Module 3 Metabolism of Carbohydrates, Lipids

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Module 3. Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids and its regulation. Test questions in text form 1. In which of the below-mentioned glycolysis reactions substrate level phosphorylation takes place? A. * pyruvate kinase B. aldolase C. phosphofructokinase D. lactate dehydrogenase E. hexokinase 2. Name the glycolysis reactions, flowing with the formation of ATP: A. hexokinase, enolase B. enolase, aldolase C. * phosphoglycerate kinase, pyruvate kinase D. pyruvate kinase, lactate dehydrogenase E. hexokinase, phosphofructokinase 3. The concentration of blood lactate is normal: A. 4,4-6,6 mmol/l B. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l C. 4,4-5,5 mmol/l D. * 1-2 mmol/l E. 5,5-6,6 mmol/l 4. The preparatory stage of glycolysis ends with the formation of: A. fructose-1,6-diphosphate B. glucose-6-phosphate C. * two trioses (dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehydetryphosphate) D. 2-phosphoglycerate E. phosphoenolpyruvate 5. Which glycolysis enzyme requires insulin as activator? A. * hexokinase B. glucose-6-phosphatase, phosphoglucomutase C. glucose-6-phosphate-isomerase, aldolase D. aldolase, lactate dehydrogenase E. phosphoglucomutase, aldolase 6. A basic role in digestion of carbohydrates in a digestive tract belongs following enzymes: A. Alfa-amylase, hexokinase, lactase B. Maltase, sucrase, enterokinase C. * Lactase, alfa-amylase, sucrase D. Sucrase, maltase, glycogen phosphorylase

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Transcript of Module 3 Metabolism of Carbohydrates, Lipids

Page 1: Module 3 Metabolism of Carbohydrates, Lipids

Module 3. Metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, amino acids and its regulation.

Test questions in text form1. In which of the below-mentioned glycolysis reactions substrate level phosphorylation

takes place? A. * pyruvate kinase B. aldolase C. phosphofructokinase D. lactate dehydrogenase E. hexokinase

2. Name the glycolysis reactions, flowing with the formation of ATP: A. hexokinase, enolase B. enolase, aldolase C. * phosphoglycerate kinase, pyruvate kinase D. pyruvate kinase, lactate dehydrogenase E. hexokinase, phosphofructokinase

3. The concentration of blood lactate is normal: A. 4,4-6,6 mmol/l B. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l C. 4,4-5,5 mmol/l D. * 1-2 mmol/l E. 5,5-6,6 mmol/l

4. The preparatory stage of glycolysis ends with the formation of: A. fructose-1,6-diphosphate B. glucose-6-phosphate C. * two trioses (dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehydetryphosphate) D. 2-phosphoglycerate E. phosphoenolpyruvate

5. Which glycolysis enzyme requires insulin as activator? A. * hexokinase B. glucose-6-phosphatase, phosphoglucomutase C. glucose-6-phosphate-isomerase, aldolase D. aldolase, lactate dehydrogenase E. phosphoglucomutase, aldolase

6. A basic role in digestion of carbohydrates in a digestive tract belongs following enzymes: A. Alfa-amylase, hexokinase, lactase B. Maltase, sucrase, enterokinase C. * Lactase, alfa-amylase, sucrase D. Sucrase, maltase, glycogen phosphorylase E. Aldolase, glucokinase, beta-amylase

7. A patient is found to be deficient in the enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase. Specifically due to this deficiency what might a doctor recommend?

A. avoid all strenuous exercise B. eat a fat-free diet C. increase intake of vitamin C D. * avoid ingestion of milk and milk products E. all of the above.

8. A UDP-galactose is used as a donor of galactose for the reaction of synthesis of: A. Lactose (in a mammary gland) B. Glycoproteins C. Glycolipids D. Proteoglycans

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E. * All answers are correct 9. Aerobic glycolysis is a multi-stage process of transformation of molecule of glucose to

pyruvate. Choose this process: A. С6Н12О6 С3Н4О3 B. С6Н12О6 С5Н10О4 C. С6Н12О6 6 С2Н5ОН + 2 СО2 D. * С6Н12О6 2С3Н4О3 E. С6Н12О6 2С3Н6О3

10. Aerobic oxidation of pyruvate to CO2 and H2O results in formation of molecules ATP: A. 38 ATP B. 12 ATP C. 3 ATP D. * 15 ATP E. 2 ATP

11. An enzyme that catalyzes conversions of L-sugars to D-sugars is called an A. Lyase B. Hydrolase C. Synthetase D. Synthase E. * Isomerase

12. An intramolecular phosphoryl-group transfer occurs when: A. 2-Phosphoglycerate is converted to phosphoenolpyruvate B. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate C. Both a and b D. * All of the above E. None of the above

13. Anabolic and catabolic reactions in eukaryotes can occur simultaneously in cells. This is possible because _______.

A. they all occur in the cytosol B. the anabolic and catabolic pathways do not share any intermediate metabolites C. of the compartmentation of metabolites for the reactions of the opposing

pathways D. * all catabolic reactions are exergonic and all anabolic reactions are endergonic E. None of the above

14. Anaerobic glycolysis is a complex of reactions as a result of which the molecule of glucose converts to the lactate or pyruvate. Choose this process:

A. С6Н12О6 С2Н5ОН + 2 СО2 B. С6Н12О6 С5Н10О4 C. С6Н12О6 С7Н14О7 D. * С6Н12О6 2С3Н6О3 E. С6Н12О6 2С3Н4О3

15. Arsenate A. Competes with NAD for the binding site in 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate B. Competes with phosphate for its binding site in glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

dehydrogenase C. Produces a stable analog of 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate D. All of the above E. None of the above

16. Arsenite A. Poisons by the same mechanism as arsenate B. Is less toxic than arsenate C. * Binds tightly to lipoamide sulfur atoms

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D. All of the above E. None of the above

17. ATP is a cosubstrate of the enzyme PFK-1. In most species ATP is also an inhibitor of PFK-1 at higher concentrations. This seems to violate Le Chatelier's Principle. Which statement below would provide a suitable explanation?

A. PFK-1 must be phosphorylated by ATP in the active site and the phosphorylated PFK-1 must be the less active form.

B. There must be another cofactor interacting with ATP at high concentrations to achieve inhibition of PFK-1.

C. ATP actually activates the reverse of the reaction preceding the PFK-1 step in the pathway. It likely has no direct effect on PFK-1.

D. * There are two sites on PFK-1 that bind ATP. One is the active site; the other is the regulatory site where inhibition occurs.

E. None of the above 18. Choose from the below mentioned carbohydrates those, which contains a galactose:

A. Hepatin B. Maltose C. Sucrose D. Starch E. * Lactose

19. Choose the reaction of glycolysis, in which an inorganic phosphate takes part: A. Glucose G glucose -6-phosphate B. Fructose -6-phosphate - fructose -1, 6-biphosphate C. * Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate 1,3- biphosphoglycerate D. Glucose G glucose -1-phosphate E. Pyruvate P lactate

20. Choose the reaction of glycolysis, which catalyzed with phosphoglucoisomerase: A. Glucose -6-phosphate - glucose -1-phosphate B. Glucose -6-phosphate - glucose C. Glucose G glucose -6-phosphate D. * Glucose -6-phosphate - fructose -6-phosphate E. Glucose -1-phosphate - fructose -6-phosphate

21. Cofactors of dehydrogenases are all, except one: A. NAD+ B. * c-AMP C. NADP+ D. FMN E. FAD

22. Compared to pyruvate, the carbon atoms in lactate ______________. A. * are more reduced B. are more oxidized C. are equally as oxidized D. carry more charge E. All of the above

23. Compared to pyruvate, the carbon atoms in lactate ______________. A. * are more reduced B. are more oxidized C. are equally as oxidized D. carry more charge E. none of above

24. Converting of glucose into lactic acid consists of eleven reactions. Almost of all reactions as activators need ions:

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A. Zn2+ B. Ca2+ C. Cl- D. Na+ E. * Mg2+

25. During glycolysis, isomerization occurs during which of the following reactions: A. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate -> dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-

phosphate B. Fructose 6 phosphate -> fructose 1,6 bisphosphate C. Glucose 6- phosphate -> fructose 6- phosphate D. Glucose -> glucose 6- phosphate E. All of these

26. During glycolysis, isomerization occurs during which of the following reactions: A. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate -> dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-

phosphate B. Fructose 6 phosphate -> fructose 1,6 bisphosphate C. * Glucose 6- phosphate -> fructose 6- phosphate D. Glucose -> glucose 6- phosphate E. None of the above

27. Energetic value of anaerobic glycolysis: A. * 2 ATP molecules B. 10 ATP molecules C. ATP molecules D. 40 ATP molecules E. 32 ATP molecules

28. Enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of fructose-1,6-diphosphate disintegration into two trioses in the process of glycolysis is named:

A. glucokinase B. glucose-6-phosphatase C. phosphofructikinase D. * aldolase E. enolase

29. Enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of transformation acetaldehyde to ethanol is: A. pyruvate decarboxylase B. malate dehydrogenase C. lactate dehydrogenase D. succinate dehydrogenase E. * alcohol dehydrogenase

30. Enzyme which catalyzes the first glycolysis reaction: A. * hexokinase B. glucose-6-phosphatase C. phosphorylase D. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase E. amylase

31. Enzymes which catalyze the same reaction are called ___________. A. * isozymes B. complementary enzymes C. cofactors D. catalytes E. All of the above

32. For absorption of galactose and fructose into the enterocytes of intestine the presence of such ions is needed:

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A. Mg2+ B. Zn2+ C. * Na+ D. Ca2+ E. H+

33. For transformation of fructose in fructose -1, 6-byphosphate, except for the proper enzyme, needed:

A. ADP B. NADP C. Co A D. * ATP E. Fructose-1-phosphate

34. Fragments containing three carbons can be transferred from a ketose phosphate to an aldose phosphate by the enzyme ________________.

A. pyruvate carboxylase B. * transaldolase C. debranching enzyme D. ribose-5-phosphate isomerase E. none of the above.

35. Fragments containing three carbons can be transferred from a ketose phosphate to an aldose phosphate by the enzyme ________________.

A. pyruvate carboxylase B. * transaldolase C. debranching enzyme D. ribose-5-phosphate isomerase E. aconitase

36. From the diet of a boy with such symptoms of galactosemia as vomiting, diarrhea, underdevelopment, galactosuria, it is necessary to eliminate:

A. Fats B. Meat, fish C. * Milk and milk products D. Tea, coffees E. Fruits

37. Fructose -6-phosphate in muscles, kidneys, adipocytes joins glycolysis by its transformation under the action of phosphofructo kinase into fructose -1, 6-byphosphate. Which components are needed for this reaction?

A. * ATP and Mg2+ B. AMP and Zn2+ C. GTP and Ca2+ D. UTP and Na+ E. GDP and Mg2+

38. Galactose which an organism gets with food stuffs joins metabolism by transformation of it into:

A. Ribulose-5- phosphate B. Fruktozo-1,6-biphosphate C. Glycerophosphate D. Fructose-1- phosphate E. * Glucose-1- phosphate

39. Glucose 6-phosphate allosterically inhibits A. Hexokinase I B. Glucokinase C. Hexokinase II

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D. All of the above E. * a and c only

40. Glucose not part of a diet may be provided by degradation of A. stored glycogen B. starch C. dextrin D. * a and b E. a, b and c

41. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is the ______________ which is characterized by __________________________________________.

A. genetically determined disease; the absence of receptors to LDL on cells and prominent atherosclerosis;

B. diet-induced disease; the deficit of thiamin in the organism and neurological and cardiac symptoms;

C. * genetically determined disease; the low level of reduced glutathione in erythrocytes and increased susceptibility of erythrocytes to hemolysis;

D. disease induced by environmental factors; the high level of oxidized glutathione in the red blood cell and increased resistance of erythrocytes to hemolysis.

E. none of the above. 42. Glucose, that arrive with blood from an intestine to the liver, is utillized for all functions,

except: A. Formation of glycogen B. Oxidation to CO2 and H2O with selection of energy C. Convert into fats for stocking of energy D. Carried by blood to the brain as source of energy E. * Use for detoxification of ammonia

43. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase causes A. The reduction and phosphorylation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to produce 1,3

bisphosphoglycerate B. The oxidation of a molecule of NAD+ to NADH C. Neither a nor b D. * Both a and b E. The oxidation of a molecule of FAD

44. Glycogen synthesis takes place in the following oragans: A. brain and muscles; B. * liver and muscles; C. liver and kidney; D. liver and pancreas. E. all of the above.

45. Glycolysis has 2 stages. The peculiarities of preparatory stage are: A. phosphorylation and energy secretion B. glycolysis metabolites oxidation C. * energy usage D. are performed the reactions of substrate phosphorylation E. formation of pyruvate

46. Glycolysis is defined as: A. aerobic process in which glucose is transformed to CO2 and H2O; B. anaerobic process in which glucose is transformed to pyruvate; C. anaerobic process in which glucose is converted to pentoses and NADPH is

produced; D. aerobic process in which glucose is converted to glycogen. E. * anaerobic process in which glucose is transformed to lactate;

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47. Glycolysis takes place in: A. mitochondria; B. nucleus; C. lysosomes; D. * cytoplasm. E. none of the above.

48. Hamsters love to run on exercise wheels. Prolonged running at a high rate of speed requires ATP. Could a hamster with a defective gene for the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase meet the extra ATP demand for prolonged, fast wheel-running by maintaining a high rate of glycolysis? Why or why not?

A. * No, not enough NAD+ can be regenerated for glycolysis to continue at a high rate.

B. No, the defective gene will cause a rapid decline in pH in the muscles used for running.

C. Yes, the defective enzyme has no effect on the glycolytic pathway. D. Yes, the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase will supply the needed NAD+ if the

lactose dehydrogenase cannot. E. None of the above

49. How does the number of molecules of ATP produced compare for conversion of one molecule of either glucose or fructose to pyruvate?

A. fructose produces one less ATP than glucose B. * fructose produces the same number of ATP's C. fructose produces one more ATP than glucose D. fructose produces twice the number of ATP compared to glucose E. fructose produces two more ATP than glucose

50. How many ATP molecules are formed with complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic condition?

A. 2 B. 8 C. * 38 D. 42 E. 30

51. How many ATP molucules are formed as a result of anaerobic oxidation of a single glucose molecule (net output)?

A. * 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4 E. 1

52. How many molecules of ATP have to be spent during glycolysis? A. 1; B. * 2; C. 3; D. 4. E. 0

53. How many substrate level phosphorylation reactions are in glycolysis? A. 1; B. * 2; C. 3; D. 4. E. 0

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54. In anaerobic glycolysis which does not need mitochondrial respiratory chain, ATP forms with:

A. * Two reactions of the substrate level phosphorylation B. One reaction of the substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation C. Three reactions of the substrate level phosphorylation D. One reaction of the substrate level phosphorylation E. Two reactions of the oxidative phosphorylation

55. In cells which don’t have mitochondria (mature red cells), cells with low oxidize ability (retina, malignant cells), the glycolic breaking up of glucose takes place to product:

A. Glycogen B. Pyruvate C. CO2 and N2O D. Acetyl-CoA E. * Lactate

56. In skeletal muscles and cells of brain the transfer of hydrogen from cytoplasmatic NADH is carries out:

A. * Glycerophosphate shuttle system B. Ionophores C. Permeases D. Carnytin E. Malate-aspartate shuttle system

57. In the cells of liver, myocardium and kidneys a malate-aspartate shuttle system on one molecule of NADH provides formation:

A. 1 ATP B. * 3 ATP C. 8 ATP D. 12 ATP E. 15 ATP

58. In the muscles of person, which executes a physical work, accumulates: A. Glycogen B. Pyruvate C. * Lactate D. Glucose E. CO2 and N2O

59. In the oxygen insufficiency glycolisis is used as the energy source. Select glycolisis among the below mentioned processes.

A. * glucose to lactate oxidation B. glucose to CO2 and H2O oxidation C. pyruvate to acetyl CoA oxidation D. glucose to glucuronic acid oxidation E. glycogen to glucose oxidation

60. In the process of alcohol fermentation, which in the human organism takes place in the cavity of intestine, acetaldehyde is reduces to the ethanol with the:

A. NADPH•H+ B. FAD•H2 C. FMN•H2 D. * NADH•H+ E. CoQ•H2

61. Lactate is formed from pyruvate in an ____________ organism in ____________ conditions.

A. yeast; aerobic; B. animal; aerobic;

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C. fungi; aerobic; D. * animal; anaerobic. E. yeast; aerobic.

62. Last reaction of anaerobic glycolysis: Pyruvate P lactate is catalyzed with NAD-dependent enzyme:

A. Pyruvate kinase B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. * Lactate dehydrogenase D. Lactase E. Enolase

63. Mature red cells, retina, medulla of kidneys, utilize energy mainly glycolytic decomposition of glucose because in the cells of these organs and tissues:

A. The TCA does not function B. The respiratory chain is absent C. There are no any mitochondria D. High activity of glycolytic enzymes E. * All answers are correct

64. Metabolite, formed in the process of glucose phosphorylation under influence of hexokinase is:

A. * glucose-6-phosphate B. fructose-1-phosphate C. fructose-6-phosphate D. glucose-1,6-diphosphate E. fructose-1,6-diphosphate

65. More than one step in the glycolytic pathway is subject to regulation. It might seem most efficient to regulate only the first step of a pathway to avoid buildup of intermediates and to conserve materials and energy. Why is the first step of glycolysis not the only regulated step?

A. * Some sugars can enter the glycolytic pathway beyond the first step. If steps other than step one were not regulated, the breakdown of these sugars would be essentially uncontrolled.

B. Having more than one regulated step in the pathway allows for feedback inhibition.

C. Control of a single step in a reaction pathway is difficult because the concentrations of enzymes in cells are very low. It's easier to control more than one enzyme than just one.

D. All the ATP in a cell would be depleted very quickly if only the first step of glycolysis were regulated.

E. Both A and B 66. Mutases are described as

A. Polymerases which catalyze phosphoryl group transfers B. * Isomerases which catalyze the transfer of phosphoryl groups from one part of a

substrate molecule to another C. Forming intermediate free phosphate (Pi) D. All of the above E. None of the above

67. Name 2 products of the first reaction of penthosophosphate cycle which flows in a liver: A. Glucose and phosphatidic acid B. NADH and pentose C. Gluconic acid and ribulose D. Glucose-1,6-diphosphate and NADPH E. * 6-phosphogluconolactone and NADPH

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68. Name irreversible reactions of glycolysis : A. * hexokinase, phosphofructikinase, pyruvatekinase B. aldolase, hexokinase, lactate dehydrogenase C. enolase, aldolase, pyruvatekinase D. phosphoglyceratekinase, enolase, lactate dehydrogenase E. pyruvatekinase, phosphoglyceratekinase, aldolase

69. Name the glycolysis reaction, which requires ATP energy: A. * hexokinase, phosphofructokinase B. hexokinase, enolase C. enolase, aldolase D. pyruvatekinase E. phosphoglucomutase, enolase

70. On activating of molecule of glucose and preparation of it to the splitting on two trioses in the glycolysis used:

A. 1 ATP B. 5 ATP C. * 2 ATP D. 12 ATP E. 8 ATP

71. Once inside a cell, glucose is rapidly phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate. What is the main purpose of this phosphorylation?

A. to keep glucose inside the cell B. to form a high-energy compound C. * to activate PFK-1 D. to prevent mutarotation E. none of the above.

72. Once inside a cell, glucose is rapidly phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate. What is the main purpose of this phosphorylation?

A. * to keep glucose inside the cell B. to form a high-energy compound C. to activate PFK-1 D. to prevent mutarotation E. All of the above

73. Oxidation of carbohydrates in an organism is carried out by indirect and direct ways. The followings processes belong to indirect, except:

A. Glycolysis B. Oxidative decarboxilation of pyruvate C. Cycle of Krebs D. * Pentose-phosphate pathway E. C and A only

74. Pentoses which appear from glucose-6-phosphate in the pentosophosphate cycle can be utillized in such aims:

A. On the biosynthesis of nucleotides B. On the construction of nucleic acids C. On the construction of coenzymes D. Transformation in to fructose-6-phosphate E. * All adopted processes are correct

75. Pentosophosphate cycle oxidation of glucose provides reconstraction of NADPH such processes:

A. Synthesis of fatty acids B. Synthesis of cholesterol C. Synthesis of bile acids from cholesterol

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D. Inactivation of steroid hormones E. All adopted processes are correct

76. PFK-2 and fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase are two names for the same enzyme. The name PFK-2 is used for the enzyme's catalysis of the phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. The name fructose 2,6-biphosphatase is used for its catalysis of the reverse reaction. What is unique about this enzyme that makes it logical to use both names?

A. It is one of very few enzymes that can catalyze both the forward and reverse reactions.

B. The enzyme is a monomer when catalyzing the phosphorylation reaction and a dimer when catalyzing the reverse reaction.

C. The forward and reverse reactions occur in different compartments within the cell, so a different name is used for each activity.

D. * The enzyme is bifunctional. The forward and reverse reactions are catalyzed by different sites on the same enzyme.

E. all of the above. 77. PFK-2 and fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase are two names for the same enzyme. The name

PFK-2 is used for the enzyme's catalysis of the phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. The name fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase is used for its catalysis of the reverse reaction. What is unique about this enzyme that makes it logical to use both names?

A. It is one of very few enzymes that can catalyze both the forward and reverse reactions.

B. The enzyme is a monomer when catalyzing the phosphorylation reaction and a dimer when catalyzing the reverse reaction.

C. The forward and reverse reactions occur in different compartments within the cell, so a different name is used for each activity.

D. * The enzyme is bifunctional. The forward and reverse reactions are catalyzed by different sites on the same enzyme.

E. Both A and D 78. Phosphofructokinase I deficiency results in:

A. * An overproduction of Fructose 6-phosphate B. An overproduction of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate C. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate deficiency D. a and c only E. none of the above.

79. Phospholructokinase I deficiency results in: A. An overproduction of Fructose 6-phosphate B. An overproduction of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate C. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate deficiency D. * a and c only E. All of the above

80. Phosphorylation at the expense of ATP is catalyzed by __________. A. * protein kinases B. phosphoryl isomerases C. phosphatases D. all of the above E. None of the above

81. Phosphorylation of fructose catalyzes enzymes: A. Hexokinase and enolase B. * Fructokinase and nonespecific hexokinase C. Phosphofructokinase and enolase

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D. Phosphofructokinase and phosphoglucoisomerase E. Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase and hexokinase

82. Seven of the ten reactions in the glycolytic pathway have free energy values close to zero. What does this tell us about those reactions?

A. They are near equilibrium reactions. B. They are not control points for pathway regulation. C. They are reversible reactions. D. * All of the above. E. None of the above.

83. Substrate level phosphorylation A. Describes the conversion of ADP into ATP with the addition of inorganic

phosphate every place throughout the cell B. Describes the formation of ADP by phosphoryl group transfer from 1,3

bisphosphoglycerate C. None of the above D. * Both a and b

84. Sucrase hydrolyses sucrose into: A. glucose and galactose; B. glucose and glucose; C. * glucose and fructose; D. glucose and mannose. E. none of the above.

85. The accumulation of phosphorylated monosaccharides in the hepatocytes does not result in the osmotic transfer of water and swelling of cells because glucose -6-phosphate converts into insoluble:

A. Starch B. Dekstrins C. * Glycogen D. Cellulose E. Triacylglycerol

86. The activity of which glycolytic enzyme shown below is not used to control the rate of glycolysis?

A. PFK-1 B. pyruvate kinase C. * triose phosphate isomerase D. hexokinase E. glucokinase

87. The activity of which glycolytic enzyme shown below is not used to control the rate of glycolysis?

A. PFK-1 B. pyruvate kinase C. * triose phosphate isomerase D. hexokinase E. None of the above

88. The biological functions of glycolysis are the following, except: A. getting energy by short way B. * ATP formation by oxidative phosphorylation C. ATP formation by substrate level phosphorylation D. usage of intermediate metabolites for lipids synthesis E. usage of metabolites fo glyconeogenesis

89. The concentration of glucose in the blood is normal. Which of the below-mentioned figures proves this?

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A. 3-10 mmol/l B. * 3,3-5,5 mmol/l C. 4-8 mmol/l D. 10-15 g/l E. 1-2 mmol/l

90. The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol also causes the ______________. A. * oxidation of NADH B. production of ADP C. consumption of O2 D. generation of an ion gradient across mitochondrial membranes E. oxidation of FADH2

91. The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol also causes the ______________. A. * oxidation of NADH B. production of ADP C. consumption of O2 D. generation of an ion gradient across mitochondrial membranes E. oxidation of FADH2

92. The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol also causes the ______________. A. * oxidation of NADH B. production of ADP C. consumption of O2 D. generation of an ion gradient across mitochondrial membranes E. reduction of NAD

93. The conversion of pyruvate to ethanol also causes the ______________. A. * oxidation of NADH B. production of ADP C. consumption of O2 D. generation of an ion gradient across mitochondrial membranes E. None of the above

94. The end product of anaerobic glycolysis is: A. pyruvate B. * lactic acid C. ethanol D. acetic acid E. glycerine aldehyde

95. The end produtcs of aerobic glucose oxidation: A. lactic acid B. * Pyruvate C. CO2 and H2O D. ethanol E. acetaldehyde

96. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate is ______________. A. lactate reductase B. pyruvate kinase C. lactoenolpyruvate D. * lactate dehydrogenase E. lactate oxidase

97. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate is ______________. A. lactate reductase B. pyruvate kinase C. lactoenolpyruvate D. * lactate dehydrogenase

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E. lactate oxidase 98. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate is ______________.

A. lactate reductase B. pyruvate kinase C. lactoenolpyruvate D. * lactate dehydrogenase E. None of the above

99. The enzyme which the key regulatory step in glycogen biosynthesis is A. * Glycogen synthase B. Glycogenin C. Branching enzyme D. Phosphoglucomutase E. UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase

100. The family of GluT (glucose transporters) is: A. * the proteins embedded into the cell membrane and facilitating the glucose

transport across the membrane; B. the proteins embedded into the cell membrane and inhibiting the glucose transport

across the membrane; C. the cytoplasmic proteins transporting glucose in the cytoplasm of cell; D. the proteins of blood plasma transporting glucose via the blood. E. none of the above.

101. The glycerophosphate shuttle system on one molecule of cytoplasmatic NADH provides formation:

A. 15 ATP B. 12 ATP C. 8 ATP D. * 2 ATP E. 3 ATP

102. The glycolytic pathway oxidizes glucose to two molecules of pyruvate and also produces a net of two molecules of ATP. ATP allosterically inhibits the enzyme, PFK-1, that catalyzes the third step of glycolysis. This is an example of _____________.

A. feed-forward activation B. * feedback inhibition C. negative cooperativity D. competitive inhibition E. None of the above

103. The inhibitor of phosphofructikinase in the glycolysis is: A. * adenosine triphosphate B. guanosine monophosphate C. cytidine monophosphate D. guanosine triphosphate E. uridine diphosphate

104. The inhibitors of phosphofructokinase (which catalyses transformation of fructose -6-phosphate into fructose -1, 6-biphosphate) are:

A. AMP and ADP B. AMP and lactate C. ADP and malonate D. ADP and ATP E. * ATP and citrate

105. The innate undigestion of fructose is related to the genetic defect of enzyme: A. * Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase B. Hexokinase

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C. Phosphofruktokinase D. Phosphoglucoisomerase E. Enolase

106. The key intermediate product of carbohydrate metabolism – glucose-6-phosphate – can transformed in a liver by such ways, except:

A. From glucose-6-phosphate glycogen is synthesed B. Glucose-6-phosphate under influence of specific phosphates split to free glucose C. Spliting by glycolisis to pyruvate D. Spliting to CO2 and H2O with selection energy of ATP E. * Transforms in uracyl

107. The main hormones that regulate the synthesis and decomposition of glycogen are:

A. insulin, glucocorticoids, thyroxin; B. glucagons, glucocorticoids, vasopressin; C. * insulin, glucagons, epinephrine; D. glucocorticoids, glucagons, epinephrine. E. all of the above.

108. The major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis is phosphofructokinase, the activators of which are:

A. ATP and citrate B. * AMP and ADP C. Lactate and AMP D. Malonate and ATP E. Ions of Zn2+ and Na+

109. The major regulatory step of the pentose phosphate pathway is catalyzed by which enzyme?

A. transaldolase B. phosphofructokinase-1 C. * glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. ribose 5-phosphate isomerase E. hexokinase

110. The molecule 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate can be converted to 3-phosphoenolpyruvate two ways. One way is catalyzed by the glycolytic pathway enzyme phosphoglycerate kinase. The other route is a two step reaction sequence that uses the enzymes bisphosphoglycerate mutase and 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate phosphatase. The intermediate product of the two-step sequence is 2,3-BPG which is an allosteric inhibitor of hemoglobin. What disadvantage would there be if the glycolytic pathway only used the two-step reaction sequence?

A. * The step catalyzed by phosphoglycerate kinase is one of the ATP producing steps of glycolysis. Using only the two-step reaction sequence would reduce the number of ATP's produced.

B. There is no disadvantage to the two-step sequence other than having to use more than one enzyme.

C. The molecule 2,3-BPG is also a potent inhibitor of PFK-1. Even transient production of 2,3-BPG will significantly slow glycolysis.

D. Too much 2,3-BPG would be produced which would cause clumping of red blood cells.

E. Both A and D 111. The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway produces substances

that are intermediates of ___________. A. * glycolysis B. the citric acid cycle

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C. the Cori cycle D. glycogenolysis E. none of the above.

112. The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway produces substances that are intermediates of ___________.

A. * glycolysis B. the citric acid cycle C. the Cori cycle D. glycogenolysis E. B and C

113. The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway __________. A. produces NADPH and releases CO2 B. * consists entirely of near-equilibrium reactions C. contains two reactions whose enzymes are allosterically inhibited by NADPH D. consumes four ATP molecules E. produces FADH2 and releases CO2

114. The non-oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway produces substances that are intermediates of ___________.

A. * glycolysis B. the citric acid cycle C. the Cori cycle D. glycogenolysis E. a and b

115. The overall ‘G for glycolysis is -72 kJ/mol in erythrocytes. Which statement below is true?

A. The value of ‘G0' is also -72 kJ/mol since the cytosol pH is close to 7. B. The free energy of glycolysis is found as the sum of the standard free energy

changes for the individual pathway reactions. C. * The negative sign of ‘G shows that this pathway will proceed toward product

(pyruvate) under normal cellular conditions. D. All of the above. E. None of the above

116. The pentose phosphate pathway consists of _____ phases:__________________ . A. three; oxidative, hydrolytic and reductive; B. four; oxidative, nonoxidative, hydrolytic and reductive; C. * two; oxidative and nonoxidative; D. two; oxidative and reductive. E. none of the above.

117. The pentose phosphate pathway has two primary products. They are _________. A. ATP and NADPH B. oxaloacetate and acetyl CoA C. sorbitol and fructose D. * ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH E. ribose-5-phosphate and FADH2

118. The pentose phosphate pathway has two primary products. They are _________. A. ATP and NADPH B. oxaloacetate and acetyl CoA C. sorbitol and fructose D. * ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH E. a and d

119. The possible metabolic pathways for pyruvate in anaerobic conditions are: A. conversion to lactate or acetyl CoA;

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B. conversion to ethanol or acetyl CoA; C. * conversion to lactate or ethanol; D. conversion to lactate or ethanol or acetyl CoA. E. all of the above.

120. The preparatory stage of glycolysis ends with formation of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate and dioxyacetone phosphate. This reaction catalyzed by an enzyme:

A. Phosphoglyceratekinase B. Hexokinase C. Enolase D. * Aldolase E. Phosphoglyceratemutase

121. The process of glucose oxidation in anaerobic condition is: A. * glycolisis B. glyconeogenesis C. glycogenolysis D. glycogenogenesis E. lipolysis

122. The process of polysaccharides digestion in the gastrointestinal tract is catalized by:

A. sucrase; B. lactase; C. maltase; D. * D-amilase. E. none of the above

123. The product of aerobic glycolysis is: A. 1,3- biphosphoglycerate B. * Pyruvate C. Acetyl-CoA D. Enolphosphopyruvate E. Lactate

124. The products of lactose decomposition in the intestine are: A. * glucose, galactose B. glucose, fructose C. fructose, galactose D. maltose, ribose E. ribose, glucose

125. The products of sucrose decomposition in the intestine are: A. glucose, galactose B. * glucose, fructose C. fructose, galactose D. maltose, ribose E. ribose, glucose

126. The products, which are formed by the decomposition of fructose-1,6-diphosphate in the glycolysis:

A. glycerol, pyruvate B. * dihydroxyacetone phosphate, 3-phosphoglycerine aldehyde C. pyruvate, dihydroxyacetone phosphate D. lactic acid, acetyl CoA E. acetyl CoA, glycerin

127. The reaction of ethanol formation at the alcohol fermentation is catalyzed by an enzyme:

A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

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B. Enolase C. * Alcohol dehydrogenase D. Lactate dehydrogenase E. Pyruvate decarboxylase

128. The reaction, which determines the glycolysis speed: A. lactate dehydrogenase B. * pyruvate kinase C. glucose-6-phosphatase D. aldolase E. glucose-6-phosphate isomerase

129. The reactions of alcohol fermentation and glycolysis are same to the stage of pyruvate which farther under action of pyruvatedecarboxylase converts into:

A. Ethanol B. Lactate C. Glycerol D. Glyceraldehyde E. * Acetaldehyde

130. The reason of development of cataract of children with galactosemia is a decrease of activity of such enzyme in the lens as:

A. Glyucokinase B. * Galactose-1- phosphate uridiltransferase C. Galactomutase D. Aldolase E. UDP-glyucuronil transferase

131. The sequence of glucose oxidation to lactate in peripheral tissues, delivery of lactate to the liver, formation of glucose from lactate in the liver, and delivery of glucose back to peripheral tissues is known as the ______.

A. glyoxylate cycle B. Kreb's cycle C. * Cori cycle D. gluconeogenesis cycle E. None of the above

132. The sequence of reactions of alcohol fermentation is the same, as well as sequence of reactions of glycolysis to the stage of such product formation:

A. * Pyruvate B. Lactate C. 3- phosphoglycerate D. 2-phosphoglycerate E. Two trioses

133. The slowing of glycolysis in the presence of oxygen is called the ____________ effect.

A. Bohr B. Michaelis-Menton C. * Pastuer D. Pauling E. Fisher

134. The slowing of glycolysis in the presence of oxygen is called the ____________ effect.

A. Bohr B. Michaelis-Menton C. * Pastuer D. Pauling

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E. None of the above 135. The three control sites in glycolysis are the reactions catalyzed by:

A. hexokinase, phosphofructokinase 1 and aldolase; B. phosphofructokinase 1, aldolase and pyruvate kinase; C. hexokinase, aldolase and pyruvate kinase; D. * hexokinase, phosphofructokinase 1 and pyruvate kinase. E. all of the above.

136. The transport of hydrogen from cytoplasm NADH to the respiratory chain of internal mitochondrial membrane takes place with a help of:

A. Carnytin B. Simple diffusion C. * Malate-aspartate shuttle system D. Permeases E. Ionophores

137. There are four enzymes that can catalyze the first step of glycolysis. They are hexokinases I, II and III and glucokinase (hexokinase IV). Hexokinases I, II and III have KM values near 0.1 mM. Glucokinase has a KM of 2-5 mM. If after a heavy meal the blood glucose level rises to 8 mM which statement will be true?

A. At this high blood glucose level all four hexokinases are saturated with substrate. B. * Hexokinases I, II and III are catalyzing at their maximum rate, but glucokinase

can still respond to increases in blood glucose levels. C. None of the enzymes is saturated. All of them help to increase the rate of

glycolysis. D. The flux through glucokinase will be extremely low. The only significant

catalysis is done by hexokinases I, II and III. E. A and B correct

138. Transfer of a high-energy phosphoryl group to ADP, resulting in ATP occurs when:

A. 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate -> 3-phosphoglycerate B. * Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) -> pyruvate C. 3-Phosphoglycerate -> 2-phosphoglycerate D. Both a and b E. all of the above.

139. Transfer of a high-energy phosphoryl group to ADP, resulting in ATP occurs when:

A. 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate -> 3-phosphoglycerate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) -> pyruvate C. 3-Phosphoglycerate -> 2-phosphoglycerate D. * Both a and b E. None of the above

140. Transfer of the phosphoryl group from PEP to ADP is an example of A. A mutase reaction B. Isomerization C. A dehydrogenase D. * None of the above E. Oxidation

141. Transfer of the phosphoryl group from PEP to ADP is an example of A. A mutase reaction B. Isomerization C. A dehydrogenase D. * None of the above E. Oxidation

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142. Transformation: D- galactose -1-phosphate + UDP-glucose D-glucose-1- phosphate + UDP-1- galactose, catalyses an enzyme:

A. Hexokinase B. Phosphoglucomutase C. * Galactose-1- phosphate uridiltransferase D. Glucokinase E. UDP-galactopyrophosphorilase

143. Transketolase and transaldolase are the enzymes of _______________ phase of pentose phosphate pathway and they catalyze the ___________________________.

A. * nonoxidative; the exchange of two- and three-carbon fragments between sugar phosphates;

B. oxidative; the conversion of glucose to ribulose 5-phosphate; C. nonoxidative; the conversion of glucose to ribulose 5-phosphate; D. oxidative; the exchange of two- and three-carbon fragments between sugar

phosphates E. None of the above.

144. Under starvation conditions, about how long does it take in humans for the body to deplete the glycogen store in the liver?

A. 10 minutes B. * 4 hours C. 24 hours D. 1 week E. 2 weeks

145. What are the effects of protein kinase A on PFK-2 and pyruvate kinase? A. phosphorylates PFK-2; dephosphorylated pyruvate kinase; both enzymes are

inhibited B. * phosphorylates both enzymes; inhibits both enzymes C. dephosphorylates both enzymes; inhibits both enzymes D. dephosphorylates PFK-2; phosphorylates pyruvate kinase; activates PFK-2;

inhibits pyruvate kinase E. Both A and D

146. What chemical species activates the GLUT4 protein to transport glucose into cells?

A. adrenaline B. * insulin C. protein kinase A D. PFK-2 E. all of the above.

147. What chemical species activates the GLUT4 protein to transport glucose into cells?

A. adrenaline B. * insulin C. protein kinase A D. PFK-2 E. glucagon

148. What chemical species activates the GLUT4 protein to transport glucose into cells?

A. adrenaline B. * insulin C. protein kinase A D. PFK-2 E. None of the above

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149. What enzyme catalyzes transformation of fructose -6-phosphate into glucose -6-phosphate?

A. Phosphofructokinase B. Phosphoglucomutase C. * Phosphoglucoisomerase D. Triosophosphateisomerase E. Enolase

150. What enzyme transform glucose of meal in a liver into glucose-6-phosphate? A. Phosphoglucomutase B. Phosphatase C. * Hexokinase D. Fructokinase E. Glucose isomerase

151. What from the below mentioned functions is not proper to glycolysis? A. Providing of organism energy at the hypoxia B. Formation of dihydroxyacetone phosphate that is reduced to the glycerophosphate C. Formation of pyruvate and lactate for their transformations in aerobic conditions D. Energy source for malignant cells E. * Synthesis ATP by the oxidative phosphorylation

152. What is the function of pyruvate decarboxylase? A. * The conversion of pyruvate to carbon dioxide and acetaldehyde. B. To completely oxidize pyruvate to three molecules of carbon dioxide. C. To convert phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. D. To regulate PFK-1. E. The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

153. What is the function of pyruvate decarboxylase? A. * The conversion of pyruvate to carbon dioxide and acetaldehyde. B. To completely oxidize pyruvate to three molecules of carbon dioxide. C. To e. None of the above convert phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. D. To regulate PFK-1. E. None of the above

154. What is the prosthetic group of transketolase? A. * thiamine pyrophosphate B. biotin C. pyridoxal phosphate D. NAD+ E. FAD

155. What types of reactions are involved in the two-step conversion of glucose to fructose?

A. * reduction followed by oxidation B. two sequential hydrolysis reactions C. hydrolysis followed by isomerization (rearrangement) D. phosphorylation followed by dephosphorylation E. phosphorylation followed by reduction

156. Where in the cell the glycolysis reactions are localized? A. mitochondria B. * cytoplasm C. lysosomes D. microsomes E. nucleus

157. Which amino acid's residue plays a role in the phosphoglycerate mutase reaction in glycolysis for muscle and yeast?

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A. Leucine B. Lysine C. Alanine D. Histidine E. All of the above

158. Which amino acid's residue plays a role in the phosphoglycerate mutase reaction in glycolysis for muscle and yeast?

A. Leucine B. Lysine C. Alanine D. Histidine E. All of above

159. Which applies to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate? A. inhibitor of pyruvate kinase B. product of PFK-1 catalyzed step in glycolysis C. isomer of glucose 1,6-bisphosphate D. * all of the above E. None of the above

160. Which is a reasonable concentration for glucose in the blood? A. 0.5 mM B. * 5 mM C. 50 mM D. 5 M E. 3.5 M

161. Which is an intermediate formed in the conversion of glucose to fructose? A. glucose-1-phosphate B. * sorbitol C. ribose D. aldose reductase E. pyruvate

162. Which is not a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway? A. To maintain the reduced form of iron in hemoglobin. B. To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty acids. C. To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA. D. * To raise the concentration of cAMP. E. none of the above.

163. Which is not a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway? A. To maintain the reduced form of iron in hemoglobin. B. To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty acids. C. To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA. D. * To raise the concentration of cAMP. E. D and C

164. Which is not a possible fate of mitochondrial pyruvate? A. conversion to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase B. * conversion to phosphoenolpyruvate by pyruvate kinase C. conversion to acetyl CoA D. conversion to citrate for fatty acid synthesis E. a, b and c

165. Which is not among the possible fates of pyruvate after glycolysis? A. conversion to lactate B. further reduction by the citric acid cycle C. conversion to ethanol

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D. * used in the biosynthesis of alanine E. all of the above.

166. Which is not among the possible fates of pyruvate after glycolysis? A. conversion to lactate B. * further reduction by the citric acid cycle C. conversion to ethanol D. used in the biosynthesis of Alanine E. None of the above

167. Which is not among the possible fates of pyruvate after glycolysis? A. conversion to lactate B. further reduction by the citric acid cycle C. conversion to ethanol D. used in the biosynthesis of alanine E. * all of the above

168. Which metabolites link pentose phosphate pathway with glycolysis? A. 3-phosphoglyserate, 2-phosphoglycerate; B. phosphoenolpyruvate, pyruvate C. fructose 1,6-biphosphate, phosphoenolpyruvate; D. * fructose 6-phosphate, glucose 6-phosphate. E. none of the above.

169. Which molecule cannot be directly transported from the mitochondria to the cytosol?

A. * oxaloacetate B. acetate C. malate D. phosphoenolpyruvate E. a and c

170. Which of the following elements is required for the enzymatic reaction which produces phosphoenolpyruvate?

A. Potassium B. Calcium C. * Magnesium D. Manganese E. Sodium

171. Which of the following elements is required for the enzymatic reaction which produces phosphoenolpyruvate?

A. Potassium B. Calcium C. * Magnesium D. Manganese E. Sodium

172. Which of the following enzymatic reactions is/are control points for glycolysis: A. Glucose 6-phosphate isomerase B. Aldolase C. Both a and b D. * Neither a nor b E. Mutase

173. Which of the following is not a metabolically irreversible enzymatic reaction of glycolysis?

A. Pyruvate kinase reaction B. PFK-1 reaction C. Hexokinase/Glucokinase reaction

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D. * None of the above E. All of the above

174. Which of the following is not a metabolically irreversible enzymatic reaction of glycolysis?

A. Pyruvate kinase reaction B. PFK-1 reaction C. Hexokinase/Glucokinase reaction D. * None of the above E. All of these

175. Which of the following is not a metabolically irreversible enzymatic reaction of glycolysis?

A. Pyruvate kinase reaction B. PFK-1 reaction C. Hexokinase/Glucokinase reaction D. None of the above E. * Aldolase reaction

176. Which of the following is not regulated in glycolysis? A. Pyruvate kinase B. * Phosphoglycerate kinase C. Hexokinase D. PFK-1 E. all of the above.

177. Which of the following is not regulated in glycolysis? A. Pyruvate kinase B. * Phosphoglycerate kinase C. Hexokinase D. PFK-1 E. None of the above

178. Which of the following is not regulated in glycolysis? A. Pyruvate kinase B. * Phosphoglycerate kinase C. Hexokinase D. PFK-1 E. None of above

179. Which of the following is not regulated in glycolysis? A. Pyruvate kinase B. * Phosphoglycerate kinase C. Hexokinase D. PFK-1 E. Glucokinase

180. Which of the following mutases catalyze the formation of a 2,3 BPG intermediate?

A. Muscle phosphoglycerate mutases B. Plant phosphoglycerate mutases C. Yeast phosphoglycerate mutases D. * a and c only E. All of the above

181. Which of the following mutases catalyze the formation of a 2,3 BPG intermediate?

A. Muscle phosphoglycerate mutases B. Plant phosphoglycerate mutases C. Yeast phosphoglycerate mutases

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D. * a and c only E. All of the above

182. Which substance causes muscles to ache during strenuous exercise? A. pyruvic acid B. lactose dehydrogenase C. lactate ion D. * lactic acid E. acetyl CoA

183. Which substance causes muscles to ache during strenuous exercise? A. pyruvic acid B. lactose dehydrogenase C. lactate ion D. * lactic acid E. None of the above

184. Which substance is not needed for the conversion of glucose to fructose? A. NADPH B. Aldose reductase C. * QH2 D. NAD+ E. b and c

185. Which way transformation galactose in a liver on glucose-6-phosphate? A. By specific hecsoisomerase B. Glicolitic to pyruvat, and farther – by gluconeogenesis C. By glucomutase D. By cytidiltransferase E. * Galactose galactose-1-phosphatepglucose-1-phosphatepglucose-6-phosphate

186. Why would it be desirable to slow glycolysis when the demand for ATP is high? A. Inhibition of PFK-1 allows for the complete oxidation of pyruvate via the citric

acid cycle. B. * Slowing glycolysis slows the rate of decrease in pH. A low pH can be harmful

and potentially fatal. C. The less active form of PFK-1 is a potent allosteric activator of creatine, so even

though glycolysis is slowed, ATP production is actually increased by the activation of creatine.

D. As PFK-1 is inhibited, its isozyme, PFK-2 is activated. PFK-2 is functional at a much lower pH than PFK-1.

E. Slowing glycolysis slows the rate of increase in pH. A high pH can be harmful and potentially fatal.

187. Yeast will normally convert pyruvate to ethanol. Why is this better for the yeast than a conversion to lactate?

A. Conversion to ethanol releases more NAD+ per mole than the conversion to lactate.

B. The carbon atoms are more oxidized in ethanol than in lactate. C. * Ethanol is neutral, but lactate production is accompanied by a sharp decrease in

pH. D. Ethanol production is not better. Yeast normally produces ethanol and lactate in

equilmolar amounts. E. A and B only

188. Gluconeogenesis A. Is concerned with synthesis of glycogen B. Refers to the conversion of glycogen into glucose

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C. * Refers to the ability of the liver to form precursors for glucose using fats and proteins

D. Is a process resulting from deamination of amino acids E. Is an essential part of the emulsification of fats

189. A lack of blood glucose would have the greatest effects on A. * The brain. B. The heart. C. The liver. D. Skeletal muscles E. Cardiac muscle

190. A regulator of the enzyme Glycogen synthase is A. Citric acid B. 2, 3 bisphosphoglycerate C. * Pyruvate D. GTP E. GDP

191. ADP and AMP ___________________ gluconeogenesis. A. Stimulate B. * Inhibit C. Do not effect D. ADP stimulates and AMP inhibits E. ADP inhibits and AMP stimulates

192. Aerobic resynthesis of ATP occurs: A. In the mitochondria in a process called glycogenolysis B. * In the mitochondria in a process called oxidative phosphorylation C. In the cytosol D. In the sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Only in Type I muscle fibres

193. After glycogen has been used up in the postabsorptive state, which of the following is usually used as the next source of energy?

A. * Glucose B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Amino acids E. Only B

194. After the hepatic threshold for glycogen formation has occurred any excess glucose in the blood is:

A. * Converted to lipid and stored as fat B. Excreted by the kidney C. Converted to urea D. Is used in protein synthesis E. B and c

195. After the hepatic treshhold for glycogen formation has occurred, any excess glucose in the blood is

A. * Converted to lipid and stored as fat B. Excreted by the kidneys C. Converted to urea D. Is used in protein synthesis E. B and C are correct

196. All are true for ?-amylase EXCEPT: A. Catalyzes hydrolysis of ? (1 4) linkages in starch. B. Is an important component of saliva and pancreatic juice.

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C. * Catalyzes hydrolysis of ? (1 6) linkages in amylopectin. D. Catalyzes hydrolysis of ? (1 4) linkages in glycogen. E. Activity is reduced in highly branched regions of polysaccharides and stops four

residues from any branch point. 197. All of the following enzymes involved in the flow of carbon from glucose to

lactate (glycolysis) are also involved in the reversal of this flow (gluconeogenesis) except:

A. 3-phosphoglycerate kinase. B. Aldolase. C. Enolase. D. * Phosphofructokinase-1. E. Phosphoglucoisomerase.

198. All of the molecules below are examples of polymers of glucose subunits except: A. * Chitin B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Starch E. Sucrose

199. All of the molecules below are examples of polysaccharides except: A. Glycogen B. Cellulose C. Starch D. * Maltose E. All of the above

200. Amylose (a form of starch) and cellulose are both plant carbohydrate polymers. What is the main structural difference between them?

A. Cellulose has many more branches than amylose B. * Cellulose has ?-(1,4) glycosidic links and amylose has ?-(1,4) glycosidic links C. Cellulose has ?-(1,4) glycosidic links and amylose has ?-(1,4) glycosidic links D. Cellulose is a polymer of galactose, and amylose is a polymer of glucose E. Cellulose is a polymer of glucose, and amylose is a polymer of galactose

201. An enzyme involved in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is: A. Hexokinase B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. * 3-phosphoglycerate kinase D. Phosphofructokinase-1 E. Pyruvate kinase

202. An essential for converting Glucose to Glycogen in Liver is A. Lactic acid B. GTP C. CTP D. * UTP E. FMN

203. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose results in an oxygen debt that is the amount of oxygen needed to metabolize the ______ that is produced.

A. Carbon dioxide B. * Lactic acid C. Glycogen D. Fatty acid E. Cholesterol

204. Anaerobic metabolism refers to the generation of ATP: A. Without the involvement of ADP

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B. Without the use of glycogen C. * Without the use of oxygen D. In the absence of available oxygen E. By the conversion of pyruvate to lactate

205. Anaerobic respiration A. * Is the primary metabolic pathway of cardiac muscle. B. Is induced by ischemia. C. Produces water and carbon dioxide as products. D. Produces a maximum of 30 ATP E. Produces oxygen as products

206. Any compound that can be converted to __ can be a precursor for gluconeogenesis.

A. Citrate B. Pyruvate C. Oxaloacetate D. All of the above E. * b and c

207. Approximately how much energy is liberated when one gram of carbohydrate is completely oxidised?

A. 4 kJ B. 8 kJ C. * 16 kJ D. 24 kJ E. 38 kJ

208. As a result of anaerobic respiration in humans, glucose is converted to A. * Pyruvic acid. B. Lactic acid. C. Citric acid. D. Acetyl CoA. E. Vitamin C

209. As a result of glycolysis, linking step and the Krebs cycle each molecule of glucose produces:

A. * 2 molecules of lactic acid B. 6 molecules of carbon dioxide C. 3 molecules of water D. 3 molecules of carbon dioxide E. 2 molecules of O2

210. Blood glucose is actually: A. * Absorbed from GI tract B. Released by the muscles into the blood when it isn’t needed as energy source for

contraction C. Glycogen from the liver D. Glucagon which can be converted to sugar when glucose is needed for energy

source E. The kinetic energy of the blood

211. Cori cycle is A. Synthesis of glucose B. Reuse of glucose C. Uptake of glycose D. * Both (A) & (B) E. Only C

212. Cori’s cycle transfers

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A. Glucose from muscles to liver B. * Lactate from muscles to liver C. Lactate from liver to muscles D. Pyruvate from liver to muscles E. Nonbe of the above

213. Deficit of which enzyme is the base for the I type glycogenosis? A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. * Hexokinase C. Aldolase D. Glycogen synthetase E. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

214. Dietary fructose normally enters the glycolytic pathway by which of the following mechanisms?

A. Phosphorylation to F-6-P by hexokinase. B. Phosphorylation to F-1-P by fructokinase, cleavage by F-1-P aldolase. C. Phosphorylation to F-1-P, isomerization to F-6-P by phosphofructomutase. D. * A or B E. A, B, or C

215. Differentiate between the carbohydrate metabolic processes glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. Name the following pathways: Releases glucose from glycogen

A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenesis D. * Glycogenolysis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

216. E 3,3 mmol/l A. * 8,5 mmol/l B. 2 mmol/l C. 4,5 mmol/l D. 5 mmol/l

217. E The normal degradation of triglycerides into FFAs by adipose tissue is impaired.

A. * The normal suppression of gluconeogenesis by insulin in the liver is impaired. B. The normal uptake of glucose by skeletal muscle is impaired. C. The normal glucose disposal, which includes glucose oxidation and glycogen

synthesis, by skeletal muscle, is impaired. D. Excess free fatty acids (FFAs) impair c-cell function.

218. Each of the following lines is the name of a disaccharide. A. Galactose B. Mannose C. Glucose D. * Maltose E. Fructose

219. Energy released by oxidation of glucose is stored as A. concentration gradient across a membrane. B. * TP C. ADH. D. DP. E. oth b and c are correct.

220. Ethanol decreases gluconeogenesis by A. Inhibiting glucose-6-phosphatase B. Inhibiting PEP carboxykinase

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C. * Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing the availability of pyruvate D. Converting NAD+ into NADH and decreasing the availability of lactate E. Only B

221. Excess glucose after a meal will first form glycogen in a process called A. Glycolysis. B. * Glycogenesis. C. Lipogenesis. D. Lipolyosis. E. Gluconeogenesis

222. Excessive intake of ethanol increases the ratio: A. * NADH : NAD+ B. NAD+ : NADH C. FADH2 : FAD D. FAD : FADH2 E. Cyt. B; cyt. C

223. For glycogenesis, Glucose should be converted to A. Glucuronic acid B. Pyruvic acid C. * UDP glucose D. Sorbitol E. None of the above

224. Fructose metabolism is not well regulated in the liver because: A. * Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase allows fructose to bypass phosphofructokinase B. More ATP is derived from glucose than fructose. C. More ATP is derived from fructose than glucose. D. lucose is the preferred substrate for hexokinase. E. GLUT4 transports glucose, but not fructose into the liver.

225. Glucocorticoids increase the level of glucose in the blood activating: A. lycogenogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Ketogenesis E. * Glycolysis

226. Glucokinase and hexokinase are different from one another in all of the following ways except:

A. Their location in the tissues B. Their Km C. Their Vmax D. * The reaction they catalyze E. Their inhibition by product

227. Gluconeogenesis is increased in the following condition: A. Diabetes insipidus B. * Diabetes Mellitus C. Hypothyroidism D. Liver diseases E. All of the above

228. Glucose breakdown in certain mammalian and bacterial cells can occur by mechanisms other than classic glycolysis. In most of these, glucose 6-phosphate is oxidized to 6-phosphogluconate, which is then further metabolized by:

A. An aldolase-type split to form glyceric acid and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. B. An aldolase-type split to form glycolic acid and erythrose 4-phosphate. C. Conversion to 1,6-bisphosphogluconate.

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D. * Decarboxylation to produce keto- and aldopentoses. E. Oxidation to a six-carbon dicarboxylic acid.

229. Glucose enters muscle cells mostly by: A. Simple diffusion B. * Facilitated diffusion using a specific glucose transporter C. Co-transport with sodium D. Co-transport with amino acids E. Active transport

230. Glucose enters muscle cells mostly by: A. Simple diffusion B. * Facilitated diffusion using a specific glucose transporter C. Co-transport with sodium D. Co-transport with amino acids E. Active transport

231. Glucose molecules entering skeletal muscle fibers are "trapped'' when converted to

A. Pyruvic acid B. Glucose 1-phosphate C. * Glucose 6-phosphate D. Glycogen E. Lactic acid

232. Glucose not part of a diet may be provided by degradation of A. * Stored glycogen B. Starch C. Dextrin D. A and b E. A, b and c

233. Glucose tolerance is decreased in A. * Diabetes mellitus B. Hypopituitarisme C. Addison’s disease D. Hypothyroidism E. Anemia

234. Glucose tolerance is increased in A. Diabetes mellitus B. * Adrenalectomy C. Acromegaly D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Riscets

235. Glucose-6-phosphate can serve as: A. An intermedicate in glycolysis. B. A precursor for the synthesis of glycogen. C. An intermediate in gluconeogenesis. D. A product of collagen degredation. E. * A, B, C

236. Glucose, labeled with 14C in different carbon atoms, is added to a crude extract of a tissue rich in the enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway. The most rapid production of 14CO2 will occur when the glucose is labeled in:

A. * C-1. B. C-3. C. C-4. D. C-5.

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E. C-6. 237. Glycerol is converted to ___________ when it is used for gluconeogenesis.

A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. Oxaloacetate D. * 3-phosphoglycerate E. None of the above.

238. Glycogen breakdown in exercising muscle is activated by: A. Insulin B. Cortisol C. Increased pH D. Amylase E. * None of the above

239. Glycogen breakdown in exercising muscle is activated by: A. Insulin B. Cortisol C. Increased pH D. Amylase E. * None of the above

240. glycogen in skeletal muscle? A. Phosphorylase B. Debranching enzyme C. * ?-1-6-amyloglucosidase D. Amylase E. Gucose-6-phosphatase

241. Glycogen is converted to glucose-1-phosphate by A. UDPG transferase B. Branching enzyme C. * Phosphorylase D. Phosphatase E. None of the above

242. Glycogen is converted to monosaccharide units by: A. Glucokinase. B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. * Glycogen phosphorylase. D. Glycogen synthase. E. Glycogenase.

243. Glycogen is present in all body tissues except A. Liver B. * Brain C. Kidney D. Stomach E. Pancreas

244. Glycogen synthesis in vertebrates requires _____________ to activate glucose 1-phosphate.

A. ATP B. ADP C. UTP D. UDP E. * All of the above

245. Glycogen synthetase activity is depressed by A. Glucose

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B. Insulin C. * Cyclic AMP D. Fructokinase E. Pyruvatdehydrogenase

246. Glycogen while being acted upon by active phosphorylase is converted first to A. Glucose B. Glucose 1-phosphate and Glycogen with 1 carbon less C. * Glucose-6-phosphate and Glycogen with 1 carbon less D. 6-Phosphogluconic acid E. None of the above

247. Glycogenolysis is promoted by A. * Glucagon B. Growth hormone C. Insulin D. Cortisol (corticosteroids) E. Both A and D are correct

248. Glycogenolysis refers to A. * The formation of glycogen B. The formation of urea C. Conversion of fat and/ or protein to glucose D. The anaerobic metabolism of glucose E. Conversion of glycogen to glucose

249. Glycolysis A. Requires the presence of oxygen B. * Is the first step of cellular respiration C. Produces carbon dioxide and water. D. Pilizes FAD as an electron acceptor E. Requires the presence of CO2

250. Glycolysis in the erythrocyte produces pyruvate that is further metabolized to: A. O2. B. Ethanol. C. Glucose. D. Hemoglobin. E. * Lactate.

251. Glycolysis is inhibited by high concentrations of A. Glucose. B. Oxygen. C. ADP. D. * ATP. E. All of above

252. Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of: A. Glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate B. Glycogen or glucose to fructose C. * Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate D. Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or acetyl CoA E. Glucose or fatty acids to pyruvate or acetyl CoA

253. How certain carbohydrate pathways are reciprocally affected by insulin and glucagon. The areas of focus will be:

A. Regulation of glycolysis by phosphorylation/dephosphorylation of key enzymes; B. Regulation of glycogen formation vs. breakdown, again by phosphorylation/

dephosphorylation;

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C. * How this regulation is coordinated so as to avoid futile cycling and trapping of intermediates

D. How this regulation fits with the overall function of insulin vs. glucagon E. None of the above

254. How many grams of glucose is it necessary to eat for a patient to perform a method of sugary loading

A. * 1 g per 1 kg of weight B. 100 g C. 20 g D. 50 g E. 10 g

255. How many substrate level phosphorylation reactions are in glycolysis? A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4. E. 0

256. Hydrogen ions are formed when: A. Glycogen becomes depleted B. Phosphocreatine breakdown occurs C. Pyruvate is converted to lactate D. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA E. * lycolysis is being used as a major means of resynthesising ATP

257. If excess glucose is present in the body, the glucose first will be stored as __________ in muscle and the liver.

A. Starch B. * Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Fat E. Vitamin C

258. If glucose labeled with 14C in C-3 is metabolized to lactate via fermentation, the lactate will contain 14C in:

A. All three carbon atoms. B. Only the carbon atom carrying the OH. C. * Only the carboxyl carbon atom. D. Only the methyl carbon atom. E. The methyl and carboxyl carbon atoms.

259. If oxygen is unavailable, the pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted into: A. Alcohol B. * Lactic acid C. Carbon dioxide D. Acetyl CoA E. Water

260. Immediately after exhaustive exercise, carbohydrate should be consumed to: A. Restore liver glycogen B. * Restore muscle glycogen C. Provide the muscle with an energy source during recovery D. CHO should not be consumed post exercise E. None of the above

261. In a eukaryotic cell, the enzymes of glycolysis are located in the: A. Plasma membrane. B. Inner mitochondrial membrane.

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C. * Cytosol. D. Mitochondrial matrix. E. Intermembrane space.

262. In a tissue that metabolizes glucose via the pentose phosphate pathway, C-1 of glucose would be expected to end up principally in:

A. * Carbon dioxide. B. Glycogen. C. Phosphoglycerate. D. Pyruvate. E. Ribulose 5-phosphate.

263. In addition to control of activity by phosphorylation, phosphorylase kinase is activated by

A. Calmodulin B. * Ca++ C. cAMP D. Inhibitor-1 E. Na+

264. In addition to energy (ATP), what is (are) the final product(s) of aerobic respiration?

A. O2 and CO2 B. * CO2 and H2O C. O2 and H2O D. CO2 only E. O2 only

265. In an anaerobic muscle preparation, lactate formed from glucose labeled in C-2 would be labeled in:

A. All three carbon atoms. B. * Only the carbon atom carrying the OH C. Only the carboxyl carbon atom. D. Only the methyl carbon atom. E. The methyl and carboxyl carbon atoms.

266. In anaerobic respiration, lactic acid is released into the blood from skeletal muscle. When oxygen is available, most of the lactic acid is converted back to pyruvic acid and glucose in the

A. Liver. B. * Skeletal muscle C. Heart. D. Lung. E. Kidney

267. In comparison with the resting state, actively contracting human muscle tissue has a:

A. Higher concentration of ATP. B. * Higher rate of lactate formation. C. Lower consumption of glucose. D. Lower rate of consumption of oxygen E. Lower ratio of NADH to NAD+.

268. In general, the higher the intensity of exercise, the greater the proportional contribution of:

A. Aerobic energy production B. * Anaerobic energy production C. The TCA cycle (Krebs’ cycle) to the production of ATP D. The electron transfer chain to the production of ATP

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E. Fat oxidation 269. In glycolysis, glucose must be activated with the use of how many ATP

molecules? A. 2 B. 3 C. 10 D. * 1 E. 5

270. In glycolysis, how is ATP formed? A. Through deamination B. Through oxidative phosphorylation C. * Through substrate level events D. Through transfer of electrons E. Through chemiosmosis

271. In humans, gluconeogenesis: A. * Helps to increase blood glucose during starvation. B. Is used to convert fatty acids into glucose. C. Is stimulated by the hormone insulin. D. Requires the enzyme hexokinase. E. Produces more ATP than it consumes.

272. In the human skeletal muscle and brain cells, the energy yield per molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration is ________ times higher than the energy yield in anaerobic respiration.

A. * 2 B. 16 C. 18 D. 19 E. 20

273. In the liver, kidney, and heart cells, the total number of ATP molecules generated per glucose in aerobic respiration is

A. 2 B. 30 C. 36 D. * 38 E. 10

274. Insulin decreases the level of blood glucose by: A. * Gluconeogenesis activation B. Gluconeogenesis oppression C. Glucose phosphorylation oppression D. Increase of glucose excretion with urine E. Adrenalin excretion decrease

275. Insulin facilitates energy storage in liver. Which enzymes of carbohydrate metabolism are coordinately regulated in liver in response to insulin signaling?

A. Glycogen synthase B. * Glycogen phosphorylase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) D. Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) E. Pyruvate kinase

276. Lactic acid A. Is produced as a result of aerobic metabolism of glucose. B. * Is one of the normal end products of glycolysis C. Is a common end product of red blood cells.

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D. None of the above E. All of the above

277. Liver glycogen breakdown is stimulated by: A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Adrenaline D. Both (a) and (b) E. * Both (b) and (c)

278. Liver glycogen breakdown is stimulated by: A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Adrenaline D. Both (a) and (b) E. * Both (b) and (c)

279. Many people who are lactose intolerant can eat yogurt, which is prepared from milk curdled by bacteria, with no problems. Why is this possible?

A. It is not possible (the statement in the question is not true); if one is lactose intolerant, it is a genetic defect and cannot be altered

B. The bacteria convert all the lactose (milk sugar) to glucose C. The bacteria convert all the lactose (milk sugar) to fructose D. The bacteria convert all the lactose (milk sugar) to galactose E. * The bacteria convert the disaccharide lactose into its component

monosaccharides, glucose and galactose; these resulting monosaccharides can be tolerated

280. Muscle and liver glycogen stores in a well nourished athlete would be sufficient to sustain approximately how many minutes of submaximal exercise (if this were the only energy source used)? The exercise is club level marathon pace.

A. 30 minutes B. * 90 minutes C. 180 minutes D. 210 minutes E. 300 minutes

281. Muscle lactate production increases when: A. Oxygen is readily available B. Pyruvate cannot be formed from glucose breakdown C. The pH of the muscle falls D. * Glycolysis is activated at the onset of exercise E. Muscle glycogen becomes depleted

282. Name the substance which is the main energy source for brain: A. Glycogen B. Fructose C. Lactic acid D. Fatty acids E. * Glucose

283. Of the enzymes of carbohydrate metabolism listed below, which are (de)phosphorylated in liver in response to insulin signaling?

A. Glycogen synthase B. * Glycogen phosphorylase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) D. Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) E. Pyruvate kinase

284. Once glycogen stores are filled, glucose and amino acids are used to synthesize

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A. * Glycoproteins. B. Proteins. C. Lipids. D. Lactic acid. E. None of the above

285. One of the following enzymes does not change glycogen synthase a to b. A. Glycogen synthase kinases 3, 4, 5 B. Ca2+ calmodulin phosphorylase kinase C. Ca2+ calmodulin dependent protein kinase D. * Glycogen phosphorylase a E. None of the above

286. One of the net results of glycolysis is that: A. Two FAD's are reduced B. Two FAD's are oxidized C. Two  NAD  to power of (exponent)'s are reduced D. * D. Two   NAD  to power of (exponent)'s are oxidized E. None of the above

287. Pathway for synthesis of glycogen (from glucose) A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. * Glycogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

288. Physiological glycosuria is met with in A. Renal glycosuria B. * Alimentary glycosuria C. Diabetes Mellitus D. Alloxan diabetes E. None of the above

289. Possible fates of pyruvate produced by glycolysis include all of the following (not necessarily in the same organism), except:

A. Oxidation to CO2 and water through the citric acid cycle. B. Reduction to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase. C. * Oxidation to ethanol by alcoholic fermentation. D. Re-synthesis into glucose by gluconeogenesis. E. Transamination to alanine.

290. Pyruvate is converted to lactate during anaerobic metabolism. This reaction produces one

A. H2O B. ATP C. FAD. D. * NAD+. E. None of the above.

291. reactions involved in anaerobic glycolysis of glucose to lactate? A. FAD/FADH2 B. * NAD+/NADH C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate D. ATP E. ADP

292. Select the molecule that is glucose and galactose connected by a covalent bond: A. Maltose B. * Sucrose

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C. Cellulose D. Lactose E. Starch

293. Select the reaction that is catabolic: A. * Conversion of glucose into glycogen B. Synthesis of hemoglobin C. Conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose D. Synthesis of nucleic acids E. Synthesis of fatty acid

294. Select the sugar that is an important component of nucleotides: A. Fructose B. * Ribose C. Galactose D. Glucose E. Sucrose

295. Skeletal muscle and brain cells using aerobic respiration produce ____________ molecules of NADH which generates __________ molecules of ATP total.

A. * 2; 4 B. 10; 28 C. 10; 30 D. 10; 36 E. 1: 10

296. Starch and glycogen are polymers of A. Fructose B. Mannose C. * ?-?D-Glucose D. Galactose E. Cellulose

297. Stimulation of adrenergic receptors has the effect of A. Degrading glycogen B. Activating protein kineses A and C C. Lowering glycogen synthesis D. * Reducing the effects of insulin E. All of the above

298. The ____ is the organ with an absolute requirement for blood glucose as its major energy source.

A. * Brain B. Heart C. Skeletal muscle D. Liver E. Kedney

299. The 4 rate limiting enzymes of gluconeogenesis are A. Glucokinase, Pyruvate carboxylae phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase and

glucose-6-phosphatase B. * Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase, fructose1,6

diphosphatase and glucose-6-phosphatase C. Pyruvate kinase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase and

glucose-6-phosphatase D. Phospho fructokinase, pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenol pyruvate

carboxykinase and fructose 1, 6 diphosphatase E. None of the above

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300. The active form of glycogen ___ is phosphorylated; the active form of glycogen ___ is dephosphorylated.

A. Hydrolase;   dehydrogenase B. Dehydrogenase;   hydrolase C. Hydrolase;   semisynthase D. * Phosphorylase;   synthase E. Synthase;   phosphorylase

301. The aldolase reaction has a very unfavorable ?G' value (+23.8 kJ/mol). How can this reaction be maintained as an easily reversible reaction in the cell?

A. * The concentration of F-1,6-BP is usually very high relative to products. B. Elevation of body temperature to 37?C reverses the equilibrium. C. Hydrolysis of the 1-phosphate from F-1,6-BP makes the reaction favorable. D. A and B E. A, B and C

302. The appropriate sequence for the transaldolase catalyzed reaction would be (select a capital letter from A to E):

A. * Reactive enamine attack on the aldehyde group of an aldose B. beta-cleavage of Schiff base intermediate to release an aldose C. Formation of Schiff base intermediate of a new ketose D. Active site lysine forms Schiff base with keto-carbonyl group E. Schiff base hydrolysed to ketose and enzyme

303. The blood sugar raising action of the hormones of suprarenal cortex is due to A. * Gluconeogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glucagon-like activity D. Due to inhibition of glomerular filtration E. Glycoyisis

304. The brain prefers to use _______ for fuel. A. Vitamins B. Protein C. Lipids D. Carbohydrates E. All of the above

305. The branching enzyme acts on the glycogen when the glycogen chain has been lengthened to between glucose units:

A. 1 and 6 B. 2 and 7 C. 3 and 9 D. * 6 and 11 E. 1 and 2

306. The breakdown of glycogen to form glucose occurs A. * In the liver by phosphorolysis. B. In the muscles by phosphorolysis C. In the liver by hydrolysis. D. In the muscles by hydrolysis. E. The first two choices are both correct.

307. The cause of insulin dependent diabetes (type I) is: A. * Malfunction of structure and insulin receptors function B. Decreased insulin synthesis C. Increased insulin synthesis D. Increased epinephrine synthesis E. Decreased epinephrine synthesis

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308. The characteristic enzymes of gluconeogensis are found in the cytosol, except for A. Pyruvate carboxlyase, which is in the mitrochondria. B. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which is in the mitochondria C. * Glucose-6-phosphatase, which is in the mitrochondria. D. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which is in the glycogen granule. E. Pyruvate carboxylase, which is in the glycogen granule

309. The complete oxidation of glucose ultimately yields as products: A. Acetyl CoA B. Carbon dioxide and water C. * Lactic acid D. Pyruvate E. O2

310. The complex carbohydrate (polysaccharide) that is digested to the monosaccharide, glucose, and is found in vegetables, fruits, and grains and is called

A. Maltose. B. Starch. C. Glycogen. D. * Cellulose. E. None of the above

311. The conversion of glucose and oxygen into carbon dioxide and water is both a: A. * Catabolic and reduction reaction B. Anabolic and oxidation reaction C. Catabolic and oxidation reaction D. Anabolic and reduction reaction E. Only B

312. The conversion of noncarbohydrate molecules into glucose, is an example of A. Glycogenolysis. B. Glycogenesis. C. * Gluconeogenesis D. Glycolysis E. Krebs cycle

313. The conversion of one molecule of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate results in the net formation of:

A. Six molecules of water B. * Two molecules of ATP C. Three molecules of ATP D. Thirty-eight molecules of ATP E. Thirty-nine molecules of ATP

314. The conversion of oxaloacetate to malate by mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase can be important in gluconeogenesis because:

A. It's the only way that carbons from oxaloacetate can get out of the mitochondrion. B. * It is a reduction, so it allows carbons from oxaloacetate and electrons from C. NADH to get out of the mitochondrion. D. It is an oxidation, so it allows exchange of oxaloacetate carbons from

theImitochondrion for electrons from NADH in the cytosol. E. Malate is an obligatory intermediate in gluconeogenesis. This is so confusing that

there is no logical answer to this question. 315. The disaccharide that most people think of as table sugar is

A. * Sucrose. B. Lactose. C. Maltose. D. Fructose.

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E. Only B 316. The end product of sugar metabolism is/are?

A. Maltose, lactose and sucrose B. Carbon dioxide, water and heat and energy C. Urea D. * Glucose and other simple sugars E. Glycerol

317. The energy charge of the cell is: A. The difference between the charge on the outside and inside of a cell B. Generated by the sodium-potassium ATPase C. The overall rate of energy use by the cell D. * The extent to which the total adenine nucleotide pool is phosphorylated E. The sum of the ATP, ADP and AMP concentrations in the cell

318. The energy currency of the cell is A. Starch B. * Glycogen. C. Glucose. D. ATP. E. None of the above

319. The enzymes involved in Phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6- phosphate are A. Hexokinase B. Glucokinase C. Phosphofructokinase D. * Both (A) and (B) E. None of the above

320. The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the: A. Mitochondrion B. Nucleus C. * Cytoplasm D. Lysosomes E. Interstitial fluid

321. The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the: A. Mitochondrion B. Nucleus C. * Cytoplasm D. Lysosomes E. Interstitial fluid

322. The glycolytic pathway (Glucose --> 2 Pyruvate) is found A. * In most living organisms. B. In all living organisms. C. Primarily in animals. D. Only in eukaryotes. E. Only in yeast.

323. The initiation of glycogen synthesis (ie the very first glucose residue added ) occurs by transfer of glucose from UDP-glucose to the:

A. * 4-position of free glucose. B. 2-position of fructose. C. Non-reducing end of maltose. D. Serine-OH group of glycogen synthase. E. Tyrosine-OH group of glycogenin.

324. The linking reaction between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is: A. The conversion of pyruvate into lactic acid

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B. The conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA C. * The conversion of  NAD to power of (exponent) into NADH D. The conversion of 1,6 fructose phosphate to 3 phosphoglycerate E. None of the above

325. The low intake of carbohydrate in the diet: A. Does not influence exercise performance in events lasting less than 10 minutes B. Affects the resting muscle pH C. * May impair high intensity exercise performance D. Results in greater reliance on muscle glycogen during exercise E. Is associated with a metabolic alkalosis

326. The major source of carbohydrate in a typical Western diet is: A. * Starch B. Cellulose C. Glycogen D. Sucrose E. Saccharin

327. The metabolic function of the pentose phosphate pathway is: A. Act as a source of ADP biosynthesis. B. * Generate NADPH and pentoses for the biosynthesis of fatty acids and nucleic

acids. C. Participate in oxidation-reduction reactions during the formation of H2O. D. Provide intermediates for the citric acid cycle. E. Synthesize phosphorus pentoxide.

328. The metabolic pathway that results in the splitting of a glucose molecule into two pyruvate molecules is:

A. * Glycolysis B. Oxidative phosphorylation C. Krebs cycle D. Cori cycle E. Decarboxilation of pyruvat

329. The monosaccharide that can be considered the most important source of energy in the body is:

A. * Glucose B. Glycogen C. Starch D. Fructose E. Galactose

330. The most rapid method to resynthesise ATP during exercise is through: A. Glycolysis B. * Phosphocreatine breakdown C. Tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs’ cycle) D. Glycogenolysis E. Gluconeogenesis

331. The net production of ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis is: A. * 2 from glucose and 3 from glycogen B. 2 from glucose and 4 from glycogen C. 3 from glucose and 4 from glycogen D. 3 from glucose and 2 from glycogen E. 3 from glucose and 3 from glycogen

332. The normal glucose tolerance curve reaches peak is A. 15 min B. * 1 hr

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C. 2 hrs D. 2. hrs E. 13 min.

333. The oxidation of 3 mol of glucose by the pentose phosphate pathway may result in the production of:

A. 2 mol of pentose, 4 mol of NADPH, and 8 mol of CO2. B. 3 mol of pentose, 4 mol of NADPH, and 3 mol of CO2. C. * 3 mol of pentose, 6 mol of NADPH, and 3 mol of CO2. D. 4 mol of pentose, 3 mol of NADPH, and 3 mol of CO2. E. 4 mol of pentose, 6 mol of NADPH, and 6 mol of CO2.

334. The patient L., 46 years, complains on the dry mouth, thirst, often urination, general weakness. Biochemical blood investigation showed hyperglycemia, hyperketonemia. In the urine: glucose, ketone bodies. Possible diagnosis is:

A. * Diabetes mellitus B. Aimentary hyperglycemia C. acute pancreatitis D. diabetes insipidus E. ischemic heart disease

335. The patient with diabetes mellitus has hypoglycemic coma. The reasons for this can be:

A. * Overdosage of insulin B. Starvation C. Dehydration of the organism D. Hyperproduction of epinephrin E. Addison's disease

336. ?The precursor of glycogen in the glycogen synthase reaction is A. Glucose-1-P B. Glucose-6-P C. * DP-glucose D. TP-glucose E. None of the above

337. The process in which glucose is converted to a storage form A. * Is called glycogenolysis B. Requires vitamin A. C. Results in beta oxidation D. Occurs in the liver. E. Is very energy consuming

338. The production of glucose-breakdown products from protein is called A. Glycolysis B. * Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. None of the above

339. The rate of blood lactate accumulation is determined by: A. The rate of muscle lactate production and the rate of muscle lactate efflux B. The rate of anaerobic glycolysis C. The rate of muscle glucose uptake D. The rate of muscle glycogen depletion E. * The difference between the rate of lactate appearance and the rate of lactate

clearance 340. The regulation of normal blood sugar level is accomplished by

A. * Insulin, glucagons and adrenalin

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B. Cell tissue absorption of glucose from the blood C. The breakdown of glycogen by the liver D. Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis E. All of the above

341. The regulation of the glycolytic pathway involves A. * Feedback inhibition by ATP. B. Allosteric inhibition by ATP. C. Allosteric stimulation by ADP. D. All three are correct. E. Only a) and b) are correct.

342. The steps of glycolysis between glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate involve all of the following except:

A. ATP synthesis. B. Catalysis by phosphoglycerate kinase. C. * Oxidation of NADH to NAD+. D. The formation of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. E. Utilization of Pi.

343. The synthesis of glucose from lactate, glycerol, or amino acids is called: A. Glycogenolysis B. Glycolysis C. Lipolysis D. * Gluconeogenesis E. Transamination

344. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis A. * Requires the participation of biotin B. Occurs exclusively in the cytosol C. Is inhibited by elevated level of insulin D. Requires oxidation/reduction of FAD E. None of the above

345. The synthesis of glycogen from glucose subunits is an example of this type of reaction:

A. Hydrolysis B. Oxidation C. * Phosphorylation D. Condensation E. None of the above

346. The tissues with the highest total glycogen content are A. Muscle and kidneys B. Kidneys and liver C. * Liver and muscle D. Brain and Liver E. All of the above

347. The total glycogen content of the body is about ______ gms. A. 100 B. 200 C. * 300 D. 500 E. 230

348. The two glycolytic intermediates that directly link glucose metabolism to the metabolism of triglycerides, and thereby linking carbohydrate to fat metabolism are

A. Pyruvic acid and phosphoglyceraldehyde B. Acetyl CoA and pyruvic acid

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C. * Phosphoglyceraldehyde and acetyl CoA D. Glucose and pyruvic E. A and B

349. The ultimate electron acceptor in the fermentation of glucose to ethanol is: A. * Acetaldehyde. B. Acetate. C. Ethanol. D. NAD+. E. Pyruvate.

350. This is the property of carbohydrates that make them readily dissolvable into water:

A. The electronegativity of the carbon atom B. Their ability to form polymers C. * The presence of hydroxyl groups D. The long carbon chains they form E. None of the above

351. To the resuscitation unit was delivered an infant with the following symptoms: vomiting, diarrhoea, growth and development malfunction, cataract, mental deficiency. The diagnosis was galactosemia. The deficit of which enzyme occure?

A. Hexose-6-phosphatase B. * Galactose-1-phosphate uridiltransferase C. Uridine diphosphate-glucose-4-epimerase D. Uridine diphosphate-glucose-pyrophosphorylase E. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

352. To which additional adrenergic receptor subtype does epinephrine bind in order to further activate glycogen phosphorylase in liver?

A. Alpha-1 B. Alpha-2 C. Beta-1 D. * A novel beta-3 subtype E. None of the above

353. Transfer of high-energy phosphates and/or electrons between carbohydrate intermediates and other compounds (e.g. ATP, NADH) occurs in the reactions catalyzed by all of the following enzymes except:

A. Hexokinase B. * Phosphohexose isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase E. Phosphoglycerate kinase

354. Transketolase is an enzyme that catalyzes: A. Transfers of three-carbon units from a ketose to an aldose. B. Transfer of ketoses into aldoses. C. * Transfer of xylulose-5-phosphate into ribulose-5-phosphate. D. TPP-dependent transfer of 2-carbon units to the recipient aldose. E. Transfer of keto groups from C-2 to C-3.

355. Two conditions in which gluconeogenesis is increased are A. Diabetes mellitus and atherosclerosis B. Fed condition and thyrotoxicosis C. * Diabetes mellitus and Starvation D. Alcohol intake and cigarette smoking E. Riscets and obesyti

356. UDP-Glucose is converted to UDPGlucuronic acid by

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A. ATP B. * GTP C. NADP+ D. NAD+ E. Glutation

357. Value of kidney threshold for glucose: A. 5-7 mmol/l B. 8-10 mmol/l C. * 10-15 mmol/l D. 2-3 mmol/l E. 15-20 mmol/l

358. What chemical species activates the GLUT4 protein to transport glucose into cells?

A. Adrenaline B. * Insulin C. Protein kinase A D. PFK-2 E. None of the above

359. When lactose is digested, it yields two monosaccharides called A. Glucose and glucose. B. Maltose and glucose. C. Glucose and fructose. D. * Glucose and galactose E. None of the above

360. When liver glycogen levels are inadequate to supply glucose, especially to the brain, amino acids and glycerol are used to produce ___________ in a process called

A. Glycogen; glycogenesis B. Glucose; gluconeogenesis C. Lipids; lipogenesis D. * Glucose-6-phosphate; glycogenolys E. None of the above

361. When the body metabolizes nutrients for energy, fats yield about _______ times the energy as carbohydrates or proteins.

A. 1/2 B. 2 C. 4 D. * 6 E. 3

362. Which coenzymes are reduced in both glycolysis and the Krebs' cycle? A. FAD B. Coenzyme A C. Manganese D. * NAD E. Vitamin A

363. Which method of the measurement of glucose in urine is widely used? A. Gess B. Tromer C. Feling D. Selivanov E. * Altgausen

364. Which of the below-mentioned diseases can be found by the method of sugary loading?

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A. Ishemia B. Hepatitis C. * Diabetes mellitus D. Titania E. Anemia

365. Which of the below-mentioned processes is the source of NADPH2 in the organism?

A. Gluconeogenesis B. * Pentose-phosphate cycle C. Glycolysis D. Glycogenolysis E. Glycogenogenesis

366. Which of the following enzymes acts in the pentose phosphate pathway? A. * 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase B. Aldolase C. Glycogen phosphorylase D. Phosphofructokinase-1 E. Pyruvate kinase

367. Which of the following generates free glucose during the enzymatic breakdown of glycogen in skeletal muscle?

A. Phosphorylase B. Debranching enzyme C. * ?-1-6-amyloglucosidase D. Amylase E. Glucose-6-phosphatase

368. Which of the following groups contain only water soluble vitamins? A. A , B B. * B, C C. C, D D. D, E E. A, D

369. Which of the following is a cofactor in the reaction catalyzed by glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase?

A. ATP B. Cu2+ C. Heme D. * NAD+ E. NADP+

370. Which of the following is FALSE with regards to GNG A. Glycerol, lactate, pyruvate, alanine are precursors for GNG B. The rate of GNG is highest post exercise C. * GNG occurs in muscle and liver D. Glucose 6-phosphotase by passes hexokinase E. One of the major regulators of flux through GNG is substrate availability

371. Which of the following is likely to be the most important in terms of regulating hepatic glucose production?

A. Direct innervation of the liver B. Increase in catecholamines C. Feedforward mechanisms from the CNS D. * Increase in glucagon to insulin ratio E. A only

372. Which of the following is not a precursor for gluconeogenesis?

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A. Alanine B. Glycerol C. Oxaloacetate D. * Acetate E. Only B

373. Which of the following is not a true statement? A. Muscle glycogen is broken down enzymatically to glucose-1-phosphate B. Elite endurance runners have a high proportion of Type I fibres in their leg

muscles C. Liver glycogen is important in the maintenance of the blood glucose

concentration D. * Insulin promotes glucose uptake by all tissues in the body E. Glucagon has generally antagonistic actions to those of insulin

374. Which of the following is true concerning glycolysis? A. It is an aerobic process. B. A net of 2 molecules of ATP are produced. C. A total of 38 ATP are produced. D. * 4 NADH are produced. E. None of the above

375. Which of the following processes converts lactic acid to glucose? A. Citric acid cycle B. Krebs cycle C. * Cori cycle D. None of the above. E. All of the above

376. Which of the following processes describes the formation of glycogen from excess glucose in the blood?

A. Ketogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Lipogenesis D. * Gluconeogenesis E. Only A

377. Which of the following processes is involved in converting amino acids into glucose?

A. Glycogenolysis B. Lipogenesis C. * Gluconeogenesis D. Transamination E. None of the above

378. Which of the following reaction gives lactose? A. * UDP galactose and glucose B. UDP glucose and galactose C. Glucose and Galactose D. Glucose, Galactose and UTP E. UDP fructose and glucose

379. Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by a transketolase in the pentose phosphate pathway? (select a capital letter from A to E): І. Fructose-6-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P . xylulose-5-P + erythrose-4-P II. Erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P I sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P III. Sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P I ribose-5-P + xyulose-5-P

A. * I only B. II and III

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C. II only D. I and III E. I and II

380. Which of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis? A. Lactate Pyruvate B. Phosphoenol pyruvate pyruvate C. * Oxaloacetate phosphoenol pyruvate D. Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-phosphate E. None of the above

381. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is false? A. It results in the formation of two molecules of pyruvic acid. B. It results in the net gain of four ATP molecules. C. It can occur with or without oxygen present. D. * It is an exergonic reaction. E. Only C

382. Which of the following statements about pyruvate kinase is true? A. Active in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis B. * Activated by phosphorylation C. Stimulated by ATP D. Inhibited by fructose-1,6-bisphosphate E. None of the above are true

383. Which of the following statements about the pentose phosphate pathway is incorrect?

A. It generates CO2 from C-1 of glucose. B. It involves the conversion of an aldohexose to an aldopentose. C. It is prominant in lactating mammary gland. D. It is principally directed toward the generation of NADPH. E. * It requires the participation of molecular oxygen.

384. Which of the following statements is true? A. ATP stimulates phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. B. AMP stimulates both phosphofructokinase-1 and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. C. * AMP stimulates phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits fructose-1,6-

bisphosphatase. D. Citrate stimulates phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits fructose-1,6-

bisphosphatase. E. Citrate stimulates phosphofructokinase-1 and glucose-6-phosphatase.

385. Which of the following steps from glycolysis is performed by a different enzyme in gluconeogenesis?

A. Isomerase B. * Phosphofructokinase (PFK) C. Glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase D. Enolase E. Aldolase

386. Which of the following substances are NOT stored in the body? A. * Amino acids B. Glycogen C. Triglycerides D. Cholesterol E. None of the above

387. Which of the following substances is produced in limited quantities in glycolysis as a result of the metabolism of excessive amounts of alcohol (ethanol)?

A. * NADH

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B. Lipids C. Glucose D. Glycogen E. All of the above

388. Which of these cofactors participates directly in most of the oxidation-reduction reactions in the fermentation of glucose to lactate?

A. ADP B. ATP C. FAD/FADH2 D. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate E. * NAD+/NADH

389. Which of these does not occur for about four hours after a meal? A. Glucose enters cells and is either used or stored as glycogen or fat. B. * Fatty acids and glycerol combine to form fat, which when absorbed is deposited

in adipose tissue. C. Amino acids are used in protein synthesis, some are used for energy and some are

converted to fats and carbohydrates. D. Glycerol is converted to glucose, fatty acids are converted to acetyl-CoA, and

acetyl-CoA is used to produce ketone bodies. E. All of the above

390. Which one of the following is a rate limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis? A. Hexokinase B. Phsophofructokinase C. * Pyruvate carboxylase D. Pyruvate kinase E. Glucokinase

391. Which one of the following is NOT a major factor in pancreatic o-cell dysfunction in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A. Environmental factors. B. Genetic factors. C. Lipotoxicity. D. Glucotoxicity. E. * Insulin toxicity.

392. Which one of the following would not be a characteristic of the postabsorptive state which occurs late in the morning, late in the afternoon or early in the morning before breakfast?

A. * Glycogen is broken down to produce glucose. B. Amino acids are used to synthesize proteins. C. Triglycerides in adipose tissue break down to glycerol and fatty acids D. Lactic acid is produced and then converted to glucose in the liver. E. None of the above

393. Which statement is true regarding the ‘lactate/anaerobic threshold’ phenomenon? A. An increase in ventilation is caused by an decrease in both H+ and pCO2 B. It is a poor predictor of marathon performance C. The power output at which it occurs is decreased with endurance training D. It is a good indicator of the onset of anaerobic metabolism E. * Theoretically, a sharp increase in blood lactate, ventilation, and VCO2/VO2 all

occur at the lactate threshold 394. Which substance causes muscles to ache during strenuous exercise?

A. Pyruvic acid B. Lactose dehydrogenase C. Lactate ion

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D. * Lactic acid E. None of the above

395. Which two factors regarding sports drinks affect gastric emptying the most: A. * Volume, amount of glucose B. Temperature; carbonation C. Volume; temperature D. Amount of glucose; carbonation E. None of the above

396. Cerebonic acid is present in A. Triglycerides B. * Cerebrosides C. Esterified cholestrol D. Sphingomyelin E. Glycerophospholipids

397. Energetic function in the organism play the following lipids, except: A. tryacylglycerol B. saturated fatty acids C. diacylglycerol D. monounsaturated fatty acids E. * cholesterol

398. In glycerophospholipids, a polyunsaturated fatty acid is commonly attached to which of the following carbon atom of glycerol?

A. Carbon 1 B. * Carbon 2 C. Both (A) and (B) D. Carbon 3 E. None of these

399. The highest phospholipids content is found in A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. LDL D. * HDL E. B and D

400. Which of the following is not essential fatty acid? A. * Oleic acid B. Linoleic acid C. Arachidonic acid D. Linolenic acid E. Both (A) and (B)

401. _____ are the simplest lipids but they may be a part of or a source of many complex lipids.

A. Triglycerols B. Carbohydrates C. Terpenes D. * Fatty acids E. Waxes

402. 1 molecule of palmitic acid on total oxidation to CO2 will yield molecules of ATP (as high energy bonds):

A. * 129 B. 154 C. 83 D. 25

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E. 229 403. 9 indicates a double bond between carbon atoms of the fatty acids:

A. 8 and 9 B. * 9 and 10 C. 9 and 11 D. 9 and 12 E. None of the above

404. A digestive secretion that does not contain any digestive enzyme is A. Saliva B. Gastric juice C. Pancreatic juice D. * Bile E. A and D

405. A fatty acid which is not synthesized in human body and has to be supplied in the diet:

A. Palmitic acid B. Oleic acid C. * Linoleic acid D. Stearic acid E. All of these

406. A reserve fats in the fat depot mainly are: A. * tryacylglycerols B. phospholipids C. cholesterol D. fatty acids E. glycolipids

407. Acetyl CoA carboxylase regulates fatty acid synthesis by which of the following mechanism?

A. Allosteric regulation B. Covalent modification C. Induction and repression D. * All of these E. None of these

408. acids into mitochondria A. It can be synthesized in the human body B. It can be synthesized from methionine and lysine C. * It is required for transport of short chain fatty D. Its deficiency can occur due to haemodialysis E. A and B

409. After entering cytosol, free fatty acids are bound to A. Albumin B. Globulin C. * Z-protein D. All of these E. None of these

410. All of the following occur during synthesis of ether lipids except: A. Esterification of an acyl group from fatty acyl CoA to dihydroxyacetone

phosphate B. Displacement of 1-acyldihydroxyacetone phosphate by a fatty alcohol C. * Oxidation of the keto group of 1-acyldihydroxyacetone by NADPH D. Esterification of 1-alkylglycero-3-phosphate to produce 1-alkyl-2-acylglycero-3-

phosphate

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E. None of the above 411. All the following can be oxidized by ?-oxidation except

A. Palmitic acid B. * Phytanic acid C. Linoleic acid D. Fatty acids having an odd number of carbon atoms E. B and D

412. All the following have 18 carbon atoms except A. Linoleic acid B. Linolenic acid C. * Arachidonic acid D. Stearic acid E. B and C only

413. All the following statements about brown adipose tissue are true except A. It is rich in cytochromes B. It oxidizes glucose and fatty acids C. * Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly coupled in it D. Dinitrophenol has no effect on it E. C and D

414. Amphiphatic lipids are A. Hydrophilic B. Hydrophobic C. * Both (A) and (B) D. Lipophilic E. All of these

415. Arachidonic acid contains the number of double bonds: A. 2 B. 3 C. * 4 D. 5 E. 1

416. Bile acids are metabolic products of : A. * cholesterol B. phospholipids C. tryglycerins D. glycogen E. glycolipids

417. Bile is produced by A. * Liver B. Gall-bladder C. Pancreas D. Intestine E. All of the above

418. Biological functions of lipids include A. Source of energy B. Insulating material C. Maintenance of cellular integrity D. * All of these E. A and C only

419. C22 and C24, fatty acids required for the synthesis of sphingolipids in brain are formed by

A. De novo synthesis

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B. * Microsomal chain elongation C. Mitochondrial chain elongation D. All of these E. A and B

420. Carnitine is required for the transport of A. Triglycerides out of liver B. Triglycerides into mitochondria C. Short chain fatty acids into mitochondria D. * Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria E. C and D

421. Cephalin consists of A. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and choline B. * Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and ethanolamine C. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and inositol D. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid and Serine E. Glycerol, fatty acids, hydrochloric acid and ethanolamine

422. Ceramide is a precursor to which of the following compounds? A. Phosphatidyl serine B. * Sphingomyelin C. Phosphatidyl glycerol D. Phosphatidyl choline E. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine

423. Cerebrosides are composed of A. Sphingosine, fatty acids, glycerol and phosphoric acid B. * Sphingosine, fatty acids, galactose C. Glycerol, fatty acids, galactose D. Glycerol, fatty acids, galactose, sphingol E. Both (A) and (B)

424. Current concepts concerning the intestinal absorption of triacylglycerols are that A. They must be completely hydrolysed before the constituent fatty acids can be

absorbed B. * They are hydrolysed partially and the material absorbed consists of free fatty

acids, mono and diacyl glycerols and unchanged triacyl glycerols C. Fatty acids with less than 10 carbon atoms are absorbed about equally via lymph

and via portal blood D. In the absence of bile the hydrolysis of triacyl glycerols is absorbed E. B and D

425. Depot fats of mammalian cells comprise mostly of A. Cholesterol B. Cholesterol esters C. * Triacyl glycerol D. Phospholipids E. All of these

426. Dietary triacylglycerols are digested as a result of A. Lipase action B. Bile salts C. Micelle formation D. Diffusion and absorption by intestinal cells E. * All of the above

427. Dipalmitoyl lecithin acts as A. Platelet activating factor B. Second messenger for hormones

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C. * Lung surfactant D. Anti-ketogenic compound E. All of the above

428. During each cycle of ? -oxidation A. One carbon atom is removed from the carboxyl end of the fatty acid B. One carbon atom is removed from the methyl end of the fatty acid C. * Two carbon atoms are removed from the carboxyl end of the fatty acid D. Two carbon atoms are removed from the methyl end of the fatty acid E. Three carbon atoms are removed from the carboxyl end of the fatty acid

429. During each cycle of ?-oxidation of fatty acid, all the following compounds are generated except

A. NADH B. * H2O C. FAD D. Acyl CoA E. Both B and C

430. During fatty acid metabolism in humans, coenzyme A (CoA) is different from acyl carrier protein (ACP) in which one of the following ways?

A. Binding of malonic acid with a phosphopantetheine B. Binding of fatty acids C. * Function in fatty acid oxidation D. Function in the cytosol E. Function in fatty acid synthesis

431. During the fed state, which of the following occur(s)? A. Insulin inhibition of stored triacylglycerols' hydrolysis B. Insulin stimulation of malonyl CoA formation C. Allosteric inhibition of carnitine acyltransferase I D. * All of the above E. A and C only

432. During the fed state, which of the following occur(s)? A. Insulin inhibition of stored triacylglycerols' hydrolysis B. Insulin stimulation of malonyl CoA formation C. Allosteric inhibition of carnitine acyltransferase I D. * All of the above E. A and C only

433. Fatty acids are activated to acyl CoA by the enzyme thiokinase: A. NAD+ B. NADP+ C. * CoA D. FAD+ E. CoQ

434. Fatty acids are oxidized by A. ??-oxidation B. ??-oxidation C. ??-oxidation D. * All of these E. None of these

435. Fatty acids are oxidized in the ___________. A. * mitochondrial matrix B. cytosol C. endoplasmic reticulum D. mitochondrial inner membrane space

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E. nucleus 436. Fatty acids having chain length of 10 carbon atoms enter the

A. * Portal ciruclation B. Lacteals C. Systemic circulation D. Colon E. Both (A) and (c)

437. Fatty acids required in the diet of mammals are called A. Important B. Dietary C. Saturated D. * Essential E. Esters

438. Fatty liver may be caused by A. Deficiency of methionine B. Puromycin C. Chronic alcoholism D. * All of these E. A and C

439. Fatty liver may be prevented by all of the following except A. Choline B. Betaine C. Methionine D. * Ethionine E. A and C

440. Fluidity of membranes is increased by the following constituent except A. * Polyunsaturated fatty acids B. Saturated fatty acids C. Integral proteins D. Cholesterol

441. For every 2 mol of free glycerol released by lipolysis of triacylglycerides in adipose tissue

A. 2 mol of triacylglycerides is released B. 2 mol of free fatty acids is released C. * 1 mol of glucose can be synthesized in gluconeogenesis D. 1 mol of triacylglyceride is released E. 3 mol of acyl CoA is produced

442. For extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis, acetyl CoA may be obtained from A. * Citrate B. Isocitrate C. Oxaloacetate D. Succinate E. Succsinil-CoA

443. For the activation of long chain fatty acids the enzyme thiokinase requires the cofactor:

A. Mg++ B. * Ca++ C. Mn++ D. K+ E. Fe++

444. Free fatty acids are transported in the blood A. * Combined with albumin

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B. Combined with fatty acid binding protein C. Combined with ??-lipoprotein D. In unbound free salts E. Combined with ??-lipoprotein

445. Glycerol is transformed into active form with the enzyme: A. phosphatidate phosphatase B. * glycerol kinase C. glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase D. glycerol phosphate acyltransferase E. diglyceride-acyl-transferase

446. Glycerol released from adipose tissue by hydrolysis of triglycerides is mainly A. * Taken up by liver B. Taken up by extrahepatic tissues C. Reutilised in adipose tissue D. Excreted from the body E. All of the above

447. Glycosphingolipids are a combination of A. * Ceramide with one or more sugar residues B. Glycerol with galactose C. Sphingosine with galactose D. Sphingosine with phosphoric acid E. None of the above

448. Hepatic lipogenesis is stimulated by: A. cAMP B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. * Insulin E. B and D

449. Hepatoenteral circulation of bile acids has such aim as: A. fats resynthesis B. formation of chylomicrons C. * economical usage of bile acids D. cholesterol absorption E. glycerol absorption

450. Hepatoenteral circulation of bile acids is important for: A. fat resynthesis B. formation of chylomicrons C. * economical usage of bile acids D. cholesterol absorption E. glycerin absorption

451. Higher alcohol present in waxes is A. Benzyl B. Methyl C. Ethyl D. * Cetyl E. None of the above

452. How many cycles of ? -oxidation are required to completely process a saturated C18 fatty acid?

A. 6 B. * 8 C. 9 D. 18

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E. 10 453. How many cycles of ?-oxidation are required to completely process a saturated

C18 fatty acid? A. 6 B. * 8 C. 9 D. 18 E. 7

454. How many enzymes are there in the palmitate synthase multienzyme complex? A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 10 E. * 7

455. How many QH2 and NADH are produced by one round of the ?-oxidation pathway?

A. * 1 each B. 1 QH2 and 2 NADH C. 2 each D. 2 QH2 and 1 NADH E. all of the above

456. Human desaturase enzyme system cannot introduce a double bond in a fatty acid beyond

A. * Carbon 9 B. Carbon 6 C. Carbon 5 D. Carbon 3 E. Carbon 7

457. Hydrolysis of fats by alkali is called A. Saponification number B. * Saponification C. Both (A) and (B) D. Lipolysis E. None of these

458. If the carbonyl carbon of a fatty acyl CoA molecule with a C10 chain is labeled with 14C, how many rounds of ?-oxidation are required to produce a radioactively labeled acetyl CoA?

A. * one B. two C. four D. five E. six

459. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-phosphate required for the synthesis of triglycerides comes mainly from

A. Hydrolysis of pre-existing triglycerides B. Hydrolysis of phospholipids C. * Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed in.glycolysis D. Free glycerol E. All of the above

460. In cephalin, choline is replaced by A. Serine B. * Ethanolamine

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C. Betaine D. Sphingosine E. Both B and C

461. In humans, a dietary essential fatty acid is A. Palmitic acid B. Stearic acid C. Oleic acid D. * Linoleic acid E. All of the above

462. In humans, the formation of the fatty acid C-18-?9,?12 can be derived from which of the following?

A. C-18 cis-?9 B. C-18 cis- ? 6 C. C-18 D. C-16 cis- ? 6, ? 9 E. * C-18 cis- ? 9, ? 12

463. In mammals, the major fat in adipose tissues is A. Phospholipid B. Cholesterol C. Sphingolipids D. * Triacylglycerol E. All of the above

464. In neutral fats, the unsaponificable matter includes A. * Hydrocarbons B. Triacylglycerol C. Phospholipids D. Cholsesterol E. Fatty acids

465. In oxidation of fatty acids with odd number of carbon atoms propionyl-CoA is transformed to:

A. malonyl-CoA B. * succinyl-CoA C. enoil-CoA D. butyryl-CoA E. acetacetyl-CoA

466. In synthesis of Triglyceride from Glycerol 3-phosphate and acetyl CoA, the first intermediate formed is

A. ?-diacyl glycerol B. Acyl carnitine C. Monoacyl glycerol D. * Phosphatidic acid E. None of the above

467. In the construction of liquid lipids prevail: A. saturated fatty acids B. * unsaturated fatty acids C. dicarboxylic acids D. keto acid E. hydroxide acids

468. In the extra mitochondrial synthesis of fatty acids, CO2 is utilized A. To keep the system anaerobic and prevent regeneration of acetyl CoA B. In the conversion of malonyl to CoA hydroxybutyryl CoA C. * In the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA

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D. In the formation of acetyl CoA from 1 carbon intermediates 469. In ??-oxidation of fatty acids which of the following are utilized as co-enzymes?

A. NAD+ and NADP+ B. FAD H2 and NADH + H+ C. FAD and FMN D. * FAD and NAD+ E. All of these

470. Isoprenoids are lipids which do not contain nor are derived from fatty acids and include

A. Steroids B. Waxes C. Terpenes D. * a and c E. a, b, and c

471. Lecithin belongs to: A. neutral fat B. * phospholipids C. waxes D. steroids E. glycolipids

472. Lecithins are composed of A. * Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Choline B. Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Ethanolamine C. Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Serine D. Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Beaine E. All of these

473. Like plasmologens, sphingolipids are found in relative abundance in A. Bacteria B. Plant cells C. * Nerve cells D. Intestinal cells E. All of the above

474. Lipase can act only at pH: A. 2.5–4 B. 3.5–5 C. 4 to 5 D. * 5–7 E. 8-9

475. Lipase present in the stomach cannot hydrolyze fats owing to A. Alkalinity B. Acidity C. * High acidity D. Neutrality E. None of the above

476. Lipid stores are mainly present in A. Liver B. Brain C. Muscles D. * Adipose tissue E. A and D

477. Lipids are stored in the body mainly in the form of A. Phospholipids

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B. Glycolipids C. * Triglycerides D. Fatty acids E. Cholesterol

478. Lipids have the following properties: A. Insoluble in water and soluble in fat solvent B. High energy content C. Structural component of cell membrane D. * All of these E. A and C only

479. Lipids may be either hydrophobic or A. Hydrophilic B. Organic C. Inorganic D. * Amphipathic E. Soluble in polar solvents

480. Lisophospholipids, formed after action of phospholipase A2, have the following feature:

A. activate lipase B. * hemolytic C. form conjugates with bile acids D. participate in phospholipids resynthesis E. accompany absorption of fatty acids

481. Long chain acyl CoA penetrates mitochondria in the presence of A. Palmitate B. * Carnitine C. Sorbitol D. DNP E. cAMP

482. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acetyl-CoA in A. * Cytosol B. Microsomes C. Nucleus D. Mitochondria E. EPR

483. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl CoA in the A. * Cytosol B. Mitochodria C. Ribosomes D. Microsome E. EPR

484. Long chain fatty acids penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane A. Freely B. As acyl-CoA derivative C. * As carnitine derivative D. Requiring Na dependent carrier E. As lipoproteins

485. Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by removal of A. Fatty acid from position 1 B. * Fatty acid from position 2 C. Phosphorylcholine D. Choline

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E. None of these 486. Malonyl-CoA reacts with the central

A. * —SH group B. —NH2 group C. —COOH group D. —CH2OH group E. C and D

487. Maximum energy produced by A. * Fats B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids E. All of these

488. Mitochondrial lipogenesis requires A. bicarbonate B. biotin C. acetyl CoA carboxylase D. * NADPH E. Both (A) and (B)

489. Mitochondrial membrane is permeable to A. * Short chain fatty acids B. Medium chain fatty acids C. Long chain fatty acids D. All of these E. A and B

490. Mitochondrial thiokinase acts on A. * Short chain of fatty acids B. Medium chain fatty acids C. Long chain fatty acids D. A and B E. All of these

491. Most animal tissues contain appreciable amounts of lipid, when in the form of depot fat it consists largely of

A. Cholesterol ester B. Phosphatides C. Chylomicrons D. * Triacylglycerol

492. Most of the reducing equivalents utilized for synthesis of fatty acids can be generated from

A. * The pentose phosphate pathway B. Glycolysis C. The citric acid cycle D. Mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase E. Citrate lyase

493. NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis can come from A. Pentose phosphate shunt B. Oxidative decarboxylation of malate C. Extramitochondrial oxidation of isocitrate D. * All of these E. A and B

494. Net ATP generation on complete oxidation of stearic acid is A. 129

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B. 131 C. * 146 D. 148 E. 120

495. Net energy generation on complete oxidation of linoleic acid is A. 148 ATP equivalents B. 146 ATP equivalents C. 144 ATP equivalents D. * 142 ATP equivalents E. 138 ATP equivalents

496. Net generation of energy on complete oxidation of palmitic acid is A. 129 ATP equivalents B. 131 ATP equivalents C. 146 ATP equivalents D. * 148 ATP equivalents E. 118 ATP equivalents

497. Net generation of energy on complete oxidation of a 17-carbon fatty acid is A. Equal to the energy generation from a 16-carbon fatty acid B. Equal to the energy generation from an 18-carbon fatty acid C. * Less than the energy generation from a 16-carbon fatty acid D. In between the energy generation from a16-carbon fatty acid and an 18-carbon

fatty acid E. None of the above

498. Niemann-Pick disease results from deficiency of A. Ceramidase B. * Sphingomyelinase C. Arylsulphatase A D. Hexosaminidase A E. Lipase

499. Normal fat content of liver is about _______ gms %. A. * 5 B. 8 C. 10 D. 15 E. 55

500. Number of carbon atoms in cholesterol is A. 17 B. 19 C. * 27 D. 30 E. 25

501. One functional sub-unit of multi-enzyme complex for de novo synthesis of fatty acids contains

A. One —SH group B. * Two —SH groups C. Three —SH groups D. Four —SH groups E. Five —SH groups

502. Oxidation of fatty acids occurs A. In the cytosol B. * In the matrix of mitochondria C. On inner mitochondrial membrane

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D. On the microsomes E. In the EPR

503. Pancreatic lipase converts triacylglycerols into A. 2, 3-Diacylglycerol B. 1-Monoacylglycerol C. * 2-Monoacylglycerol D. 3-Monoacylglycerol E. B and C only

504. Pancreatic lipase requires for its activity: A. Co-lipase B. Bile salts C. Phospholipids D. * A and b only E. All of these

505. Pancreatic lipose is an enzyme which hydrolyzes fats. It acts as a/an A. peptidase B. * hydrolase C. carbohydrates D. dehydrogenase E. None of the above

506. Phosphatidic acid on hydrolysis yields A. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, choline B. * Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid C. Glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, glucose D. Sphingol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid E. Both (A) and (B)

507. Phospholipase A2 is an enzyme which removes a fatty acid residue from lecithin to form

A. Lecithin fragments B. Phosphotidic acid C. Glyceryl phosphate D. * Lysolecithin E. Both A and D

508. Phospholipids are important cell membrane components because A. They have glycerol B. They can form bilayers in water C. * They have both polar and non polar potions D. They combine covalently with proteins E. All of these

509. Phospholipids form bilipid layer of cellular membranes as a result of: A. hydrophilic features B. hydrophobic features C. construction complexity D. * amphiphilic features E. molecules stability

510. Phospholipids help the oxidation of A. Glycerol B. * Fatty acids C. Glycerophosphates D. Glucose E. None of these

511. Phospholipids in the organism perform such functions, except:

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A. are a part of cellular membranes B. * have atherosclerotic properties C. have antiatherosclerotic activity D. are lipotropic factors E. participate in the formation of blood lipoproteins

512. Plasma becomes milky A. Due to high level of HDL B. Due to high level of LDL C. During fasting D. * After a meal E. All of the above

513. Polar heads of glycerophospholipids may be A. + charged B. - charged C. Neutral D. A mixture of + and - charges, but not neutral E. * All of the above

514. Properties of acetyl CoA-carboxylase include: A. Activation by fatty acyl CoA B. Phosphorylation and inactivation by glucagon in adipocytes C. Inactivation of its phosphorylation by epinephrine in the liver D. All of the above E. * None of the above

515. Propionyl CoA formed oxidation of fatty acids having an odd number of carbon atoms is converted into

A. Acetyl CoA B. Acetoacetyl CoA C. * D-Methylmalonyl CoA D. Butyryl CoA E. None of the above

516. Propionyl CoA is formed on oxidation of A. Monounsaturated fatty acids B. Polyunsaturated fatty acids C. * Fatty acids with odd number of carbon atoms D. All of these E. None of these

517. Refsum’s disease results from a defect in the following pathway except A. * Alpha-oxidation of fatty acids B. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids C. Gamma-oxidation of fatty acids D. Omega-oxidation of fatty acids E. None of these

518. Release of free fatty acids from adipose tissue is increased by all of the following except

A. Glucagon B. Epinephrine C. Growth hormone D. * Insulin E. C and D

519. Reserve fat in the fat depot mainly belong to: A. * tryacylglycerols B. phospholipids

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C. cholesterol D. fatty acids E. glycolipids

520. Saliva contains a lipase which acts on triglycerides having A. * Short chain fatty acids B. Medium chain fatty acids C. Long chain fatty acids D. All of these E. A and B only

521. Salivary lipase converts dietary triglycerides into A. * Diglycerides and fatty acids B. Monoglycerides and fatty acids C. Glycerol and fatty acids D. All of these E. A and b only

522. Salivary lipase hydrolyses the ester bond at A. Position 1 of triglycerides B. Position 2 of triglycerides C. * Position 3 of triglycerides D. All of these E. A and b only

523. Salivary lipase is secreted by A. Parotid glands B. Submandibular glands C. * Dorsal surface of tongue D. None of these E. A and B

524. Sphingomyelins: A. * Phospholipids B. Complex proteins C. Nitrolipids D. Alcohols E. None of these

525. Sphingosine is synthesized from A. Palmitoyl CoA and Choline B. Palmitoyl CoA and ethanolamine C. * Palmitoyl CoA and serine D. Acetyl CoA and choline E. None of above

526. Splitting off acetyl-CoA in the final reaction of ?-oxidation of fatty acids is performed by the enzyme:

A. dehydrogenase B. enolase C. hydrase D. lipase E. * thiolase (acetyl-CoA-acyltransferase)

527. Sterols are steroids which have A. A hydroxyl group at position C-17 B. * A hydroxyl group at position C-3 C. The ability to accumulate as plaques in blood vessels D. 5 fused rings instead of 4 fused rings E. Hydroxyl groups at both position C-3 and C-17

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528. The ‘free fatty acids’ (FFA) of plasma: A. metabolically inert B. mainly bound to alfa -lipoproteins C. stored in the fat D. * mainly bound to serum albumin E. All of the above

529. The acids which are irreplaceable (essential) for human organism: A. lipoic acid, stearic acid, palmitic acid B. oleic acid, linoleic acid, linolenic acid C. palmitic acid, stearic acid, arachidonic acid D. * arachidonic acid, linolenic acid, linoleic acid E. butyric acid, oleic acid, linolenic acid

530. The amount of total lipids in blood is: A. * 3-8 g/l B. 5-10 g/l C. 2-3 g/l D. 15-20 g/l E. 7-12 g/l

531. The bile acids in bile are in conjugated condition with: A. cholesterol B. bilirubin C. glycine and alanine D. * glycine and taurine E. taurine and valine

532. The carbon chain of fatty acids is shortened by 2 carbon atoms at a time. This involves successive reactions catalysed by 4-enzymes. These act the following order:

A. Acetyl CoA dehydrogenase, ?-OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase, enoyl hydrase, thiolose

B. * Acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolase, enoyl hydrase, ?-OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase

C. Acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolose, enoyl hydrase, ?-OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase

D. Enoyl hydrase, ?-OH acyl CoA dehydrogenase,acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolose E. None of the above

533. The citrate transport system is responsible for: A. * Transporting from the mitochondrion to the cytosol. B. Generating cytosolic NADPH from cytosolic NADP+. C. Both a and b. D. None of the above. E. Transporting from the cytosol to the mitochondrion.

534. The citrate transport system is responsible for: A. Transporting acetyl CoA from the mitochondrion to the cytosol. B. Generating cytosolic NADPH from cytosolic NADP+. C. * Both a and b. D. Generating cytosolic FADH2. E. None of the above.

535. The common precursor for the synthesis of triacylglycerols, phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidyletanolamine is:

A. choline B. CDP-choline C. * 1,2-diacylglycerol D. none of the above

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E. citrate 536. The common precursor for the synthesis of triacylglycerols, phosphatidylcholine

and phosphatidyletanolamine is: A. choline B. CDP-choline C. * 1,2-diacylglycerol D. none of the above E. citrate

537. The conversion of the fatty acid palmitate (C16) to carbon dioxide via ?-oxidation, the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation yield approximately ______ ATP equivalents.

A. 3 B. 32 C. * 106 D. 800 E. 48

538. The desaturation and chain elongation system of polyunsaturated fatty acids are greatly diminished in the absence of

A. * Insulin B. Glycagon C. Epinephrine D. Thyroxine E. C and A

539. The elongation and desaturation of fatty acids take place: A. * in the cytoplasm B. in the matrix of mitochondria C. in the inner membranes of mitochondria D. in the endoplasmic reticulum E. in the nucleus

540. The elongation of fatty acids occurs in which of the diagrammatic structures shown below?

A. Structure A B. Structure B C. * Structure C D. Structure D E. Structure E

541. The end product of cytosol fatty acid synthetase in humans is A. Oleic acid B. Arachidonic acid C. Linoleic acid D. * Palmitic acid E. Palmitoleic acid

542. The energy yield from complete oxidation of products generated by second reaction cycle of ?-oxidation of palmitoyl CoA will be

A. 5 ATP B. 12 ATP C. 17 ATP D. * 34 ATP E. 14 ATP

543. The enzyme acyl-CoA synthase catalyses the conversion of a fatty acid of an active fatty acid in the presence of

A. AMP

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B. ADP C. * ATP D. GTP E. GDP

544. The enzymes of ? -oxidation are found in A. * Mitochondria B. Cytosol C. Golgi apparatus D. Nucleus E. EPR

545. The fatty acid synthase complex of mammals A. Is a dimer of unsimilar subunits B. Is composed of seven different proteins C. Dissociates into eight different proteins D. Catalyzes eight different enzymatic steps E. * Is composed of covalently linked enzymes

546. The fatty acids containing even number and odd number of carbon atoms as well as the unsaturated fatty acids are oxidized by

A. ??-oxidation B. * ??-oxidation C. ??-oxidation D. All of these E. None of these

547. The first oxidation in the alfa -oxidation of saturated fatty acids is catalyzed by ___________________ and is the conversion of____________________:

A. alfa -hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase; a primary alcohol to an aldehyde. B. * acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; a saturated to an unsaturated carbon-carbon bond. C. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; a secondary alcohol to a ketone. D. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; an aldehyde to a ketone. E. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; an alcohol to a ketone.

548. The first stage of acyl-CoA dehydrogenating in mitochondria causes the formation of:

A. alfa-keto-acyl-CoA B. acetyl-CoA C. alfa-oxyacyl-CoA D. * enoil-CoA E. acylcarnitine

549. The formation of lisophospholipids in the intestine is caused by the action of: A. * phospholipase A1 B. phospholipase A2 C. phospholipase C D. phospholipase D E. phospholipase B

550. The function of pentose-phosphate cycle in the synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol is the following:

A. main energy source B. source of acetyl-CoA C. source of malonyl-CoA D. * source of NADPH2 E. source of NADH2

551. The hormone, that depresses the lipolysis in the fat tissue: A. * insulin

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B. epinephrine C. glucagon D. thyroxin E. adrenocorticotropin

552. The importance of phospholipids as constituent of cell membrane is because they possess

A. Fatty acids B. * Both polar and nonpolar groups C. Glycerol D. Phosphoric acid E. All of the above

553. The largest lipoproteins are the __________. A. * chylomicrons B. VLDLs C. LDLs D. HDLs E. none of the above.

554. The level of free fatty acids in plasma is increased by A. Insulin B. * Caffeine C. Glucose D. Niacin E. All of the above

555. The main function of the bile salts is to __________. A. * emulsify lipids in the intestin B. act as counterions for the ionized forms of lipids C. cleave the ester bonds in triacylglycerols to release free fatty acids D. form the surface layer of chylomicrons E. none of the above.

556. The main function of the bile salts is to __________. A. * transport lipids to the intestinal wall B. act as counterions for the ionized forms of lipids C. cleave the ester bonds in triacylglycerols to release free fatty acids D. form the surface layer of chylomicrons E. all of the above

557. The main sources of NADPH for fatty acid biosynthesis is: A. TCA cycle B. oxidative phosphorylation C. * the pentose phosphate pathway D. glycolysis E. All of the above.

558. The major lipid in chylomicrons is A. * Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Cholesterol D. Free fatty acids E. A and B

559. The major storage form of lipids is A. Esterified cholesterol B. Glycerophospholipids C. * Triglycerides D. Sphingolipids

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E. B and C only 560. The maximum number of double bonds present in essential fatty acid is

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. * 4 E. 7

561. The nitrogenous base in lecithin is A. Ethanolamine B. * Choline C. Serine D. Betaine E. None of above

562. The oxidation of glycerol in aerobic conditions to CO2 and H2O causes the formation of :

A. 9 ATP molucules B. 1 ATP molucules C. 3 ATP molucules D. * 22 ATP molucules E. 15 ATP molucules

563. The product of lipids digestion are the following, except: A. glycerol B. * serine C. phosphoric acid D. fatty acids E. methionine

564. The rate of fatty acid oxidation is increased by A. * Phospholipids B. Glycolipids C. Aminolipids D. All of these E. A and B

565. The reaction, Palmitoyl-ACP--->Palmitate + HS-ACP proceeds via which of the following enzymes?

A. * Thioesterase B. Ketoacyl-ACP synthase C. Transacylase D. None of the above E. Carboxylase

566. The reaction, Palmitoyl-ACP--->Palmitate + HS-ACP proceeds via which of the following enzymes?

A. * Thioesterase B. Ketoacyl-ACP synthase C. Transacylase D. All of the above E. None of the above

567. The substrate for fatty acids synthesis is: A. * acetyl-CoA B. acyl-CoA C. butiryl-CoA D. propionil-CoA E. succinyl-CoA

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568. The triacyl glycerol present in plasma lipoproteins are hydrolyzed by A. Linqual lipase B. Pancreatic lipase C. Colipase D. * Lipoprotein lipase E. Both B and D

569. There are four steps in the ?-oxidation pathway. Some reaction types are listed below. Give the proper reaction types in the order that they occur in the ?-oxidation pathway. 1. condensation 2. oxidation 3. reduction 4. thiolysis 5. hydration 6. phosphorylation 7. rearrangement

A. 1,7,2,2 B. 6,3,4,2 C. 1,2,3,5 D. * 1,5,1,4 E. 1,3,1,4

570. Triacyl glycerol lipase of fat tissue is activated by: A. adenosine triphosphate B. guanosine triphosphate C. adenosine diphosphate D. * cyclic adenosine monophosphate E. guanosine diphosphate

571. Triacylglycerols are not found in cell membranes because they are A. Amphipathic B. * Not amphipathic C. Not abundant in cells D. a and c E. b and c

572. Triacylglycerols cannot form lipid bilayers because they A. Have hydrophobic tails B. * Do not have polar heads C. Cannot associate with cholesterol D. Have polar heads E. Cannot engage in hydrophobic interactions

573. Triglycerides are A. Heavier than water B. Major constituents of membranes C. * Non-polar D. Hydrophilic E. C and D only

574. Tryacylglycerollipase of fatty tissue is activated by: A. adenosine triphosphate B. guanosine triphosphate C. adenosine diphosphate D. * cyclic adenosine monophosphate E. guanosine diphosphate

575. Waxes contain higher alcohols named as A. Methyl B. Ethyl C. Phytyl D. * Cetyl E. None of the above

576. What is the major role of phospholipase A2?

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A. To cleave the phosphate group from phospholipids. B. To phosphorylate the enzyme enoyl-CoA. C. * To hydrolyze an ester bond in glycerophospholipids to form

lysophosphoglyceride. D. To transport glycerophospholipids in the blood. E. none of the above

577. What is the sub cellular site for the ?- oxidation of fatty acids? A. Nucleus B. * Mitochondria C. Lysosome D. Cytosol E. All of the above

578. Where the resynthesis of lipids, proper for a human organism, takes place? A. in the liver B. in the kidney C. in the muscles D. * in the intestinal epithelium E. in the spleen

579. Which dietary lipid usually contains no ester bonds? A. * cholesterol B. triacylglycerides C. glycerophospholipids D. None of the above, all dietary lipids are esterified. E. All of the above

580. Which enzyme is needed for the oxidation of odd-chain saturated fatty acids that is not needed for even-chain fatty acids?

A. methylmalonyl-CoA mutase B. * propionyl-CoA carboxylase C. methylmalonyl-CoA racemase D. all of the above E. none of the above.

581. Which enzyme is needed for the oxidation of odd-chain saturated fatty acids that is not needed for even-chain fatty acids?

A. methylmalonyl-CoA mutase B. propionyl-CoA carboxylase C. methylmalonyl-CoA racemase D. * all of the above E. none of the above

582. Which enzyme requires adenosylcobalamin as a cofactor? A. carnitine acyl transferase I B. * methylmalonyl-CoA mutase C. enoyl-CoA hydratase D. propionyl-CoA carboxylase E. none of the above

583. Which lipid form is transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane before alfa-oxidation?

A. * acylcarnitine B. fatty acyl CoA C. acetoacetyl CoA D. lysophospholipid CoA E. none of the above.

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584. Which lipid form is transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane before alfa-oxidation?

A. * acylcarnitine B. fatty acyl CoA C. acetoacetyl CoA D. lysophospholipid CoA E. all of the above

585. Which of the below-mentioned acids belongs to bile acids? A. linoleic acid B. arachidonic acid C. oleic acid D. * cholic acid E. myristic acid

586. Which of the below-mentioned metabolites is formed by oxidation of fatty acids with odd amount of carbon atoms:

A. * propionyl-CoA B. butyryl-CoA C. malonyl-CoA D. enoil-CoA E. acetacetyl-CoA

587. Which of the following can be oxidized by alfa -oxidation pathway? A. Saturated fatty acids B. Monounsaturated fatty acids C. Polyunsaturated fatty acids D. * All of these E. A and B

588. Which of the following can be synthesized in the human body if precurors are available?

A. Oleic acid B. Palmitoleic acid C. Arachidonic acid D. * A and B E. All of these

589. Which of the following does (do) not occur during the fasting state? A. Increased insulin levels B. Inhibition of lipolysis C. An increase in the concentration of albumin-bound fatty acids in the blood D. * a and b only E. All of the above

590. Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid? A. Palmitic acid B. Palmitoleic acid C. * Linoleic acid D. Oleic acid E. All of these

591. Which of the following is a true statement for fatty acid synthesis? A. It occurs in the mitochondria. B. The reducing power for synthesis is supplied by NAD and ubiquinone. C. Both a and b. D. * None of the above. E. It occurs in the lysosom.

592. Which of the following is a true statement for fatty acid oxidation?

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A. It occurs in the cytosol. B. Oxidation requires a three carbon substrate, which transfers a two-carbon unit to

the chain. C. Both a and b. D. * None of the above. E. It occurs in the lysosom.

593. Which of the following is not a stage of fatty acid synthesis? A. Condensation of precursors B. Dehydration C. Reduction D. All of the above E. * None of the above

594. Which of the following is not used in the synthesis of fatty acids? A. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) B. NADPH C. AMP D. * FADH2 E. HCO3

595. Which of the following is not used in the synthesis of fatty acids? A. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) B. NADPH C. AMP D. * FADH2 E. HCO3

596. Which of the following is omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid? A. Linoleic acid B. * Linolenic acid C. Palmitoleic acid D. Arachidonic acid E. A and B

597. Which of the following is required as a reductant in fatty acid synthesis? A. NADH B. * NADPH C. FADH2 D. FMNH2 E. A and B

598. Which of the following is the regulated step of fatty acid synthesis in eukaryotes? A. * Carboxylation of acetyl CoA. B. Transportation of mitochondrial acetyl CoA into the cytosol. C. Assembly of the fatty acid chain. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

599. Which of the following is the regulated step of fatty acid synthesis in eukaryotes? A. * Carboxylation of acetyl CoA. B. Transportation of mitochondrial acetyl CoA into the cytosol. C. Assembly of the fatty acid chain. D. All of the above. E. None of the above

600. Which of the following is true for carboxylation of Acetyl CoA? A. In animals and yeast, it requires three separate protein subunits. B. It is a metabolically reversible reaction. C. In bacteria, it is catalyzed by a bifunctional enzyme.

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D. All of the above. E. * None of the above.

601. Which of the following lipid is absorbed actively from intestine? A. Glycerol B. Cholesterol C. Monoacylglycerol D. * None of these E. A and B

602. Which of the following statements correctly describes the enzyme thiokinase? A. It yields acetyl CoA as a product B. It yields ADP as a product C. It yields CoA as a product D. * It forms CoA thioesters as a product E. It requires I-ketoacyl CoA as a substrate

603. Which one of the following compounds is a key intermediate in the synthesis of both triacylglycerols and phospholipids?

A. CDP-choline B. * Phosphatidate C. Triacylglyceride D. Phosphatidylserine E. CDP-diacylglycerol

604. Which one of the following compounds is a key intermediate in the synthesis of both triacylglycerols and phospholipids?

A. CDP-choline B. * Phosphatidate C. Triacylglyceride D. Phosphatidylserine E. CDP-diacylglycerol

605. Which one of the following is not a phospholipid? A. Lecithin B. Plasmalogen C. Lysolecithin D. * Gangliosides E. B and C

606. Why are triacylglycerols able to provide more energy than carbohydrates (gram for gram)?

A. The triacylglycerols have an extremely high group transfer potential. B. * The carbohydrates are already in a more oxidized state than the triacylglycerols. C. The carbohydrates contain fewer carbon-carbon bonds. D. The triacylglycerols are less soluble in water than the carbohydrates. E. all of the above

607. Why is it undesirable to have high concentrations of free fatty acids and lysophosphoglycerides in cells?

A. They are unstable, free radicals that can react to form toxic substances. B. They polymerize easily and can cause the cytosol to become too gel-like. C. * They are amphipathic and act as detergents that can degrade membranes. D. They inhibit the uptake of pyruvate by mitochondria. E. all of the above

608. ?-Oxidation of fatty acids requires all the following coenzymes except A. CoA B. FAD C. NAD

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D. * NADP E. A and B

609. ?-Oxidation of odd-carbon fatty acid chain produces A. Succinyl CoA B. Propionyl CoA C. Acetyl CoA D. * Malonyl CoA E. None of the above

610. _______acts to suppress appetite by inhibiting _____ that is the most powerful known appetite stimulant.

A. Growth hormone; lipase B. Serotonin; adrenaline C. Leptin; neuropeptide Y D. * Insulin; glucagon E. None of the above

611. 85% of blood cholesterol is produced A. * In the liver. B. By the breakdown of worn out RBCs in the spleen C. By the ingestion of too much chocolate in the diet. D. From the breakdown of fatty acids in the digestive system. E. None of the above

612. A Chylomicrons A. VLDL B. LDL C. * HDL D. Only B

613. A compound normally used to conjugate bile acids is A. Serine B. * Glycine C. Glucoronic acid D. Fatty acid E. Cholesterol

614. A good source of monounsaturated fats is A. Fat associated with meat. B. Egg yolks. C. Whole milk D. Fish oil. E. * Olive oil.

615. A human physiology student had learned all about diabetes and its symptoms. She was presented with a case of an obese, middle-aged patient, recently diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes. Indicate which of the following symptoms does NOT apply to this patient:

A. * Hyperglycemia B. Glucose present in the urine C. Insulin resistance D. Marked plasma insulin deficiency E. Excessive urine production

616. A hydrocarbon formed in cholesterol synthesis is A. Mevalonate B. HMG CoA C. * Squalene D. Zymosterol E. Lanosterol

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617. A lipoprotein associated with high incidence of coronary atherosclerosis is A. * LDL B. VLDL C. IDL D. HDL E. None of the above

618. A lipoprotein inversely related to the incidence of coronary artherosclerosis is A. VLDL B. IDL C. LDL D. * HDL E. B and C

619. A low density lipoproteins would contain A. A high protein content. B. A high cholesterol content C. A low lipid content. D. A high lipid content. E. A high triacylglycerol content.

620. A major cause of atherosclerosis is: A. * Plaque. B. High density lipoproteins C. Unsaturated fats. D. Monounsaturated fats. E. Very low density lipoproteins

621. A metabolite which is common to pathways of cholesterol biosynthesis from acetyl-CoA and cholecalciferol formation from cholesterol is

A. Zymosterol B. Lumisterol C. Ergosterol D. * 7 Dehydrocholesterol E. Lanosterol

622. A total blood cholesterol concentration that is less than _____ mg/dl indicates a low risk of developing CHD, whereas a concentration that is greater than _____ mg/dl indicates a high CHD risk.

A. * 3; 9 B. 6; 6 C. 7; 8 D. 7,5; 5 E. None of the above

623. Acetoacetate transforms into acetone by means of: A. Dehydrogenating B. * Decarboxylation C. Hydration D. Oxidation E. Reduction

624. Acetoacetate transforms into acetone by means of: A. Dehydrogenating B. * Decarboxylation C. Hydration D. Oxidation E. Reduction

625. Activated lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase is essential for the conversion of

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A. VLDL remnants into LDL B. * Nascent HDL into HDL C. HDL2 into HDL3 D. HDL3 into HDL2 E. VLDL into HDL

626. Adiposogenital dystrophy is caused by the lack of secretion of: A. Oxytocin B. Vasopressin C. Gonadotropic hormone D. * Thyrotropic hormone E. Melanotropic hormone

627. All of the following are factors that increase one's risk of hypertension EXCEPT: A. Lack of exercise B. Gender. C. A high-salt diet D. * Diabetes. E. All of the above

628. All of the following are high in monounsaturated fatty acids EXCEPT:  A. Safflower oil B. Canola oil. C. Cashew nuts. D. * Olive oil. E. All of the above

629. All of the following are risk factors for cardiovascular disease EXCEPT: A. * Low blood pressure B. Being overweight C. Diabetes mellitus D. Smoking E. None of the above

630. All of the following are true regarding HDL-cholesterol levels EXCEPT: A. That regular physical activity increases HDL B. That a high saturated fat diet decreases HDL C. * That a diet high in omega-3 increases HDL D. That a high fiber diet increases HDL. E. All of the above

631. All of the following hormones would suppress appetite except A. Leptin released by adipose cells B. Ghrelin produced in the stomach. C. Cholecystokinin produced during digestion D. * Insulin. E. Epinephrin

632. All of the following tissue are capable of using ketone bodies except A. Brain B. Renal cortex C. * R.B.C. D. Cardiac muscle E. Sceletal muscle

633. All the following can be oxidized by oxidation except A. Palmitic acid B. * Phytanic acid C. Linolic acid D. Fatty acids having an odd number of carbon atoms

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E. Linolenic 634. All the following statements correctly describe ketone bodies except

A. They may result from starvation B. They are present at high levels in uncontrolled diabetes C. They include—OH ?-butyrate and acetone D. * They are utilized by the liver during long term starvation E. Only A

635. An enzyme required for the synthesis of ketone bodies as well as cholesterol is A. Acetyl CoA carboxylase B. * HMG CoA synthetase C. HMG CoA reductase D. HMG CoA lyase E. None of the above

636. Answer both questions a) and b). a) Is the following triacylglycerol chiral? b) Are any of its hydrolysis products chiral?

A. A) no b) no B. A) yes b) no C. * A) yes b) yes D. A) no b) yes E. None of the above

637. Antioxidant have the ability to: A. * Level the processes of free-radical oxidation of lipids B. Depress ?-oxidation of fatty acids C. Activate fat decomposition D. Activate the processes of peroxidation E. Depress ketogenesis

638. Arachidonic acid is classified as essential because it: A. Is needed as a source of energy B. Is needed as a source of ?-3 acids C. * Is needed for synthesis of eicosanoids D. Can be converted to all of the other fatty acids E. Readily acts as an antioxidant

639. Beta-oxidation results in the formation of: A. Pyruvate. B. * Acetyl-CoA. C. Carbon monoxide. D. Oxaloacetate. E. None of the above

640. By observation of a sick child were discovered phenomena of xanthomatosis, liver increase, retinal hyperlipemia, pain in the stomach, hyperchilomicronemia. What enzyme activity malfunction possibly caused such pathology?

A. Lipoprotein lipase B. * Lecithin cholesterol-acyltransferase C. Tissue tryglycerol lipase D. Tissue dyglycerol lipase E. Pancreatic lipase

641. By oxidation of fatty acids with paired amount of carbohydrate atoms propionil-CoA is transformed to:

A. Malonyl-CoA B. Succinyl-CoA C. Enoil-CoA D. Butyryl-CoA

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E. Acetacetyl-CoA 642. Can Acetyl-CoA directly be transported from the mitochondrial matrix to the

cytosol? A. No, oxaloacetate goes over to the cytosol and then acetyl-CoA is produced B. No, oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA forms citrate which travels out to the cytosol C. Yes, acetyl-CoA is directly transferred into the cytosol D. Yes, oxaloacetate goes over to the cytosol and then acetyl-CoA is produced E. None of the above

643. Cardiovascular function is most commonly impaired by which disease? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Hypertension C. Coronary heart disease D. Stroke E. * All of the above

644. Cholesterol is a A. Animal sterol B. M.F. C27 H46O C. 5 methyl groups D. * All of these E. Non produse energy

645. Cholesterol is a precursor for each of the following, except: A. Bile salts B. Vitamin D C. Testradiol D. * Vitamin C E. Lipoproteins

646. Cholesterol is a precursor in the biogenesis of A. Vitamin A B. * Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. None of these E. Vitamin K

647. Cholesterol is essential for normal membrane functions because it A. Cannot be made by higher organisms, e.g. mammals B. Spans the thickness of the bilayer. C. Keeps membranes fluid. D. *Catalyzes lipid flip-flop in the bilayer. E. Plugs up the cardiac arteries of older men.

648. Cholesterol is present in all of the following except A. Egg B. Fish C. Milk D. * Pulses E. Liver

649. Cholesterol is transported from liver to extrahepatic tissues by A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. HDL D. * LDL E. Carnitin

650. Cholesterol molecule has _______ carbon atoms. A. * 27

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B. 21 C. 15 D. 12 E. 2

651. Cholesterol performs in the organism the following functions, but: A. Is a part of cell membranes B. Substratum for bile acids synthesis C. Substratum for D vitamin synthesis D. * Is a source of energy E. Substratum for steroid hormones synthesis

652. Cholesterol, bile salts, vitamin D and sex hormones are A. Mucolipids B. Glycolipids C. Phospholipids D. * Isoprenoid lipids E. Milk lipids

653. Chylomicron remnants are catabolised in A. Intestine B. Adipose tissue C. Liver D. * Liver and intestine E. Lung

654. Chylomicron, intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), low density lipoproteins (LDL) and very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) all are serum lipoproteins. What is the correct ordering of these particles from the lowest to the greatest density?

A. LDL, IDL, VLDL, Chylomicron B. * Chylomicron, VLDL, IDL, LDL C. VLDL, IDL, LDL, Chylomicron D. Chylomicron, IDL, VLDL, LDL E. IDL, Chylomicron, VLDL, LDL

655. Contributory, or secondary, risk factors for heart disease include A. Stress, obesity, diabetes. B. * Heredity, age, high blood pressure C. Gender, physical inactivity, age D. Diabetes, smoking, high cholesterol E. Only C

656. Drugs called statins are now used to decrease plasma cholesterol levels by inhibiting the rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis. This step is catalyzed by

A. Lipoprotein lipase B. * ?-ketothiolase C. Acyl carrier protein D. HMG-CoA reductase E. Transacylase

657. During the absorptive state, the primary source of energy for liver cell functions is A. Keto acids derived from amino acids. B. * Ketone bodies derived from fatty acids. C. Lactic acid derived from muscle glycogen. D. Glucose derived from intestinal absorption. E. Pyruvate derived from glycolysis.

658. Elevated plasma level of the following projects against atherosclerosis: A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL

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C. HDL D. * LDL E. A and B

659. Enzyme lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) performs the following function:

A. * Removal of cholesterol from perifery tissues and its transportation to the liver B. Formation of chylomicrons C. Formation of ?-lipoproteins D. Resynthesis of lipids E. Formation of cell membranes structure

660. Exercise can help reduce the risk of heart disease by: A. Reducing the levels of HDL B. * Increasing the levels of HDL C. Increasing the levels of LDL D. Increasing blood pressure E. Increasing the levels of VLDL

661. Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with loss of function due to defects in :

A. * Hydroxymethylglutaryl (HMG)-CoA reductase. B. Chylomicrons. C. Hormone-sensitive lipase. D. Receptors for LDL. E. Mevalonatereductase

662. Fatty acid oxidation occurs mostly within mitochondria, but fatty acids can't easily cross the mitochondrial membrane. How do they pass?

A. Attached to alcohols B. * As esters of carnitine C. As amides of glycine D. Attached to esters of alcohols E. As bile acids or salts

663. Fatty acids are activated to acyl-CoAs and the acyl group is further transferred to carnitine because:

A. Acyl-CoAs easily cross the mitochondrial membrane, but the fatty acids themselves will not.

B. Fatty acids cannot be oxidized by FAD unless they are in the acyl-carnitine form. C. Carnitine is required to oxidize NAD+ to NADH. D. * Acyl-carnitines readily cross the mitochondrial inner membrane, but acyl-CoAs

do not. E. None of the above is true.

664. Fatty acids from hyaloplasm to mitochondria are transported with the help of: A. * Albumins B. Chylomicrons C. Alfa- lipoproteins D. Pre-D-lipoproteins E. E- lipoproteins

665. Fluidity of membranes is increased by the following constituent except A. * Polyunsaturated fatty acids B. Saturated fatty acids C. Integral proteins D. Cholesterol E. Lanosterol

666. For extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis, acetyl CoA may be obtained from

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A. * Citrate B. Isocitrate C. Oxaloacetate D. Succinate E. Lactat

667. For long-term storage glucose is converted to ______ , while for short-term storage, glucose is converted to ______.

A. * Fat, glycogen B. Glycogen, ketone bodies C. Glycogen, protein D. Pyruvic acid, fat E. Fat, pyruvic acid

668. HDL is synthesized and secreted from A. Pancreas B. * Liver C. Kidney D. Muscle E. Lung

669. HDL is synthesized in A. Adipose tissue B. * Liver C. Intestine D. Liver and intestine E. Muscle tissue

670. High cholesterol can be reduced by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Proper nutrition. B. Drug treatment. C. * Exercise. D. Increasing saturated fat E. None of the above

671. Hormone, which increase the activity of lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * Epinephrine B. Parathyroid hormone C. Insulin D. Vasopressin E. Prostaglandins

672. How many enzymes are there in the palmitate synthase multiferment complex? A. * 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 10 E. 7

673. In order to estimate your 10-year risk for cardiovascular disease, you need to know all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Your systolic blood pressure B. Your weight. C. * Your age. D. Your total cholesterol. E. Your total glucose

674. In terms of CHD risk, which of the following is undesirable? A. * High HDL B. Low HDL

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C. Both low HDL and high LDL together D. High LDL E. Low VLDL

675. In the blood of a patient is decreased amount of phospholipids, increased concentration of cholesterol, observed the symptoms of prostaglandin lack. What can cause such events?

A. Limited usage of carbohydrate B. * Limited usage of polysaturated fat acids C. D hypovitaminosis D. Excess of lipids in food E. Excess of carbohydrates in food

676. In the organism of a patient as a result of vitamin B12 deficiency has evolved fatty hepatosis. What is the reasone for this?

A. Lecithin synthesis violation B. Haemopoiesis violation C. Excessive usage of butter D. * Lack of inner Castle's factor E. Ketone bodies synthesis violation

677. In the process of ketogenesis and cholesterol genesis is formed general metabolite. Name it:

A. Mevalonic acid B. Malonyl KoA C. Succinil KoA D. * D-oxy---?metil-glutaryl CoA E. E-oxy---?citryl-glutaryl CoA

678. In those cases were the original fatty acid consists of an uneven number of carbon atoms, the last cycle of the ?-oxidation will yield a molecule of

A. Acetyl-CoA B. Glucose C. * Propionyl-CoA_Succionyl-CoA D. Oxaloacetate E. Lactat

679. Ketogenesis is stimulated by all of the following except A. Glucagon. B. Epinephrine. C. Thryoxine. D. * Cortisol. E. Only B

680. Ketone bodies are formed in A. Kidney B. * Liver C. Heart D. Intestines E. Muscles

681. Ketone bodies are formed in: A. * Liver B. Muscles C. Stomach D. Intestines E. Kidney

682. Ketone bodies are mainly formed (where)? A. In the brain

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B. In the heart C. * In the liver D. In kidney E. None of the above

683. Ketone bodies are synthesized from fatty acid oxidation products by which of the following organs?

A. * Liver B. Skeletal muscles C. Kidney D. Brain E. Heard

684. Ketosis in partly ascribed to A. Over production of Glucose B. * Under production of Glucose C. Increased carbohydrate utilization D. Increased fat utilization E. None of the above

685. LCAT activity is associated with which of the lipo-protein complex? A. VLDL B. Chylomicrones C. IDL D. * HDL E. LDL

686. leaflet of the membrane lipid bilayer? A. * Choline phosphoglycerides B. Ethanolamine phosphoglycerides C. Inositol phosphoglycerides D. Serine phosphoglycerides E. Only C

687. Lipid stores are mainly present in A. Liver B. Brain C. Muscles D. * Adipose tissue E. Lung

688. Lipids are stored in the body mainly in the form of A. Phospholipids B. Glycolipids C. * Triglycerides D. Fatty acids E. Cholesterol

689. Lipids are: A. * Stored primarily as triglycerides. B. Synthesized by beta-oxidation. C. Broken down by oxidative deamination. D. All of the above. E. None of the above

690. Lipolysis is accelerated by: A. Insulin B. * Glucagon C. Water D. Testosterone

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E. Sucrose 691. Lipoproteinlipase of tissue capillary is activated by:

A. * Bile acids B. Heparin C. Trypsin D. Epinephrine E. Ions of Ca

692. Lipoprotiens may be identified more accurately by means of A. * Electrophoresis B. Ultra centrifugation C. Centrifugation D. Immunoelectrophoresis E. Only C

693. Mark all forms of ketone bodies, except: A. Acetoacetate B. Acetone C. C-hydroxybutyrate D. * Cellulosa

694. Mark important molecules and steps directly involved in the oxidation of fatty acids

A. Hexokinase/Glucokinase. B. Shuttling of Acetyl-CoA with Carnitin C. Lactate D. * The process starts with the activation of a fat molecule, in which a thioester

bond is formed between the carboxyl group of the fatty acid and the thiol group of coenzyme A (CoA-SH)

E. Acyl-CoA-synthetase and acyl-CoA 695. Mark the lipid, which usage is to be decreased in the daily food allowance:

A. Cholesterol B. * Oleic acid C. Lecithin D. Monooleateglyceride E. Phosphatidyl serine

696. Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the ___ face the solvent and the ___ are directed toward the interior.

A. Hydrophilic heads;   hydrophobic tails B. Carboxylic acid groups;   hydrocarbon chains C. Hydrocarbon chains;   carboxylic acid groups D. Hydrophobic tails;   hydrophilic heads E. The first and second answers are both correct.

697. Mitochondrial lipogenesis requires A. Bicarbonate B. Biotin C. Acetyl CoA carboxylase D. * NADPH E. Carnitin

698. Most products of fat digestion are transported in the lymph as A. Glycerol. B. Fatty acids. C. * Chylomicrons D. Cholesterol. E. HDL

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699. Normal concentration of ketone bodies in blood is: A. 2-3 mg/l. B. 5-10 mg/l. C. 50-70 mg/l. D. * 10-20 mg/l. E. 30-40 mg/l.

700. Normal range of plasma total phospholipids is A. 0.2–0.6 mmol/L B. 0.9–2.0 mmol/L C. * 1.5–3.6 mmol/L D. 2.8–5.3 mmol/L E. 9,2-11.6 mmol/L

701. Number of carbon atoms in cholesterol is A. 17 B. 19 C. * 27 D. 30 E. 18

702. Old-time physicians often diagnosed illness on the basis of the odor of patients. Untreated diabetics sometimes have breath with a "fruity" odor due to the presence of a volatile ketone body. Which one?

A. ?-Hydroxybutyric acid B. Pyruvic acid C. Stearic acid D. Acetoacetic acid E. * Acetone

703. Oxidation of fatty acids occurs A. In the cytosol B. * In the matrix of mitochondria C. On inner mitochondrial membrane D. On the microsomes E. on the lysosoms

704. Pancreatic lipase converts triacylglycerols into A. 2, 3-Diacylglycerol B. 1-Monoacylglycerol C. * 2-Monoacylglycerol D. 3-Monoacylglycerol E. 5-Monoacylglycerol

705. Pancreatic lipase requires for its activity: A. Co-lipase B. Bile salts C. Phospholipids D. * All of these E. Monoacylglicerols

706. Phospholipids are important cell membrane components because A. They have glycerol B. They can form bilayers in water C. They have both polar and non polar potions D. * They combine covalently with proteins E. None of these

707. Products of ?-oxidation of palmitoyl CoA include: A. Propionyl CoA, NADH and FADH2.

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B. Acetyl CoA, NADPH and FAD. C. * Acetyl CoA, FADH2 and NADH. D. Propionyl CoA, NADH and acetyl CoA. E. Pyruvat and lactat

708. Serum cholesterol is decreased in A. Endemic goitre B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Myxoedema D. Cretinism E. Pellsgra

709. Some triacylglycerols are exogenous, and others are endogenous (synthesized within the body). Endogenous triacylglycerols are typically synthesized in:

A. Erythrocytes B. Liver C. Heart tissue D. Muscle tissue E. * Adipose tissue

710. Some ways to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease are: A. Quit smoking and reduce saturated fat intake. B. Reduce exercise to prevent stress on the heart. C. Obtain 50% or more of total calorie intake from fat and decrease carbohydrate

intake. D. * All of the above. E. None of the above

711. Stress is considered a risk factor for heart disease because it can cause all of the following EXCEPT:

A. An increase in blood pressure. B. An increase in HDL levels. C. * An increase in smoking. D. An increase in total blood cholesterol E. Only D

712. The ‘Committed step’ in the biosynthesis of cholesterol from acetyl CoA is A. Formation of acetoacetyl CoA from acetyl CoA B. Formation of mevalonate from HMG CoA C. * Formation of HMG CoA from acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA D. Formation of squalene by squalene synthetase E. Only A

713. The action of bile in lipid digestion is to: A. * Emulsify fats by a detergent action B. Chemically degrade triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol C. Chemically convert triglycerides to diglycerides D. Chemically reduce cholesterol esters to cholesterol E. A and B

714. The amount of cholesterol in blood plasma is normal: A. * 3-7 mmol/l B. 10-15 mmol/l C. 20-25 mmol/l D. 1-3 mmol/l E. 5-7 mmol/l

715. The amount of total lipids in blood plasma is normal: A. 4-8 g/l B. 5-10 g/l

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C. 2-3 g/l D. 15-20 g/l E. 7-12 g/l

716. The anabolism/synthesis of lipids mainly take place in the A. * Cytosol B. Mitochondrial matrix C. Nucleus D. Cell membrane E. Lysosoms

717. The biggest risk factor for sudden cardiac death is: A. Heredity. B. Smoking C. Hipertension. D. * High blood cholesterol levels E. Low blood cholesterol levels

718. The bile salts are: A. Enzymes for digesting food in the small intestines B. * Detergents for breaking up large fat globules to small ones C. Stimulants to pancreatic secretion of enzymes D. The major ingredients of gallstones E. Reabsorbed primarily by the gallbladder

719. The catabolism/breakdown of lipids (?-oxidation) mainly take place in the A. Cytosol B. * Mitochondrial matrix C. Nucleus D. Cell membrane E. Lysosoms

720. The complete h-oxidation of 1 mole of palmitic acid to CO2 and H2O yields _______ net moles of ATP.

A. 92 B. 94 C. 106 D. 108 E. * 129

721. The correct sequence of events that occurs when fatty acids are used to generate ATP is:

A. Beta-oxidation, electron transport chain, deamination. B. Electron transport chain, beta-oxidation, glycolysis. C. * Beta-oxidation, TCA cycle, electron transport chain. D. Glycolysis, beta-oxidation, TCA cycle. E. Glycolysis, electron transport chain, deamination

722. The cyclization of squalene causes the formation of: A. * Lanosterol B. B-oxy---methylglutaryl-CoA C. Phosphomevalonate D. Acetoacetyl-CoA E. Cholesterol

723. The fatty degeneration of liver is prevented by lipotropic matters. Which of the belowmentioned matters belongs to them?

A. * Methionine B. Cholesterol C. Bilirubin

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D. Glycine E. Glucose

724. The fatty degeneration of liver is prevented by lipotropic matters. Which of the belowmentioned matters belongs to them?

A. * Methionine B. Cholesterol C. Bilirubin D. Glycine E. Glucose

725. The following contains the least cholesterol: A. * Milk B. Meat C. Butter D. Cheese E. Suet

726. The function of pentose-phosphate cycle in the synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol is the following:

A. Main energy source B. Source of acetyl-CoA C. Source of malonyl-CoA D. * Source of NADPH2 E. Source of NAPH2

727. The highest phospholipids content is found in A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. LDL D. * HDL E. None of the above

728. The hormone, that depresses lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Glucagon D. Thyroxine E. Adrenocorticotropin

729. The hormone, that depresses lipolysis in fatty tissue: A. * Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Glucagon D. Thyroxine E. Adrenocorticotropin

730. The hormone, which favours oxidation of cholesterol side chain and its excretion with bile:

A. Parathyroid hormone B. * Epinephrine C. Insulin D. Thyroxine E. Vasopressin

731. The key intermediate in the synthesis of cholesterol following the formation of acetoacetyl CoA are. Any one of the following:

A. Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA or HMG CoA B. * Mevalonate (or mevalonic acid) C. Isoprenoid

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D. Squalene E. Lanosterol

732. The key intermediate in the synthesis of cholesterol following the formation of acetoacetyl CoA are. Any one of the following:

A. Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA or HMG CoA B. * Mevalonate (or mevalonic acid) C. Isoprenoid D. Squalene E. Lanosterol

733. The major lipid in chylomicrons is A. * Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Cholesterol D. Free fatty acids E. Lanosterol

734. The major product of the fatty acid synthase reaction is: A. Propionyl CoA. B. * Palmitate. C. Palmitoyl CoA. D. Acetyl CoA. E. Lactat

735. The major source of cholesterol in arterial smooth muscle cells is from A. IDL B. * LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons E. IDL

736. The major storage form of lipids is A. Esterified cholesterol B. Glycerophospholipids C. * Triglycerides D. Sphingolipids E. All of the above

737. The normal content of cholesterol in blood is: A. 5-10 mmol/l. B. 10-15 mmol/l. C. * 3-8 mmol/l. D. 2-5 mmol/l. E. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l

738. The official medical measurement of obesity is the A. Weight of a person compared to their height B. * Body mass index. C. Proportion of bone density to weight. D. Basal metabolic rate. E. Only C

739. The oxidation of glycerin in aerobic conditions to CO2 and H2O taking into account energy spending causes the formation of :

A. 9 ATP molucules B. 1 ATP molucules C. 3 ATP molucules D. * 22 ATP molucules E. 15 ATP molucules

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740. The patient has hyperfunctioning of thyroid gland. What changes of lipid metabolism may take place?

A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Hypophospholipidemia C. * Decrease of amount of free fatty acids in blood D. Steatorrhea E. Adiposity

741. The patient has hyperfunctioning of thyroid gland. What changes of lipid metabolism may take place?

A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Hypophospholipidemia C. * Decrease of amount of free fatty acids in blood D. Steatorrhea E. Adiposity

742. The presence of ketone bodies in the urine indicates increased metabolism of: A. * Amino acids. B. Lactic acid. C. Fatty acids. D. Nucleic acids E. Vitamins

743. The presence of ketone bodies in the urine indicates increased metabolism of: A. * Amino acids. B. Lactic acid. C. Fatty acids. D. Nucleic acids E. Vitamins

744. The result of hyperketonemia is: A. Fatty liver degeneration B. * Acidosis C. General adiposity D. Emaciation E. Atherosclerosis

745. The sources of NADPH for synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol are: A. Malate dehydrogenase and glycolysis B. Lactate dehydrogenase and oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway. C. Malate dehydrogenase and non-oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate

pathway. D. * Malic enzyme and oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway. E. None of the above

746. The substratum for fatty acids synthesis is: A. * Acetyl-CoA B. Acyl-CoA C. Malonyl-CoA D. Propionil-CoA E. Succinyl-CoA

747. The synthesis of 1 mole of palmitic acid from 8 moles of acetyl CoA requires _____ moles of ATP.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. * 7 E. 8

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748. This interferes with cholesterol absorption A. Lipoprotein lipase B. Creatinase C. ?-sitosterol D. * 7-dehydrocholesterol E. None of the above

749. Uncontrolled type I diabetes mellitus A. * Stimulates increased tissue ketone utilization. B. If untreated leads to convulsions and death. C. Stimulates hepatic glycogen synthesis. D. Results in hypotension. E. All of the above

750. Vasodilators that may mediate local myocardial control of coronary vascular tone A. Adenosine B. * Bradykinin C. Prostaglandins D. Potassium ions E. Hydrogen ions

751. Very low density lipoproteins are also known as A. ?-lipoproteins B. * Pre B--lipoproteins C. C-lipoproteins D. None of these E. Pre-?-lipoproteins

752. VLDL remnant may be converted into A. VLDL B. * LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons E. None of the above

753. What are the steps you can take to reduce your high blood cholesterol? A. Follow the TLC Diet (low saturated fat, low cholesterol). B. Be more physically active. C. Lose weight if you are overweight. D. * Take your cholesterol lowering medication if prescribed. E. All of the above.

754. What changes in lipid metabolism will be caused by insufficiency of somatotropin excretion?

A. Emaciation B. * Fatty liver degeneration C. Atherosclerosis D. Adiposity E. Ketonemia

755. What is the state called when there is a high level of ketone bodies in the blood? A. * Ketosis/ketoacidosis B. Hyperglycemia C. Hypothermia D. Hyperaminoacidemia E. Hypoglycemia

756. What is the sub cellular site for the W- oxidation of fatty acids? A. ucleus B. * Mitochondria

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C. Lysosome D. Cytosol E. Nucleus

757. What is true regarding the production of ketone bodies: A. It involves a number of reactions B. It’s a single reaction with only one enzyme C. The first step is a condensation reaction in which two molecules acetyl-CoA are

transformed into acetyl-CoA D. The second step is another condensation reaction and HMG-CoA is formed E. * Acetoacetate can be either reduced to ?–hydroxybutyrate or through a

decarboxylation reaction it can form acetone 758. What is/are true for lipids?

A. They are polar and soluble in water. B. They are nonpolar and soluble in water. C. * Steroids, glycolipids, fatty acids, triacylglycerols, phosphoacylglycerols a

sphingolipids are all examples of lipids. D. Pyruvate, glucose and lactate are all examples of lipids. E. None of the above

759. What is/are true? A. The synthesis of fatty acids produces energy in the form of ATP B. The catabolism of fatty acids costs ATP C. The synthesis of fatty acids costs energy in the form of ATP D. * The catabolism of fatty acids produces ATP E. Only C

760. Where in the cell is performed the synthesis of palmitic acid? A. * Cytoplasm B. Nucleus C. Lysosomes D. Mitochondria E. Microsomes

761. Which are the cholesterol esters that enter cells through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed?

A. Endoplasmin reticulum B. * Lysosomes C. Plasma membrane receptor D. Mitochondria E. Nucleus

762. Which compounds/coenzymes belong to fatty acid synthesis and not to the catabolism of the same?

A. FAD B. NAD+ C. NADH D. Coenzyme A E. * Acyl carrier protein (ACP)

763. Which food does not have a lot of cholesterol? A. Steak B. * Banana C. Liver. D. Butter E. Egg.

764. Which is not a ketone body? A. * Dihydroxyacetone

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B. Acetoacetate C. Acetone D. D-hydroxybutyrate

765. Which lipoprotein contains high levels of cholesterol? A. HDL B. Chylomicron C. VLDL D. IDL E. * LDL

766. Which of the following are considered major risk factors for CHD? A. Obesity, gender, heredity B. * Hypertension, high cholesterol, sedentary lifestyle C. Diabetes, obesity, stress D. Smoking, diabetes, stress E. Only C

767. Which of the following does NOT characterize Type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. Increased glucose utilization due to excessive glucose availability B. Excessive urination due to the osmotic effect of glucose in the urine C. Acidosis due to excessive levels of ketones (ketone bodies) in the blood. D. * Dehydration. E. Hyperglycemia

768. Which of the following effect of insulin is correct? A. Activates the oxidation of fatty acids. B. Activates the lipolysis. C. Inhibits the synthesis of lipids. D. * Enhances the synthesis of lipids. E. None of the above

769. Which of the following has the highest cholesterol content? A. Meat B. Fish C. * Butter D. Milk E. Cheese

770. Which of the following has the highest cholesterol content? A. * Egg yolk B. Egg white C. Meat D. Fish E. Milk

771. Which of the following is not a lipoprotein? A. Chylomicron B. * Creatinine C. LDL D. HDL E. VLDL

772. Which of the following is NOT a long-term consequence of untreated diabetes? A. Osteoporosis B. Heart disease C. Blindness D. Kidney disorders leading to kidney failure E. * Peripheral neuropathy

773. Which of the following is not specifically required in the synthesis of fatty acids?

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A. Biotin B. Acetyl -CoA C. Malonyl-CoA D. NADH E. * HCO3 - (CO2)

774. Which of the following is not true of the reaction in which malonyl-CoA is produced during fatty acid synthesis?

A. It requires CO2(or bicarbonate) B. The cofactor biotin C. It requires the acyl carrier protein(ACP) D. * It is stimulated by citrate E. None of the above

775. Which of the following lipoproteins would contribute to a measurement of plasma cholesterol in a normal person following a 12 hr fast?

A. * High density lipoprotiens B. Low density lipoproteins C. Chylomicron D. Chylomicron remnants E. All of the above

776. Which of the following molecules will be formed from the carbon skeleton of a ketogenic amino acid?

A. * Acetyl-CoA B. Oxaloacetate C. Pyruvate D. Acetoacetyl-CoA E. All of the above

777. Which of the following statement is correct about membrane cholesterol? A. The hydroxyl group is located near the centre of the lipid layer B. Most of the cholesterol is in the form of a cholesterol ester C. * The steroid nucleus form forms a rigid, planar structure D. The hydrocarbon chain of cholesterol projects into the extracellular fluid E. None of the above

778. Which of the following statements about genetic influences on obesity is FALSE? A. * A family history of obesity increases your chances of becoming obese by 25-30

percent. B. Fifty percent of children with two obese parents are also obese. C. Genes play a significant role in how your body balances calories and energy. D. Genes influence body fat and fat distribution. E. Only C

779. Which of the following statements about lipoproteins is TRUE? A. VLDL transports cholesterol from liver to adipose tissue. B. LDL transports cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. C. HDL transports cholesterol from the liver to the peripheral tissues. D. * Chylomicrons transport triacylglycerols from the small intestine to the liver and

adipose tissue. E. All the above are true.

780. Which of the following statements about membrane lipids is true? A. Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), which is used as an emulsifier in margarine and

chocolate, is a sphingolipid. B. * Glycerophospholipids contain fatty acids linked to glycerol through amide

bonds. C. Some sphingolipids include oligosaccharides in their structure.

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D. Glycerophospholipids are found only in the membranes of plant cells. E. All of the above

781. Which of the following statements regarding the biosynthesis of cholesterol is FALSE?

A. Cholesterol has the same carbon skeleton as its biosynthetic precursor, lanosterol. B. * Cholesterol is derived from the dimerization of farnesyl pyrophosphate in a

head-to-head manner. C. Cyclization of squalene to cholesterol is initiated by acid-catalyzed ring opening

of an epoxide. D. Cholesterol has three fewer carbon atoms than lanosterol. E. Only C

782. Which of these foods does NOT contain cholesterol? A. Liver B. Butter C. Cheese D. Eggs E. * Molasses

783. Which one of the following pairs of metabolic pathways occur in mitochondria? A. Fatty acid synthesis, ketogenesis B. * Citric acid cycle, C-oxidation of saturated fatty acids C. Ketogenesis, cholesterol synthesis D. Pentose phosphate pathway, glycolysis E. Gluconeogenesis, pyrimidine synthesis

784. Which one of the following statements about lipids is FALSE? A. A fatty acid group is present in acylglycerols and sphingolipids. B. Vitamin A functions in vision. C. Most phospholipids can by degraded by phospholipases A1, A2, C and D. D. The synthesis of cholesterol requires acetyl CoA, ATP and NADPH. E. * The more double bonds present in a fatty acid the higher the melting point.

785. Which risk factors place an individual at risk for cardiovascular disease? A. Gender B. Socioeconomic status C. Ethnicity D. Family history E. * Age

786. Which substrate is used for the activation of acetoacetate in peripheral tissues? A. * Succinyl-CoA. B. Acetyl-CoA. C. Acetoacetyl-CoA. D. CoA-SH. E. Aceton

787. Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol? A. A B. B12 C. * D D. K E. E

788. With the urine daily healthy human organism excretes the ketone bodies in amount of:

A. * 40 mg B. 80 mg C. 100 mg

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D. 10 mg E. 50 mg

789. With the urine daily healthy human organism excretes the ketone bodies in amount of:

A. * 40 mg B. 80 mg C. 100 mg D. 10 mg E. 50 mg

790. А. Lactic acid A. Glucose B. Stearic acid C. Acetoacetic acid D. * Acetic acid

791. 7 years old child was carried into the hospital in the state of allergic shock, which evolved after wasp's sting. The increased concentration of histamine was detected in the blood. This amine is formed as a result of reaction of:

A. Dehydration B. Deamination C. Reduction D. * Decarboxylation E. Hydrooxidation

792. Chymotrypsin in the small intestine hydrolyzes peptide linkages containing A. Alanine B. * Pheynl alanine C. Valine D. Methionine E. B and C

793. Coenzyme of amino acids decarboxylases is: A. Thymidine diphosphate B. Flavin adenine dinucleotide C. Flavin mononucleotide D. HS-CoA E. * PLP

794. Free ammonia is released during A. Oxidative deamination of glutamate B. Catabolism of purines C. Catabolism of pyrimidines D. * All of these E. Both A and B

795. Hyperchlorhydria is: A. A.Increase of gastric juices general acidity B. B.Increase of bonded hydrochloric acid in gastric juice C. * Increase of free hydrochloric acid in gastric juice D. Increase of lactic acid in gastric juice E. Increase of pyruvic acid in gastric juice

796. In small intestine trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages containing A. * Arginine B. Histidine C. Serine D. Aspartate E. A and D

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797. Injuries and burns cause the development of negative nitric balance that is the result of increase of:

A. Glycolysis B. Lipolysis C. * Proteolysis D. Phosphorolysis E. Fibrinolysis

798. Intrinsic factor is chemically a: A. Protein B. * Glycoprotein C. Mucopolysaccaride D. Peptide E. Amino acid

799. Most amino acids are substrates for transamination except A. Alanine B. * Threonine C. Serine D. Valine E. A and B

800. Name the compound in the urine, which is a test of protein putrefaction processes in the intestine:

A. Urates B. Urea C. Creatinine D. * Indican E. Lactic acid

801. Oxidative conversion of many amino acids to their corresponding –ketoacids occurs in mammalian:

A. * Liver and kidney B. Adipose tissue C. Pancreas D. Intestine E. Stomach

802. The amino acids abstracted from the liver are not utilized for repair or special synthesis but are broken down to

A. Keto acids B. Sulphur dioxide C. Water D. * Ammonia E. A and D

803. The amount of general acidity in gastric juice of a patient P. is normal. Which of the listed numbers is true in this case?

A. A.30-40 mM/l B. * B.40-60 mM/l C. 20-30 mM/l D. 30-50 mM/l E. 20-40 mM/l

804. The example of chromoprotein: A. Salmine B. * Catalase C. Zein D. Gliadin

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E. All of these 805. The metabolism of all proteins ingested over and above the essential requirements

is called A. * Exogenous metabolism B. Endogenous metabolism C. Both (A) and (B) D. Metabolism E. None of these

806. The transaminase activity needs the coenzyme: A. ATP B. * B6 – PO4 C. FAD+ D. NAD+ E. TPP

807. The unwanted amino acids abstracted from the tissues are either used up by the tissue or in the liver converted into

A. Ammonia B. * Urea C. Ammonium salts D. Uric acid E. B and C

808. Transamination is a A. Irreversible process B. * Reversible process C. Both (A) and (B) D. Linear pathway E. None of these

809. A limiting amino acid is an essential amino acid A. * That is most deficient in proteins B. That is most excess in proteins C. That which increases the growth D. That which increases the weight gain E. None of these

810. A positive nitrogen balance occurs A. * In growing infant B. Following surgery C. In advanced cancer D. In kwashiorkor E. A and D

811. Absorption of Vitamin B12 requires the presence of: A. Pepsin B. Hydrochloric acid C. Intrinsic factor D. * Boh (B) and (C) E. Rennin

812. Achylia gastrica is said to be when absence of A. Pepsin only B. * Both pepsin and HCl C. HCl only D. Bile E. None of these

813. Achylia gastrica is said to be when absence of

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A. Pepsin only B. * Both pepsin and HCl C. HCl only D. Bile E. All of these

814. Achylia is lack of: A. Gastric juices acidity B. Pepsin in gastric juices C. * Pepsin and hydrochloric acid in gastric juices D. Free hydrochloric acid in gastric juices E. Lactic acid in gastric juices

815. Active trypsin formation by the action of enteropeptidase can be viewed as the master activation step because

A. It occurs first B. * It can activate its own zymogen C. Trypsin activates other pancreatic zymogens D. a and b E. a, b and c

816. After digestion amino acids A. * Are absorbed into portal circulation B. Are absorbed into lymph C. Are excreted to the extent of 50% D. Converted into glucose in the intestine E. Both A and B

817. After digestion amino acids A. * Are absorbed into portal circulation B. Are absorbed into lymph C. Are excreted to the extent of 50% D. Converted into glucose in the intestine E. All of the above

818. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) transfers an amino group from alanine to: A. Pyruvate B. * alpha-ketoglutarate C. Oxaloacetate D. Methionine E. Carbamoyl phosphate

819. Alanine can be synthesized from A. Glutamate and ?-ketoglutarate B. * Pyruvate and glutamate C. Pyruvate and ? -ketoglutarate D. Asparate and ? –ketoglutarate E. All of these

820. All of the following are required for synthesis of alanine except A. Pyruvate B. * ? -ketoglutarate C. Glutamate D. Pyridoxal phosphate E. Both a and C

821. All of the following statements about aspartate are true except A. It is non-essential amino acid B. It is a dicarboxylic amino acid C. * It can be synthesized from pyruvate and glutamate

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D. It can be converted into asparagine E. Both A and B

822. All the following are branched chain amino acids except A. Isoleucine B. * Alanine C. Leucine D. Valine E. Both A and B

823. All the following are true about phenylketonuria except A. Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Mental retardation C. * Increased urinary excretion of p-hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid D. Decrease serotonin formation E. C and D

824. ?All the following statements about pepsin are correct except A. It is smaller than pepsinogen B. It is formed by the action of HCl on its precursor C. Its optimum pH is 1.0–2.0 D. * It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal peptide bonds of proteins E. C and D

825. All the following statements about pepsin are correct except A. It is smaller than pepsinogen B. It is formed by the action of HCl on its precursor C. Its optimum pH is 1.0–2.0 D. * It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal peptide bonds of proteins E. Both A and D

826. Allosteric inhibitor of glutamate dehydrogenase is A. * ATP B. ADP C. AMP D. GMP E. None of these

827. Allsoteric activator of glutamate dehydrogenase is A. ATP B. GTP C. * ADP and GDP D. AMP and GMP E. AMP

828. Amino acids from N-end in the proteins are splittted off by A. Dipeptidase B. Carbooxypeptidase C. * Aminopeptidase D. Elastase E. Endopeptidase

829. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of A. * The bases of the phospholipids B. Uric acid C. Glycolipids D. Chondroitin sulphates E. All of these

830. Amino acids provide the nitrogen for the synthesis of A. * The bases of the phospholipids

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B. Uric acid C. Glycolipids D. Chondroitin sulphates E. None of these

831. Ammonia intoxication symptoms occur when brain ammonia levels are A. Slightly diminished B. Highly diminished C. * Increased D. Normal E. All of these

832. Ammonia is transported from muscles to liver mainly in the form of A. Free ammonia B. Glutamine C. Asparagine D. * Alanine E. Both B and D

833. An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity is A. Liver B. * Brain C. Kidney D. Heart E. Both A and B

834. As a result of amino acids decarboxylation in the organism are formed: A. Ammonia, urea, creatine B. * Amines, diamines C. Polypeptides, uric acid D. Dipeptides, xanthine E. Amines, indican

835. As a result of amino acids decarboxylation in the organism are formed: A. Ammonia, urea, creatine B. * Amines, diamines C. Polypeptides, uric acid D. Dipeptides, xanthine E. Allantion, indican

836. Aspartate amino transferase uses the following for transamination: A. Glutamic acid and pyruvic acid B. * Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid C. Aspartic acid and pyruvic acid D. aspartic acid and keto adipic acid E. None of these

837. Bioactive amines are formed in reaction of: A. Transamination. B. * Decarboxylisation. C. Oxidation. D. Deamination. E. All of these

838. Biological value of a protein is A. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen absorbed into circulation B. * The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen in the body C. The percentage of ingested protein utilized for protein synthesis in the body D. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein ingested E. Both A and B

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839. By overheating the nutritional value of cereal proteins is A. Increased B. * Decreased C. Unchanged D. None of these E. D and C

840. Carboxy peptidase B in the small intestine hydrolyzes peptides containing A. Leucine B. Isoleucine C. * Arginine D. Cysteine

841. Carboxy peptidase B in the small intestine hydrolyzes peptides containing A. Leucine B. Isoleucine C. * Arginine D. Cysteine E. C and D

842. Carboxypeptidase, an enzyme of pancreatic juice, contains A. Mn B. * Zinc C. Magnesium D. Manganese E. Iron

843. Carboxypeptidase, an enzyme of pancreatic juice, contains A. Mn B. * Zinc C. Magnesium D. Manganese E. All of the above

844. Choose from the below mentioned substances the product, which concentration is increased during putrefying of proteins:

A. * Indole, phenol B. Creatinine, creatine C. Cyanocobalamin, naphthoquinone D. Thiamine, biotin E. Tryptophane, arginine

845. Chymotrypsin in the small intestine hydrolyzes peptide linkages containing A. Alanine B. * Pheynl alanine C. Valine D. Methionine E. Both A and B

846. Chymotrypsinogen is transformed to chymotrypsin in the effect of: A. Renin, gastrixin B. Elastase, enterokinase C. Hydrochloric acid, pepsin D. * Trypsin, chymotrypsin E. Pepsin, enterokinase

847. Clinical features of Kwashiorkor include all of the following except A. * Mental retardation B. Muscle wasting C. Oedema

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D. Anaemia E. Both A and D

848. Conversion of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine is catalysed by tyrosine hydroxylase which requires

A. NAD B. FAD C. ATP D. * Tetrahydrobiopterin E. PLP

849. Daily excretion of nitrogen by an adult man is about A. 15–20 mg B. 1.5–2 gm C. * 5–10 gm D. 15–20 gm E. 2-3 mg

850. Deamination is ______ of amino group. A. * Removal B. Addition C. Supplementation D. None of these E. Both B and C

851. Deamination is ______ of amino group. A. * Removal B. Addition C. Supplementation D. Transfer E. None of these

852. DOPA is an intermediate in the synthesis of A. Thyroid hormones B. Catecholamines C. Melanin D. * Catecholamines and melanin E. All of these

853. During denaturation of proteins, all of the following are disrupted except A. * Primary structure B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure E. Both A and C

854. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins produces amino acids of the form: A. D B. * L C. DL D. G E. All of these

855. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins produces amino acids of the form: A. D B. * L C. DL D. All of these E. None of these

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856. From dietary protein as well as from the urea present in fluids secreted into the gastrointestinal tract intestinal bacteria produce

A. Carbondioxide B. * Ammonia C. Ammonium sulphate D. Creatine E. A and D

857. From dietary protein as well as from the urea present in fluids secreted into the gastrointestinal tract intestinal bacteria produce

A. Carbondioxide B. * Ammonia C. Ammonium sulphate D. Creatine

858. From two amino acids peptide bond formation involves removal of one molecule of

A. * Water B. Ammonia C. Carbon dioxide D. Carboxylic acid E. Both A and B

859. GABA(gama amino butyric acid) is A. Post-synaptic excitatory transmitter B. * Post-synaptic inhibitor transmitter C. activator of glia-cell function D. inhibitor of glia-cell function E. Both B and C

860. Gastrin stimulates A. Gastric motility B. Gastric secretion C. * Both (A) and (B) D. None of these E. Increase of gastric juice pH

861. Histamine is formed from histidine by A. Deamination B. Dehydrogenation C. * Decarboxylation D. Carboxylation E. Oxidation

862. Histidine is converted to histamine through the process of A. Transamination B. * Decarboxylation C. Oxidative deamination D. Urea cycle E. TCA

863. If one amino acid is fed excess, the absorption of another is A. Slightly accelerated B. Moderately accelerated C. Highly accelerated D. * Retarded E. Both C and D

864. If one amino acid is fed excess, the absorption of another is A. Slightly accelerated

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B. Moderately accelerated C. Highly accelerated D. * Retarded E. None of the above

865. If the amino group and a carboxylic group of the amino acid are attached to same carbon atom, the amino acid is called as

A. * Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Epsilon E. Delta

866. In a person increase in weight in gms per gm of protein consumption represents A. * Protein efficiency ratio B. Digestibility value of proteins C. Biological value of proteins D. Net protein utilisation E. All of these

867. In carcinoid syndrome the argentaffin tissue of the abdominal cavity overproduce A. * Serotonin B. Histamine C. Tryptamine D. Tyrosine E. All of these

868. In case of severe denaturation of protein, there is A. Reversible denaturation B. Moderate reversible denaturation C. * Irreversible denaturation D. B and C E. None of these

869. In glycoproteins the carbohydrate is in the form of disaccharide units, the number of units are

A. 50–100 B. 200–300 C. 400–500 D. * 600–700 E. None of these

870. In human and other ureotelic organisms, the end product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism:

A. Bile acids B. Ketone bodies C. * Urea D. Barium sulphate E. Ammonia

871. In humans, NH3 is detoxified in liver as A. Creatinine B. Uric acid C. * Urea D. Uronic acid E. All of these

872. In quaternary structure, subunits are linked by A. Peptide bonds B. Disulphide bonds

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C. Covalent bonds D. * Non-covalent bonds E. Both A and B

873. In small intestine trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages containing A. * Arginine B. Histidine C. Serine D. Aspartate E. All of these

874. In the stomach act such proteolytic enzymes: A. Trypsin, chymotrypsin B. Pepsin, enterokinase C. Trypsin, renin D. * Pepsin, gastrixin, rennin E. Chymotrypsin, enterokinase

875. In which part of polypeptide chain aminopeptidases break down peptides? A. From the end of free carboxyl group B. * From the end of free amino group C. From the end of free imino group D. Bonds between aminodicarbonic acids E. Bonds between cyclic amino acids

876. Inactive zymogens are precursors of all the following gastrointestinal enzymes except

A. Carboxypeptidase B. Pepsin C. * Amino peptidase D. Chymotrypsin E. Both B and D

877. Inactive zymogens are precursors of all the following gastrointestinal enzymes except

A. Carboxypeptidase B. Pepsin C. * Amino peptidase D. Chymotrypsin E. A and C

878. Insufficiency of which vitamin does cause the inhibition of activity of aminotransferase’s and decarboxylase?

A. B3 B. B2 C. B6 D. B12 E. B15

879. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in A. Iron B. Calories C. * Proteins D. Essential fatty acids E. Both B and C

880. Kwashiorkor usually occurs in A. * The post-weaning period B. Pregnancy C. Lactation

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D. Old age E. Both B and C

881. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of A. Sulphur-containing amino acids B. Aromatic amino acids C. * Branched chain amino acids D. Dicarboxylic amino acids E. All of these

882. Marasmus differs from Kwashiorkor in the which of these following respect A. Mental retardation occurs in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus B. Growth is retarded in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus C. Muscle wasting occurs in marasmus but not kwashiorkor D. * Subcutaneous fat disappears in marasmus but not in kwashiorkor E. All of these

883. Marasmus occurs from deficient intake of A. Essential amino acids B. Essential fatty acids C. * Calories D. Zinc E. All of these

884. More than half of the protein of the liver and intestinal mucosa are broken down and resynthesised in

A. * 10 days B. 12 days C. 15 days D. 18 days E. All of the above

885. Most amino acids are substrates for transamination except A. Alanine B. * Threonine C. Serine D. Valine E. Glutamate

886. Most of the ammonia released from L-?-amino acids reflects the coupled action of transaminase and

A. * L-glutamate dehydrogenase B. L-amino acid oxidase C. Histidase D. Serine dehydratase E. All of these

887. Naturally occurring amino acids have A. * L-Configuration B. D-Configuration C. DL-Configuration D. F-Configuration E. None of these

888. Negative nitrogenous balance is observed in all listed cases, except: A. Kidney disease B. * Domination of animal proteins in food C. Domination of vegetable proteins in food D. In old age E. Pancreatitis

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889. Net protein utilization depends upon A. Protein efficiency ratio B. Digestibility coefficient C. Digestibility coefficient and protein efficiency ratio D. * Digestibility coefficient and biological value E. Both A and D

890. NH3 is detoxified in brain chiefly as A. Urea B. Uric acid C. Creatinine D. * Glutamine E. Alanine

891. Number of amino acids present in the dietary proteins: A. 22 B. 23 C. * 20 D. 19 E. 12

892. Oxaloacetate is converted to aspartic acid by A. Reductase B. Oxidase C. * Transminase D. Catalase E. Decarboxylase

893. Oxidative conversion of many amino acids to their corresponding –ketoacids occurs in mammalian:

A. * Liver and kidney B. Adipose tissue C. Pancreas D. Intestine E. All of these

894. Pancreatic juice contains all of the following except A. Trypsinogen B. Lipase C. * Cholecystokinin D. Chymnotrypsinogen E. Both C and D

895. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of the following except A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. * Aminopeptidase E. Both c and D

896. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of the following except A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. * Aminopeptidase E. C and D

897. Patient has hyperplasia of G-cells of antral part of stomach. What changes in gastric juice are most possible for this pathology?

A. * Hyperchlorhydria

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B. Hypochlorhydria C. Achlorhydria D. Achylia E. Presence of lactic acid

898. Patient has positive nitrogenous balance. The reason of this can be: A. Starvation B. Tuberculosis C. * Pregnancy D. Cancer E. AIDS

899. Patient with enterocolitis has affected protein metabolism. What mechanism of amino acids absorption is affected?

A. Pinocytosis B. Primary active transport C. Simple diffusion D. * Secondary sodium-dependent transport E. Phagocytosis

900. Pentagastrin is a A. Naturally occurring form of gastrin B. Inactive metabolite of gastrin C. Active metabolite of gastrin D. * Synthetic form of gastrin E. Both A and B

901. Physiologically active configuration of amino acids: A. * L B. D C. A D. For some amino acids it is either of two E. Neither L nor D

902. Plasma proteins are isolated by A. Salting out B. Electrophoresis C. Flourimetry D. * Both (A) and (B) E. All of the above

903. Progressive transmethylation of ethanolamine gives A. Creatinine B. Choline C. * Methionine D. N-methyl nicotinamide E. Adenine

904. Protein anabolism is stimulated by A. ACTH B. * Testosterone C. Glucagon D. Epinephrine E. All of these

905. Protein anabolism is stimulated by A. ACTH B. * Testosterone C. Glucagon D. Epinephrine

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E. Both B and C 906. Protein catabolism is stimulated by all below mentioned exept

A. ACTH B. * Testosterone C. Glucagon D. Epinephrine E. A and D

907. Proteins produce polypeptides from proteins by A. Oxidizing B. Reducing C. * Hydrolyzing D. All of these E. None of these

908. Proteins produce polypeptides from proteins by A. Oxidizing B. Reducing C. * Hydrolyzing D. None of these E. B and C

909. Proteins react with biuret reagent which is suggestive of 2 or more A. Hydrogen bonds B. * Peptide bonds C. Disulphide bonds D. Hydrophobic bonds E. Both B and C

910. Pyridoxal phosphate is involved in which type of reaction? A. oxidation of pyruvate B. * production of new amino acids by transamination C. phosphate-transfer to produce ATP from ADP D. the regeneration of methionine from homocysteine E. A and B

911. Pyridoxal phosphate is the active coenzyme form of vitamin: A. B1. B. B2. C. B3. D. * B6. E. B12

912. Pyruvic acid can be obtained by transamination of alanine with A. * ?- keto glutaric acid B. Acetoacetic acid C. OH butyric acid D. Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid E. Both A and C

913. Rennin acts on casein of milk in infants in presence of A. Mg++ B. Zn++ C. Co++ D. * Ca++ E. Both C and D

914. Rennin acts on casein of milk in infants in presence of A. Mg++ B. Zn++

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C. Co++ D. * Ca++ E. B and D

915. Secretion of gastrin is evoked by A. Entry of food into stomach B. Vagal stimulation C. Lower aliphatic alcohols D. * All of these E. None of these

916. Sulphur containing amino acids after catabolism produces a substance which is excreted:

A. SO2 B. HNO3 C. * H2SO4 D. H3PO4 E. All of these

917. Sulphur-containing amino acid is A. Glutathione B. Chondroitin sulphate C. * Homocysteine D. Tryptophan E. Alanine

918. The acceptor of amino group in the processes of transamination is: A. Pyruvate B. Oxaloacetate C. * CC-ketoglutarate D. Fumarate E. Dioxyacetonephosphate

919. The acceptor of amino group in the processes of transamination is: A. Pyruvate B. Oxaloacetate C. * C.? ?-ketoglutarate D. Fumarate E. Dioxyacetonephosphate

920. The activator of trypsinogen is: A. Hydrochloric acid B. Chymotrypsin C. * Enterokinase D. Aminopeptidase E. Carboxypeptidase

921. The activity of mammalian L-amino acid oxidase, an FMN – flavo protein, is quite

A. * Slow B. Rapid C. Both (A) and (B) D. Sensitive E. None of these

922. The amino acid that undergoes oxidative deamination at significant rate is A. Alanine B. Aspartate C. * Glutamate D. Glutamine

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E. All of these 923. The amino acid which synthesizes many hormornes:

A. Valine B. * Phenylalanine C. Alanine D. Histidine E. Both B and C

924. The amino acids abstracted from the liver are not utilized for repair or special synthesis but are broken down to

A. Keto acids B. Sulphur dioxide C. Water D. * Ammonia E. Uric acid

925. The amount of total acidity in gastric juice of a patient P. is normal. Which of the listed numbers is true in this case?

A. A.30-40 mM/l B. * B.40-60 mM/l C. 20-30 mM/l D. 30-50 mM/l E. 20-40 mM/l

926. The basic amino acids are A. * Lysine B. Bile acids C. Glycine D. Alanine E. All of these

927. The building up and breaking down of protoplasm are concerned with the metabolism of

A. Carbohydrate B. Lipid C. * Protein D. Minerals E. C and D

928. The chemical score of different proteins is calculated in terms of A. * Egg proteins B. Milk proteins C. Fish proteins D. Wheat proteins E. All of these

929. The end product of amino acid nitrogen metabolism in uricotelic organisms (reptiles and birds) is

A. Bilirubin B. Urea C. * Uric acid D. Biliverdin E. Ammonia

930. The essential amino acids A. Must be supplied in the diet because the organism has lost the capacity to aminate

the corresponding ketoacids B. * Must be supplied in the diet because the human has an impaired ability to

synthesize the carbon chain of the corresponding ketoacids

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C. Are identical in all species studied D. Are defined as those amino acids which cannot be synthesized by the organism at

a rate adequate to meet metabolic requirements E. Both B and D

931. The example of phosphoprotein: A. Mucin B. * Ovovitellin C. Ovomucoid D. Tendomucoid E. All of the above

932. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein ingested is known as A. Net protein utilisation B. * Protein efficiency ratio C. Digestibility coefficient D. Biological value of protein E. Both A and B

933. The half-life of antibody protein is about A. 4 weeks B. 3 weeks C. * 2 weeks D. 1 week E. None of the above

934. The main enzymatic reaction requiring pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme is : A. Decarboxilation B. * Transamination C. Deamination D. Reamination E. Oxidation

935. The main sites for oxidative deamination are A. * Liver and kidney B. Skin and pancreas C. Intestine and mammary gland D. Lung and spleen E. All of these

936. The major constituent of the proteins of hair and keratin of skin: A. Arginine B. * Cysteine C. Glycine D. Arginine E. None of these

937. The major site of urea synthesis is A. Brain B. Kidneys C. * Liver D. Muscles E. Both B and C

938. The metabolism of protein is integrated with that of carbohydrate and fat through A. * Oxaloacetate B. Citrate C. Isocitrate D. Malate E. A and B

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939. The metabolism of protein is integrated with that of carbohydrate and fat through A. * Oxaloacetate B. Citrate C. Isocitrate D. Malate E. Succinate

940. The milk protein in the stomach in an adult is digested by A. * Pepsin B. Rennin C. HCl D. Chymotrypsinogen E. Both A and B

941. The milk protein in the stomach of the infants is digested by A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Chymotrypsin D. * Rennin E. All of the above

942. The milk protein in the stomach of the infants is digested by A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Chymotrypsin D. * Rennin E. A and D

943. The milk protein in the stomach of theinfants is digested by A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Chymotrypsin D. * Rennin E. Both A and D

944. The negative nitric balance can be caused by the deficit of the following amino acid:

A. Serine B. Tyrosine C. * Leucine D. Glycine E. Alanine

945. The neutral amino acids for absorption need A. TPP B. * B6 – PO4 C. NAD+ D. NADP+ E. FAD

946. The neutral amino acids for absorption need A. TPP B. * B6 – PO4 C. NAD+ D. NADP+ E. FAD

947. The only correct statement about chymotrypsin is A. It is formed from trypsin B. Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin into chymotrypsin

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C. * Its optimum pH is around 7 D. It hydrolyses peptide bonds involving basic amino acids E. Its optimum pH is around 4

948. The only correct statement about chymotrypsin is A. It is formed from trypsin B. Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin into chymotrypsin C. * Its optimum pH is around 7 D. It hydrolyses peptide bonds involving basic amino acids E. None of the above

949. The percentage of food nitrogen that is retained in the body represents A. Digestibility coefficient B. Biological value of proteins C. Protein efficiency ratio D. * Net protein utilisation E. All of these

950. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen absorbed into blood stream is known as

A. Net protein utilisation B. Protein efficiency ratio C. * Digestibility coefficient D. Biological value of protein E. All of these

951. The percentage of nitrogen retained in the body after absorption of diet represents A. Digestibility coefficient of proteins B. * Biological value of proteins C. Protein efficiency ratio D. Net protein utilisation E. All of these

952. The pH of gastric juice become low in A. Hemolytic anemia B. * Pernicious anemia C. Both (A) and (B) D. Jaundice E. None of these

953. The pH of gastric juice become low in A. Hemolytic anemia B. * Pernicious anemia C. Both (A) and (B) D. Gastritis E. None of these

954. The recommended daily allowance (RDA) of proteins for an adult man is A. * 70 gms B. 50 gms C. 40 gms D. 30 gms E. 200 gms

955. The symptom of ammonia intoxication includes A. * Blurring of vision B. Constipation C. Mental confusion D. Diarrhoea E. All of these

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956. The symptom of ammonia intoxication includes A. * Blurring of vision B. Constipation C. Mental confusion D. Diarrhea E. All of these

957. The third active process for amino acids transport involves A. Acidic amino acids B. Basic amino acids C. * Neutral amino acids D. Sulphur containing amino acids E. All of these

958. The third active process for amino acids transport involves A. Acidic amino acids B. Basic amino acids C. * Neutral amino acids D. Sulphur containing amino acids E. C and D

959. The transaminase activity needs the coenzyme: A. ATP B. * B6 – PO4 C. FAD+ D. NAD+ E. TPP

960. The transport of amino acids regulated by active processes of different numbers: A. 1 B. 2 C. * 3 D. 4 E. 10

961. The transport of amino acids regulated by active processes of different numbers: A. 1 B. 2 C. * 3 D. 4 E. None of the above

962. The unwanted amino acids abstracted from the tissues are either used up by the tissue or in the liver converted into

A. Ammonia B. * Urea C. Ammonium salts D. Uric acid E. All of these

963. The useful reagent for detection of amino acids is A. Molisch reagent B. Dichlorophenol Indophenol C. * Ninhydrin D. Biuret E. All of these

964. The zymogen from trypsinogen of pancreatic juice is converted to active trypsin by

A. Peisin

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B. Enterocrinin C. * Enterokinase D. Rennin E. HCl

965. The zymogen from trypsinogen of pancreatic juice is converted to active trypsin by

A. Peisin B. Enterocrinin C. * Enterokinase D. Rennin E. B and C

966. The ?-ketoacid is decarboxylated by H2O2 forming a carboxylic acid with one carbon atom less in the absence of the enzyme:

A. * Catalase B. Decarboxylase C. Deaminase D. Phosphatase E. Both A and B

967. To endopeptidases belong all below-mentioned enzymes, except: A. Pepsin B. Elastase C. * Carboxypeptidase D. Chemotrypsin E. Trypsin

968. Transamination is a A. Irreversible process B. * Reversible process C. Both (A) and (B) D. Removal of CO2 E. None of these

969. Transcortins are A. * Mucoproteins B. Glycoproteins C. Metalloproteins D. Lipoproteins E. None of the above

970. Transmethylation of guanido acetic acid gives A. * Creatine phosphate B. Creatinine C. Choline D. n-methyl nicotinamide E. All of these

971. Transmethylation of guanido acetic acid gives A. * Creatine phosphate B. Creatinine C. Choline D. n-methyl nicotinamide E. None of these

972. Tryptophan could be considered as precursor of A. * Melanotonin B. Thyroid hormones C. Melanin

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D. Epinephrine E. All of these

973. Vitamin required for the conversion of hydroxyphenylpyruvate to homogentisate is

A. Folacin B. Cobalamin C. Ascorbic acid D. * Niacin E. Cholecalciferol

974. What biologically active substance is formed in the process of decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophane?

A. Corticosterone B. Thyroxine C. * Serotonine D. Histamine E. Anserine

975. What chemical compound is formed in reaction of amino acids transamination? A. Ammonia. B. H2O. C. * ?-Keto-acid. D. Pyruvate. E. None of these

976. What contents of free hydrochloric acid is in the gastric juice? A. 10-20 mmol/l B. * 20-40 mmol/l C. 40-60 mmol/l D. 60-80 mmol/l E. 80-100 mmol/l

977. What disease is proved by increase of AsAT in blood? A. Parotiditis B. Gastritis C. Pancreatitis D. * Cardiac infarction E. Pneumonia

978. What is the name of the cofactor for AST, ALT, or any other transamination reaction?

A. NAD+ B. Acetyl CoA C. * Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) D. FADH2 E. NADPH

979. When egg albumin is heated till it is coagulated, the secondary and tertiary structures of the proteins are completely lost resulting in a mixture of randomly arranged

A. Dipeptide chains B. Tripeptide chains C. * Polypeptide chains D. All of these E. None of these

980. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor? A. Lysine B. Leucine C. Tryptophan

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D. * Methionine E. All of these

981. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor? A. Lysine B. Lecuine C. Tryptophan D. * Methionine E. A and D

982. Which among the following is a nutritionally essential amino acid for man ? A. Alanine B. Glycine C. Tyrosine D. * Tryptophan E. Both A and D

983. Which among the following is an essential amino acid? A. Cysteine B. * Leucine C. Tyrosine D. Aspartic acid E. Both B and D

984. Which compounds are formed during the oxidative deamination of amino acids? A. * Keto acid and ammonia. B. Saturated fatty acid and ammonia. C. Unsaturated fatty acid and ammonia. D. Keto acid and H2O. E. A and D.

985. Which enzyme activates the trypsinogen? A. Chymotrypsin B. Carboxypeptidase C. * Enterokinase D. Trypsin E. Aminopeptidase

986. Which enzyme cleaves proteins in the stomach? A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. Enterokinase E. * Pepsin

987. Which enzyme takes part in oxidative deamination of amino acids? A. Pyridine-linked oxidase. B. * Pyridine-linked dehydrogenase. C. Pyridine-linked carboxypeptidase D. Pyridine-linked transferase. E. B and D

988. Which of the amino acid produces a vasodilator on decarboxylation? A. Glutamin acid B. * Histidine C. Ornithine D. Cysteine E. C and D

989. Which of the amino acid produces a vasodilator on decarboxylation? A. Glutamic acid

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B. * Histidine C. Ornithine D. Cysteine E. Alanine

990. Which of the following is an amino acid that is found in proteins? A. Adenosine B. Adenine C. * Alanine D. Linoleic acid E. Creatine

991. Which of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Glutamine B. Proline C. * Methionine D. Cysteine E. Asparagine

992. Which of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Glutamine B. Proline C. Methionine D. Cysteine E. Asparagine

993. Which one of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Arginine B. Tyrosine C. * Phenylalanine D. Proline E. B and C

994. Which pathological component appears in the gastric juice in cancer of the stomach?

A. * Lactic acid B. Hydrochloric acid C. Acetic acid D. Sulfuric acid E. Citric acid

995. Which pathological component appears in the gastric juice in cancer of the stomach?

A. * Lactic acid B. Hydrochloric acid C. Acetic acid D. Sulfuric acid E. Citric acid

996. Which vitamins take part in deamination of amino acids? A. B6 B. B3 C. * B5 D. B1

997. With decarboxylation of histidine is formed: A. Tyramine B. * Histamine C. Putrescine D. Cadaverine

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E. Serotonine 998. Zymogen is

A. An intracellular enzyme B. Serum enzyme C. A complete extracellular enzyme D. * An inactivated enzyme

999. All of t_________ provides one of the N atoms in urea synthesized by the urea cycle, while ___________ is a product of the urea cycle.

A. NH3 ; aspartate B. NH3 ; carbamate C. * Aspartate ; fumarate D. Fumarate ; aspartate E. Carbamate ; fumarate

1000. ________ contain(s) nitrogen A. * Amino acids B. Nucleotides C. Creatine phosphate D. All of the above E. None of the above

1001. A coenzyme required for the synthesis of glycine from serine is A. ATP B. Pyridoxal phosphate C. * Tetrahydrofolate D. NAD E. FAD

1002. A compound serving a link between citric acid cycle and urea cycle is A. Malate B. Citrate C. Succinate D. * Fumarate E. Ornithine

1003. A dietary deficiency of tryptophan and nicotinate leads to A. Beri Beri B. Xerophthalmia C. Anemia D. * Pellegra E. Rickets

1004. A phosphoprotein present in egg is A. Casein B. Albumin C. Ovoglobulin D. Ovovitellin E. Ihtulin

1005. A positive nitrogen balance occurs A. * In growing infant B. Following surgery C. In advanced cancer D. In kwashiorkar E. In old year

1006. Activity of ceruloplasmin shown in vitro: A. Reductase B. * Hydrolase

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C. Ligase D. Oxidase E. Transferases

1007. Alanine can be synthesized from A. Glutamate and alfa-ketoglutarate B. * Pyruvate and glutamate C. Pyruvate and alfa-ketoglutarate D. Asparate and alfa-ketoglutarate E. None of the above

1008. All amino acids have one asymmetric carbon atom, except A. Arginine B. Aspargine C. * Histidine D. Glycine E. Valine

1009. All followings are ketogenic aminoacids, except A. Leucine B. Isoleucine C. * Phenyl alanine D. Glycine E. Lysine

1010. All of the following are required for synthesis of alanine except A. Pyruvate B. Alfa-ketoglutarate C. Glutamate D. Pyridoxal phosphate E. * None of the above

1011. All of the following are required for synthesis of glutamine except A. Glutamate B. Ammonia C. * Pyridoxal phosphate D. ATP E. None of the above

1012. All of the following statements about aspartate are true except A. It is non-essential amino acid B. It is a dicarboxylic amino acid C. It can be synthesized from pyruvate and glutamate D. * It can be converted into asparagine E. None of the above

1013. All the following statements about albinism are correct, except A. Tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosinase) is absent or deficient in melanocytes B. Skin is hypopigmented C. * It results in mental retardation D. Eyes are hypopigmented E. A, B, D are correct

1014. All the following statements about pepsin are correct, except A. It is smaller than pepsinogen B. It is formed by the action of HCl on its precursor C. Its optimum pH is 1.0–2.0 D. * It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal peptide bonds of proteins E. Its optimum pH is 10–12

1015. All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct, except

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A. * Phenylalanine cannot be converted into tyrosine B. Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyllactate is increased C. It can be controlled by giving a lowphenylalanine diet D. It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and melanin E. It leads to increased synthesis of insulin, catecholamines and homogentosonic

acid 1016. Allosteric inhibitor of glutamate dehydrogenase is

A. ATP B. ADP C. AMP D. * GDP E. AMP

1017. Allsoteric activator of glutamate dehydrogenase is A. * ADP B. GTP C. ADP and GDP D. AMP and GMP E. ATP

1018. Along with CO2, NH3 and ATP the aminoacid that is needed in urea cycle is A. Alanine B. Isoleucine C. * Aspartate D. Glycine E. Valine

1019. Amino acids excepting histidine are not good buffering agents in cell because A. They exist as zwitter ions B. * Their pk and not in the physiological pH of a cell C. Only Histidine has pk of its R group at 6.0 unlike the others which have at a

different pH D. None of these E. All of the above

1020. Amino acids, monosaccharrides, glycerol and fatty acids are: A. Transported in the lymph to all the lymph nodes in the body B. All hormones C. Products of carbohydrate metabolism D. Enzymes E. * End products of digestion

1021. Ammonia is transported from muscles to liver mainly in the form of A. Free ammonia B. Glutamine C. Asparagine D. * Alanine E. ?-ketoglutarate

1022. An amino acid not containing the usual— COOH group is A. Alanine B. Tryptophan C. Methionine D. * Taurine E. Serine

1023. An amino acid not involved in urea cycle is A. Arginine B. * Histidine

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C. Ornithine D. Citrulline E. Only C and D

1024. An amino acid which contains a disulphide bond is A. Lysine B. Methionine C. Homocysteine D. * Cystine E. None of the above

1025. An exopeptidase is A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Elastase D. * Peptidase E. Phospholipase

1026. An important reaction for the synthesis of amino acid from carbohydrate intermediates is transamination which requires the cofactor:

A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. * Pyridoxal phosphate E. Pantotenic acid

1027. An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity is A. Liver B. * Brain C. Kidney D. Heart E. Lung

1028. As a result of amino acids decarboxylation in the organism are formed: A. Ammonia, urea, creatine B. * Amines, diamines C. Polypeptides, uric acid D. Dipeptides, xanthine E. Allantion, indican

1029. Branched chain amino acids are A. Cysteine and cystine B. Tyrosine and Tryptophan C. Glycine and Serine D. * Valine, Leucine and Isoleucine E. Serin ans glycine

1030. By decarboxylation of histidine are formed: A. Tyramine B. * Histamine C. Putrescine D. Cadaverine E. Serotonine

1031. C Splitting polymers into absorbable monomers in the GI tract A. * Transport of nutrient molecules from the intestine to cells B. Intracellular change of nutrient molecules into essential intracellular nutrients C. Secretion of insulin and glucagon D. Absorption of nutrient molecules into the body

1032. Carbamoyl phosphate required for urea synthesis is formed in

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A. Cytosol B. * Mitochondria C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these E. Only A

1033. Chymotrypsin is specific for peptide bonds containing A. * Uncharged amino acid residues B. Acidic amino acids C. Basic amino acid D. Small amino acid residues E. None of the above

1034. Clinical features of Kwashiorkor include all of the following except A. Mental retardation B. Muscle wasting C. Oedema D. * Anaemia E. A and B

1035. Coenzyme of amino acids decarboxylases is: A. Thymidine diphosphate B. Favin adenine dinucleotide C. Favin mononucleotide D. HS-CoA E. * PALP

1036. Combine the correct organism with the type of excretion of ammonia it uses. Draw lines between.

A. Birds; Urea B. * Humans; Uric acid C. Fishes; Ammonia (ammonium ion) D. Birds; Uric acid E. Fishes; Uric acid

1037. Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of A. * Calcium B. Lipoic acid C. Biotin D. Vitamin A E. Vitamin B2

1038. Cysteine can be synthesized from methionine and A. * Serine B. Homoserine C. Homocysteine D. Threonine E. Cystein

1039. Cysteine has the formula: a. CH3SH; b. H2N—CH2—COOH c. HS—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH d. S—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH S—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH

A. d B. c C. * b D. a E. None of the above

1040. Cystine is synthesized from A. * Cysteine B. Methionine

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C. Arginine D. Leucine E. Valine

1041. Cystinuria results from inability to A. Metabolise cysteine B. Convert cystine into cysteine C. Incorporate cysteine into proteins D. * Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules E. Only A

1042. Daily excretion of nitrogen by an adult man is about A. 15–20 mg B. 1.5–2 gm C. 5–10 gm D. 15–20 gm E. * 3,5-4 gm

1043. Denitrification involves reduction of nitrate, and the production of _______. A. N2 B. NO C. N2O D. * All of the above E. More than one of the above, but not all

1044. Digestion of proteins: A. Consumes water (hydrolysis) and amino acids B. Consumes water (hydrolysis) and releases amino acids C. * Releases water (dehydration) and amino acids D. Releases water (dehydration) and consumes amino acids E. None of the above

1045. E None of the above A. Metabolism of consumed foods and vitamins B. Absorption of many of the digested nutrients C. * Mixing of the gastric contents to form chyme D. Secretion of alkaline enzymes

1046. Egg is poor in A. * Essential amino acids B. Carbohydrates C. Avidin D. Biotin E. None of the above

1047. Egg is rich in all of the following except A. Cholesterol B. Saturated fatty acids C. * Ascorbic acid D. Calcium E. Unsaturated fatty acids

1048. Excess amino acids in the body are broken down to form urea in A. Kidney B. * Liver C. Spleen D. Pancreas E. Stomach

1049. For biosynthesis of proteins A. * Amino acids only are required

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B. Amino acids and nucleic acids only are required C. Amino acid, nucleic acids and ATP only are required D. Amino acids, nucleic acids, ATP, GTP, enzymes and activators are required E. All are correct

1050. For vegetarians, pulses are an important source of A. Carbohydrates B. * Proteins C. Fat D. Iron E. All of the above

1051. Free ammonia is released during A. * Oxidative deamination of glutamate B. Catabolism of purines C. Catabolism of pyrimidines D. All of these E. Only C

1052. Functions of the liver A. Acts as a storehouse for certain vitamins and iron B. Synthesizes fibrinogen and prothrombin for coagulation C. * Synthesis of the serum albumin essential for blood colloid osmotic pressure and

fluid balance D. Regulates blood levels of glucose, ketone bodies and fatty acids E. Destroys bacteria that enter the blood from the intestine before reaching the

general circulation 1053. Gastrin, which is secreted by stomach cells, functions to:

A. Inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid B. Increase the secretions of the gastric glands C. * Change pepsin into pepsinogen D. Initiate the cephalic phase of digestion E. Inhibit the secretory activities of the pancreas, liver and small intestine

1054. Glycine can be synthesized from A. * Serine B. Choline C. Betaine D. All of these E. Methionine

1055. Glycine is not required for the formation of A. Taurocholic acid B. Creatine C. Purines D. * Pyrimidines E. Glutation

1056. Histamine is formed from histidine by A. Deamination B. Dehydrogenation C. * Decarboxylation D. Carboxylation E. Oxidation

1057. Histidine is converted to histamine through the process of A. Transamination B. * Decarboxylation C. Oxidative deamination

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D. Urea cycle E. Krebs cycle

1058. How many different amino acids are necessary for our protein production? A. 15 B. 18 C. * 20 D. 25 E. 10

1059. In carcinoid syndrome the argentaffin tissue of the abdominal cavity overproduce A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. * Tryptamine D. Tyrosine E. None of the above

1060. In humans, NH3 is detoxified in liver as A. Creatinine B. Uric acid C. * Urea D. Uronic acid E. Amino acid

1061. In the following reaction, Alanine acts as a H- H| | H- N– –COO—— H- N– –COOH- C- C| |CH- CH

A. Acid B. * Base C. Zwitter ion D. None of these E. Only C are correct

1062. In the mouth: A. Food is propelled primarily by peristalsis B. * The saliva is used to lubricate and dissolve food C. The front teeth are called incisors D. All of the above E. B and C only

1063. In the synthesis of 1 molecule of urea in the Kreb’s Hanseleit cycle, the number of ATPs required is

A. 1 B. * 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

1064. In urea synthesis, the amino acid functioning solely as an enzyme activator: A. * N-acetyl glutamate B. Ornithine C. Citrulline D. Arginine E. Serine

1065. Increased serum alanine during fasting is due to A. Breakdown of muscle proteins B. * Decreased utilization of non essential amino acids C. Leakage of aminoacids to plasma D. Impaired renal function E. Only C

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1066. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at which it has a A. Positive charge B. Negative charge C. * No charge D. None of these E. All of the above

1067. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in A. Iron B. Calories C. * Proteins D. Essential fatty acids E. Ca++

1068. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of A. Sulphur-containing amino acids B. Aromatic amino acids C. * Branched chain amino acids D. Dicarboxylic amino acids E. None of the above

1069. Mechanism by which NH3 is removed from the kidneys is A. Urea formation B. Uric acid formation C. * Creatinine formation D. None of these E. All of the above

1070. Methionine is synthesized in human body from A. Cysteine and homoserine B. Homocysteine and serine C. * Cysteine and serine D. None of these E. Only A

1071. Milk is a good source of A. Proteins, calcium and iron B. Proteins, calcium and ascorbic acid C. Proteins, lactose and retinol D. * Proteins, lactose and essential fatty acids E. All of the above

1072. Most of the ammonia released from L- amino acids reflects the coupled action of transaminase and

A. * L-glutamate dehydrogenase B. L-amino acid oxidase C. Histidase D. Serine dehydratase E. Only D

1073. Name the matter in the urine, which is a test of intensivity of protein putrefaction processes in the intestine:

A. Urates B. Urea C. Creatinine D. * Indican E. Lactic acid

1074. Natural L-isomers of amino acids are absorbed from intestine by A. Passive diffusion

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B. Simple diffusion C. Faciliated diffusion D. * Active process E. None of the above

1075. Naturally occurring amino acids have A. L-Configuration B. D-Configuration C. * DL-Configuration D. None of these E. B-Configuration

1076. NH3 is detoxified in brain chiefly as A. * Urea B. Uric acid C. Creatinine D. Glutamine E. Cesteine

1077. NH3 is removed from brain mainly by A. Creatinine formation B. Uric acid production C. * Urea formation D. Glutamine formation E. None of the above

1078. Non-protein amino acids are A. * Ornithine B. ?-alanine C. ?-amino butyric acid D. All of these E. Serine

1079. Number of amino acids present in the plant, animal and microbial proteins: A. * 20 B. 80 C. 150 D. 200 E. 101

1080. One of the following amino acid is solely ketogenic: A. * Lysine B. Alanine C. Valine D. Glutamate E. Arginine

1081. Only one type of digestive juice contains carbohydrate, protein and fat-digesting enzymes. Which one is it?

A. * Pancreatic juice B. Saliva C. Bile D. Intestinal juice E. Gastric juice

1082. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of the following except A. * Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. Aminopeptidase

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E. Elastase 1083. Patient has positive nitric balance. The reason of this can be:

A. Starvation B. Tuberculosis C. * Pregnancy D. Malignant neoplasms E. AIDS

1084. Patient on a vegetarian diet has negative nitric balance, hyperproteinemia, affection of colloid-osmotic pressure and water-salt metabolism by normal function of alimentary canal. This was caused by:

A. * Monotonous protein nutrition B. Monotonous carbohydrate nutrition C. Lack of unsaturated fatty acids D. Lack of phospholipids in food E. Lack of vitamins in food

1085. Patient with enterocolitis has affected protein adoption. What mechanism of amino acids absorption is affected?

A. Pinocytosis B. Primary active transport C. Simple diffusion D. * Secondary sodium-dependent transport E. Phagocytosis

1086. Pepsin acts on denatured proteins to produce A. Proteases and peptones B. * Polypeptides C. Peptides D. Dipeptides E. Glicerol

1087. Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin by A. * HCl B. Bile salts C. Ca++ D. Enterokinase E. Lipase

1088. Physiologically active configuration of amino acids: A. * L B. D C. For some amino acids it is either of two D. Neither L nor D E. C

1089. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in A. Starvation B. Wasting diseases C. * Growing age D. Intestinal malabsorption E. All of the above

1090. Proteins that carries Iron into different tissues is A. Ceruloplasmin B. * Trans cortin C. Mucoproteins D. Glycoproteins E. Lipoprotein

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1091. Pyridoxal phosphate, what is it? A. It’s essential since our body can produce it itself B. It’s essential since our body cannot produce it itself and it needs to be taken up

from the diet C. It is a receptor molecule D. * It is a very important co-enzyme in for instance transamination reactions E. All of the above

1092. Renin converts casein to paracasein in presence of A. * Ca++ B. Mg++ C. Na+ D. K+ E. Fe++

1093. Secretin produced by the mucosa of the duodenum is stimulated by: A. Distention of the stomach B. Large quantities of bile C. A fatty chyme D. * Acidity of the chyme E. None of the above

1094. Sulphur-containing amino acid is A. Glutathione B. Chondroitin sulphate C. * Homocysteine D. Tryptophan E. Histidin

1095. Sulphur-containing amino acid is A. Glutathione B. Chondroitin sulphate C. * Homocysteine D. Tryptophan E. Histidin

1096. The 2 nitrogen atoms in urea are contributed by A. Ammonia and glutamate B. Glutamine and glutamate C. * Ammonia and aspartate D. Ammonia and alanine E. Ammonia and Glutamine

1097. The absorption of intact protein from the gut in the foetal and newborn animals takes place by

A. Pinocytosis B. Passive diffusion C. Simple diffusion D. * Active transport E. A and B

1098. The acceptor of amino group in the processes of transamination is: A. Pyruvate B. Oxaloacetate C. * D. Fumarate E. Dioxyacetonephosphate

1099. The activators of trypsinogen are: A. Hydrochloric acid

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B. * Chymotrypsin C. Enterokinase D. Aminopeptidases E. Carboxypeptidase

1100. The amino acid containing an indole ring: A. Tryptophan B. Arginine C. Threonine D. * Phenylalanine E. Valine

1101. The amino acid that undergoes oxidative deamination at significant rate is A. Alanine B. Aspartate C. * Glutamate D. Glutamine E. Serin

1102. The amino acid which contains an indole group is A. Histidine B. Arginine C. lycine D. * Tryptophan E. Cysteine

1103. The amino acid which contains an indole group is A. Histidine B. Arginine C. lycine D. * Tryptophan E. Cysteine

1104. The amino acid which has a pK near 4 and thus is negatively charged at pH 7 is A. * Alanine B. Glutamic acid C. Glutamine D. Aspargine E. None of the above

1105. The amino acids in which the R groups have a net positive charge at pH 7.0 are A. Lysine, Arginine, Histidine B. Lysine, Aspargine C. * Histidine, Aspargine D. Glutamine, Arginine E. Only D

1106. The amount of urea in patient's urine is normal. Which of the listed figures are true in this case?

A. 10-15 g B. 20-40 g C. 10-35 g D. * 25-30 g E. 50-60 g

1107. The body protein after eighteen years A. Remains unchanged B. Is decomposed only slightly at intervals of one month C. Is in a constant state of flux D. * Is used only for energy requirement

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E. None of the above 1108. The bond in proteins that is not hydrolysed under usual conditions of

denaturation: A. Hydrophobic bond B. Hydrogen bond C. Disulphide bond D. * Peptide bonds E. Hydrophobic interaction

1109. The catalytic triad of most serine proteases contains an Asp, His and Ser residue. Which of the following is true?

A. The Asp residue is used in an acid catalyzed attack on the peptide bond. B. The His residue is responsible for the substrate specificity of Trypsin. C. * The Ser residue is used in a nucleophilic attack on the peptide bond. D. The Asp residue is responsible for the substrate specificity of Trypsin. E. None of the above.

1110. The cleavage of trypsinogen to form active trypsin A. Ocurs in the small intestine. B. Can be catalyzed by trypsin. C. Ocurs in the pancreas. D. Can be catalyzed by chymotrypsin. E. * The first two choices are both correct.

1111. The cleavage specificity of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase depend in part on: A. The proximity of Ser 195 to the specificity pocket. B. The size, shape, and charge of the specificity pocket. C. The distance between the oxyanion hole and the specificity pocket. D. * The presence of a low-barrier hydrogen bond in the specificity pocket. E. The absence of water in the specificity pocket.

1112. The compound having the formula H2N—CO—NH—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH— COOH is NH2

A. * Lysine B. Glutamine C. Serine D. Citrulline E. Only C

1113. The compound used by fish for the purpose of disposing of excess nitrogen is A. * Uric acid B. Urea C. Ammonia D. Aspartate E. Fumarate

1114. The concentration of urea in the blood of healthy man is: A. 10-12 mM/l B. 12-20 mM/l C. 1-2 mM/l D. * 3-8 mM/l E. 15-18 mM/l

1115. The concentration of urea is highest in A. Renal vein B. * Hepatic portal vein C. Dorsal aorta D. Hepatic vein E. Only C

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1116. The concentration of urea is least in A. Renal artery B. * Renal vein C. Post canal D. Dorsal aorta E. Hepatic portal vein

1117. The defective enzyme in histidinemia is A. Histidine carboxylase B. Histidine decarboxylase C. * Histidase D. Histidine oxidase E. None of the above

1118. The end product of protein digestion in G.I.T. is A. Dipeptide B. Tripeptide C. Polypeptide D. * Amino acid E. Peptide

1119. The enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase requires A. * Mg++ B. Ca++ C. Na+ D. K+ E. F+

1120. The enzyme trypsin is specific for peptide bonds of A. Basic amino acids B. Acidic amino acids C. * Aromatic amino acids D. Next to small amino acid residues E. Fatty acids

1121. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found in A. Mitochondria only B. Cytosol only C. * Both mitochondria and cytosol D. Nucleus E. Lysosoms

1122. The following enzyme of urea cycle is present in cytosol: A. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase B. Argininosuccinase C. Arginase D. * All of these E. Ornithin-carbamoilphosphatetransferase

1123. The following has the highest protein efficiency ratio: A. Milk proteins B. Egg proteins C. * Meat proteins D. Fish proteins E. All of the above

1124. The main site of urea synthesis in mammals is A. * Liver B. Skin C. Intestine

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D. Kidney E. Lung

1125. The main sites for oxidative deamination are A. * Liver and kidney B. Skin and pancreas C. Intestine and mammary gland D. Lung and spleen E. Duodenum and spleen

1126. The major constituent of the proteins of hair and keratin of skin: A. Arginine B. * Cysteine C. Glycine D. Asparagine E. Glutamic acid

1127. The major end product of protein nitrogen metabolism in man is A. Glycine B. Uric acid C. * Urea D. NH3 E. Serine

1128. The major site of urea synthesis is A. Brain B. Kidneys C. * Liver D. Muscles E. Lung

1129. The most important function of the large intestine is: A. Absorption of water and electrolytes B. Secretion of enzymes C. * Digestion of incompletely digested foods D. Removal of toxic substances E. All of the above are equally important

1130. The number of ATP required for urea synthesis is A. 0 B. 1 C. * 2 D. 3 E. 12

1131. The only correct statement about chymotrypsin is A. It is formed from trypsin B. * Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin into chymotrypsin C. Its optimum pH is around 7 D. It hydrolyses peptide bonds involving basic amino acids E. All of the above

1132. The optimal pH for the enzyme chymotrypsin is A. 2.0 B. 4.0 C. 6.0 D. 8.0 E. * 7,0

1133. The optimal pH for the enzyme pepsin is A. 1.5–2.5

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B. * 4.0–5.0 C. 5.2–?6.0 D. 5.8–6.2 E. 6,0 – 8,0

1134. The optimal pH for the enzyme rennin is A. 2.0 B. 4.0 C. 8.0 D. * 5.0 E. 7,0

1135. The oxidative deamination of the amino acid alanine in muscle produces: A. * One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of ammonia B. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of carbon dioxide C. One molecule of pyruvic acid and another amino acid D. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of water E. One molecule of pyruvic acid and a molecule of urea

1136. The pancreatic enzymes, trypsin, chymotrypsin and elastase all have: A. The same catalytic triad at their active sites. B. Similar sequences and tertiary structures. C. * The same catalytic mechanism. D. Smilar processing pathways from inactive zymogens. E. All of the above choices are correct

1137. The pH of an amino acid depends A. * Optical rotation B. Dissociation constant C. Diffusion coefficient D. Chain length E. None of the above

1138. The pH of an amino acid depends A. * Optical rotation B. Dissociation constant C. Diffusion coefficient D. Chain length E. None of the above

1139. The reservoir for nitrogen is A. The atmosphere. B. Rocks. C. Ammonia. D. Nitrates. E. * Amino acids.

1140. The small intestine is the main site of absorption of: A. Carbohydrates absorbed as monosacchorides B. Carbohydrates absorbed as amino acids by active transport C. Fats absorbed into lacteals of the lymphatic system D. * Proteins absorbed as small molecules or proteoses E. A and C only

1141. The sodium bicarbonate in pancreatic juice helps to raise the pH of chyme. What substance originally lowered the pH of chyme?

A. Chyle B. H2CO3 C. * HCL D. Alkali

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E. Base 1142. The synthesis of urea finishes with:

A. Condencation of citrulline from NH3 B. * Fermentative hydrolysis of arginine to ornithine and urea C. Synthesis of arginine from citrulline D. Oxidation to ornithine and urea with participation of O2 and arginine E. Oxidation of arginine with participation of O2 to ornithine and urea

1143. The useful reagent for detection of amino acids is A. Molisch reagent B. Dichlorophenol Indophenol C. * Ninhydrin D. Biuret E. None of the above

1144. The useful reagent for detection of amino acids is A. Molisch reagent B. Dichlorophenol Indophenol C. * Ninhydrin D. Biuret E. None of the above

1145. Transfer of the carbamoyl moiety of carbamoyl phosphate to ornithine is catalysed by a liver mitochondrial enzyme:

A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. * Ornithine transcarbamoylase C. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase D. N-acetyl glutamate hydrolase E. Arginase

1146. Trypsinogen is converted to active trypsin by A. * Enterokinase B. Bile salts C. HCl D. Mg2+ E. Colipase

1147. Tyrosine could be considered as precursor of A. Melanotonin B. * Thyroid hormones C. Melanin D. Epinephrine E. Insulin

1148. Urea is transported by A. * Plasma B. Blood C. RBC D. WBC E. None af the above

1149. What amino acid in the process of urea biosynthesis splits to urea and ornithine? A. Leucine B. Citrulline C. * Arginine D. Valine E. Proline

1150. What biologically active substance is formed in the process of decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophane?

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A. Corticosterone B. Thyroxine C. * Serotonine D. Histamine E. Anserine

1151. What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in a protein? A. * Peptide bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Ionic bonds D. Glycosidic bonds E. Ester bonds

1152. When branched chain amino acids are deaminated in muscle, the ammonia produced is mostly:

A. Converted into arginine and released from the muscle B. * Converted into alanine and glutamine and released from the muscle C. Converted into urea and released from the muscle D. Ued to synthesise purines and pyrimidines in the muscle E. Oxidised to form nitric oxide

1153. Which of the following amino acids commonly acts as a nucleophilic group in enzyme catalysed reaction mechanisms?

A. Serine B. * Phenylalanine C. Histidine D. Valine E. Tyrosine

1154. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?

A. * Aspartate B. Carbamoyl phosphate C. CO2 D. Glutamine E. Fumarate

1155. Which of the following is an amino acid that is found in proteins? A. Adenosine B. Adenine C. * Alanine D. Linoleic acid E. Creatine

1156. Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas? A. Secretes insulin as well as glucagon into pancreatic duct B. * Secretes alkaline juice which neutralizes chyme while chyme is stored in the

stomach C. Secretes both endocrine and exocrine substances D. Secretes lipase which acts on bile-emulsified fats to convert them to fatty acids

and glycerol E. Secretes amylase which acts on starches to convert them to maltose

1157. Which of the following is not an amino acid? A. Glutamic acid B. Aspartic acid C. Glutamine D. * Palmitic acid E. Leucine

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1158. Which of the following reactions is carried out by species of Nitrobacter? A. Nitrate _ N2 B. Nitrite _ nitrate C. Nitrite-->ammonia D. Nitrate _ nitrite E. Ammonia _ nitrite

1159. Which of the following takes place in the mouth? A. Food is fashioned into a bolus B. * Carbohydrate digestion begins C. Food becomes partially liquified D. All of the above E. A and B only

1160. Which of the followings gives a positive test for Ninhydrin? A. Reducing sugars B. Triglycerides C. * Alpha aminoacids D. Esterified Fats E. Vitamins

1161. Which of the molecule(s) is/are the most common donators of amino groups during transaminations?

A. Tyrosine B. * Glutamate C. Alanine D. Glutamin E. A and C

1162. Which of these is false about “gastric juice?” A. * Is highly acidic because of its HCL content B. Contains the intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B12 C. Is controlled in part by a hormone called gastrin D. Becomes neutralized in the duodenum by the action of sodium bicarbonate from

the pancreas E. None of the above

1163. Which one of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Arginine B. Tyrosine C. * Phenylalanine D. Proline E. Ornitine

1164. With which of the listed cycles is connected the cycle of urea formation? A. PFC B. * Tricarboxylic acid cycle C. Gluconeogenesis D. Glycolysis E. Lipogenesis hese

Real life situation questions

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1. A 2-years-old child has symptoms of galactosemia. Among them the following is marked:

A. Dermatitis B. Dementia C. Keratomalacia D. * Cataract E. Xerophtalmia

2. A 46 years old woman appealed to the doctor with complaints about pain in the epigastrium after the fatty meal. Doctor suspected acute pancreatitis. Content of which from the transferred substances in blood increased at this pathology?

A. Glucose B. Aspartate amino transferase C. Alanine amino transferase D. * Amylase E. Calcium

3. A child after the mixed meal which contains sucrose suffered from vomiting and cramps. After the exception of sugar from a diet, these symptoms disappeared. Probably, that patient suffers from:

A. Galactosemia B. Undigestion of lactose C. Essential pentoseuria D. Glycogenosis E. * Undigestion of fructose

4. A child was delivered to a reanimation with such symptoms: vomit, diarrhea, abnormal physical and mental development, cataract. Laboratory test showed galactosemia. The deficiency of what enzyme does take place?

A. Galactokinase B. UDP glucose-4-epimerase C. * Hexose-1-phosphate-uridiltransferase D. UDP- glucose –pyrophosphorilase E. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.

5. A deficiency in thiamin causes the disease beriberi. Which might you expect to have a higher than normal blood concentration in an individual with this condition?

A. isocitrate B. * pyruvate C. oxaloacetate D. acetyl CoA E. malate

6. A new-born child has diarrhea, vomiting and cataract. Disorder of synthesis of what enzyme causes this disease?

A. * Galactose – 1 – phosphate uridyl transpherase B. Glucose - 6 phosphatase C. Hexokinase D. Glycogen synthase E. Glucose phosphate isomerase

7. A new-born child has diarrhea, vomiting and cataract. Disorder of synthesis of what enzyme caused this disease?

A. * Galactose – 1 – phosphate uridyl transpherase B. Glucose - 6 phosphatase C. Hexokinase D. Glycogen synthase E. Glucose phosphate isomerase

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8. A newborn suffers from the fatty degeneration of liver, takes place a galactosuria and amino aciduria, increased level of total bilirubin in blood. What matter is it necessary to exclude from the diet of child?

A. * Lactose B. Fatty acids C. Phenylalanine D. Cholesterol E. Saccharose

9. A patient complains about acute stomach-ache, nausea, vomit. Diastase activity is 800 grammes/l• hour What diagnosis is the most possible?

A. Acute cholecystitis B. * Acute pancreatitis C. Ulcer of stomach D. Acute appendicitis E. Enterocolitis

10. A patient has metabolic acidosis. How will it change activity of intracellular enzymes? A. Activity of intracellular enzymes do not change substantially. B. Activity of mitochondrial enzymes increased, activity of lysosomal enzymes

inhibited, which is accompanied the decline of catalytic processes. C. * Activity of mitochondrial enzymes is low, activity of lysosomal enzymes, which

will result in strengthening of catalytic processes, is increased. D. Total inhibition of all of tissue enzymes. E. Total activating of all of tissue enzymes.

11. A patient has metabolic acidosis. How will it change activity of intracellular enzymes? A. Activity of intracellular enzymes does not change substantially. B. Activity of mitochondrial enzymes increases, activity of lysosomal enzymes

inhibits, which is accompanied the decline of catalytic processes. C. * Activity of mitochondrial enzymes is low, activity of lysosomal enzymes, which

will result in strengthening of catalytic processes, is increased. D. Total inhibition of all of tissue enzymes. E. Total activating of all of tissue enzymes.

12. A patient is found to be deficient in the enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase. Specifically due to this deficiency what might a doctor recommend?

A. avoid all strenuous exercise B. eat a fat-free diet C. increase intake of vitamin C D. * avoid ingestion of milk and milk products E. increase intake of milk

13. A patient is found to be deficient in the enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase. Specifically due to this deficiency what might a doctor recommend?

A. avoid all strenuous exercise B. eat a fat-free diet C. increase intake of vitamin C D. * avoid ingestion of milk and milk products E. all of the above.

14. A patient was diagnosed with beri-beri disease. Activity of which enzyme is inhibited in an organism of the patient?

A. Fumarase B. Citrate synthase C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Succinate dehydrogenase E. * Pyruvate dehydrogenase

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15. A patient with pellagra (a result of vitamin of PP luck) has low activity of the followings enzymes of glycolysis:

A. Glucokinase and enolase B. * Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate dehydrogenase and lactate dehydrogenase C. Aldolase and pyruvatekinase D. Lactate dehydrogenase and hexokinase E. Pyruvate dehydrogenase and aldolase

16. After hard physical work during rest there are stimulation some metabolic ways of carbohydrates, except:

A. Glycogenes B. Gluconeogenesis from lactat C. Gluconeogenesis from glycerin D. * Glycolysis, Krebs cycle E. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids

17. As a result of worker's exhausting muscle activity the strongly decreased buffer capacity of blood occurs. Accumulation of which substance in the blood explains this event?

A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. pyruvate C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate D. * lactate E. E-ketoglutarate

18. At entering in organism big amount of toxic substances glucose-6-phosphate in a liver including in:

A. Glycolysis B. Glycogenogenesis C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle D. * Pentosophosphate cycle E. Gluconeogenesis

19. At the short starvation after the consumption of carbohydrate meal, hexoses in a liver transform into glucose-6-phosphate, which can be used in all pathways, except:

A. * Gluconeogenesis B. Pentosophosphate cycle C. Synthesis of glycogen D. Glycolysis E. Synthesis of fatty acids

20. By the ambulane car a patient was delivered to the hospital, who became unconscious in the street. Biochemical blood analysis showed: ketone bodies concentration 6,8 mmol/l, urea concentration 7,5 mmol/l, increased concentration of C-protein, amount of calcium 2,2 mmol/l, blood glucose 2,5 mmol/l. What is the possible reason for getting unconscious?

A. * hypoglycemia B. ammonia formation malfunction C. hypocalcemia D. acetonemia E. hyperthyroidism

21. Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic acid in blood of a patient with sympthoms of beri beriis is increased due to deficiency of the vitamin:

A. * Thiamin B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. Pantothenic acid E. Ascorbic acid

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22. During wet beriberi, peripheral vessels dilate and heart muscles loose their contractility. Some people think this is a result of a failure of the TCA cycle. Evidence for this is an increase in the

A. Rate of production of succinate B. Rate of production of NADH C. * Concentration of alpha-ketoglutarate and pyruvate D. Production of ATP E. Production of FADH2

23. For diagnosis of patients with an innate and early cataract, it is necessary to inspect them on a presence of:

A. Fructosemia B. Hyperuricemia C. Pentosemia D. Hyperlactemia E. * Galactosemia

24. If a patient with the deficiency of lactase uses milk and milk products, such symptom can be observed as:

A. An increase of concentration of glucose is in blood B. Appearance of galactose in urine C. An increase of concentration of galactose in blood D. * Diarrhea E. Dermatitis

25. In blood and urine of a patient it was takes place increase value of pyruvic and ?-ketoglutaric acids. The deficiency of which coenzyme causes these changes?

A. Pyridoxal phosphate B. * Thiamin pyrophosphate C. Flavin mononucleotide D. Biotin E. Ubiqinon

26. In blood and urine of a patient it was takes place increase value of pyruvic and ketoglutaric acids. The deficiency of which coenzyme causes these changes?

A. Pyridoxal phosphate B. * Thiamin pyrophosphate C. Flavin mononucleotide D. Biotin E. Ubiqinon

27. In some Diabetic patients, glucose increases disproportionately and is unresponsive to an insulin challenge; under these conditions, how would one's liver normally respond?

A. Phosphorylating glucose for entry into the glycolytic pathway B. Saturating glucokinase with glucose C. Phosphorylating glucose for entry into the glycogen synthesis pathways D. a and b only E. * a and c only

28. In the organism of patient with inherited galactosemia accumulate galactose-1-phosphate, a free galactose and a such alcohol - toxic product of its reduction as:

A. Glycerol B. * Dulcitol C. Inositol D. Retinol E. Ethanol

29. Patient has sympthoms of beri beri (lack of B1). B1 formes coenzyme TPP which is involved in:

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A. * Oxidative decarboxylation B. Hydroxylation C. Transamination D. Carboxylation E. Oxidation

30. Patient has sympthoms of beri beri. Both Wernicke’s disease and beri beri can be reversed by administrating:

A. Retinol B. * Thiamin C. Pyridoxine D. Vitamin B12 E. Cholecalciferol

31. Patient with atherosclerosis suffers from severe ischemic heart disease. Which process will prevail in the cardiac muscle?

A. * anaerobic glucose decomposition B. ketone bodies synthesis C. glycerin oxidation D. aerobic glucose decomposition E. ketone bodies oxidation

32. Patients which suffer from inherited undigestion of fructose must not use such disaccharide as:

A. Cellobiose B. Lactose C. Maltose D. * Sucrose E. All of the above

33. People, who for a long time were in the condition of hypodynamia after intensive physical activity have strong muscle pain. What is the most probable reason of this condition?

A. * increased concentration of lactic acid in the muscles B. increased decomposition of muscle proteins C. concentration of creatine in the muscles D. increased muscle stimulation E. increase of ADP in the muscles

34. Teturam which is the inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase used in medical practice for the prophylaxis of alcoholism. An increase in blood of what metabolite causes disgust of an alcohol?

A. malonic aldehyde B. Ethanol C. * Acetaldehyde D. Proponic aldehyde E. Methanol

35. The accumulation of pyruvate in blood, decrease of activity of red blood cells transketolase takes place of a 36 years patient, which suffers with chronic alcoholism. Insufficiency of coenzyme form of which vitamin causes such changes?

A. * Thiamine diphosphate B. Carboxybiotin C. Metylcobalamin D. Phosphopyridoxal E. Tetrahydrofolate

36. The inherited genetic defects result in violation of synthesis of some enzymes in the human organism. The defect of which enzyme results in disorders of splitting of lactose:

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A. * Lactase B. Maltase C. Sucrase D. Amylase E. Peptidase

37. The patient complains for undue fatiguability after working day, constant thirst. A doctor suspected diabetes mellitus. Choose the blood plasma glucose concentration, which proves the diagnosis:

A. * 8,5 mmol/l B. 2 mmol/l C. 4,5 mmol/l D. 5 mmol/l E. 3,3 mmol/l

38. The patient has inhibited oxidative pyruvate decarboxylation. How many ATP molecules less the organism will receive at the oxidation of a single glucose molecule?

A. * 30 ATP molecules per each glucose molecule B. 36 ATP molecules per each glucose molecule C. 2 ATP molecules per each glucose molecule D. there will be no ATP deficiency because less synthesis is compensated by

intensive fat decomposition E. 12 ATP molecules per each glucose molecule

39. The rate at which pyruvate from glycolysis is used by the TCA cycle to produce energy is regulated by pyruvate dehydrogenase. During muscle contraction, this enzyme is

A. Inhibited by increases in the calcium concentration. B. Activated by increased in acetyl CoA C. Activated by increases in NADH D. * Activated by increases in ADP E. Inhibited by increases in AMP

40. Vomiting, diarrhea after consuming milk, enlargement of the liver, jaundice, cirrhosis,cataracts, retardation of the mental development, elevated blood-galactose level, absence of the galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase in red blood cells are the symptoms of:

A. lactose intolerance B. hypolactasia C. * galactosemia D. all of the above E. diabetes mellitus

41. Vomiting, diarrhea after consuming milk, enlargement of the liver, jaundice, cirrhosis,cataracts, retardation of the mental development, elevated blood-galactose level, absence of the galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase in red blood cells are the symptoms of:

A. lactose intolerance; B. hypolactasia; C. * galactosemia; D. all of the above. E. diabetes mellitus

42. Which metabolic ways transformation of glucose-6-phosphate will prevail in a liver at the condition activation of biosynthetic processes?

A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycolisis C. Transformation of glucose-6-phosphate on free glucose and phosphate D. * Pentosophosphate cycle

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E. Glycogenesis 43. Yeast will normally convert pyruvate to ethanol. Why is this better for the yeast than a

conversion to lactate? A. Conversion to ethanol releases more NAD+ per mole than the conversion to

lactate. B. The carbon atoms are more oxidized in ethanol than in lactate. C. * Ethanol is neutral, but lactate production is accompanied by a sharp decrease in

pH. D. Ethanol production is not better. Yeast normally produces ethanol and lactate in

equilmolar amounts. E. All of the above

44. 42 years old man for dinner ate a big portion of spaghetti, a piece of cake, had a glass of sweet tea. What hepatocyte enzyme activity is activated mostly ?

A. * Hexokinase B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. Glucose-6-phosphatdehydrogenase D. Glycogen phosphorylase E. E-galactosidase

45. 8 month old child has vomiting and diarrhea after having fruit juice. There is an increased level of fructose in the blood. This is conneceted with the lack of the enzyme:

A. * Fructokinase B. Ketose-1-phosphate aldolase C. Isomerase D. Triosephosphate isomerase E. Phosphorylase

46. A 62 yaears old woman with diabetes mellitus has cataract (lenticular opacity) by . What is the reason?

A. Ketogenesis B. Lipolysis C. Protein proteolysis D. * Protein glycosylation E. . Gluconeogenesis

47. A doctor was visited by a patient with complains on constant thirst. Hyperglycemia, polyuria and increased amount of 17-ketosteroid in the blood were found. What disease is the most possible?

A. Insulin-dependent diabetes B. * Steroid diabetes C. Myxedema D. I type glycogenolysis E. Addison's disease

48. A key element in the regulation of glycogen metabolism is the phosphorylation by protein kinase A of phosphorylase kinase which ______ (activates, inactivates) and the phosphorylation of glycogen synthase which _______ (activates, inactivates).

A. Activates; activates B. * Activates; inactivates C. Inactivates; inactivates D. Inactivates; activates

49. A patient has developed general adiposity and atherosclerosis as a result of everyday usage of:

A. * 600 g carbohydrates B. 150 g protein C. 50 g vegetable oil

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D. 100 g fats E. 10 mg vitamin A

50. A patient is found to be deficient in the enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase. Specifically due to this deficiency what might a doctor recommend?

A. Avoid all strenuous exercise B. Eat a fat-free diet C. Increase intake of vitamin C D. * Avoid ingestion of milk and milk products E. Increase intake of vitamin B1

51. A woman of 58 years is hard condition. Consciousness is blear, skin is dry, eyes are sunken, cyanosis, the smell of rotting apples from the mouth. Blood glucose - 15,1 mmol/l, urine glucose 3,5%. What is the most real reason for such condition?

A. Uremic coma B. Hypovalemic coma C. Anaphylactic shock D. * Hyperglycemic coma E. Hypoglycemic coma

52. According to the classic glucose-fatty acid cycle, which two metabolites are predicted to increase in skeletal muscle when fat becomes the major substrate oxidized?

A. ADP, AMP B. * Acetyl CoA, citrate C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, phosphofructokinase D. Glycogen, triglyceride E. All of the above

53. All are true for ?-amylase EXCEPT: A. Catalyzes hydrolysis of ? (1 4) linkages in starch. B. Is an important component of saliva and pancreatic juice. C. * Catalyzes hydrolysis of ? (1 6) linkages in amylopectin. D. Catalyzes hydrolysis of ? (1 4) linkages in glycogen. E. Activity is reduced in highly branched regions of polysaccharides and stops four

residues from any branch point. 54. All enzymes of gluconeogenesis are located in:

A. * Cytoplasm B. Matrix of mitochondria C. Inner membrane of mitochondria D. None of the above. E. Nucleus

55. An enzyme used in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is: A. * 3-phosphoglycerate kinase. B. Glucose 6-phosphatase. C. Hexokinase. D. Phosphofructokinase-1. E. Pyruvate kinase.

56. At the subcellular level, where do the reactions of gluconeogenesis occur? A. Al in the cytosol B. Al in the mitochondria C. In the cytosol and the endoplasmic reticulum D. * In the cytosol and the mitochondra E. In the plasma membrane

57. Biochemical blood analysis of a 1-year old child showed hypoglycemia. After injection of epinephrine hyperglycemia did not appear. During clinical inspection were observed

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growth inhibition, spasms, increase of liver and kidney. Lack or excess of which enzyme causes such pathology?

A. Lack of muscle phosphorylase B. * Excess of glucose-6-phosphatase C. Lack of liver phosphorylase D. Excess of muscle phosphorylase E. Lack of glucokinase

58. Biochemical blood analysis of a 32 years old patient, who starved for 3 days, showed that the amount of glucose is normal. What process provides the normal glucose level in the blood of a healthy man after 3-4 days of starvation?

A. * Gluconeogenesis B. Glycolysis C. Pentose-phosphate pathway D. Krebs cycle E. Glycogen synthesis

59. Bypassed reactions in gluconeogenesis are: A. * Conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate; conversion of fructose 1,6-

bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate; conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to glucose;

B. Conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate; conversion 2-phosphoglicerate to 3-phosphoglicerate; conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate;

C. Conversion of 2-phosphoglicerate to 3-phosphoglicerate; conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate; conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to glucose;

D. Conversion of 3-phosphoglicerate to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate; conversion of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate; conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to glucose.

E. None of the above 60. Concerning some general principles of glucose metabolism:

A. * Gluconeogenesis is stimulated when plasma glucose is low. B. Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from glycogen. C. Glycogenesis is stimulated when cellular ATP reserves are low. D. Glucose may be synthesized from fatty acids. E. Glucose may be synthesized from vitamins.

61. During fasting, what role does gluconeogenesis play? A. Aids in the release of glucose from stored glycogen in the liver. B. * Uses protein (amino acids) to restore blood glucose levels. C. Produces products that slow the oxidation of pyruvate. D. Helps transport glucose across the blood-brain barrier to maintain brain glucose

levels. E. None of the above

62. During strenuous exercise, the NADH formed in the glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction in skeletal muscle must be reoxidized to NAD+ if glycolysis is to continue. The most important reaction involved in the reoxidation of NADH is:

A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate > glycerol 3-phosphate B. Glucose 6-phosphate > fructose 6-phosphate C. Isocitrate > ?-ketoglutarate D. Oxaloacetate > malate E. * Pyruvate > lactate

63. Each following line is a statement about Glycolysis. A. n enzyme which catalyses a reaction consuming ATP

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B. * n enzyme which catalyses a reaction generating ATP. C. n enzyme which has an allosteric ATP site D. An enzyme which catalyses a reaction fixing Pi. E. An enzyme which catalyses a reaction generating NADH.

64. Each of the following is a statement about energy metabolism. If it can be applied to carbohydrates:

A. Can provide energy to flowering plants. B. Can provide energy to some germinating seeds. C. * Is the usual source of energy for brain. D. Is the usual source of energy for skeletal muscle. E. Can provide energy to skeletal muscle.

65. Each of the following is the name of an enzyme found in the cytosol of hepatocytes, which are capable of both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

A. Ppyruvate kinase B. * Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase C. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase D. Hexokinase E. Phosphofructokinase 1

66. For each molecule of glucose converted to pyruvate in the glycolytic pathway ___ molecules of ATP are used initially (Stage I) and ____ molecules of ATP are produced (Stage II) for an overall yield of ___ molecules of ATP/glucose. The "ATP math" is:

A. * -2 + 4 = 2 B. -1 + 4 = 3 C. -2 + 5 = 3 D. -1 + 2 = 1 E. 2 + 2 = 4

67. ?For long-term storage, glucose is converted to ______ , while for short-term storage, glucose is converted to

A. Fat, glycogen B. * Glycogen, ketone bodies C. Fat, pyruvic acid D. Glycogen, protein E. Pyruvic acid, fat

68. For oxaloacetate to be used as a precursor in gluconeogenesis, it must first be transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of:

A. * Malate. B. Oxaloacetate. C. Aspartate D. Citrate E. Both A and C are correct.

69. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (F-2,6-BP) is a: A. Activator of phosphofructokinase 1; B. Inhibitor of phosphofructokinase 1; C. Activator of hexokinase; D. * Activator of pyruvate-kinase. E. All of the above.

70. Galactosemia is a genetic error of metabolism associated with: A. Deficiency of galactokinase. B. Deficiency of UDP-glucose. C. * Deficiency of UDP-glucose: galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase. D. Excessive ingestion of galactose. E. Inability to digest lactose.

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71. Gluconeogenesis is A. The result of ?-amylase activity B. The formation of glycogen C. The formation of starches D. * The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrates E. The formation of glucose from other carbohydrates

72. Gluconeogenesis shares some, but not all, enzymes with the glycolytic pathway. It would appear to be more efficient if both pathways used all of the same enzymes since the pathways are essentially the reverses of each other. Why don't both pathways use all of the same enzymes?

A. The reactions where enzymes differ occur in different parts of the cell for glycolysis versus gluconeogenesis.

B. Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only in one direction, so naturally the two pathways have some enzymes that differ.

C. In tissues where gluconeogenesis occurs, the glycolytic enzymes are present at extremely low concentrations.

D. * Three of the reaction steps in gluconeogenesis would have prohibitively large, positive free energies if they used glycolytic enzymes for their catalysis.

E. Only A 73. Gluconeogenesis uses the same enzymatic reaction of glycolysis except for

A. Pyruvate kinase B. * 4 irreversible reactions in glycolysis C. 3 irreversible reactions in glycolysis D. 2 irreversible reactions in glycolysis E. 1 irreversible reactions in glycolysis

74. Glucose 1-phosphate formed by glycogenolysis is converted to glucose 6 phosphate by phosphoglucomutase because

A. Glucose 6-phosphate is more stable B. Glucose 6-phosphate is converted to free glucose C. * Glucose 6-phosphate is an intermediate in several pathways, including

glycolysis D. Glucose 6-phosphate can be transported to the liver E. All of the above

75. Glucose can be produced by gluconeogenesis by all the sources below except: A. Glycerol B. Amino acids C. * Fatty acids D. Lactate E. Pyruvat

76. Glucose labeled with 14C in C-1 and C-6 gives rise in glycolysis to pyruvate labeled in: A. A and C. B. All three carbons. C. Its carbonyl carbon. D. Its carboxyl carbon. E. Its methyl carbon.

77. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is the ______________ which is characterized by ___________________________________.

A. Genetically determined disease; the absence of receptors to LDL on cells and prominent atherosclerosis;

B. Diet-induced disease; the deficit of thiamin in the organism and neurological and cardiac symptoms;

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C. * Genetically determined disease; the low level of reduced glutathione in erythrocytes and increased susceptibility of erythrocytes to hemolysis;

D. Disease induced by environmental factors; the high level of oxidized glutathione in the red blood cell and increased resistance of erythrocytes to hemolysis.

E. None of the above. 78. Glycogen phosphorylase is ________ (more, less) active when phosphorylated and it is

__________ (activated, inhibited) by glucose 6-phosphate. A. More; activated B. Less; activated C. * More; inhibited D. Less; inhibited E. None of the above

79. Glycogen synthesis takes place in the following oragans: A. Brain and muscles B. * Liver and muscles C. Liver and kidney D. Liver and pancreas E. All of the above

80. Glycolysis is defined as: A. Aerobic process in which glucose is transformed to CO2 and H2O; B. Anaerobic process in which glucose is transformed to pyruvate; C. Anaerobic process in which glucose is converted to pentoses and NADPH is

produced; D. Aerobic process in which glucose is converted to glycogen. E. * Anaerobic process in which glucose is transformed to lactate;

81. Glycolysis is the name given to a metabolic pathway occurring in many different cell types. It consists of 11 enzymatic steps that convert glucose to lactic acid. Glycolysis is an example of:

A. Aerobic metabolism. B. Anabolic metabolism. C. A net reductive process. D. * Fermentation. E. Oxidative phosphorylation.

82. I type glycogenosis (hepatorenal glycogenosis) is connected with the deficit of glucose-6-phosphatase in the liver, kidney and intestines mucous tunic. Which of the mentioned symptoms is not characteristic for this disease?

A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. * Hyperazotemia D. Lipemia E. Ketonuria

83. If glucose labeled with 14C at C-1 (the aldehyde carbon) were metabolized in the liver, the first radioactive pyruvate formed would be labeled in:

A. All three carbons. B. Both A and C. C. Its carbonyl carbon. D. Its carboxyl carbon. E. * Its methyl carbon.

84. If glucose labeled with 14C in C-1 were fed to yeast carrying out the ethanol fermentation, where would the 14C label be in the products?

A. In C-1 of ethanol and CO2 B. In C-1 of ethanol only

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C. * In C-2 (methyl group) of ethanol only D. In C-2 of ethanol and CO2 E. In CO2 only

85. In an anaerobic muscle preparation, lactate formed from glucose labeled in C-3 and C-4 would be labeled in:

A. All three carbon atoms B. Only the carbon atom carrying the OH C. * Only the carboxyl carbon atom D. Only the methyl carbon atom E. The methyl and carboxyl carbon atoms

86. In glycolysis, fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is converted to two products with a standard free-energy change (?G'°) of 23.8 kJ/mol. Under what conditions (encountered in a normal cell) will the free-energy change (?G) be negative, enabling the reaction to proceed to the right?

A. If the concentrations of the two products are high relative to that of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.

B. The reaction will not go to the right spontaneously under any conditions because the ?G'° is positive.

C. Under standard conditions, enough energy is released to drive the reaction to the right.

D. * When there is a high concentration of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate relative to the concentration of products.

E. When there is a high concentration of products relative to the concentration of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.

87. In humans, gluconeogenesis: A. * Can result in the conversion of protein into blood glucose. B. Helps to reduce blood glucose after a carbohydrate-rich meal. C. Is activated by the hormone insulin D. Is essential in the conversion of fatty acids to glucose. E. Requires the enzyme hexokinase.

88. In some Diabetic patients, glucose increases disproportionately and is unresponsive to an insulin challenge; under these conditions, how would one's liver normally respond?

A. Phosphorylating glucose for entry into the glycolytic pathway B. Saturating glucokinase with glucose C. Phosphorylating glucose for entry into the glycogen synthesis pathways D. A and b only E. * A and c only

89. In the alcoholic fermentation of glucose by yeast, thiamine pyrophosphate is a coenzyme required by:

A. Aldolase. B. Hexokinase. C. Lactate dehydrogenase. D. * Pyruvate decarboxylase. E. Transaldolase.

90. In the blood of the patient the amount of glucose on the empty stomach is 5,6 mmol/l, after an hour after sugary loading – 13,8 mmol/l, after two hours – 9,2 mmol/l. Such figures are typical for:

A. Healthy man B. Patient with thyrotoxicosis C. * Patient with hidden form of diabetes mellitus D. Patient with Cushing's syndrome E. Patient with acromegaly

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91. In the Cori cycle, gluconeogenesis occurs in _____ and glycolysis in ______. A. * Liver; muscle B. Liver; liver C. Muscle; muscle D. Muscle; liver E. Heart; brain

92. Inorganic fluoride inhibits enolase. In an anaerobic system that is metabolizing glucose as a substrate, which of the following compounds would you expect to increase in concentration following the addition of fluoride?

A. * 2-phosphoglycerate B. Glucose C. Glyoxylate D. Phosphoenolpyruvate E. Pyruvate

93. Lactate is formed from pyruvate in an _____ organism in ______ conditions. A. Yeast; aerobic; B. Animal; aerobic; C. Fungi; aerobic; D. * Animal; anaerobic. E. Yeast; aerobic.

94. More ATP is formed from glucose in glycogen than from free glucose, even free glucose released from glycogen because

A. Limit dextrin contains additional molecules B. The debranching enzyme releases free glucose C. * The glucose is already phosphorylated after glycogen phosphorylase action D. The glucose bypasses glycolysis E. All of the above

95. Nervous tissue depends upon glucose for its primary source of energy. However, these molecules can be used as an alternative source of energy by nervous tissue:

A. * Ketones B. Steroids C. Fatty acids D. Amino acids E. All of the above

96. Pentoses, which are formed in pentose-phosphate cycle are used for the following processes, except:

A. * Glycogen synthesis B. Coenzyme synthesis C. Nucleic acid synthesis D. ATP synthesis E. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate synthesis

97. PFK-2 and fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase are two names for the same enzyme. The name PFK-2 is used for the enzyme's catalysis of the phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. The name fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase is used for its catalysis of the reverse reaction. What is unique about this enzyme that makes it logical to use both names?

A. It is one of very few enzymes that can catalyze both the forward and reverse reactions.

B. The enzyme is a monomer when catalyzing the phosphorylation reaction and a dimer when catalyzing the reverse reaction.

C. The forward and reverse reactions occur in different compartments within the cell, so a different name is used for each activity.

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D. * The enzyme is bifunctional. The forward and reverse reactions are catalyzed by different sites on the same enzyme.

E. All of the above. 98. Phosphofructokinase, the major flux-controlling enzyme of glycolysis is allosterically

inhibited by ___ and activated by ___. A. AMP   Pi B. ADP   AMP C. Сitrate   ATP D. ATP   PEP E. * ATP   ADP

99. Protein kinase A, which stimulates glycogen degradation, is activated directly by A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. Epinephrine D. * Cyclic AMP E. Adrenergic receptors

100. Regarding diabetes mellitus: A. * Is always the result of a failure of insulin synthesis. B. Is characterized by a fall in urine output. C. Is associated with an increase in lipolysis D. eads to hypoglycemia. E. None of the above

101. The anaerobic conversion of 1 mol of glucose to 2 mol of lactate by fermentation is accompanied by a net gain of:

A. 1 mol of ATP. B. 1 mol of NADH. C. * 2 mol of ATP. D. 2 mol of NADH. E. None of the above.

102. The concentration of glucose in the blood of a patient is 4,5 mmol/l, glucose appears in urine. The possible reason for this condition:

A. Thyroid gland hyperfunctioning B. Acromegaly C. Glycogenosis D. * Kidney disease E. Stress

103. The conversion of 1 mol of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to 2 mol of pyruvate by the glycolytic pathway results in a net formation of:

A. 1 mol of NAD+ and 2 mol of ATP. B. 1 mol of NADH and 1 mol of ATP. C. 2 mol of NAD+ and 4 mol of ATP. D. 2 mol of NADH and 2 mol of ATP. E. * 2 mol of NADH and 4 mol of ATP.

104. The conversion of glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate is the first step in A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. * Glycogenolysis D. Glycogenesis E. A and C

105. The enzyme found only in the liver that removes phosphate groups and can, thus, release free glucose for distribution around the body by the blood is

A. Glycogen synthetase

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B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. * Glycogen phosphorylase D. Glucose isomerase E. only B

106. The enzyme which the key regulatory step in glycogen biosynthesis is A. * Glycogen synthase B. Glycogenin C. Branching enzyme D. Phosphoglucomutase E. UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase

107. The family of GluT (glucose transporters) is: A. * The proteins embedded into the cell membrane and facilitating the glucose

transport across the membrane; B. The proteins embedded into the cell membrane and inhibiting the glucose

transport across the membrane; C. The cytoplasmic proteins transporting glucose in the cytoplasm of cell; D. The proteins of blood plasma transporting glucose via the blood. E. None of the above.

108. The initiation of glycogen synthesis (ie the very first glucose residue added ) occurs by transfer of glucose from UDP-glucose to the:

A. * 4-position of free glucose. B. 2-position of fructose. C. Non-reducing end of maltose. D. Serine-OH group of glycogen synthase. E. Tyrosine-OH group of glycogenin.

109. The interconversion of which pair of substrates is used as a regulatory point in gluconeogenesis?

A. Lactate and pyruvate B. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. * Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate and fructose 6-phosphate D. Phosphoenolpyruvate and 2-phosphoglycerate E. None of the above

110. The main function of the pentose phosphate pathway is to: A. Give the cell an alternative pathway should glycolysis fail. B. Provide a mechanism for the utilization of the carbon skeletons of excess amino

acids. C. Supply energy. D. Supply NADH. E. * Supply pentoses and NADPH.

111. The main hormones that regulate the synthesis and decomposition of glycogen are:

A. Insulin, glucocorticoids, thyroxin; B. Glucagons, glucocorticoids, vasopressin; C. * Insulin, glucagons, epinephrine; D. Glucocorticoids, glucagons, epinephrine. E. All of the above.

112. The main precursors for the glucose synthesis in gluconeogenesis are: A. Lactate, pyruvate, glycerol and cholesterol; B. * Lactate, pyruvate, glycerol and amino acids; C. Lactate, pyruvate, glycerol and glycogen; D. Cholesterol, fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids. E. The accelerating of glycolysis

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113. The main precursors for the glucose synthesis in gluconeogenesis are: A. Lactate, pyruvate, glycerol and cholesterol; B. * Lctate, pyruvate, glycerol and amino acids; C. Lactate, pyruvate, glycerol and glycogen; D. Cholesterol, fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids. E. The accelerating of glycolysis

114. The organ most responsible for extracting and converting lactic acid to pyruvic acid, and which ultimately reforms and releases free glucose via the Cori cycle into the bloodstream, is the

A. Liver. B. Brain. C. Cardiac muscle. D. * Skeletal muscle. E. Heart

115. The Pasteur Effect is: A. The accelerating of glycolysis in the presence of oxygen; B. * The slowing of glycolysis in the presence of oxygen; C. The slowing of glycolysis in the absence of oxygen; D. The accelerating of glycolysis in the presence of 2,6-bisphosphate. E. The accelerating of glycolysis.

116. The pentose phosphate pathway has two primary products. They are _________. A. ATP and NADPH B. Oxaloacetate and acetyl CoA C. Sorbitol and fructose D. * Ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH E. None of the above

117. The possible metabolic pathways for pyruvate in anaerobic conditions are: A. Conversion to lactate or acetyl CoA B. Conversion to ethanol or acetyl CoA C. * Conversion to lactate or ethanol D. Conversion to lactate or ethanol or acetyl CoA. E. All of the above.

118. The process of polysaccharides digestion in the gastrointestinal tract is catalized by:

A. Sucrase B. Lactase C. Maltase D. * D-amilase. E. None of the above.

119. The sequence of glucose oxidation to lactate in peripheral tissues, delivery of lactate to the liver, formation of glucose from lactate in the liver, and delivery of glucose back to peripheral tissues is known as the ______.

A. Glyoxylate cycle B. Kreb's cycle C. * Cori cycle D. Gluconeogenesis cycle E. Glycogenolysis

120. The three control sites in glycolysis are the reactions catalyzed by: A. Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase 1 and aldolase; B. Phosphofructokinase 1, aldolase and pyruvate kinase; C. Hexokinase, aldolase and pyruvate kinase; D. * Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase 1 and pyruvate kinase.

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E. All of the above 121. Transfer of a high-energy phosphoryl group to ADP, resulting in ATP occurs

when: A. 1,3 Bisphosphoglycerate -> 3-phosphoglycerate B. * Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) -> pyruvate C. 3-Phosphoglycerate -> 2-phosphoglycerate D. Both a and b E. Only A

122. Under starvation conditions, about how long does it take in humans for the body to deplete the glycogen store in the liver?

A. 10 minutes B. 4 hours C. * 24 hours D. 1 week E. 2 weeks

123. Unlike liver tissue, muscle and some other tissues differ in regulation of glycogen metabolism because

A. The enzymes are different B. There is no effect of glucagon C. There is no effect of insulin D. * Inhibitor-1 controls a phosphatase E. There is no role for cyclic AMP

124. Vomiting, diarrhea after consuming milk, enlargement of the liver, jaundice, cirrhosis,cataracts, retardation of the mental development, elevated blood-galactose level, absence of the galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase in red blood cells are the symptoms of:

A. Lactose intolerance; B. Hypolactasia; C. * Galactosemia; D. All of the above. E. Diabetes mellitus

125. Vomiting, diarrhea after consuming milk, enlargement of the liver, jaundice, cirrhosis,cataracts, retardation of the mental development, elevated blood-galactose level, absence of the galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase in red blood cells are the symptoms of:

A. Lactose intolerance; B. Hypolactasia; C. * Galactosemia; D. All of the above. E. Diabetes mellitus

126. What is a cause of cataracts in the eye lens of individuals with diabetes? A. * Accumulation of sorbitol and protein precipitation in the lens. B. Precipitation of glucose not oxidized by glycolysis in the lens. C. The absence of membrane transport proteins for pyruvate in the lens cells. D. Lack of regulation of gluconeogenesis in the lens and the accumulation of

fructose. E. Lack of regulation of gluconeogenesis in the lens and the accumulation of

maltose. 127. When a muscle is stimulated to contract aerobically, less lactic acid is formed than

when it contracts anaerobically because: A. Glycolysis does not occur to significant extent under aerobic conditions. B. Muscle is metabolically less active under aerobic than anaerobic conditions.

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C. The lactic acid generated is rapidly incorporated into lipids under aerobic conditions.

D. Under aerobic conditions in muscle, the major energy-yielding pathway is the pentose phosphate pathway, which does not produce lactate.

E. * Under aerobic conditions most of the pyruvate generated as a result of glycolysis is oxidized by the citric acid cycle rather than reduced to lactate.

128. Which is not a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway? A. * To maintain the reduced form of iron in hemoglobin. B. To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty acids. C. To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA. D. To raise the concentration of cAMP. E. Produce pentoses

129. Which of the following compounds cannot serve as the starting material for the synthesis of glucose via gluconeogenesis?

A. * Acetate B. Glycerol C. Lactate D. Oxaloacetate E. ?-ketoglutarate

130. Which of the following is a cofactor in the reaction catalyzed by the glycolytic enzyme glyceraldehyde 3-phosophate dehydrogenase?

A. NADP B. * NAD C. ATP D. Heme E. Cu++

131. Which of the following is not regulated in glycolysis? A. Pyruvate kinase B. * Phosphoglycerate kinase C. Hexokinase D. PFK-1 E. ATP

132. Which of the following promotes glucose and amino acid uptake by muscle? A. Adrenaline B. * Insulin C. Glucagon D. Cortisol E. Glycogen

133. Which of the following statements about the pentose phosphate pathway is correct?

A. It generates 36 mol of ATP per mole of glucose consumed. B. It generates 6 moles of CO2 for each mole of glucose consumed C. It is a reductive pathway; it consumes NADH. D. It is present in plants, but not in animals. E. * It provides precursors for the synthesis of nucleotides.

134. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Aerobically, oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate forms acetate that enters the

citric acid cycle. B. In anaerobic muscle, pyruvate is converted to lactate. C. In yeast growing anaerobically, pyruvate is converted to ethanol. D. Reduction of pyruvate to lactate regenerates a cofactor essential for glycolysis.

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E. * Under anaerobic conditions pyruvate does not form because glycolysis does not occur.

135. Which of the following statements is not true concerning glycolysis in anaerobic muscle?

A. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase is one of the enzymes of the pathway B. * It is an endergonic process. C. It results in net synthesis of ATP D. It results in synthesis of NADH E. Its rate is slowed by a high [ATP]/[ADP] ratio.

136. Which of the following substrates cannot contribute to net gluconeogenesis in mammalian liver?

A. Alanine B. Glutamate C. * Palmitate D. Pyruvate E. ?-ketoglutarate

137. Which of the following tissues can survive longest in the absence of adequate oxygen (anaerobic conditions) by deriving energy from the anaerobic respiration of glucose molecules?

A. The brain B. * Cardiac muscle C. The kidneys D. Skeletal muscle E. None of the above

138. Which one of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is false? A. For starting materials, it can use carbon skeletons derived from certain amino

acids. B. * It consists entirely of the reactions of glycolysis, operating in the reverse

direction. C. It employs the enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase. D. It is one of the ways that mammals maintain normal blood glucose levels between

meals. E. It requires metabolic energy (ATP or GTP)

139. . A deficiency in the synthesis of sphingomyelins or cerebrosides will most likely result in the proper formation of

A. Cell surfaces B. Cell to cell communication C. * Nerve cells D. Blood groups E. All of the above

140. A diet containing this fat is helpful in lowering the blood cholesterol level. A. * Unsaturated B. Saturated C. Vitamin enriched D. Refined E. All of the above

141. A fatty acid not synthesized in man is A. Oleic B. Palmitic C. * Linoleic D. Stearic

142. A lipid containing alcoholic amine residue is

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A. Phosphatidic acid B. Ganglioside C. Glucocerebroside D. * Sphingomyelin E. All of the above

143. A soluble system for synthesis of fatty acids have been isolated from avian liver, required for the formation of long chain fatty acids by this system is

A. ATP B. Acetyl CoA C. NADPH D. * All of these E. Both (A) and (B)

144. Absorption of higher fatty acids in the intestine is performed with the help of mechanism:

A. simple diffusion B. facillated diffusion C. primary active transport D. pinocytosis as choleic complex E. secondary active transport

145. Activation of fatty acids requires all the following except A. ATP B. Coenzyme A C. Thiokinase D. * Carnitine E. A and B

146. Acyl Carrier Protein contains the vitamin: A. Biotin B. Lipoic acid C. * Pantothenic acid D. Folic acid E. Thiamine

147. Acyl carrier protein is involved in the synthesis of A. protein B. glycogen C. * fatty acid outside the mitochondria D. fatty acid in the mitochondria E. Both C and D

148. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase converts Acyl CoA to ? ??-unsaturated acyl-CoA in presence of the coenzyme:

A. NAD+ B. NADP+ C. ATP D. * FAD E. TPP

149. Acylsphingosine is also known as A. Sphingomyelin B. * Ceramide C. Cerebroside D. Sulphatide E. None of these

150. Adipose tissue lacks A. Hormone-sensitive lipase

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B. * Glycerol kinase C. cAMP-dependent protein kinase D. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase E. B and C

151. Adipose tissue which is a store house for triacyl glycerol synthesis the same using A. The glycerol released by hydrolysis of triacyl glycerol B. * The glycerol-3-phosphate obtained in the metabolism of glucose C. 2-phosphoglycerate D. 3-phosphoglycerate E. All of the above

152. After having fatty food the patient had nausea and steatorrhea. The cause of this condition can be:

A. amilase insufficiency B. increase of lipase excretion C. trypsin synthesis malfunction D. * lack of bile acids E. increased acidity of gastric juice

153. After having fatty food the patient had nausea and steatorrhea. The cause of this condition can be:

A. amilase insufficiency B. increase of lipase excretion C. trypsin synthesis malfunction D. * lack of bile acids E. increased acidity of gastric juice

154. After meal conncentration of chylomicrones in blood of the patient is increased. Chylomicrones are formed in the ____________________ and their main function is the __________________________________.

A. wall of intestine; transport of cholesterol; B. liver; transport of triacylglycerols synthesized in liver; C. * wall of intestine; transport of dietary triacylglycerols; D. blood; transport of cholesterol. E. all of the above.

155. All long chain fatty acids with even number of carbon atoms are oxidized to a pool of _________ by ?-oxidation.

A. CO2 B. Propionic acid C. Acetic acid D. * Acetyl CoA E. CoA

156. An unknown lipid is treated with a mixture of phospholipases A1, A2, C and D. Since no glycerol is formed after this treatment, the lipid is most likely

A. Phosphatidylethanolamine B. Phosphatidylcholine C. Plasmologen D. * Ceramide E. A mixture of a and b

157. can be generated from A. * The pentose phosphate pathway B. Glycolysis C. The citric acid cycle D. Mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase E. Citrate lyase

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158. Carboxylation of acetyl—CoA to malonyl — CoA takes place in presence of A. FAD+ B. Biotin C. * NAD+ D. NADP+ E. TPP

159. Carnitine acylcarnitine translocase is present A. * In the inner mitochondrial membrane B. In the mitochondrial matrix C. On the outer surface of inner mitochondrial membrane D. On the inner surface of inner mitochondrial membrane E. In cytoplasm

160. Carnitine is synthesized from A. * Lysine and methionine B. Glycine and arginine C. Aspartate and glutamate D. Proline and hydroxyproline E. None of the above

161. Cerebrosides contain all the following except A. Galactose B. * Sulphate C. Sphingosine D. Fatty acid E. B and C

162. Chylomicron remnants are catabolised in A. Intestine B. Adipose tissue C. * Liver D. Liver and intestine E. Pancreas

163. Co-lipase is a A. Bile salt B. Vitamin C. * Protein D. Phospholipid E. Lipoprotein

164. Concentration of phospholipids in blood of the patient is decreased. Lecithins are composed of

A. * Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Choline B. Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Ethanolamine C. Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Serine D. Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid + Beaine E. All of these

165. Conncentration of LDL in blood of the patient is increased. Low density lipoproteins transport ________________ from __________ to _________________.

A. triacylglycerols; intestine; liver B. * cholesterol; liver; peripheral tissues; C. cholesterol; peripheral tissues; liver D. triacylglycerols; liver; adipose tissue and muscles E. triacylglycerols; liver; muscles

166. De novo synthesis of fatty acids is catalysed by a multi-enzyme complex which contains

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A. One-SH group B. Two-SH groups C. Three-SH groups D. * Four-SH groups E. Five –SH groups

167. De novo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in A. * Cytosol B. Mitochondria C. Microsomes D. EPR E. All of these

168. De novo synthesis of fatty acids requires all of the following except A. Biotin B. NADH C. Panthothenic acid D. * ATP E. Multienzyme complex

169. Dietary fats after absorption appear in the circulation as A. HDL B. VLDL C. LDL D. * Chylomicron E. None of the above

170. Each of the following is a principle hormonal regulator of fatty acid metabolism, except:

A. Glucagon B. Epinephrine C. Insulin D. All of the above E. * None of the above

171. Elevated levels of the hormone ________ stimulates the conversion of triacylglycerols stored in adipose cells to free fatty acids and monoacylglycerols to provide energy when carbohydrate stores are depleted.

A. insulin B. testosteron C. * epinephrine D. ergosterol E. STH

172. Ethanolamine, serine and choline can be cleaved from glycerophospholipids by treatment with

A. Phospholipase A1 B. Phospholipase A2 C. Phospholipase B D. Phospholipase C E. * Phospholipase D

173. Extramitochondrial synthesis of fatty acids occurs in A. Mammary glands B. Lungs C. Brain D. * All of these E. B and c

174. Fat depots are located in

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A. Intermuscular connective tissue B. Mesentary C. Omentum D. * All of these E. A and C

175. Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the presence of the coenzyme: A. NAD+ B. Reduced NAD C. NADP+ D. * Reduced NADP E. TPP

176. Fatty acids can not be converted into carbohydrates in the body, as the following reaction is not possible:

A. Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose B. Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate C. * Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate D. Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids E. Both C and D

177. For TAG synthesis glycerol converts into active form. Glycerol is transformed into active form with the enzyme:

A. phosphatidate phosphatase B. * glycerol kinase C. glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase D. glycerol phosphate acyltransferase E. diglyceride-acyl-transferase

178. For the patient was prescribed bile preparation for improvement of fatty food digestion. Which components of the preparation participate in fat emulsification?

A. * bile acid salt B. fatty acids C. cholesterol and it's esters D. bilirubin monoglucuronides E. diglycerides

179. For the patient with diagnosis atherosclerosis “Linetol” is prescribed, which contains essential fatty acids. Which of the below-mentioned acids surely is a part of it?

A. stearic acid B. palmitic acid C. * linoleic acid D. oleic acid E. crotonic acid

180. For the patient with diagnosis atherosclerosis “Linetol” is prescribed, which contains essential fatty acids. Which of the below-mentioned acids surely is a part of it?

A. stearic acid B. palmitic acid C. * linoleic acid D. oleic acid E. crotonic acid

181. Free glycerol cannot be used for triglyceride synthesis in A. Liver B. Kidney C. Intestine D. * Adipose tissue E. Pancreas

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182. Gangliosides are complex glycosphingolipids found in A. Liver B. * Brain C. Kidney D. Muscle E. Pancreas

183. Glycerol is converted into glycerol-3-phosphate by A. Thiokinase B. Triokinase C. * Glycerol kinase D. Glycerol phosphatase E. All of these

184. Glycerol is converted to ___________ when it is used for gluconeogenesis. A. dihydroxyacetone phosphate B. phosphoenolpyruvate C. oxaloacetate D. * 3-phosphoglycerate E. none of the above.

185. Glycerol is transformed into active form with the help of enzyme: A. phosphatidate phosphatase B. * glycerol kinase C. glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase D. glycerol phosphate acyltransferase E. diglyceride-acyl-transferase

186. In a liver of 55 years old patient fatty acids synthesis is active. When the liver is actively synthesizing fatty acids, a concomitant decrease in ? oxidation of fatty acids is due to

A. * Inhibition of a translocation between cellular compartments B. Inhibition by an end product C. Activation of an enzyme D. Detergent effects E. Decreases in adipocyte lipolysis

187. in adipose tissue A. 2 mol of triacylglycerides is released B. 2 mol of free fatty acids is released C. * 1 mol of glucose can be synthesized in gluconeogenesis D. 1 mol of triacylglyceride is released E. 3 mol of acyl CoA is produced

188. In an organism of 37 years old patient fatty acids synthesis is active. Which of the following is a true statement for fatty acid synthesis?

A. It occurs in the mitochondria. B. The reducing power for synthesis is supplied by NAD and ubiquinone. C. Both a and b. D. None of the above. E. * The reducing power for synthesis is supplied by NADPH+

189. In an organism of 40 years old patient fatty acids synthesis is active. The main sources of NADPH for fatty acid biosynthesis is:

A. TCA cycle B. oxidative phosphorylation C. * the pentose phosphate pathway D. glycolysis E. All of the above.

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190. In an organism of 40 years old patient mobilisations of lipids is active. Elevated levels of the hormone ________ stimulates the conversion of triacylglycerols stored in adipose cells to free fatty acids and monoacylglycerols to provide energy when carbohydrate stores are depleted.

A. insulin B. glucagon C. * epinephrine D. ergosterol E. somatotropin

191. In an organism of 43 years old patient mobilisations of lipids and fatty acids oxidation are active. How many cycles of ?-oxidation are required to completely process a saturated C18 fatty acid?

A. 6 B. * 8 C. 9 D. 18 E. 7

192. In an organism of 47 years old patient mobilisations of lipids and fatty acids oxidation are active. How many QH2 and NADH are produced by one round of the ?-oxidation pathway?

A. * 1 each B. 1 QH2 and 2 NADH C. 2 each D. 2 QH2 and 1 NADH E. all of the above

193. In an organism of 47 years old patient mobilisation of lipids is active. Tryacylglycerinlipase of fatty tissue is activated by:

A. adenosine triphosphate B. guanosine triphosphate C. adenosine diphosphate D. * cyclic adenosine monophosphate E. guanosine diphosphate

194. In an organism of 55 years old patient with hyperfunction of pancreas takes plase active synthesis of fatty acids Which of the following is the regulated step of fatty acid synthesis in eukaryotes?

A. * Carboxylation of acetyl CoA. B. Transportation of mitochondrial acetyl CoA into the cytosol. C. Assembly of the fatty acid chain. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

195. In an organism of 55 years old patient fatty acids oxidation is active. Splitting off acetyl-CoA in the final reaction of S-oxidation of fatty acids is performed by the enzyme:

A. dehydrogenase B. enolase C. hydrase D. lipase E. * thiolase (acetyl-CoA-acyltransferase)

196. In an organism of 55 years old patient mobilisations of lipids and fatty acids oxidation are active. Which of the below-mentioned metabolites is formed by oxidation of fatty acids with odd amount of carbon atoms:

A. * propionyl-CoA B. butyryl-CoA

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C. malonyl-CoA D. enoil-CoA E. acetacetyl-CoA

197. ?In the blood of a patient is decreased amount of phospholipinds, increased concentration of cholesterol, observed the symptoms of prostaglandin lack. What can cause such events?

A. limited usage of carbohydrates B. * limited usage of polyunsaturated fatty acids C. D hypovitaminosis D. excess of lipids in food E. excess of carbohydrates in food

198. In the blood of a patient is decreased amount of phospholipinds, increased concentration of cholesterol, observed the symptoms of prostaglandin lack. What could cause such events?

A. limited usage of carbohydrate B. * limited usage of polyunsaturated fatty acids C. D hypovitaminosis D. excess of lipids in food E. excess of carbohydrates in food

199. In the blood of a patient is decreased amount of phospholipinds, increased concentration of cholesterol, observed the symptoms of prostaglandin lack. What can cause such events?

A. limited usage of carbohydrates B. * limited usage of polyunsaturated fatty acids C. D hypovitaminosis D. excess of lipids in food E. excess of carbohydrates in food

200. In the blood of a patient there are decreased amount of phospholipids, increased concentration of cholesterol, observed prostaglandins lack. What can cause such events?

A. limited usage of carbohydrates B. * limited usage of polyunsaturated fatty acids C. D hypovitaminosis D. excess of lipids in food E. excess of carbohydrates in food

201. In the blood of a patient there is decreased amount of phospholipids, increased concentration of cholesterol, observed prostaglandins lack. What can cause such events?

A. limited usage of carbohydrate B. * limited usage of polyunsaturated fatty acids C. D hypovitaminosis D. excess of lipids in food E. excess of carbohydrates in food

202. is conjugated, reacts directly, and is a major component of bile? A. * Bilirubin diglucuronide B. Stercobilin C. Biliverdin D. Urobilinogen E. Heme

203. is most often due to A. Lactose intolerance B. Glycogen storage diseases C. Antibody abnormalities D. * Deficiency of fatty acid desaturase greater than

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E. Deficiency of chylomicron and VLDL production 204. Lisophospholipids, formed after action of phospholipase A2, have the following

feature: A. activate lipase B. * hemolytic C. form conjugates with bile acids D. participate in phospholipids resynthesis E. accompany absorption of fatty acids

205. mevastatin therapy. Which of the following will be a result of this therapy? A. Low blood glucose B. * Low blood LDLs C. High blood cholesterol D. High blood glucose E. Low oxidation of fatty acids

206. Patient suffers from disorders of lipid digestion. What are the functions of bile salts in lipid digestion?

A. * emulsification of lipids; activation of lipase; B. emulsification of lipids; decompose the cholesteryl esters; C. activation of phospholipase A2; activation of cholesterol esterase; D. inhibition of lipase; inhibition of phospholipase A2. E. all of the above.

207. The amount of phospholipids in the blood plasma of 45 years old patient is normal. Choose correct result:

A. * 1,5-3,6 mmol/l B. 2,0-5,0 mmol/l C. 1,2-2,5 mmol/l D. 0,7-2,0 mmol/l E. 7,0-8,0 mmol/l

208. The patient was prescribed bile preparation for improvement of fatty food digestion. Which components of the preparation participate in fat emulsification?

A. * bile acid salt B. fatty acids C. cholesterol and it's esters D. bilirubin monoglucuronides E. diglycerides

209. Why snake venom causes the lysis of erythrocytes? A. contains hemolytic toxins which directly destroy the erythrocytes membranes; B. * contains phospholipase A2 catalyzing the hydrolysis of glycerophospholipids

and formation of lysophosphoglycerides which can act as detergents and disrupt cellular membranes;

C. contains lipase catalyzing the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols in the cellular membranes;

D. contains cholesteryl esterase catalyzing the hydrolysis of cholesterol esters in the cellular membranes.

E. none of the above.210. When can the production of ketone bodies occur? Which is/are true?

A. If you eat too much sugar and less of saturated butter B. In diabetes patients C. If you eat too much bacon and less sugar D. * If you are starving for a longer time period E. In pellagra patients

211. A high carbohydrate, low-fat diet will:

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A. * Promote the synthesis of fatty acids by inducing the synthesis of acetyl CoA carboxylase.

B. Favor the oxidation of stored fatty acids by inducing the synthesis of lipoprotein lipase.

C. Promote the synthesis of fatty acids by repressing synthesis of carnitine-palmitoyl transferase.

D. Favor the oxidation of fatty acids by repressing the synthesis of fatty acid synthase.

E. None of the above 212. A man of 47 years suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, on which background

has evolved metabolic acidosis. What process' malfunction majorily helps the development of acidosis?

A. Ketone bodies synthesis B. * Ketone bodies utilization C. Glycogen decomposition D. Glycogen synthesis E. Oxidative phosphorylation

213. A patient, which visited a doctor, has increased level of glucose in blood and urine. Suspected is diabetes mellitus. Which changes in lipid metabolism can cause this disease?

A. Hyperketonemia B. Hypercholesterolemia C. * Hypoketonemia, ketonuria D. Hyperphospholipidemia, hyperketonemia E. Hypophospholipidemia , hypoketonemia

214. A stroke is similar to a heart attack in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A. It affects the brain. B. The risk can be reduced by lifestyle changes. C. It is a blockage of major arteries. D. * It results in the death of cells E. A, B, C

215. Adiposogenital dystrophy is caused by the lack of secretion of: A. Oxytocin B. Vasopressin C. Gonadotropic hormone D. * Thyrotropic hormone E. Melanotropic hormone

216. After observation of a patient with diabetes mellitus were discovered ketonemia and ketonuria. Mark, which of the below-mentioned matters is the precussor of ketone bodies?

A. * Acetyl-CoA B. Oxaloacetate C. ?-ketoglutarate D. Cholesterol E. Unsaturated fatty acids

217. All of the following are functions of dietary fat, except A. Facilitating the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. B. Serving as the major source of fuel for RBCs. C. Acting as stored energy. D. * Being essential to the synthesis of phospholipid that is a major component of

cell membranes. E. Facilitating the absorption of water-soluble vitamins.

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218. All of the following are true about arteriosclerosis EXCEPT: A. It is a collection of fatty deposits inside a blood vessel. B. It is called "hardening" of the arteries. C. It is a blockage of an artery. D. * It affects all blood vessels equally E. Only A, B, C

219. All the following statements about carnitine are true except A. It can be synthesised in the human body B. It can be synthesized from methionine and lysine C. It is required for transport of short chain fatty acids into mitochondria D. * Its deficiency can occur due to haemodialysis E. can be synthesized from treonin and lysine

220. All the following statements about ketone bodies are true except A. * Their synthesis increases in diabetes mellitus B. They are synthesized in mitchondria C. They can deplete the alkali reserve D. They can be oxidized in the liver E. Only C

221. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit A. Phospholipase A1 B. * Phospholipase A2 C. Cyclo-oxygenase D. Lipo-oxygenase E. Pancreatic lipase

222. Atherosclerosis and coronary heart diseases are associated with the diet: A. * High in total fat and saturated fat B. Low in protein C. High in protein D. High in carbohydrate E. High in vitamins

223. Bile acids are excreted into the intestine where they become bile salts due to: A. * The alkaline environment within the intestine B. The acidic environment of the stomach C. Alkaline hydrolysis D. Formation of esters E. Formation of amides due to the relatively high temperature and low rate of flow

224. By analysis of patient's lipogram was discovered the increase of some lipoproteins level. Choose the most atherogenic representative of lipoproteins:

A. LDL B. * HDL C. Chylomicrons D. LDDL E. Albumins

225. ?Cardiovascular function is most commonly impaired by which disease? A. Coronary heart disease B. Arteriosclerosis C. Stroke D. Hypertension E. * All of the above

226. Cholesterol circulates in blood stream chiefly as A. Free cholesterol B. Ester cholesterol

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C. Low density lipoproteins D. * Low density lipoproteins and high density lipoproteins E. Salts of cholesterol

227. Doctor prescribed to the patient, exhausted after heavy disease, small doses of hormones on the background of high-calorie diet. What hormone was prescribed?

A. * Adrenalin B. Insulin C. Thyroxine D. Aldosterone E. Vasopressin

228. Elder patient has a recommendation with the aim of prevention liver fatty seepage to use in food cheese. What essential amino acid, necessary for phospholipids synthesis, there is in cheese?

A. Arginine B. Proline C. Valine D. Lysine E. * Methionine

229. Fat is important to the body for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A. That it provides essential amino acids. B. That it stores energy for later use. C. * That it carries fat-soluble vitamins. D. That it helps to maintain cell membranes E. Only B and D

230. Fatty acid oxidation occurs: A. Only in adipose tissue B. * Within liver parenchyma C. Within mitochondria and peroxisomes of many tissues D. Only within arterial epithelium E. Only within venous epithelium

231. Fatty acid oxidation occurs: A. Only in adipose tissue B. * Within liver parenchyma C. Within mitochondria and peroxisomes of many tissues D. Only within arterial epithelium E. Only within venous epithelium

232. Hyperketonemia is observed in the following cases, but: A. Starvation B. Diabetes mellitus C. Excessive usage of carbohydrates D. Long stress E. * Thyrotoxicosis

233. Hypocholesterolaemia can occur in A. * Hyperthyroidism B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Obstructive jaundice D. Diabetes mellitus E. Diabets insipidus

234. If you wanted to locate some cholesterol within a healthy body, you might expect to find it:

A. * In the cytoplasm of mitochondria B. In the cytoplasm of chloroplasts

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C. In membranes D. In the aqueous humor of the eye E. In pancreatic lipase

235. Ketone bodies can be used as the source of energy in the following organ(s): A. * In the brain (after a week of fasting it adapts to use it) B. In the heart C. In the liver D. In kidney E. None of the above

236. Obesity generally reflects excess intake of energy and is often associated with the development of

A. Nervousness B. * Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus C. Hepatitis D. Colon cancer E. Rickets

237. Obesity increases the risk of A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Ishemic disease D. * All of these E. Srtoke

238. Obesity is accumulation of _______ in the body. A. Water B. NaCl C. * Fat D. Proteins E. Vitamins

239. Oliguria can occur in A. Diabetes mellitus B. * Diabetes insipidus C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Chronic glomerulonephritis E. Liver diseases

240. One of the leading pathogenetic chains in the development of radial pathology is the intensification of free-radical oxidation processes. What matters are the main source of free radicals formation?

A. Water B. * Lipids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins E. Metal ions

241. Patient has ketonemia and ketonuria, amount of glucose in blood 3,5 mM/l, cholesterol – 4,5 mM/l. What malfunctions could cause this?

A. * Dabetes mellitus B. Crbohydrates deficit in nutrition C. Aherosclerosis D. Ecessive usage of fats E. Liver disease

242. Patient with hard form of diabetes has increase of ketone bodies amount in blood. The main reason of ketonemia development is considered:

A. * Decrease if intracellular oxaloacetate concentration

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B. Inhibition of triacylglycerol lipase C. Activity inhibition of acetyl-CoA-acetyltransferase D. Activation of Krebs cycle enzymes E. Stimulation of glycogen synthesis in liver

243. Smoking increases an individual's chance for heart disease by: A. Decreasing your body's ability to clot blood. B. Decreasing the amount of fat deposits around arterial walls C. Increasing the chance of an irregular heartbeat. D. * Decreasing heart rate and blood pressure. E. None of the above

244. Splitting off acetyl-CoA in the final reaction of S-oxidation of fatty acids is performed under influence of enzyme:

A. Dehydrogenase B. Enolase C. Hydrase D. Lipase E. * Thiolase (acetyl-CoA-acyltransferase)

245. The amount of total lipids in blood – 30 g/l, cholesterol – 9 mmol/l. The blood plasma is alkaline, by blood centrifugation on the surface is formed white layer. Amount increase of what transportation forms of lipids in the blood takes place in this situation?

A. Chylomicrons B. ?-lipoproteins C. * C-lipoproteins D. Pre-D-lipoproteins E. Albumins

246. The average male human body contains about 19% fat. For purposes of discussion, physicians often refer to the average man as a "70 Kg man," (actually a little low by modern standards of obesity). How many pounds of fat would be present in the body of a 70 Kg man?

A. 13 B. * 51 C. 154 D. 2,2 E. 29

247. The body needs fatty acids to: A. Produce cell membranes. B. Make myelin sheaths. C. Absorb certain vitamins. D. * All of the above E. Precusor of carbohydrates, amino acids

248. The observation of a patient after radiolesion showed increased amount in the blood of malonic dialdehyde, which proves the activation of lipids peroxidation. What violations in cell membranes this can cause?

A. Cholesterol oxidation B. Transportation proteins structure change C. Destruction of carbohydrate components D. Activation of Na+, K+-ATP-ase E. * Destruction of phospholipids

249. The observation of a patient showed deficient activity of ferment lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT). Possible result is:

A. Fatty liver degeneration B. Hyperketonemia

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C. * Hypocholesterolemia D. Hyperlipemia E. Atherogenic hypocholesterolemia

250. The observation of a patient showed high amount of cholesterol in ?-lipoprotein fraction. This can result in:

A. * Ischemic heart disease B. Hypovitaminosis C. Ketonemia D. Steatorrhea E. Fatty liver degeneration

251. The observation of a patient showed symptoms of hypovitaminosis B5. By this is observed malfunction of lipids metabolism, but:

A. Cholesterol and fatty acids synthesis B. Ketone bodies oxidation C. * Transportat of fatty acids to mitochondria D. Glycerine oxidation E. Fatty acids oxidation

252. The patient got into the habit of having several uncooked eggs, which contain antivitamin of biotin – avidin. What malfunctions of lipid metabolism can be the result of this?

A. Cholesterol biosynthesis B. Lipids absorption C. * Fatty acids biosynthesis D. Glycerine oxidation E. Lipids transportation in blood

253. The patient has hypertension, atherosclerotic vessels affection. Name what lipid usage he needs to decrease in daily food allowance:

A. Cholesterol B. * Oleic acid C. Lecithin D. Mono oleate glyceride E. Phosphatidyl serine

254. The patient have symptoms of general adiposity, atherosclerotic changes. From the list of possible reasons for this should be excluded:

A. Lack of carbohydrates in nutrition B. Smoking C. Alcohol abuse D. Hereditary inclination E. * Excess of carbohydrates and lipids in nutrition

255. The patient with burns was prescribed in the treatment preparation complex vitamin E. What is the base of its action by this pathology?

A. Activation of tissue breathing B. Normalization of metabolism in muscles C. * Anti-oxidant action D. Activation of lipids peroxidation E. Decrease of organism dehydration

256. The paсient possibly has atherosclerosis. What feature helped to prove this? A. Increase of general lipids in blood B. Increase of ketone bodies in blood C. Increase of high density liporoteins D. Decrease of phospholipids in blood E. Increase of low density liporoteins

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257. The vitamin whose cofactors are involved in carrying single carbons for “one-carbon metabolism” is:

A. * Folate or folic acid B. Nicotinamid C. Biotin D. Ascorbic acid E. 1,25-dihydroxicholecalciferol

258. To prevent the development of atherosclerosis is possible by means of: A. * Excessive usage of carbohydrates B. Limitation of carbohydrates, lipids C. Excess of lipids in food D. Limitation of protein in food E. Limitation of vegetable oil in food

259. Which food does not have a lot of saturated fat? A. * Coconut oil. B. Whole milk. C. Chicken, with skin. D. Butter. E. Whole wheat bread.

260. Which of the following can be synthesized in the human body if precurors are available?

A. Oleic acid B. Palmitoleic acid C. Arachidonic acid D. * All of these E. None of the above

261. Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without glycosuria?

A. Diabetes mellitus B. Diabetes insipidus C. * Prolonged starvation D. Addison’s disease E. Pellagra

262. Which of the following factors makes it harder for an obese person to lose weight?

A. * An increase in metabolism that increases the appetite B. An increase in heat loss from the body that requires more food intake C. An increase in taste receptors D. An increase in thyroxine levels as fat levels accumulate E. An increase in alpha receptors (the kind that favor fat accumulation) in fat cells

263. Which of the following major risk factors of heart disease cannot be controlled? A. * Smoking B. Hypertension C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Heredity E. All of the above

264. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding fatty acids? A. Fatty acids dissolve in nonpolar solvents. B. * Triglycerides are esters of fatty acids. C. Most naturally occurring fatty acids have trans double bonds. D. Fatty acids are biosynthesized from acetate. E. C and D

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265. Which of these is a general feature of the lipid bilayer in all biological membranes?

A. Polar, but uncharged, compounds readily diffuse across the bilayer. B. Individual lipid molecules are free to diffuse laterally in the surface of the bilayer. C. Individual lipid molecules in one face (monolayer) of the bilayer readily diffuse

(flip-flop) to the other monolayer. D. * The bilayer is stabilized by covalent bonds between neighboring phospholipid

molecules. E. Only C

266. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. Skeletal muscle and the brain lack glucose-6-phosphatase. B. Acetoacetate and ?-hydroxybutyrate serve as the major source of energy for the

brain during starvation. C. * Water is an essential nutrient. D. The essential polyunsaturated fatty acids are palmitoleic and linoleic acids. E. The principal function of water-soluble vitamins is to serve as coenzymes for

several types of enzymes. 267. Women of 45 years after long starvation has hyperketonemia. Where is performed

the synthesis of ketone bodies? A. * Mitochondria of hepatocyte B. Cytoplasm of hepatocyte C. Mitochindria of cardiomyocytes D. Nucleus of cardiomyocytes E. Cytoplasm of adipocytes

268. Worker of dry-cleaner's has fatty liver degeneration. What matter synthesis malfunction in the liver can cause such pathology?

A. Urea B. * Phosphatidylcholine C. Phosphatidic acid D. Cholic acid E. Tristearin

269. ?-Oxidation was discovered by Knoop when he fed dogs fatty acids labeled with a benzene ring at the end of the molecule opposite the -COOH group. Metabolism could not proceed beyond the phenyl group. Dogs fed phenylbutyric acid would produce urine containing:

A. Phenylacetic acid B. Benzoic acid C. * Phenylpyruvic acid D. Phenyllactic acid E. Benzene

270. The amount of total acidity in gastric juice of a patient is normal. Which of the listed numbers is true in this case?

A. A.30-40 mM/l B. * B.40-60 mM/l C. 20-30 mM/l D. 30-50 mM/l E. 20-40 mM/l

271. A 60 year old patient has hyperplasia of G-cells of antral part of stomach. What changes in gastric juice are most possible for this pathology?

A. * Hyperchlorhydria B. Hypochlorhydria C. Achlorhydria

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D. Achylia E. Presence of lactic acid

272. A healthy 70 kg man eats a well balanced diet containing adequate calories and 62.5 g of high quality protein per day. Measured in grams of nitrogen, his daily nitrogen balance would be

A. +10 g B. +6.25 g C. * 0 g D. –6.25 g E. None of the above

273. A lipotropic factor was prescribed for the patient with liter cirrhosis. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor?

A. Lysine B. Leucine C. Tryptophan D. * Methionine E. All of these

274. A patient suffers from intensive decay of proteins. Name the compound in the urine, which is a test of protein putrefaction processes in the intestine:

A. Urates B. Urea C. Creatinine D. * Indican E. Lactic acid

275. A phenylketonuria of the newborn was diagnosed. All the following are true about phenylketonuria except

A. Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Mental retardation C. * Increased urinary excretion of p-hydroxyphenyl pyruvic acid D. Decrease serotonin formation E. C and D

276. After burns cause the development of negative nitric balance of a 40 year old patient took place that was the result of increase of:

A. Glycolysis B. Lipolysis C. * Proteolysis D. Phosphorolysis E. Fibrinolysis

277. By decarboxylation of histidine in an organism of 9 year old child in the state of allergic shock is (are) formed:

A. Tyramine B. * Histamine C. Putrescine D. Cadaverine E. Serotonine

278. Coenzyme of amino acids decarboxylases is: A. Thymidine diphosphate B. Favin adenine dinucleotide C. Favin mononucleotide D. HS-CoA E. * PALP

279. essential amino acid?

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A. Alanine B. Glycine C. Tyrosine D. * Tryptophan E. Both A and D

280. GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid), which belongs to inhibiting mediators of central nervous system, is a product of glutamic decarboxylation. What vitamin prescription is appropriate by convulsive state, caused by decrease if GABA formation?

A. B1 B. B9 C. * B6 D. B5 E. B2

281. Into the hospital was carried 37 year old man with symptoms of achylia gastrica. Achylia gastrica is said to be when absence of

A. Pepsin only B. * Both pepsin and HCl C. HCl only D. Bile E. None of these

282. Into the hospital was carried 7 years old child in the state of allergic shock, which evolved after wasp's bite. In the blood increased concentration of histamine. This amine is formed as a result of reaction of:

A. Dehydration B. Deamination C. Reduction D. * Decarboxylation E. Hydrooxidation

283. N-end amino acids in the proteins splitt off: A. Dipeptidase B. Carbooxypeptidase C. * Aminopeptidase D. Elastase E. Endopeptidase

284. Patient has positive nitric balance. The reason of this can be: A. Starvation B. Tuberculosis C. * Pregnancy D. Malignant neoplasms E. AIDS

285. Patient has the diagnosis “malignant carcinoid”, amount of serotonine in blood increased greatly. Name amino acid, able to form the given biogenic amine:

A. Alanine B. * 5-oxytryptophane C. Leucine D. Threonine E. Methionine

286. Patient on a vegetarian diet has negative nitric balance, hyperproteinemia, affection of colloid-osmotic pressure and water-salt metabolism by normal function of alimentary canal. This was caused by:

A. * Monotonous protein nutrition B. Monotonous carbohydrate nutrition

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C. Lack of unsaturated fatty acids D. Lack of phospholipids in food E. Lack of vitamins in food

287. ?Patient with enterocolitis has affected protein adoption. What mechanism of amino acids absorption is affected?

A. Pinocytosis B. Primary active transport C. Simple diffusion D. * Secondary sodium-dependent transport E. Phagocytosis

288. The total acidity in gastric juice of a 40 year old patient is high. Which of the listed numbers is true in this case?

A. 30-40 mM/l B. * 60-80 mM/l C. 20-30 mM/l D. 30-50 mM/l E. 20-40 mM/l

289. The 45 year old man suffers from stomach ache due to high acidity of gastric juice. The pH of gastric juice becomes low in

A. Hemolytic anemia B. * Pernicious anemia C. Both (A) and (B) D. Jaundice E. None of these

290. The 75 year old man suffers from negative nitrogenous balance due to lack of essential amino acids. The essential amino acids

A. Must be supplied in the diet because the organism has lost the capacity to aminate the corresponding ketoacids

B. * Must be supplied in the diet because the human has an impaired ability to synthesize the carbon chain of the corresponding ketoacids

C. Are identical in all species studied D. Are defined as those amino acids which cannot be synthesized by the organism at

a rate adequate to meet metabolic requirements E. Both B and D

291. The newborn suffers from improper milk digestion due to lower activity of rennin. Rennin acts on casein of milk in infants in presence of

A. Mg++ B. Zn++ C. Co++ D. * Ca++ E. Both C and D

292. The patient's Ritis' ratio (AsAT\AlAT) equals 0,8. Which disease does it testify? A. * Hepatitis B. Pancreatitis C. Gastritis D. Cardiac infarction E. Nephritis

293. The patient's Ritis' ratio (AsAT\AlAT) equals 2,8. Which disease does it testify? A. Hepatitis B. Pancreatitis C. Gastritis D. * Cardiac infarction

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E. Nephritis 294. What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in a protein?

A. * Peptide bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Ionic bonds D. Glycosidic bonds E. Ester bonds

295. Which of the following is not an amino acid? A. Glutamic acid B. Aspartic acid C. Glutamine D. * Palmitic acid E. Leucine

296. A dietary deficiency of tryptophan and nicotinate leads to A. Beri Beri B. Xerophthalmia C. Anemia D. * Pellegra E. Rickets

297. All the following statements about pepsin are correct, except A. It is smaller than pepsinogen B. It is formed by the action of HCl on its precursor C. Its optimum pH is 1.0–2.0 D. * It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal peptide bonds of proteins E. Its optimum pH is 10–12

298. Along with CO2, NH3 and ATP the aminoacid that is needed in urea cycle is A. Alanine B. Isoleucine C. * Aspartate D. Glycine E. Valine

299. ATP is required in following reactions of urea cycle: A. Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and citrulline B. * Synthesis of citrulline and argininosuccinate C. Synthesis of argininosuccinate and arginine D. Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and argininosuccinate E. All of the above

300. by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is incorrect? A. The enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting reaction in the urea cycle. B. * Raction is allosterically activated by N-acetylglutamate. C. The reaction is reversible. D. The enzyme incorporates CO2 into carbamoyl phosphate. E. The reaction requires two high energy phosphates for each carbamoyl phosphate

molecule synthesized. 301. Child, who for a long time had products of vegetable origin, has growth

inhibition, anemia, liver and kidney affection, skin and hair reddening. The cause of this condition is:

A. Lack of lipids in food B. * Lack of essential amino acid in food C. Lack of carbohydratesin food D. Lack of macrocells in food E. Lack of fats in food

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302. ?Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme: A. * Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Ornithine transcarbamoylase C. Argininosuccinase D. Arginase E. Fumarase

303. Cyanide, a potent human toxin, blocks electron flow in electron transport by binding to Fe2+ . The Fe2+ ion is found in which of the following?

A. Coenzyme Q B. FADH2 C. Ubiquinone D. Acetyl – SCoA E. * Catalase

304. Cystinuria results from inability to A. Metabolise cysteine B. Convert cystine into cysteine C. Incorporate cysteine into proteins D. * Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules E. Only A

305. Cytosolic and mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase have the following similarity:

A. Both use ammonia as a substance B. Both provide carbamoyl phosphate for urea synthesis C. * Both require N-acetylglutamate as an activator D. Both are allosteric enzymes E. Both provide carbamoyl phosphate for pirimidine synthesis

306. Exopeptidases are: A. Pepsin, trypsin B. Elastase, colagenase C. * Carboxypeptidases, aminopeptidases D. Chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidases E. Aminopeptidases, elastase

307. For effective formation of urea in the liver with great intensivity must proceed ornithinic cycle. In the other case the concentration of ammonia in blood grows rapidly. By the lack of what amino acid in the food can evolve azotemia?

A. * Arginine B. Alanine C. Lysine D. Serine E. Methionine

308. GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid), which belongs to inhibiting mediators of central nervous system, is a product of glutamic decarboxylation. What vitamin prescription is appropriate by convulsive state, caused by decrease if GABA formation?

A. B1 B. B9 C. * B6 D. B5 E. B2

309. glucogenic amino acid? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Malonil-CoA C. * Pyruvate

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D. Acetoacetyl-CoA E. All of the above

310. Higher plants most often absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of A. N2 B. Nitrites. C. Ammonia. D. * Nitrates. E. Amino acids.

311. Hydroxylation of phenylalanine requires all of the following except A. * Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Tetrahydrobiopterin C. NADH D. Molecular oxygen E. FAD

312. Into the hospital was carried 7 years old child in the state of allergic shock, which evolved after wasp's bite. In the blood increased concentration of histamine. This amine is formed as a result of reaction of:

A. Dehydration B. Deamination C. Reduction D. * Decarboxylation E. Hydrooxidation

313. Isoelectric pH of an amino acid is that pH at which it has a A. Positive charge B. Negative charge C. * No charge D. None of these E. All of the above

314. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in A. Iron B. Calories C. * Proteins D. Essential fatty acids E. Ca++

315. Maple syrup urine diseases is an inborn error of metabolism of A. Sulphur-containing amino acids B. Aromatic amino acids C. * Branched chain amino acids D. Dicarboxylic amino acids E. None of the above

316. Name the matter in the urine, which is a test of intensivity of protein putrefaction processes in the intestine:

A. Urates B. Urea C. Creatinine D. * Indican E. Lactic acid

317. Negative nitrogenous balance is observed in all listed cases, but: A. Kidney disease B. Domination of animal proteins in food C. Domination of vegetable proteins in food D. * In old years

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E. By pancreatitis 318. Nitrogen gas accounts for what percentage of the atmosphere?

A. 1% B. * 7% C. 55% D. 78% E. 99%

319. Nitrogen is essential for living organisms to make: A. Lipids. B. * Proteins. C. Carbohydrates. D. Sulfates. E. Benzene rings.

320. Observation of 45-years old man, who was on vegetarian diet for a long time, showed negative nitric balance. What food allowance feature caused this event?

A. Excessive amount of carbohydrates B. * Insufficient amount of proteins C. Excessive amount of water D. Insufficient amount of fats and proteins E. Insufficient amount of fats

321. One of the following amino acid is solely ketogenic: A. * Lysine B. Alanine C. Valine D. Glutamate E. Arginine

322. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of the following except A. * Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Carboxypeptidase D. Aminopeptidase E. Elastase

323. Patient has positive nitric balance. The reason of this can be: A. Starvation B. Tuberculosis C. * Pregnancy D. Malignant neoplasms E. AIDS

324. Patient has the diagnosis “malignant carcinoid”, amount of serotonine in blood increased greatly. Name amino acid, able to form the given biogenic amine:

A. Alanine B. * 5-oxytryptophane C. Leucine D. Threonine E. Methionine

325. Patient on a vegetarian diet has negative nitric balance, hyperproteinemia, affection of colloid-osmotic pressure and water-salt metabolism by normal function of alimentary canal. This was caused by:

A. * Monotonous protein nutrition B. Monotonous carbohydrate nutrition C. Lack of unsaturated fatty acids D. Lack of phospholipids in food

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E. Lack of vitamins in food 326. Serines are all names of families of what?

A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. * Amino acids D. Pyridines E. Vitamins

327. Sulphur-containing amino acid is A. Glutathione B. Chondroitin sulphate C. * Homocysteine D. Tryptophan E. Histidin

328. The amount of urea in the patient's blood is 16 mmol/l, in daily urine 6 g. The possible reason for this is the following:

A. Liver disease B. Starvation C. * Kidney disease D. Acidosis E. Thyrotoxicosis

329. The defective enzyme in histidinemia is A. Histidine carboxylase B. Histidine decarboxylase C. * Histidase D. Histidine oxidase E. None of the above

330. The process where some bacteria remove nitrate from the soil by converting it to nitrogen gas is:

A. Nitrification. B. Ammonification. C. Assimilation. D. * Denitrification. E. Nitrogen fixation.

331. The reservoir for nitrogen is A. The atmosphere. B. Rocks. C. Ammonia. D. * Nitrates. E. Amino acids.

332. The ruminant obtains nitrogen primarily from A. * Plant protein B. The microbes of the gastrointestinal tract C. Urea D. Fatty acids produced in the rumen. E. Carbohydrates

333. The step in the nitrogen cycle where bacteria convert ammonia (NH3) to nitrate (NO3-) is:

A. * Nitrification. B. Ammonification. C. Assimilation. D. Denitrification. E. Nitrogen fixation.

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334. The toxicity of ammonia, especially dangerous for brain, is connected with its' ability to affect functioning of tricarboxylic acids cycle in mitichondria of brain neurons as a result of conclusion from the cycle of:

A.B. Citrate C. Malate D. Succinate E. * Fumarate

335. The useful reagent for detection of amino acids is A. Molisch reagent B. Dichlorophenol Indophenol C. * Ninhydrin D. Biuret E. None of the above

336. To endopeptidases belong all below-mentioned ferments, but: A. Pepsin B. Elastase C. * Carboxypeptidase D. Chemotrypsin E. Trypsin

337. What is the first step in the nitrogen cycle, in which gaseous nitrogen is converted into ammonia?

A. * Nitrification B. Ammonification C. Assimilation D. Denitrification E. Nitrogen fixation

338. What is the main transportation form of ammonia from the majority of peripheral tissues to the liver?

A. Urea B. Aminosuccinamic C. Citrulline D. Ornithine E. * Glutamine

339. What is/are true regarding the urea cycle? A. It plays an important role in nitrogen metabolism B. It has a role in both the catabolism and anabolism of amino acids C. * It is linked to the citric acid cycle D. All of the above E. None of the above

340. What major way of ammonia deactivation, which formed in the organism as a result of deamination reactions?

A. Glutamine synthesis B. Ammonium salts synthesis C. * Urea synthesis D. Uric acid synthesis E. Aminosuccinamic synthesis

341. What part of the nitrogen cycle deals with the conversion of nitrogen in waste products or dead organisms into ammonia?

A. Nitrification B. * Ammonification C. Assimilation

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D. Denitrification E. Nitrogen fixation

342. Which amino acid is a lipotropic factor? A. Lysine B. Lecuine C. Tryptophan D. * Methionine E. Valine

343. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?

A. * Aspartate B. Carbamoyl phosphate C. CO2 D. Glutamine E. Fumarate

344. Which of the following molecules will be formed from the carbon skeleton of a ketogenic amino acid?

A. * Acetyl-CoA B. Oxaloacetate C. Pyruvate D. ?-ketoglutarate E. All of the above

345. Which of the following protein is rich in cysteine? A. Elastine B. * Collagen C. Fibrin D. Keratin E. None of the above

346. Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding nitrogen pollution? A. Fresh water bodies are more often nitrogen limited than salt water bodies B. Dissolved ammonia gas can be directly toxic to fish C. In an undisturbed forest, nitrogen losses per year are generally less than the

amount of nitrogen contributed from the atmosphere. D. In temperate regions, the greatest potential for leaching of nitrate occurs during

the fall and winter, when evapotranspiration is low relative to precipitation E. * Answers 2, 3, and 4 above are all correct

347. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The two nitrogen atoms that are incorporated into urea enter the cycle as ammonia

and alanine. B. Urea is produced directly by the hydrolysis of ornithine. C. ATP is required for the reaction in which argininosuccinate is cleaved to form

arginine. D. The urea cycle occurs exclusively in the cytosol. E. * In humans, the major route of nitrogen metabolism from amino acids to urea is

catalyzed by the combined actions of transaminase (aminotransferase) and glutamate dehydrogenase.

348. Which of the following would most likely act as an inhibitor of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle?

A. * A high concentration of ADP B. A high concentration of ATP C. A low concentration of NADH D. A high concentration of NAD

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E. More than one of the above. 349. Which one of the following is an essential amino acid?

A. Arginine B. Tyrosine C. * Phenylalanine D. Proline E. Ornitine

350. Why is nitrapyrin (2-chloro-6-trichloromethylpyridine) added to ammonia fertilizers?

A. To convert the ammonia to nitrate which is the preferred nitrogen source for plants.

B. * To solubilize the ammonia. C. To inhibit nitrifying bacteria that convert ammonia to nitrite. D. To inhibit assimilatory nitrate reduction. E. None of the above

Test questions for figures1. The fragment of which compound is shown in figure 106?

A. Cellulose B. Triacylglycerol C. * Starch D. Protein E. Phospholipid

2. Absorption of which compound can be described by the mechanism shown in figure 110?

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A. Fatty acid B. Glycerol C. * Glucose D. Fructose E. Cholesterol

3. Compound shown in figure 107 consists of: A. Glucose and glucose B. Glucose and galactose C. Glucose and mannose D. Galactose and fructose E. * Glucose and fructose

4. Compound shown in figure 108 consists of: A. Glucose and glucose B. * Glucose and galactose C. Glucose and mannose D. Galactose and fructose E. Glucose and fructose

5. Compound shown in figure 109 consists of: A. * Glucose and glucose B. Glucose and galactose C. Glucose and mannose D. Galactose and fructose E. Glucose and fructose

6. Compound which is formed in the reaction shown in figure 154 plays role of: A. Mediator of inflammation B. Mediator of allergic reaction C. * Mediator of nervous system D. Mediator of pain E. Mediator of blood coagulation

7. Degradation of glycogen is shown in figure 129. This mechanism is called: A. Hydrolysis B. * Phosphorolysis C. Ligation D. Dephosphorylation E. Deglycosidation

8. Fragment of what biochemical pathway is shown in figure 132? A. * Glycogenogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycolysis D. Gluconeogenesis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

9. How many molecules of ATP are formed in substrate level phosphorylation reactions in pathway shown in figure 112?

A. 2 B. * 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10

10. How many substrate level phosphorylation reactions are there in pathway shown in figure 112?

A. 1 B. * 2

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C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

11. One of the products of reaction shown in figure 116 is: A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. * Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Pyruvate

12. One of the purposes of biochemical pathway shown in figure 126 is: A. Production of NADH and FADH2 B. Energetic role C. * Metabolism of unusual sugars D. Decomposition of waste products E. Metabolism of ketone bodies

13. One of the reactions of glycogen degradation is shown in figure 130. What enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A. Glycogen synthase B. Glycogen phosphorylase C. Isomerase D. * Phosphoglucomutase E. Hexokinase

14. Red blood cells with Heinz bodies are shown in figures 128. Dark particles (Heinz bodies) are denaturated proteins adhered to cell membranes. For which disease such micrograph is specific?

A. Lactase deficiency B. * Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency C. Hexokinase deficiency D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency E. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

15. The biochemical pathway shown in figure 155 is called: A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Kori cycle C. * Urea cycle D. Fatty acids synthesis cycle E. Pentose phosphate cycle

16. The bonds indicated by question-mark in figure 106 are called: A. Peptide B. * Glycosidic C. Ester D. Phosphate E. Noncovalent

17. The clinical symptoms shown in figure 157 are specific for: A. Phenylketonuria B. Albinism C. Homocysteinuria D. * Alcaptonuria E. Maple syrup urine disease

18. The compound shown in figure 143 is digested by: A. Lipase B. Pepsin C. Trypsin

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D. Phospholipase E. * Esterase

19. The first reaction of glycerol oxidation pathway is shown in figure 144. What enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A. Glycerol dehydrogenase B. * Glycerol kinase C. Glycerol carboxylase D. Glycerol decarboxylase E. Glycerol carboxykinase

20. The first reaction of glycerol oxidation pathway is shown in figure 144. What is the product of this reaction?

A. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate B. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate C. * Glycerol 3-phosphate D. Glycerol 2-phosphate E. 3-phosphoglycerate

21. The fragment of which biochemical process is shown in figure 151? A. Oxidation of fatty acids B. * Synthesis of fatty acids C. Activation of fatty acids D. Oxidation of glycerol E. Digestion of phospholipids

22. The molecule of taurocholic acid is depicted in figure 141. Such molecule is called: A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. * Amphipathic D. Polar E. Nonpolar

23. The product of reaction shown in figure 113 is: A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. * Glucose-6-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Pyruvate

24. The product of reaction shown in figure 114 is: A. * Fructose-6-phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glucose-6-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Pyruvate

25. The product of reaction shown in figure 115 is: A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glucose-6-phosphate D. * Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Pyruvate

26. The product of reaction shown in figure 117 is: A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. * Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Pyruvate

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27. The product of reaction shown in figure 118 is: A. * 1,3-biphosphoglycerate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Pyruvate

28. The product of reaction shown in figure 119 is: A. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. * 3-phosphoglycerate

29. The product of reaction shown in figure 120 is: A. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate B. * 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. 3-phosphoglycerate

30. The product of reaction shown in figure 121 is: A. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. * Phosphoenolpyruvate E. 3-phosphoglycerate

31. The product of reaction shown in figure 122 is: A. * Pyruvate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Phosphoenolpyruvate E. 3-phosphoglycerate

32. The product of reaction shown in figure 135 is: A. Glucose B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. Citrate D. Acetyl CoA E. * Oxaloacetate

33. The product of reaction shown in figure 136 is: A. Glucose B. * Phosphoenolpyruvate C. Citrate D. Acetyl CoA E. Oxaloacetate

34. The product of the reaction shown in figure 142: A. Is a building block of cell membranes B. * Can disrupt cellular membranes C. Has neurotoxic properties D. Is an intracellualar messenger E. Activates transcription in cell nucleus

35. The reaction depicted in figure 158 is characteristic for: A. * Phenylketonuria B. Albinism C. Homocysteinuria

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D. Alcaptonuria E. Maple syrup urine disease

36. The reaction shown in figure 113 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

37. The reaction shown in figure 113 is catalyzed by: A. * Hexokinase B. Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase D. Mutase E. Pyruvatekinase

38. The reaction shown in figure 114 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

39. The reaction shown in figure 114 is catalyzed by: A. Hexokinase B. * Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase D. Mutase E. Pyruvatekinase

40. The reaction shown in figure 115 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

41. The reaction shown in figure 115 is catalyzed by: A. Hexokinase B. Isomerase C. * Phosphofructokinase-1 D. Mutase E. Pyruvatekinase

42. The reaction shown in figure 116 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

43. The reaction shown in figure 116 is catalyzed by: A. * Aldolase B. Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 D. Mutase E. Pyruvatekinase

44. The reaction shown in figure 117 comes from: A. * Glycolysis

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B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

45. The reaction shown in figure 117 is catalyzed by: A. Aldolase B. * Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 D. Mutase E. Pyruvatekinase

46. The reaction shown in figure 118 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

47. The reaction shown in figure 118 is catalyzed by: A. Aldolase B. Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 D. Mutase E. * Dehydrogenase

48. The reaction shown in figure 119 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

49. The reaction shown in figure 119 is catalyzed by: A. * Phosphoglycerate kinase B. Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 D. Mutase E. Dehydrogenase

50. The reaction shown in figure 120 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

51. The reaction shown in figure 120 is catalyzed by: A. Phosphoglycerate kinase B. Isomerase C. Phosphofructokinase-1 D. * Mutase E. Dehydrogenase

52. The reaction shown in figure 121 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

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53. The reaction shown in figure 121 is catalyzed by: A. Phosphoglycerate kinase B. Isomerase C. * Enolase D. Mutase E. Dehydrogenase

54. The reaction shown in figure 122 comes from: A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

55. The reaction shown in figure 122 is catalyzed by: A. Phosphoglycerate kinase B. Isomerase C. * Pyruvate kinase D. Mutase E. Dehydrogenase

56. The reaction shown in figure 127 comes from: A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. * Pentose phosphate pathway

57. The reaction shown in figure 135 comes from: A. Glycolysis B. * Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

58. The reaction shown in figure 136 comes from: A. Glycolysis B. * Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

59. The reaction shown in figure 137 comes from: A. Glycolysis B. * Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

60. The reaction shown in figure 138 comes from: A. Glycolysis B. * Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. Oxidation of glycerol

61. The reaction shown in figure 152 is catalyzed by: A. * Aminotransferase B. Dehydrogenase C. Decarboxylase

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D. Oxidase E. Reductase

62. The reaction shown in figure 153 is catalyzed by: A. Aminotransferase B. Dehydrogenase C. * Decarboxylase D. Oxidase E. Reductase

63. The scheme of fate of glucose is shown in figure 111. Which metabolite is replaced with digit 1?

A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. * Glucose-6-phosphate C. Lactate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Phosphoenol pyruvate

64. The scheme of fate of glucose is shown in figure 111. Which pathway is indicated by digit 2?

A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. * Pentose phosphate pathway

65. The scheme of fate of glucose is shown in figure 111. Which pathway is indicated by digit 3?

A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

66. The scheme of fate of pyruvate is shown in figure 123. Which metabolite is indicated by digit 1?

A. Lactate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. * Ethanol D. Propynol E. Methanol

67. The scheme of fate of pyruvate is shown in figure 123. Which metabolite is indicated by digit 2?

A. * Lactate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. Ethanol D. Propynol E. Methanol

68. The scheme of the reaction of is shown in figure 152. A. Decarboxylation of amino acids B. Deamination of amino acids C. * Transamination of amino acids D. Oxidation of amino acids E. Reduction of amino acids

69. The scheme of the reaction of is shown in figure 153. A. * Decarboxylation of amino acids B. Deamination of amino acids

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C. Transamination of amino acids D. Oxidation of amino acids E. Reduction of amino acids

70. The scheme of the regulation of glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase by epinephrine and glucagone is shown in figure 133. What enzyme is replaced with digit 1 on this scheme?

A. * Protein kinase B. Phosphatase C. Phospholipase D. Hexokinase E. Phosphorylase

71. The scheme of the regulation of glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase by epinephrine and glucagone is shown in figure 133. What enzyme is replaced with digit 2 on this scheme?

A. Protein kinase B. Phosphatase C. * Glycogen synthase b D. Hexokinase E. Glycogen phosphorylase a

72. The scheme of the regulation of glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase by epinephrine and glucagone is shown in figure 133. What enzyme is replaced with digit 3 on this scheme?

A. Protein kinase B. Phosphatase C. Glycogen synthase b D. Hexokinase E. * Glycogen phosphorylase a

73. The scheme of which biochemical process is shown in figure 146? A. * Transport of fatty acyl CoA into mitochondria B. Transport of fatty acyl CoA into cytoplasm C. Transport of carnitine into mitochondria D. Transport of carnitine into cytoplasm E. Transport of HS-CoA into mitochondria

74. The scheme shown in figure 139 is called: A. Krebs cycle B. * Cori cycle C. Mitchell cycle D. Fisher cycle E. Horbachevsky cycle

75. The second bypass of gluconeogenesis is shown in figure 137. What enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A. Protein kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Fructose dehydrogenase D. * Phosphatase E. Hexokinase

76. The third bypass of gluconeogenesis is shown in figure 138. What enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A. Protein kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Fructose dehydrogenase D. * Phosphatase

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E. Hexokinase 77. What are the end products of biochemical process shown in figure 142?

A. Triacylglycerol and free fatty acids B. Diacylglycerol and free fatty acids C. Free fatty acids D. Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol E. * Lysophosphoglyceride and free fatty acid

78. What are the end products of biochemical process shown in figure 140? A. Triacylglycerols B. Diacylglycerols C. Free fatty acids D. * Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol E. Cholesterol and free fatty acids

79. What biochemical pathway is shown in figure 112? A. * Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenogenesis D. Glycogenolysis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

80. What biochemical pathway is shown in figure 126? A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Oxidation of fatty acids D. Glycogenolysis E. * Pentose phosphate pathway

81. What biochemical pathway is shown in figure 131? A. * Glycogenogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycolysis D. Gluconeogenesis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

82. What biochemical pathway is shown in figure 134? A. Glycogenogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycolysis D. * Gluconeogenesis E. Pentose phosphate pathway

83. What biochemical process is shown in figure 140? A. Digestion of glycogen B. Digestion of proteins C. * Digestion of triacylglycerols D. Digestion of phospholipids E. Digestion of cholesterol esters

84. What biochemical process is shown in figure 142? A. Digestion of glycogen B. Digestion of proteins C. Digestion of triacylglycerols D. * Digestion of phospholipids E. Digestion of cholesterol esters

85. What biochemical process is shown in figure 145? A. Digeston of fatty acids B. Synthesis of fatty acids

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C. * Activation of fatty acids D. Digestion of triacylglycerols E. Digestion of phospholipids

86. What coenzyme is required for the reaction shown in figure 147? A. NAD B. * FAD C. TPP D. NADP E. HS-CoA

87. What coenzyme is required for the reaction shown in figure 149? A. * NAD B. FAD C. TPP D. NADP E. HS-CoA

88. What coenzyme is required for the reaction shown in figure 150? A. NAD B. FAD C. TPP D. NADP E. * HS-CoA

89. What coenzyme is required for the reaction shown in figure 125? A. * NAD B. FAD C. TPP D. PLP E. HS CoA

90. What coenzyme is required for the reaction shown in figure 127? A. NAD B. FAD C. TPP D. * NADP E. HS CoA

91. What compound is eliminated in the 1st reaction of biochemical pathway shown in figure 124?

A. O2 B. * CO2 C. H3PO4 D. H2 E. NADH

92. What compound is replaced with digit 1 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 134? A. Glucose B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. Citrate D. Acetyl CoA E. * Oxaloacetate

93. What compound is replaced with digit 2 in figure 131? A. ATP B. NAD C. * UTP D. FAD E. HSCoA

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94. What compound is shown in figure 107? A. Cellulose B. Maltose C. * Sucrose D. Lactose E. Glycogen

95. What compound is shown in figure 108? A. Cellulose B. Maltose C. Sucrose D. * Lactose E. Glycogen

96. What compound is shown in figure 109? A. Cellulose B. * Maltose C. Sucrose D. Lactose E. Glycogen

97. What enzyme catalysis the reaction shown in figure 147? A. Acyl CoA hydratase B. Acyl CoA dehydratase C. * Acyl CoA dehydrogenase D. Acyl CoA transferase E. Acyl CoA oxidase

98. What enzyme catalysis the reaction shown in figure 148? A. * Hydratase B. Dehydratase C. Dehydrogenase D. Transferase E. Oxidase

99. What enzyme catalysis the reaction shown in figure 149? A. Hydratase B. Dehydratase C. * Dehydrogenase D. Transferase E. Oxidase

100. What enzyme catalysis the reaction shown in figure 150? A. Hydratase B. Dehydratase C. Dehydrogenase D. Transferase E. * Thiolase

101. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction #1 in pathway shown in figure 124? A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Isomerase C. Pyruvate kinase D. Mutase E. * Pyruvate decarboxylase

102. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction #2 in pathway shown in figure 124? A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Isomerase C. Pyruvate kinase

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D. Mutase E. * Alcohol dehydrogenase

103. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction shown in figure 145? A. * Acyl-CoA synthetase B. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase C. Acyl-CoA oxidase D. Acyl-CoA lyase E. Acyl-CoA isomerase

104. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction shown in figure 156? A. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Ornithine carbamoyltransferase C. Argininosuccinate synthetase D. Argininosuccinate lyase E. * Arginase

105. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction shown in figure 125? A. * Lactate dehydrogenase B. Isomerase C. Pyruvate kinase D. Mutase E. Alcohol dehydrogenase

106. What enzyme is indicated by the digit 1 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 131?

A. * Glycogen synthase B. Glycogen phosphorylase C. Isomerase D. Phosphoglucomutase E. Hexokinase

107. What enzyme is replaced with digit 2 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 134?

A. Protein kinase B. * Pyruvate carboxylase C. Pyruvate decarboxylase D. Phosphatase E. Lactate dehydrogenase

108. What enzyme is replaced with digit 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 134?

A. Protein kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Fructose dehydrogenase D. * Phosphatase E. Lactate dehydrogenase

109. What enzyme is replaced with digit 4 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 134?

A. Protein kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Fructose dehydrogenase D. * Phosphatase E. Hexokinase

110. What enzyme participates in the biochemical process shown in figure 142? A. Lipase B. Pepsin C. Trypsin

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D. * Phospholipase E. Esterase

111. What enzyme participates in the biochemical process shown in figure 140? A. * Lipase B. Pepsin C. Trypsin D. Phospholipase E. Esterase

112. What enzyme participates in the reaction shown in figure 129? A. Glycogen synthase B. * Glycogen phosphorylase C. Branching enzyme D. Phosphoglucomutase E. Hexokinase

113. What is the clear output of ATP molecules in biochemical pathway shown in figure 112?

A. 5 B. * 7 C. 8 D. 9 E. 10

114. What is the end product of biochemical pathway shown in figure 155? A. Acetyl CoA B. Pyruvate C. Lactate D. Glycerol E. * Urea

115. What is the end product of biochemical pathway shown in figure 131? A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Glucose 6-phosphate D. Glucose 1-phosphate E. * Glycogen

116. What is the main purpose of biochemical pathway shown in figure 126? A. Production of NADH and FADH2 B. Energetic role C. * Production of NADPH and pentoses D. Decomposition of waste products E. Metabolism of ketone bodies

117. What is the product (#3) of biochemical pathway shown in figure 124? A. Lactate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. * Ethanol D. Propynol E. Methanol

118. What is the product of reaction shown in figure 125? A. * Lactate B. Phosphoenolpyruvate C. Ethanol D. Propynol E. Methanol

119. What product is formed in the fatty acid oxidation reaction shown in figure 147?

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A. Acetyl CoA B. * Enoyl CoA C. 3-Hydroxyacyl CoA D. 3-Ketoacyl CoA E. Acyl CoA

120. What product is formed in the fatty acid oxidation reaction shown in figure 148? A. Acetyl CoA B. Enoyl CoA C. * 3-Hydroxyacyl CoA D. 3-Ketoacyl CoA E. Acyl CoA

121. What product is formed in the fatty acid oxidation reaction shown in figure 149? A. Acetyl CoA B. Enoyl CoA C. 3-Hydroxyacyl CoA D. * 3-Ketoacyl CoA E. Acyl CoA

122. What product is formed in the reaction of activation of fatty acid shown in figure 145?

A. Triacylglycerol B. Diacylglycerol C. Monoacylglycerol D. * Acyl CoA E. Free fatty acid

123. What product is formed in the reaction shown in figure 129? A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Glucose 6-phosphate D. * Glucose 1-phosphate E. Fructose 1-phosphate

124. What type of reaction is shown in figure 119? A. Oxidative phosphorylation reaction B. * Substrate level phosphorylation reaction C. Oxidation-reduction reaction D. Isomerization reaction E. Ligation reaction

125. What type of reaction is shown in figure 122? A. Oxidative phosphorylation reaction B. * Substrate level phosphorylation reaction C. Oxidation-reduction reaction D. Isomerization reaction E. Ligation reaction

126. Which coenzyme is required for the reaction presented in figure 152? A. NAD B. FAD C. TPP D. NADP E. * PLP

127. Which coenzyme is required for the reaction presented in figure 153? A. NAD B. FAD C. TPP

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D. NADP E. * PLP

128. Which compound is formed in the decarboxylation reaction shown in figure 154? A. Histamine B. Glutamine C. * GABA D. Cadaverine E. Putrescine

129. Which compound is replaced with question-mark in the scheme depicted in the figure 146?

A. Fatty acid B. * Carnitine C. HS-CoA D. Acetyl-CoA E. Citrate

130. Which enzyme catalyzes the splitting of bond between two constituents of compound shown in figure 107?

A. * Sucrase B. Amilase C. Pepsin D. Maltase E. Lactase

131. Which enzyme catalyzes the splitting of bond between two constituents of compound shown in figure 108?

A. Sucrase B. Amilase C. Pepsin D. Maltase E. * Lactase

132. Which enzyme catalyzes the splitting of bond between two constituents of compound shown in figure 109?

A. Sucrase B. Amilase C. Pepsin D. * Maltase E. Lactase

133. Which enzyme catalyzes the splitting of bonds indicated by question-mark in figure 106?

A. Sucrase B. * Amilase C. Pepsin D. Phosphatase E. Lactase

134. Which metabolite is replaced with digit 1 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 112?

A. * Fructose-6-phosphate B. Glucose-6-phosphate C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Phosphoenol pyruvate

135. Which metabolite is replaced with digit 2 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 112?

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A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. Glucose-6-phosphate C. * 1,3-biphosphoglycerate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Phosphoenol pyruvate

136. Which metabolite is replaced with digit 3 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 112?

A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. * 2-phosphoglycerate C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. Phosphoenol pyruvate

137. Which metabolite is replaced with digit 4 in biochemical pathway shown in figure 112?

A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate D. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate E. * Pyruvate