change (c) Montreal Protocol - Global warming (d) Ramsar - Ground water Convention pollution 90. "Good ozone " is found in the (a) mesosphere (b) troposphere (c) stratosphere

(d) ionosphere

Chemistry 1.

(a) 74 L (b) 11.2 L

(c) 22.4 L (d) 84 L 2. If r is the radius of the first orbit, the radius of nth orbit of H-atom is given by (a) rn2 (b) rn (c) r/n (d) r2 n2 3. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 92–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.2 × 928 m s– 9 . Which value is

closest to the wavelength in nanometers of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 9295 s–9? (a) 3 × 107 (b) 2 × 10–25 (c) 5 × 10–18 (d) 4 × 101 4. In the periodic table, with the increase in atomic number, the metallic character of an element (a) Decreases in a period and increases in a group (b) Increases in a period and decreases in a group (c) Increases both in a period and the group (d) Decreases in a period and the group. 5. Among the elements Ca, Mg, Pand Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is: (a) Ca < Mg < P< Cl (b) Mg < Ca < Cl < P (c) Cl < P< Mg < Ca (d) P< Cl < Ca < Mg 6. The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than that of o-nitrophenol because (a) NO2 group at p-position behave in a different way from that at o-position.

MockTime.com

(b) intramolecular hydrogen bonding exists in p-nitrophenol (c) there is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrophenol (d) p-nitrophenol has a higher molecular weight than o-nitrophenol. 7. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms? (a) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard (b) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond (c) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively (d) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond 8. Bond order of 9.5 is shown by: (a) O2+ (b) O2- (c) O22- (d) O2 9. Internal energy and pressure of a gas per unit volume are related as:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 10. Equal volumes of molar hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are neutralized by dil. NaOHsolution and x kcal and y kcal of heat are liberated respectively. Which of the following is true? (a) x = y (b) x = 1/2 (c) x = 2y (d) None of these 11. The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 Kare 2.25 and 3.31 g cm–3, respectively. If the standard free energy difference (ΔGº) is equal to 9895 Jmol–1, the pressure at which graphite will be transformed into diamond at 298 Kis (a) 9.92 × 105 Pa

(b) 9.92 × 108 Pa (c) 9.92 × 107 Pa (d) 9.92 × 106 Pa 12.

(a) 0.83 (b) 1.50 (c) 3.3 (d) 1.67 13. Solubility of a M2S salt is 3.5 × 10–6, then its solubility product will be (a) 1.7 × 10–16 (b) 1.7 × 10–6 (c) 1.7 × 10–18 (d) 1.7 × 10–12 14. The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 × 10–5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammonium chloride is: (a) 6.50 × 10– 12 (b) 5.65 × 10–13 (c) 5.65 × 10–12 (d) 5.65 × 10–10 15. Zn gives H2 gas with H2 SO4 and HCl but not with HNO3 because (a) Zn acts as an oxidising agent when it reacts with HNO3 (b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2 SO4 and HCl (c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above hydrogen (d) NO3- is reduced in preference to hydronium ion 16. Which of the following statement is false? (a) Strontium decomposes water readily than beryllium (b) Barium carbonate melts at a higher temperature than calcium carbonate (c) Barium hydroxide is more soluble in water than magnesium hydroxide (d) Beryllium hydroxide is more basic than barium hydroxide. 17. Which of the following elements is extracted commercially by the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its compound? (a) Cl

MockTime.com

(b) Br (c) Al (d) Na 18. 2-Methyl 2-butene will be represented as

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 19. Which one of the following orders is correct regarding the I effect of the substituents? (a) —NR2 <—OR>—F (b) —NR2 > —OR>—F (c) —NR2 <—OR<—F (d) —NR2 >—OR<—F

20. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is (a) CnH2nO (b) CnH2n + 1O (c) CnH2n + 2O (d) CnH2n O2 21. The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is: (a) CHCHCHCH3 23 ~ (b) CHCHCHCH3222 (c) CH3 | CH3 C_ CH3 (d) 3 2 3 CHCHCHCH 22.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 23. Asolid with high electrical and thermal conductivity from the following is (a) Si (b) Li (c) NaCl (d) Ice 24. An ideal solution is formed when its components (a) have no volume change on mixing (b) have no enthalpy change on mixing (c) have both the above characteristics (d) have high solubility 25. Asolution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol–1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this nonvolatile solute is (a) 300 g mol–1 (b) 350 g mol–1 (c) 200 g mol–1 (d) 250 g mol–1 26.

(a) 0.5328 V (b) 0.3552 V (c) 0.1773 V (d) 0.7104 V 27.

(a)

MockTime.com

(b)

(c)

(d) 28.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 29. Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of a gas on surface of solid? (a) On increasing temperature, adsorption increases contineuously (b) Enthalpy and entropy changes are –ve (c) Adsorption is more for some specific substance (d) This Phenomenon is reversible 30. Which one has the lowest boiling point ? (a) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3 31. The acid which has a peroxy linkage is (a) Sulphurous acid (b) Pyrosulphuric acid (c) Dithionic acid (d) Caro’s acid 32. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric? (a) SnO2 (b) CaO[2011 M] (c) SiO2 (d) CO2 33. K2Cr2O7 on heating with aqueous NaOHgives (a) CrO42- (b) Cr(OH)3 (c) Cr2O72-

(d) Cr(OH)2 34. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti (22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn (25) is: (a) Cr > Mn > V> Ti (b) V> Mn > Cr > Ti (c) Mn > Cr > Ti > V (d) Ti > V> Cr > Mn 35. IUPACname of [Pt(NH3) 3 (Br) (NO2) Cl] Cl is (a) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride (b) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride (c) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride (d) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride 36. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour? (a) [V(gly)2 (OH)2 (NH3) 2] + (b) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3) 2] 2+ (c) [Co(OX)2 (OH)2] – (d) [Ti(NH3) 6] 3+ 37. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol. The major product obtained is (a) 2-ethoxypentane (b) pentene-1 (c) trans-2-pentene (d) cis-pentene-2 38.

(a) RCHOHR (b) RCHOHCH3 (c) RCH2CH2OH (d) CHCHOH2 39. In which of the following, the number of carbon atoms does not remain same when carboxylic acid is obtained by oxidation (a) CH3COCH3 (b) CCl3 CH2 CHO (c) CH3CH2CH2OH (d) CH3 CH2 CHO 40. Which of the following is correct?

MockTime.com

(a) Diastase is an enzyme (b) Acetophenone is an ether (c) Cycloheptane is an aromatic compound (d) All the above 41. Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 42. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives (a) N-Phenylhydroxylamine (b) Nitrosobenzene (c) Aniline (d) p-Hydroxyaniline 43. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar? (a) Sucrose (b) Glucose [1999] (c) Fructose (d) Maltose 44. The segment of DNAwhich acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is: (a) ribose (b) gene (c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide 45. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer? (a) Melamine (b) Glyptal (c) Dacron (d) Neoprene

Physics 1.

(a) [ML5T–2] (b) [M–1L5T2] (c) [ML–5T–1] (d) [ML5T1] 2. A body dropped from top of a tower fall through 40 m during the last two seconds of its fall. The height of tower is (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 60 m (b) 45 m (c) 80 m (d) 50 m 3. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus? (a) 40 ms–1 (b) 25 ms–1 (c) 10 ms–1 (d) 20 ms–1 4. Aball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its flight will be (a) E (b) E/2 (c) E/√2 (d) 0 5. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is (a) periodic but not simple harmonic (b) simple harmonic but not periodic (c) periodic and simple harmonic (d) neither periodic nor simple harmonic 6. Ablock has been placed on an inclined plane with the slope angle θ, block slides down the plane at constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to (a) sin θ

MockTime.com

(b) cos θ (c) g (d) tan θ 7. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is: (a) 20 ms–1 (b) 30 ms–1 (c) 5 ms–1 (d) 10 ms–1 8. A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite directions with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of their kinetic energies E1 /E2 is (a) m1v2 /m2v1 (b) m2/m1 (c) m1/m2 (d) 1 9. A particle with total energy E is moving in a potential energy region U(x). Motion of the particle is restricted to the region when (a) U(x) > E (b) U(x) < E (c) U(x) = O (d) U(x) ≤ E 10. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time t. The ratio of the angular speeds of the first to the second car is (a) 1: 1 (b) m1: m2 (c) r1: r2 (d) m1 m2: r1r2 11. A thin rod of length Land mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is 90°. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the rod is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. The mean radius of earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is ω and the acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface is g. What will be the radius of the orbit of a geostationary satellite?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio v1/v2 is (a) (r1 /r2) 2 (b) r2 /r1 (c) (r2 /r1) 2 (d) r1 /r2 14. If the temperature of the sun is doubled, the rate of energy received on earth will be increased by a factor of (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 15. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?

(a)

MockTime.com

(b)

(c)

(d) 16. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to (a) 1.2 (b) 4.8 (c) 3.5 (d) 1.6 17. Relation between pressure (P) and energy (E) of a gas is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 18. A particle starts simple harmonic motion from the mean position. Its amplitude is A and time period is T. What is its displacement when its speed is half of its maximum speed

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 19. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of motion is given by x = a sin (ωt + π/6). After the elapse of what fraction of the time period the velocity of the point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity? (a) T/8 (b) T/6 (c) T/3 (d) T/12

20.

(a) 5 Hz (b) 15 Hz (c) 20 Hz (d) 25 Hz 21. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the sound emitted are λ and f respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively. (a) 0.8f,0.8λ (b) 1.2f, 1.2λ (c) 1.2f, λ (d) f, 1.2λ 22. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two exactly equal positive charges Q. The system of three charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to

MockTime.com

(a) –Q/4 (b) + Q (c) – Q (d) Q/2 23. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in meters in space is given by V= 4x2 volt. The electric field at the point (1,0, 2) in volt/meter is (a) 8 along positive X-axis (b) 16 along negative X-axis (c) 16 along positive X-axis (d) 8 along negative X-axis 24.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 25.

(a) 9.6 V (b) 2.6 V (c) 4.8 V (d) 1.2 V

26. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is 10–

7 Ω m, the current flow through it is 2.9 A and the cross-sectional area of wire is 10–6 m2 then potential gradient will be (a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m (c) 10–6 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m 27. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten per cent. Its new resistance and specific resistance become respectively : (a) 1.2 times, 1.3 times (b) 1.21 times, same (c) both remain the same (d) 1.1 times, 1.1 times 28. Tesla is the unit of (a) magnetic flux (b) magnetic field (c) magnetic induction (d) magnetic moment 29. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute temperature Tis proportional to (a) T2 (b) 1/T (c) T (d) 1/T2 30. A varying current in a coil changes from 10Ato zero in0.5 sec. If the average e.m.f induced in the coil is 220V, the self-inductance of the coil is (a) 5 H (b) 6 H[1995] (c) 11 H (d) 12 H 31. A capacitor has capacity C and reactance X. If capacitance and frequency become double, then reactance will be (a) 4X (b) X/2 (c) X/4 (d) 2X 32. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic wave are oriented along (a) the same direction and in phase [1994] (b) the same direction but have a phase difference of 90°

MockTime.com

(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase (d) mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase difference of 90° 33. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is 3/2 is (a) 2 × 10–4 sec (b) 2 × 108 sec (c) 2 × 10–11 sec (d) 2 × 1011 sec 34. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order of (a) 106 rad (b) 10–2 rad (c) 10–4 rad (d) 10–6 rad 35. Ratio of intensities of two waves are given by 4: 1. Then the ratio of the amplitudes of the two waves is (a) 2: 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 4: 1 (d) 1: 4 36. In photoelectric effect the work function of a metal is 3.5 eV. The emitted electrons can be stopped by applying a potential of -1.2v. Then (a) the energy of the incident photon is 4.7 eV (b) the energy of the incident photon is 2.3 eV (c) if higher frequency photon be used, the photoelectric current will rise (d) when the energy of photon is 3.5 eV, the photoelectric current will be maximum 37. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result of: (a) excitation of electrons in the atoms (b) collision between the atoms of the gas (c) collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the atoms of the gas (d) collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas 38. Which source is associated with a line emission spectrum? (a) Electric fire (b) Neon street sign (c) Red traffic light (d) sun

39. Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model? (a) 1.9 eV (b) 11.1 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 0.65 eV 40.

(a) 1.56 × 10–10 s –1 (b) 1.56 × 1011 s –1 (c) 1.56 × 10–16 s –1 (d) 1.56 × 10–17 s –1 41. Solar energy is mainly caused due to (a) gravitational contraction (b) burning of hydrogen in the oxygen (c) fission of uranium present in the Sun (d) fusion of protons during synthesis of heavier elements 42. The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of U235 per hour is (a) 10 microgram (b) 20 microgram (c) 40 microgram (d) 1 microgram 43. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased the flow of current across the junction is mainly due to (a) diffusion of charges (b) drift of charges (c) depends on the nature of material (d) both drift and diffusion of charges 44. In a p-n junction (a) The potential of the p and n-sides becomes higher alternately (b) The p-side is at higher electrical potential than the n side (c) The n-side is at higher electrical potential than the p-side (d) Both the p and n-sides are at the same potential

MockTime.com

45. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength (a) 4000 nm (b) 6000 nm

(c)

(d) 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. b 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. c 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. b 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. b 90. c 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. d 1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. c