Mrunal India Yearbook Mocktest #2_ Chapter 13 to 19 for UPSC Prelims

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[Mock Test #5] India Yearbook Chapter 13 to 19: One hundredMCQs for UPSC Prelims General Studies Paper1

Posted ByMrunalOn 24/06/2015 @ 10:30 am In QuestionPapers | 49 Comments

1. Instructions2. Question 1 to 253. Question 26 to 504. Question 51 to 755. Question 76 to 1006. Answerkey

Instructions

this test contains 100 Questions from chapter 13 to 19 of India Yearbook 2015by Venkat Sir of Pandit Deendayal Petroleum University (PDPU) UPSC Study centre,Gandhinagar, Gujarat.Upcoming test: NCERT Class 12 only (all subjects)Previous Tests Available at Mrunal.org/Download

Question 1 to 25

1. Which of the following statements are Correct?

1. The eight core industries combined weight is of 37.90 per cent in the IIP2. The average headline inflation only measured in terms of Wholesale Price Index

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 2 OnlyC. 1 & 2D. None

2.Match the Following [Issue – Committee]

I.Monetary Trends and Developments – 1. RangarajanII.Poverty ratio in the country – 2. ChakrabartyIII.Disinvestment – 3. Urjit PatelIV.Capital Infusion for Improving CRAR – 4. Tendulkar

Answer choices

code I II III IVA. 1 2 3 4B. 3 4 2 1C. 3 4 1 2D. 1 2 4 3

3.India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise

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A. Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs)B. GoldC. SDRs and Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMFD. All the above

4.In India’s external debt stock, the highest is

A. US dollar denominatedB. Indian Rupee denominatedC. SDR denominatedD. Japanese Yen and Euro denominated

5.Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

1. India’s share of global trade has increased gradually over the period of time2. India’s share in global export and imports of commercial services increased over the period of

time3. India’s external debt indicates dominance of shortterm borrowings

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 1 & 2 OnlyC. 1 & 3D. 3 Only

6.The share of SCs, STs and women in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment GuaranteeAct – MGNREA – in employment generated

Answer choices

A. 23 per cent, 17 per cent and 53 per cent respectivelyB. 17 per cent, 23 per cent and 53 per cent respectivelyC. 23 per cent, 17 per cent and 40 per cent respectivelyD. None

7. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. India is a member of all the institutions of the World Bank Group2. India has been accessing funds from the World Bank mainly through IBRD and IDA

Answer choices


8.Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Controller General of Accounts (CGA) is the principal accounts adviser to the Government ofIndia and is responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound managementaccounting system

2. VAT has been introduced by all the States/UTs

Answer choices


9.Regarding Direct Tax which of the following statements is CORRECT

A. The share of direct taxes exceeded the share of indirect taxes in the tax revenue of the governmentB. The share of direct taxes not exceeded the share of indirect taxes in the tax revenue of the

governmentC. Direct tax is equal in collection to indirect taxD. Central Board of Direct Taxes consists of 6 members including Chairman

10.The capital infusion by the Government in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) is done with objectivesof

1. Adequately meeting the credit requirement of the productive sector of economy2. To maintain regulatory capital adequacy ratios in PSBs under BaselIII

Answer choices


11.Bharatiya Mahila Bank Limited (2013) is for

1. Financial inclusion2. Promote asset ownership by women3. Economic empowerment of women

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 2 & 3 OnlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3

12.Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Regional Rural Banks’ shareholding structure is 50 per cent (Central Govt.), 15 per cent (StateGovt.) and 35 per cent (Sponsor Banks)

2. Export Import Bank of India provides Lines of Credit (LOCs) to foreign countries guaranteed bythe concerned countries central bank

Answer choices


13. The National Pension System (NPS): Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. Mandatory for all new recruits without any exception with effect from 2004B. It has also been rolled out for all citizens with effect from 1st May, 2009 on a voluntary basisC. Provides various investment options and choices to individuals to switch over from one option to

another or from one fund manager to anotherD. Not all state governments have notified NPS for their employees

14.Swavalamban Scheme: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. To fulfil old age income security needs and is for unorganised sector2. It is a cocontributory pension scheme for unorganised sector and operates only through RRBs and

PSBs3. It is a cocontributory pension scheme and operates through RRBs, PSBs, NBFCs and some state

governments

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 1 & 3 OnlyC. 3 onlyD. 1 & 2 Only

15. National ReInsurer

A. Life Insurance CorporationB. General Insurance Corporation of India LimitedC. New India Assurance Company of India LimitedD. National Insurance Company Limited

16.Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) operates through Joint Venture (JV) Companies inoverseas Insurance Market. Which is NOT one?

A. BahrainB. KenyaC. Nepal & Sri LankaD. Mauritius

17.Find wrong match [Years – Disinvestment Mode]

A. 19992000 – sale of minority shareholding in small lotsB. 19992000 to 200304 – strategic sale & sale of small portions of equityC. After 20042005 – sale of small portions of equityD. None

18.National Investment Fund will be credited into from 201314 to

A. Public AccountB. Consolidated Fund of IndiaC. Both A & BD. Contingency Fund of India

19.IRDA (1999) – Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority its core functions include

1. Licensing of insurers

2. Regulatory supervision3. Regulation of premium rates4. Promotion of role of insurance intermediaries

Which are Correct?

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 1, 2 & 3 OnlyC. 1, 2 & 4 onlyD. All the above

20.Corporate Affairs Ministry’s new initiatives include

1. Comprehensive revision of the Companies Act, 19562. Introduction of a new legal framework on the Limited Liability Partnership3. Amendments to the Acts governing the three professional Institutes of Chartered Accountants,

Cost and Works Accounts and the Company Secretaries4. Amendment to the Competition Act, 2002

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 1, 2 & 3 OnlyC. 1, 2 & 4 onlyD. All the above

21.National Foundation for Corporate Governance – Which is INCORRECT?

Answer choices

A. A not – for – profit trust & Threetier structureB. To sensitize good governanceC. To facilitate exchange of ideas between corporate leaders and law enforcing agenciesD. None

22. Serious Fraud Investigation Office SFIO– Which is INCORRECT?

1. Set up to investigate corporate frauds of serious and complex nature in 20032. At present there is no special Act governing the functioning and jurisdiction of SFIO3. Files prosecution solely for the violations of the provisions of the Companies Act4. The SFIO derives powers and functions under the Companies Act 1956

Answer choices

A. 2 OnlyB. 3 OnlyC. 2 & 4 OnlyD. 1 & 3 only

23. Which are Correct?

1. The Competition Appellate Tribunal was set up in 20092. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) would comprise a chairperson and minimum two to

maximum six members

Answer choices


24. Serious Fraud Investigation Office SFIO investigates

1. Project financing frauds2. Fraud through capital market3. Siphoning off funds invested by public4. Swapping equity shares of the company against preference shares of associate companies at

exorbitant premium

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 3 OnlyC. 1, 2 & 3 OnlyD. All the above

25.A: The Competition Act 2002, was enacted paving way for the establishment of the competitioncommission of India (CCI), an essential ingredient of a liberalized economy

R: From 1991, the institutional framework to support healthy and fair competition in marketshad become important in India

A. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for AB. A & R are correct; But, R is notcorrect explanation for AC. A is Correct; But not RD. R is Correct; But not A

Question 26 to 50

26. National Food Security Act, 2013 – Which is NOT correct?

A. Provides subsidized food grains under TPDSB. Special focus on the nutritional support to women & childrenC. Coverage of up to 100% of the rural population and up to 75% of the urban populationD. None of the above

27. MidDay Meal Scheme presently covers students of

1. Class IVIII of Governmentaided schools2. Education Guarantee Scheme/ Alternative and Innovative Education Centres (EGS/AIE)

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 2 OnlyC. 1 & 2D. None of the above

28. Which is NOT matched?

A. Wheat Based Nutrition Programme Children below 6 years of age and expectant/lactatingwomen

B. Annapurna Scheme – Senior citizens of 65 years of age or above

C. Emergency Feeding Programme(EFP) – State of Bihar

D. Village Grain Bank Scheme (VGB) – became redundant and discontinued


1. Indian Sugar Industry has impacts on rural livelihood of about 50 million sugarcane farmers andaround 5 lakh workers of sugar mills

2. India the largest producer and second largest consumer of sugar in the world3. Sugar production in the country has been cyclic in nature and appears that the amplitude of year to

year fluctuations in sugar production has diminished

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 2 & 3 OnlyC. 1 &3 OnlyD. All of the above

30. The enforcement/implementation of the provisions of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 lieswith the

A. State Governments & UT AdministrationsB. Union GovernmentC. Both A & BD. State Governments & Union Government


1. The Consumer Protection Act – 1986 was enacted to better protect the interests of consumers byestablishing a four tier quasijudicial consumer dispute redressal machinery, popularly calledConsumer Fora at the national, state, district and block levels for settlement of consumer disputes

2. Consumer Welfare Fund created in 1992, protect the welfare of the consumer, create consumerawareness and strengthen consumer movement in the country, particularly in rural areas

3. Organisation engaged in customer welfare activities for a period of three years and registeredunder the Companies Act, 1956 are eligible for seeking financial assistance from the ConsumerWelfare Fund

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 2 & 3 OnlyC. 1 & 2 OnlyD. All of the above

32. The Customer Protection Act, 1986 applies to all goods and services unless specificallyexempted by the

Answer choices

A. Central Government

B. State GovernmentsC. Central and State GovernmentsD. Central or State Governments

33. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

1. Consumer Cooperatives have been playing a role in the distribution of essential consumer items atfair prices only in the slum clusters in the cities

2. Consumer Cooperatives have a four tire structure comprising primary stores, wholesale/centralstores, State Consumer Cooperative Federations and the National Consumer CooperativeFederation

Answer choices


34. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. India is a not yet a member of International Organization of Legal MetrologyB. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is yet to become a statutory organizationC. In India hallmarking of gold jewellery started but hallmarking of silver Jewellery / artifacts are yet

to be startedD. None of the above

35.Which is/are matched?

1. National Test House – established in 19122. Indian Grape Processing Board – Pune3. Legal Metrology Act – 2009

Answer choices


36. The per cent decline of Maternal Mortality Rate in Global and India levels are respectively

A. Globally 47 per cent & India 70 per centB. Globally 74 per cent & India 07 per centC. Globally 70 per cent & India 47 per centD. Globally 35 per cent & India 24 per cent

37. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. India is the largest consumer and ahead of China in the tobacco products consumption in theworld

2. There is a shortage of manpower in mental health programme in India3. Hearing loss is the most common sensory deficit in human today and India is one of the affected

countries.

Answer choices


38. Match the following

1. National Institute of Virology a– Wayanad2. National Institute of Epidemiology b– Pune3. National Institute of Nutrition (NIMICMR) c– Hyderabad4. Institute for Research in Ageing d– Chennai5. Genome Valley e Hyderabadcode a b c dA 4 1 2 3B 4 1 3 2C 1 2 3 4D 5 4 3 2

39. India has been declared polio free from

A. 2014B. 2013C. 2012D. 2011

40. Sowa Rigpa

1. It is the recent addition to the existing family of AYUSH system2. It has been popularly practice in Tibet, Magnolia, Bhutan and Himalayan regions of India3. It is Known as Amchi system of medicine is one of the oldest, living and well documented

medical tradition of the world4. The majority of theory and practice of SowaRigpa is similar to YOGA

Which are CORRECT?

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 2, 3 & 4 OnlyC. 1, 2 & 3 OnlyD. All of the above

41. Drugs covered under the purview of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940

A. Ayurveda & SiddhaB. Siddha OnlyC. Unani and HomoeopathyD. All the above

42. National Institute – System of Medicine: Which is/are MATCHED?

1. National Institute of Ayurveda – Kolkata2. Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga – New Delhi

3. National Institute of Unani Medicine – Bangalore4. National Institute of Siddha – Jaipur5. National Institute of Homoeopathy – Chennai

Answer choices

A. 1 onlyB. 2 & 3 onlyC. 4 onlyD. 5 only

43. In the National Aids Control Programme the focus of the subsequent phases shifted

1. From raising HIV / AIDS awareness to behaviour change2. From a more decentralised response to a national response3. Increasing involvement of NGOs and network of People Living with HIV (PLHIV)

Which is/ are CORRECT?

A. 1 & 2 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 & 3 onlyD. 2 & 3 only

44. India is a signatory to SelfSufficiency in Safe Blood and Blood Products based on voluntarynonremunerated donation. This international declaration is called

Answer choices

A. Rome DeclarationB. Declaration of HelsinkiC. Declaration of GenevaD. None of the Above

45. The drug for prevention of mother to child transmission of HIV infection

A. DapsoneB. NevirapineC. RifampicinD. Griseofulvin

46. Consider the following policies/schemes : Which is the first and most recent respectively

1. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy (NUHHP)2. National Policy on Urban Street Vendors (NPUSV)3. National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM)4. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURAM)

Answer choices

A. 1 & 4B. 4 & 3C. 2 & 3D. 3 & 4

47. HUDCO’s borrowers include

A. State government agencies & Private sectorB. Individual borrowers belonging to all sections of the society in urban and rural areasC. Private sectorD. A & B

48. Prime Minister’s first visit abroad after assuming office in 2014 is

A. BangladeshB. BhutanC. SrilankaD. Nepal

49. India’s commitment to resolve outstanding issues within the framework of the ShimlaAgreement of 1972 is with

A. PakistanB. BangladeshC. ChinaD. Nepal

50. ASSERTION: In recent years, there has been a significant transformation in India’s relationswith the countries in South East Asia and Pacific region

REASON: There is continuing geopolitical shift towards Asia and steady trend of economicgrowth and stability in the South East Asia and Pacific region


Question 51 to 75

51. ASEANIndia strategic partnership signed in

A. 2011B. 2012C. 2013D. 2014

52. India extended an offer of assistance in the preservation and restoration of cultural heritagesites in South East Asia. Which is an odd one?

A. Siem ReapB. Wat PhuC. My SonD. Lugansk

53. Which is NOT a part of Caucasus Region?

A. ArmeniaB. UkraineC. Azerbaijan

D. Georgia

54. Out of India’s top five oil sourcing countries four were from the Gulf region. Identify thesecountries

A. Saudi Arabia, Iran, Kuwait and UAEB. Iran, Iraq, Kuwait and UAEC. Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Kuwait and UAED. Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran and UAE

55. International Issue – India’s stand: Which is NOT matched?

1. MiddleEast Peace Process – Palestine side by side with Israel2. Egypt – Policy of noninterference3. Syria – Opposition to a military solution4. Libya – Militia warfare grave concern to us

Answer choices

A. 1 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 & 3 onlyD. None of the above

56. Which is/are INCORRECT?

1. The sovereign debt crisis in the Europe has deeply affected the European Union’s share of tradewith India

2. There is a recommendation that SAARC summit be held once every three years instead of thecurrent practice of holding it biannually

Answer choices

A. All the aboveB. 1 onlyC. 2 onlyD. None of the above

57. Madrid Protocol is for

A. Consular relationsB. On trademarksC. Substances that deplete the Ozone layerD. Human Rights

58. SAARC Least Developed Countries – Which is the right combination?

A. Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Bhutan onlyB. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Nepal onlyC. Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal onlyD. Afghanistan and Nepal only

59. TAPI pipeline project: TAPI stands for

A. Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and IndiaB. Turkey, Afghanistan, Pakistan and IndiaC. Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and IndiaD. Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran


1. Top 3 states in terms of number of passport application were from Kerala, Tamil Nadu andMaharashtra

2. The largest number of Indian expatriates is working in the Saudi Arabia3. Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala are the leading states in the order of the number

of emigrated from India

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 onlyB. 1 & 3 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3

61. Match the following (organization – Function)

1. Indian Council for Cultural Relations a– Autonomous think tank

2. Indian Council of World Affairs b– To research and study internationalissues

3. Research and Information System for DevelopingCountries c– Flicker

4. External Publicity and Public Diplomacy d– Welfare of international students inIndia

Answer choices

code a b c dA 4 1 2 3B 3 2 1 4C 1 2 3 4D 3 2 4 1

62. Citizens of which country has committed for part of financial support to Nalanda University

A. SingaporeB. ChinaC. AustraliaD. Thailand

63. Prime Minister of Bhutan

A. Jigme Khesar Namgyel WangchuckB. Jigme ZangpoC. Lyonchhen Tshering TobgayD. Ugyen Wangchuck

64. Arrange the regions on the basis of Indian migrants

A. Gulf > USA > South AsianB. Gulf > South Asian > USAC. South Asian > USA > GulfD. South Asian> Gulf > USA

65. Pravasi Bhartiya Samman Award – it is conferred by the

A. President of IndiaB. Vice – President of IndiaC. Prime Minister of IndiaD. Minister for External Affairs of India

66. The comprehensive Social Security Agreements provide: Which is INCORRECT?

A. Exemption from payment of social security contribution for detached worker provided that theworker is covered under the Indian social security system

B. Exportability of benefits in case of relocation of India or any other country after having madesocial security contribution

C. Totalization of the periods of contribution pertaining to both countries for pensionary benefitsD. None of the above

67. Indian Community Welfare Fund is aimed at

1. Extending emergency medical care to the overseas Indians in need2. Providing initial legal assistance to the overseas Indians in deserving cases3. Providing the payment of penalties in respect of Indian nationals for illegal stay in the host

country in deserving cases4. Providing the payment of small fines / penalties for the release of Indian nationals in jail /

detention centre in deserving cases

Which is CORRECT?

A. 1 & 2 onlyB. 1, 2 & 3 onlyC. 1, 2 & 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 & 4

68. Overseas Indian Facilitation Centre (OIFC) established as Public Private Partnership for

1. To promote overseas Indian investments in India2. To establish Diaspora Knowledge Network3. To assist Indian states to project investment opportunities4. Provide advisory services to PIO, OCIs and NRIs

Which is CORRECT?

A. 1 & 2 onlyB. 1, 2 & 3 onlyC. 1, 2 & 4 onlyD. 1, 2, 3 & 4

69. An Emigration Check Not Require (ECNR) passport holder does not need any emigrationclearance for going to any country. Any person is entitled to ECNR passport

Answer choices

A. Who has passed class VIIIB. Who has passed class X or moreC. Who has passed class XII or moreD. Graduate

70. Which is CORRECT?

1. Protector General of Emigrants is the statutory authority responsible for the welfare and protectionof emigrant workers

2. India has the biggest diaspora in the world3. Registration of Recruiting Agents is taking place under Emigration Act, 1983

Answer choices

A. 1 & 3 OnlyB. 2 OnlyC. 1, 2 & 3D. None of the above

71. Nitaqat programme is meant to regularise foreign workers and makes it mandatory for localcompanies to hire one own national for every 10 migrant workers. Which country implementedthis?

A. MalaysiaB. Saudi ArabiaC. IndonesiaD. Kuwait

72. Sector reserved for public sector in India

A. Atomic EnergyB. Railway OperationsC. Both A & BD. All the sectors are open for private participation/FDI

73. Which is NOT Correct?

A. The index of industrial production (IIP) is a measure of industrial performance compiled andreleased every month by Central Statistic Office (CSO)

B. IIP is a fixed weight and fixed base indexC. IIP comprises three components of industries, viz., mining, manufacturing and electricityD. None

74. National Manufacturing Policy: 2011(Now part of Make in India) – Which is NOT Correct?

A. The objective of enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 45 percentB. Creating 100 million jobs over a decadeC. The policy is based on principle of industrial growth in partnership with statesD. None

75. Match [ProjectHelp/aid/cooperation] – Which is NOT Correct?

A. DelhiMumbai Industrial Corridor JapanB. ChennaiBengaluru Industrial Corridor Japan

C. BengaluruMubai Industrial Corridor (BEMC) – JapanD. East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC) Project Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Question 76 to 100

76. Initiatives in FDI policyWhich is NOT Correct?

A. Consolidation of FDI Policy through circular 1 of 2010B. Rationalisation and liberalization of FDI policy and railway infrastructure recently approved up to

100 percentC. FDI policy changes in last three years including FDI from Pakistan as permittedD. None

77. Intellectual Property Rights is concerning patents, marks, designs and geographicalindications. Which is NOT matched? [IPR Issue – Office]

A. The Patents Act 1970 Head Office – KolkataB. The Designs Act 2000 Head Office – KolkataC. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act 1999 Registry – MumbaiD. The Trade Mark Act 1999 Registry – Mumbai

78. Intellectual Property Appellate Board headquarter is in:

A. ChennaiB. KolkataC. MumbaiD. Delhi

79. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. India is world’s 2nd largest cement manufacturer after China.2. India is world’s 3rd largest tile manufacturer after China and Brazil3. Three Indian Companies are in the list of top 25 Global Tyre Companies4. India is world’s 2nd largest salt producer after China.

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 1, 2 & 3 OnlyC. 3 & 4D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

80. Indian foundry industry is the fifth largest in the world. [Location – Specialisation]

1. Coimbatore cluster – Machinery parts and agricultural implements2. Kolhapur and Belgaum cluster – Diesel engine castings3. Rajkot cluster AB Automotive castings4. Batala and Jalandhar cluster – Pump sets castings

Which is/are CORRECTLY matched?

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 1, 2 & 3 Only

C. 3 & 4D. None of the above


1. Sophisticated instruments are not currently manufactured in the country2. Nearly half of the newsprint demand in the country is met by imports3. India continues to be second largest provider of silk in the world

Answer choices

A. 1 & 2 OnlyB. 2 & 3 OnlyC. All the aboveD. None of the above


1. India is the second largest bicycle producer of the world, next only to China.2. Most of the bicycle manufacturing units are located in Punjab and Tamil Nadu3. Jalandhar being a major bicycle production hub

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 1 & 2 OnlyC. 1 & 3D. 1, 2 & 3

83. Cyclone and multi cyclones

A. Air pollution control equipmentsB. Noise pollution control equipmentsC. Water pollution control equipmentsD. Biodegrader


1. The textile sector is the second largest provider of employment after agriculture2. Eastern coastal states are sole producer of raw jute in the country3. Technical Textiles have a presence in major areas of activity such as aerospace, defence, and

medicine/health

Answer choices

A. 1 OnlyB. 1 & 2 OnlyC. 1 & 3D. 2 Only

85.Assertion: Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga, silks have shown retreat in production during therecent past

Reason: Drought, unseasonal rain and cyclone had taken place in the silk production areas



1. 95 percent of the world’s hand woven fabric comes from India2. In Sponge iron, India number one position in the global market

Answer choices


87. Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) have been set up to serve

1. The broad macroeconomy objectives of higher economic growth2. Selfsufficiency in production of goods and services3. Long term equilibrium in balance of payments and low and stable prices

Answer choices

A. All the aboveB. 1 & 2 OnlyC. 1 & 3D. 2 Only

88. The Maharatna CPSEs can invest can in a single project without Government approval

A. 10, 000 croresB. Rs. 5000 croresC. Rs. 1000 croresD. 500 crores


1. Potash production is the important foreign exchange earner and half of the production is set forexports from India

2. The first manufacturing unit of Single Super Phosphate (SSP) was set up in Ranipet near Chennaiin 1906

3. Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited and National Fertilizer Limited are in Trombay andBathinda respectively

Answer choices

A. All the aboveB. 1 & 2 OnlyC. 2 & 3D. 2 Only

90. Fertiliser Corporation of India Limited comprised four units. [Location – State]

1. Sindri – Jharkhand2. Gorakhpur – Uttar Pradesh3. Ramagundam – Telangana4. Talcher – Rajasthan

Which is/are INCORRECT?

A. All the aboveB. 1 OnlyC. 4 onlyD. None of the above

91. In India, the product patent regime has come in force from

A. 1995B. 2000C. 2005D. 2010

92. A: HFC [Hydroflourocarbon]–23, a pollutant, is generated as a waste gas during the processof manufacture of HCFC 22

R: Destruction of stored HFC23 through thermal oxidation process will generate CERs


93. DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is the most effective tool to fight dreaded disease/slike

Answer choices

A. Malaria & DengueB. Kala AzarC. Japanese EncephalitisD. All the above

94. HIL is today the largest producer of DDT in the world and its plant is in Rasayani. In whichstate this?

Answer choices

A. UttarkhandB. MaharashtraC. TelanganaD. Haryana

95. Which region more prone to malaria?

A. Latin AmericaB. SubSaharan AfricaC. Middle East

D. South Asia

96. India’s Pharmaceutical Sector: Which is/are CORRECT?

1. The country now ranks 14th in terms of volume of production and 10 percent of global share2. The country now ranks 3rd largest by value in global share

Answer choices


97. Indian Drugs and Pharmaceutical Limited (IDPL) plants: Which is NOT?

A. RishikeshB. HyderabadC. GurgaonD. Bangalore


1. Ministry of mines responsible in respect of all mines and minerals other then coal, natural gas andpetroleum

2. Major deposits of minerals are concentrated in the West coast of Country

Answer choices


99. Match – Which is NOT correct?

A. Bauxite – Odisha and Andhra PradeshB. Chromite – Manipur and KarnatakaC. Copper – Rajasthan and Madhya PradeshD. Gold – Maharashtra and Rajasthan


1. Hematite and magnetite are the most important iron ores in India2. In India Eastern sector mines are known for magnetite and Southern sector mines are known for

Hematite

Answer choices


Answerkey

Hints for selected questions

1.Consumer Price Index3.Longterm7. 4 only ; NOT in The International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes8. A& N Islands & Lakshadweep NO12. Guaranteed by Gov of India13. except Armed Forces17. Strategic sale only22. Indian Penal Code also26. 75% Rural & 50 % Urban28. Odisha29. 2nd largest Producer & largest consumer31. 3 tier33. Villages & Hill areas37. 2nd

40. Ayurveda43. National to decentralization56. Still EU large partner; annually to biannually79. 3rd80. Reverse order82. Ludhiana84. Bihar & Tripura also89. Potash important import

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Mrunal India Yearbook Mocktest #2_ Chapter 13 to 19 for UPSC Prelims

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