MOCK TEST SSC LDC 01 Maximum Marks: 200 - Career … · MOCK TEST SSC LDC – 01 ... 4. The paper...

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www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com| www.careerpower.in | www.careeradda.co.in Page 1 MOCK TEST SSC LDC – 01 Time Allowed: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following four parts: 1. bl iqfLrdk es a dq y 200 iz 'u gS a] ftues fuEufyf[kr Hkkx 'kkfey gS a Part A : General Intelligence & Reasoning (50 Questions) Hkkx&d % lkekU; cq f)eÙkk ,oa rdZ 'kfDr ¼50 iz'u½ Part B : General Awareness (50 Questions) Hkkx&[k % lkekU; tkudkjh ¼50 iz'u½ Part C : Quantitative Aptitude (50 Questions) Hkkx&x % ifjek.kkRed vfHk#fp ¼50 iz'u½ Part D : English Comprehension (50 Questions) Hkkx&?k % vaxz sth ifjKku ¼50 iz'u½ 2. In questions set bilingually in English and Hindi, in case of discrepancy, the English version will prevail. 2. vaxz sth vkS j fgUnh Hkk"kk es a rS ;kj fd, x, f}Hkk"kh iz'uksa es a dksbZ folaxfr gksus dh fLFkfr esa vaxzsth fooj.k ekU; gksxkA 3. All question are compulsory and carry equal marks. 3. lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gS a rFkk lcds cjkcj vad gS aA 4. The paper carries negative marking 0.5 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. 4. iz'u i= es a udkjkRed vadu gksxkA gj xyr mÙkj ds fy, 0-25 vad dkVk tk,xkA 5. You will be supplied the Answer-Sheet separately by the Invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll Number, Test ID and name of the examination on the Answer- Sheet carefully. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place before you actually start answering the questions. These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark. 5. fujh{kd }kjk vkidks mÙkj&if=dk vyx ls nh tk,xhA mÙkj&if=dk es a fu;ekoyh ds vuq lkj /;kuiwoZd viuk uke] jksy uEcj] VsLV vkbZMh vkSj ijh{kk dk uke vo’; fy[ksa A iz'uksa ds mÙkj okLro es a 'kq : djus ls igys mÙkj&if=dk ij fu/kkZ fjr LFkku ij vki viuk gLrk{kj Hkh vo'; djs aA mi;q Z Dr vuq ns’kksa dk iwjh rjg vuq ikyu fd;k tk,] vU;Fkk vkidh mÙkj&if=dk dks tkapk ugha tk,xk vkSj *'kwU;* vad fn;k tk,xkA 6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding ovals on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant question number by Black/Blue Ball Point Pen only. Answer which are not shown by Black/Blue Ball-point Pen will not be awarded any mark. 6. mÙkj&if=dk esa lHkh mÙkj iz 'u la[;k ds lkeus fn;s x;s lEcfU/kr v.Mkdkj [kkuksa dks dsoy dkys@uhys ckWy isu ls iwjh rjg dkyk djds fn[kk,aA tks v.Mkdkj [kkus dkys@uhys ckWy&ikWbaV isu ls ugha Hkjs tk,axs] muds fy, dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA 7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incomplete or different from the information given in the application form, such candidate will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark. 7. vks -,e-vkj- mÙkj&if=dk es a Hkjh xbZ dwV lwpuk dks ,d e'khu i<+sxhA ;fn lwpuk viw.kZ gS vFkok vkosnu izi= es a nh xbZ lwpuk ls fHkUu gS] rks ,sls vH;FkhZ dks *'kwU;* vad fn;k tk,xkA 8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination-Hall. 8. ijh{kk&Hkou NksM+us ls igys ijh{kkFkhZ dks mÙkj&iq fLrdk fujh{kd ds gokys dj nsuh pkfg,A 9. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render a candidate liable to such action/ penalty as may be deemed fit. 9. 10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not spend too much time on any question. 10. iz'uksa ds mÙkj ftruh tYnh gks lds rFkk /;kuiwoZ d nsa A dqN iz'u vklku rFkk dqN dfBu gSaA fdlh ,d iz'u ij cgq r vf/kd le; u yxk,aA 11. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. 11. 12. “Mobile phones and wireless communication devices are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.” 12. TEST ID 001

Transcript of MOCK TEST SSC LDC 01 Maximum Marks: 200 - Career … · MOCK TEST SSC LDC – 01 ... 4. The paper...

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    MOCK TEST SSC LDC 01

    Time Allowed: 120 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200

    Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

    INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE

    INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

    1. This Booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following four parts:

    1. bl iqfLrdk esa dqy 200 iz'u gSa] ftues fuEufyf[kr Hkkx 'kkfey gSa

    Part A : General Intelligence & Reasoning

    (50 Questions) Hkkx&d % lkekU; cqf)ekk ,oa rdZ'kfDr 50 iz'u

    Part B : General Awareness (50 Questions) Hkkx&[k % lkekU; tkudkjh 50 iz'u

    Part C : Quantitative Aptitude (50 Questions) Hkkx&x % ifjek.kkRed vfHk#fp 50 iz'u

    Part D : English Comprehension (50 Questions) Hkkx&?k % vaxzsth ifjKku 50 iz'u

    2. In questions set bilingually in English and Hindi, in case of discrepancy, the English version will prevail.

    2. vaxzsth vkSj fgUnh Hkk"kk esa rS;kj fd, x, f}Hkk"kh iz'uksa esa dksbZ folaxfr

    gksus dh fLFkfr esa vaxzsth fooj.k ekU; gksxkA

    3. All question are compulsory and carry equal marks. 3. lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gSa rFkk lcds cjkcj vad gSaA

    4. The paper carries negative marking 0.5 marks will be deducted

    for each wrong answer.

    4. iz'u i= esa udkjkRed vadu gksxkA gj xyr mkj ds fy, 0-25 vad

    dkVk tk,xkA 5. You will be supplied the Answer-Sheet separately by the

    Invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll

    Number, Test ID and name of the examination on the Answer-

    Sheet carefully. You must also put your signature on the

    Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place before you actually start

    answering the questions. These instructions must be fully

    complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be

    evaluated and you will be awarded ZERO mark.

    5. fujh{kd }kjk vkidks mkj&if=dk vyx ls nh tk,xhA mkj&if=dk esa

    fu;ekoyh ds vuqlkj /;kuiwoZd viuk uke] jksy uEcj] VsLV vkbZMh vkSj

    ijh{kk dk uke vo; fy[ksaA iz'uksa ds mkj okLro esa 'kq: djus ls igys

    mkj&if=dk ij fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij vki viuk gLrk{kj Hkh vo'; djsaaA

    mi;qZDr vuqnskksa dk iwjh rjg vuqikyu fd;k tk,] vU;Fkk vkidh

    mkj&if=dk dks tkapk ugha tk,xk vkSj *'kwU;* vad fn;k tk,xkA

    6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the

    corresponding ovals on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant

    question number by Black/Blue Ball Point Pen only. Answer

    which are not shown by Black/Blue Ball-point Pen will not be

    awarded any mark.

    6. mkj&if=dk esa lHkh mkj iz'u la[;k ds lkeus fn;s x;s lEcfU/kr

    v.Mkdkj [kkuksa dks dsoy dkys@uhys ckWy isu ls iwjh rjg dkyk djds

    fn[kk,aA tks v.Mkdkj [kkus dkys@uhys ckWy&ikWbaV isu ls ugha Hkjs

    tk,axs] muds fy, dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA

    7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR

    Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incomplete or

    different from the information given in the application form,

    such candidate will be awarded ZERO mark.

    7. vks-,e-vkj- mkj&if=dk esa Hkjh xbZ dwV lwpuk dks ,d e'khu i

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    PART A GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

    Direction (1-10): select the related letters/word/number from the given alternative. 1. 13 : 45 :: 17 : ?

    (A)41 (B)57 (C)31 (D)73

    2. 15 : 35 :: 63 : ? (A)110 (B)143 (C)99 (D)159

    3. 56 : 72 :: 110 : ? (A)132 (B)99 (C)121 (D)110

    4. CAMP : XZNK :: ? : HZOG (A)SALT (B)ALSO (C)SOUR (D)ARMY

    5. HOUSE : WALLS :: WALLS : ? (A)CLAY (B)SAND (C)BRICKS (D)CEMENT

    6. ABCD : MNOP :: CFIL : ? (A)ORUX (B)CRUX (C)ORUY (D)DROY

    7. EFGH: NOPQ: : IJKL : ? (A)PQRS (B)RSTU (C)VWXY (D)WXYZ

    8. RANDOM : ADMNOR :: PROJECT : ? (A)PJORTC (B)PORJCET (C)CEOPRTJ (D)CEJOPRT

    9. 12 : 5 :: 21 : ? (A)10 (B)7

    (C)8 (D)5

    10. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ? (A)216 (B)360 (C)400 (D)720

    Directions (11-20) find the odd word /number/letters from the given alternatives. 11. (A)FGQR (B)GJPS

    (C)HIYZ (D)NOUV

    12. (A)BDFG (B)MNRS (C)GHDP (D)AEIO

    13. (A)B (B)E (C)I (D)M

    14. (A)India (B)Pakistan (C)China (D)Asia

    15. (A)GH (B)EF (C)ED (D)MN

    16. (A)3 & 5 (B)13 & 17 (C)29 & 31 (D)41 & 43

    17. (A)2, 3, 5, 8 (B)4, 5, 7, 10 (C)7, 8, 9, 11 (D)10, 11, 13, 16

    18. (A)FCE (B)JGI

    (C)ROP (D)ZWY 19. (A)1089 (B)529

    (C)961 (D)1681 20. (A)FH (B)JL

    (C)PR (D)UY

    Directions (21-27) select the missing number/letters from the given options. 21. BDF, HJL, NPR, TVX, ?

    (A)VWC (B)ZBD (C)VXZ (D)XZB

    22. 3, 16, 45, 96, 175, 288, ? (A)441 (B)397 (C)387 (D)291

    23. 5, 23, 59, 119, 209, 335, ? (A)311 (B)435 (C)503 (D)610

    24. EV, GT, JQ, ? (A)OP (B)LN (C)NM (D)MN

    25. 6, 15, 35, 77, 143, ? (A)221 (B)187 (C)199 (D)299

    26. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ? (A)333 (B)336 (C)339 (D)341

    27. 5, 13, 25, 41, 61, ? (A)81 (B)83 (C)85 (D)90

    Direction (28-29): According to given information answer the questions: A man started from his place and run towards South and after, running 4 km turn to his right & run 5 km, again he turn to right, run 5 km and again turn right and run 6 km & before finishing , he once again turn right & cover 1 km. 28. How far is he from your starting point?

    (A)1km (B)2 km (C)3 km (D)4 km

    29. In which direction is he going at the end? (A)East (B)West (C)North (D)South

    30. In a certain code language, GAMBLE is coded as HCPFQK. How is PUNTER coded in the same language? (A)QQXWJQ (B)QWQXJX (C)QWQXJV (D)QVQXIU

    31. In a certain language, FLAT is coded as 69. How is LAND coded in same language? (A)77 (B)65 (C)85 (D)53

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    PART A lkekU; cqf)

    (1-10): / / l 1. 13 : 45 :: 17 : ?

    (A)41 (B)57 (C)31 (D)73

    2. 15 : 35 :: 63 : ? (A)110 (B)143 (C)99 (D)159

    3. 56 : 72 :: 110 : ? (A)132 (B)99 (C)121 (D)110

    4. CAMP : XZNK :: ? : HZOG (A)SALT (B)ALSO (C)SOUR (D)ARMY

    5. HOUSE : WALLS :: WALLS : ? (A)CLAY (B)SAND (C)BRICKS (D)CEMENT

    6. ABCD : MNOP :: CFIL : ? (A)ORUX (B)CRUX (C)ORUY (D)DROY

    7. EFGH: NOPQ: : IJKL : ? (A)PQRS (B)RSTU (C)VWXY (D)WXYZ

    8. RANDOM : ADMNOR :: PROJECT : ?

    (A)PJORTC (B)PORJCET (C)CEOPRTJ (D)CEJOPRT

    9. 12 : 5 :: 21 : ? (A)10 (B)7 (C)8 (D)5

    10. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ? (A)216 (B)360 (C)400 (D)720

    (11 to 20) / / l 11. (A)FGQR (B)GJPS

    (C)HIYZ (D)NOUV 12. (A)BDFG (B)MNRS

    (C)GHDP (D)AEIO

    13. (A)B (B)E (C)I (D)M

    14. (A) (B) (C) (D)

    15. (A)GH (B)EF (C)ED (D)MN

    16. (A)3 & 5 (B)13 & 17 (C)29 & 31 (D)41 & 43

    17. (A)2, 3, 5, 8 (B)4, 5, 7, 10 (C)7, 8, 9, 11 (D)10, 11, 13, 16

    18. (A)FCE (B)JGI (C)ROP (D)ZWY

    19. (A)1089 (B)529 (C)961 (D)1681

    20. (A)FH (B)JL (C)PR (D)UY

    (21 to 27) / / l 21. BDF, HJL, NPR, TVX, ?

    (A)VWC (B)ZBD (C)VXZ (D)XZB

    22. 3, 16, 45, 96, 175, 288, ? (A)441 (B)397 (C)387 (D)291

    23. 5, 23, 59, 119, 209, 335, ? (A)311 (B)435 (C)503 (D)610

    24. EV, GT, JQ, ? (A)OP (B)LN (C)NM (D)MN

    25. 6, 15, 35, 77, 143, ? (A)221 (B)187 (C)199 (D)299

    26. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ? (A)333 (B)336 (C)339 (D)341

    27. 5, 13, 25, 41, 61, ? (A)81 (B)83 (C)85 (D)90

    (28-29): : | 4 . 5 . , 5 . | 6 . | 1 | 28. ?

    (A)1 . (B)2 . (C)3 . (D)4 .

    29. ? (A)East (B)West (C)North (D)South

    30. GAMBLE HCPFQK | PUNTER ? (A)QQXWJQ (B)QWQXJX (C)QWQXJV (D)QVQXIU

    31. FLAT 69 | LAND ? (A)77 (B)65 (C)85 (D)53

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    32. What will come in place of question mark in the given

    series? A, B, D, G, K, ? (A)L (B)M (C)O (D)P

    33. A man starts from his home, walks 4 km towards North, takes a left turn and walks for 10 km. He then takes a left turn and walks for 15 km before taking a left turn again and walking for 10 km. The man finally takes a left turn and walks 2 km before stopping. How far and towards which direction the man should walk to reach the home again? (A)6 km toward North (B)14 km towards East (C)12km towards South (D)9 km towards North

    34. In a certain language, CLIMB is written as PYVZO. How is FAKE written in same language? (A)SNVS (B)SMXR (C)SNVR (D)SNXR

    35. In a certain language, WARDEN is coded as VBQEDO. How is HOSTEL in same language? (A)GPRUDK (B)GPRUDM (C)GPRVDM (D)GRPUDM

    Directions (36-37): Based on the information below answer the following question:

    There are six members in a family. X has only one child Z. R is the sister of H. A is the brother of Ms husband. X is the grandfather of H. There are two fathers, three brothers and one mother in the family.

    36. How many males are there in the family? (A)2 (B)3 (C)4 (D)Cant Say

    37. How is H related to M? (A)Son (B)Grand Son (C)Husband (D)Nephew

    Directions (38-39) which of the following word will appear second last in the dictionary order? 38. (A)Kettle (B)Kinster

    (C)Kirpke (D)Ketucce

    39. (A)Great (B)Gamble (C)Grand (D)Gulp

    40. In the following questions, find the missing number from the given responses.

    (A)35 (B)37 (C)45 (D)47

    41. Which number should replace the question mark?

    (A)65 (B)71 (C)25 (D)31

    42. Which number should replace the question mark?

    (A)40 (B)48 (C)30 (D)24

    43. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A? (A)Nephew (B)Brother (C)Sister (D)Cant Say

    44. Directions: In the question two statements are given which are followed by four conclusions (A), (B), (C)and (D). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

    Statements: All Alice are in wonderland. No hat is Alice. Conclusions: I. Some wonderland are hats. II. All wonderland are hats. III. Some wonderland are Alice. IV. No wonderland are Alice.

    (A)only (I) and (II) follows (B)only (I), (II) and (III) follows (C)only (II), (III) and (IV) follows (D)only (III) follows

    45. Directions: In the question two statements are given which are followed by four conclusions (a), (b), (C)and (d). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

    Statements: All bikes are scooters. All cycles are scooters. Conclusions: I. All bikes are cycles. II. Some cycles are bikes. III. No cycle is bike. IV. All scooters are bikes

    (A)only (I) and (III) follows (B)either (I) or (II) follows (C)only (II) and (IV) follows (D)None follows

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    32. ? A, B, D, G, K, ? (A)L (B)M (C)O (D)P

    33. 4 . , 10 . | 15 . 10 .| 2 . | | (A)6 . (B)14 . (C)12. (D) 9 .

    34. , CLIMB PYVZO | FAKE ? (A)SNVS (B)SMXR (C)SNVR (D)SNXR

    35. WARDEN VBQEDO | HOSTLE ? (A)GPRUDK (B)GPRUDM (C)GPRVDM (D)GRPUDM

    (36-37): : : | X Z. R, H | A, M | X, H | | | 36. ?

    (A)2 (B)3 (C)4 (D)Cant Say

    37. H M ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    (38-39): ? 38. (A)Kettle (B)Kinster

    (C)Kirpke (D)Ketucce 39. (A)Great (B)Gamble

    (C)Grand (D)Gulp 40. fuEufyf[kr izu esa fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls yqIr

    la[;k Kkr djsa&

    (A)35 (B)37 (C)45 (D)47

    41. ?

    (A)65 (B)71 (C)25 (D)31

    42. ?

    (A)40 (B)48 (C)30 (D)24

    43. A B , B C C D , D A ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    44. : (a), (b), (C) (D) ? : | | : (I) | (II) |

    (III) | (IV) |

    (A) (I) (II) | (B) (I), (II) (III) | (C) (II), (III) (IV) | (D) (III) |

    45. : (a), (b), (C) (D) ? : | : (I) |

    (II) | (III) | (IV) |

    (A) (I) (III) | (B) (I) (II) | (C) (II) (IV) | (D) |

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    46. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

    (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

    47. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

    (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

    48. Which of the answer figures will complete the pattern in the given question figure? Question Figure:

    Answer Figures:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    49. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened. Question Figure:

    Answer Figures:

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    50. Observe the dots on a dice (one to six dots) in the following figures. How many dots are contained on the face opposite to that containing four dots?

    (A)2 (B)3 (C)5 (D)6

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    46. |

    (A)1 (B)2 (C)3 (D)4

    47. |

    48.

    | :

    :

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    49. , :

    :

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    50. ( :) | ?

    (A)2 (B)3 (C)5 (D)6

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    PART B ARITHMETIC

    51. The average age of boys and girls in a class is 10.5

    yr. that of the boys is 10.6 yr and that of the girls is 10.1 yr. If there are 60 boys in the class, how many girls are there in the class?

    (A)15 (B)20 (C)22 (D)25

    52. x is a whole number. If the only common factors of x and x2 are 1 and x, then x is

    (A)1 (B)a perfect square (C)an odd number (D)a prime number

    53. The radii of the base of a cylinder and a cone are in

    the ratio 3 : 2 and their heights are in the ratio

    2 : 3 .Their volumes are in the ratio of.

    (A) 3 : 2 (B) 3 : 2

    (C) 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 6

    54. (

    )+(

    ) +(

    ) +..(

    )

    (A)n (B)

    (C) (D)

    55. A sum of Rs. 1,000 is borrowed at a certain rate of

    interest. After 4 months, Rs 500 is again borrowed, but this time at a rate of interest that is thrice the original rate. At the end of the year, the total interest on both the amounts is Rs. 100. What is the original rate per annum?

    (A)3.33% (B)5% (C)8% (D)10%

    56. If a person drives at a speed, which is 3/2 of his usual speed. If takes him 4/5 hour less time then the normal time. Find his original times.

    (A)4 (B)5 (C)6 (D)7

    57. A tank can be filled by one tap in 10 min and by another in 30 min. Both the taps are kept open for 5 min and then the first one is shut off. In how many minutes more is the tank completely filled?

    (A)5 (B)7.5 (C)10 (D)12

    58. In the following figure, AB be diameter of a circle whose centre is O. If AOE = 1500 , DAO = 510, then the measure of CBE is :

    (A)1150 (B)1100 (c)1050 (D)1200

    59. In the circular measure, the value of the angle 11015 is

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    60. The rate of simple interest on a sum of money is 6

    percent per annum for the first 3 yr, 8 percent per annum for the next 5 yr and 10 percent per annum for the period beyond 8 yr. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 10 yr is Rs 1,560, what is the sum?

    (A)Rs. 1,500 (B)Rs.3,000 (C)Rs.2000 (D)Data Inadequate

    61. Line AB is 24 m in length and is tangent to the inner one of the two concentric circles at point C. Points A and B lie on the circumference of the outer circle. The distance of the chord from the centre is 5 cm . The radius of the outer circle is

    (A)13m (B)5m (C)7m (D)4m

    62. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and O is the centre of the circle. If COD = 1400 and BAC = 400, then the value of BCD is equal

    (A)700 (B)900 (C)600 (D)800

    63. Divide Rs 1,000 into two parts so that if the two

    parts are invested at 4% and 5% simple interest, the total yearly income may be Rs 46.50.

    (A)Rs 350 at 4% and Rs 650 at 5% (B)Rs 650 at 4% and Rs 350 at 5% (C)Rs 400 at 4% and Rs 600 at 5% (D)Rs 600 at 4% and Rs 400 at 5%

    64. A large cube is formed from the material obtained by melting of three cubes 3cm, 4cm and 5cm respectively. Find the ratio of the total surface area of the smaller cubes to the larger cube?

    (A)2:1 (B)3:2 (C)25:18 (D)27:20

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    PART B ek=kRed vfHk{kerk

    51. 10.5 , 10.6 10.1 | 60 , ? (A)15 (B)20 (C)22 (D)25

    52. x . x x2 1 x , x ? (A)1 (B) (C) (D)

    53. 3 : 2 2 : 3 l ? (A) 3 : 2 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 6

    54. (

    )+(

    )+(

    ) +..(

    )

    (A)n (B)

    (C) (D)

    55. 1000 | 4 500 , | 100 | ? (A)3.33% (B)5% (C)8% (D)10%

    56. 3/2 4/5 | ? (A)4 (B)5 (C)6 (D)7

    57. 10 30 | 5 | ? (A)5 (B)7.5 (C)10 (D)12

    58. AB ' | o l AOE = 1500 , DAO = 510, CBE ?

    (A)1150 (B)1100 (C)1050 (D)1200

    59. 11015 ? (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    60. 3 6 5 8 | 8 10 | 10 1,560 , ? (A)1,500 (B)3,000 (C)2000 (D)

    61. AB 24 . C , | A B | 5 . | ? (A)13 . (B)5 . (C)7 . (D)4 .

    62. ABCD | COD = 1400 BAC = 400 , BCD ? (A)700 (B)900 (C)600 (D)800

    63. 1000 4% 5% 46.50 | (A)350 4% 650 5% (B)650 4% 350 5% (C) 400 4% 600 5% (D) 600 4% 400 5%

    64. 3 ., 4 . 5 . | ? (A)2:1 (B)3:2 (C)25:18 (D)27:20

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    65. The captain of a cricket team of 11 players is 25 year old and wicketkeeper is 3 years older than the captain. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is 1 year less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the whole team?

    (A)21.5yr (B)22yr (C)21yr (D)22.5yr

    66.

    = 2, then x is equal to

    (A)2.4 (B)3.2 (C)4 (D)5

    67. Anand and Bharat can cut 5 kg of wood in 20 min. Bharat and Chandra can cut 5 kg of wood in 40 min. Chandra and Anand cut 5 kg of wood in 30 min. How much time Chandra will take to cut 5 kg wood alone?

    (A)120min (B)48min (C)240min (D)120/7min

    68. A man can row 9/2 km/h in still water but takes twice as long to ro w up a stream as down it. What is the rate of the stream in km/h?

    (A)1.5 (B)2.25 (C)3 (D)Data Insufficient

    69. There are two squares one of whose diagonal is double that of the other. The ratio of area of the bigger one to that of the smaller one is

    (a)3:2 (b)4:1 (c)1:4 (d)2:1

    70. A constable is 114 metres behind a thief. The constable runs 21 metres and the thief run 15 metres in a minute. In the what time will the constable catch the thief?

    (A)19 min (B)18 min (C)17 min (D)16 min

    71. A train from Mumbai to Pune and another from Pune to Mumbai start at the same time, cross one another en route and reach their destinations in 4 h and 1 h, respectively, after crossing. If the first train was travelling at 24 km/h, at what speed was the second train travelling?

    (A)12km/h (B)48km/h (C)60km/h (D)72km/h

    72. In a partnership, A invests 1/6 of the capital for 1/6 of the period. B 1/3 of the capital for 1/3 of the period and C, the rest of the capital for the entire period. What is A's share of the total profit of Rs 2, 300?

    (A)Rs. 100 (B)Rs.300 (C)Rs.400 (D)Rs.1800

    73. A dealer offered a machine for Rs 275; but even if had he charged 10% less, he would have made a 10% profit. What did the machine actually cost him?

    (A)Rs.200 (B)Rs.205 (C)Rs.225 (D)Rs.242.5

    74. The sum of the cubes of three positive numbers is 8,072 and the ratio of the first to the second as also the second of the third is 3 : 2. What is the second number?

    (A)2 (B)4 (C)6 (D)12

    75. A can do a certain work in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. How many days will B and A together take to do the same job?

    (A)80/13 (B)70/13 (C)75/13 (D)60/13

    76. A sum becomes Rs. 2,916 in 2 years at 8% per annum compound interest. The simple interest at 9% per annum for 3 years on the same amount will be

    (A)Rs. 600 (B)Rs. 675 (C)Rs.650 (D)Rs. 625

    77. A group of students volunteered to finish a work in 25 days. 10 of the students did not run up due to illness and the work was finished in 35 days. The original number of students in the group was

    (A)25 (B)30 (C)35 (D)45

    78. The radius of a circle is equal to the length of one side of an equilateral triangle. If the perimeter of the triangle is 3 cm, what is the ratio of the area of the triangle to that of the circle?

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    79. What sum of money will amount to Rs. 520 in 5 years and to Rs. 568 in 7 years at simple interest?

    (A)Rs. 400 (B)Rs. 120 (C)Rs. 510 (D)Rs. 220

    80. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from two points A and B lying on the horizontal through the foot of the tower are respectively 450 and 300. If A and B are on the same side of the tower and AB = 48 metre, then the height of the tower is :

    (A)24 metre (B)24( +1) metre

    (C)24 +1) metre (D)96 +1) metre 81. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a trapezium in which

    AB||DC and AB = 2DC. Then the ratio of the areas of AOB and COD is

    (A)3 :1 (B)2 :1 (C)4 :1 (D)3 :2

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    65. 11 25 | 3 | , , 1 | ? (A)21.5 (B)22 (C)21 (D)22.5

    66.

    = 2, x ?

    (A)2.4 (B)3.2 (C)4 (D)5

    67. 5 . 20 | 5 . 40 | 5 . 30 | 5 . ? (A)120 (B)48 (C)240 (D)120/7

    68. 9/2 ./ | | / ? (A)1.5 (B)2.25 (C)3 (D)

    69. | | | (A)3:2 (B)4:1 (C)1:4 (D)2:1

    70. 114 | 21 15 | ? (A)19 (B)18 (C)17 (D)16

    71. , | : 4 1 | 24 / , ? (A)12 / (B)48/ (C)60 / (D)72/

    72. , A 1/6 1/6 | B 1/3 1/3 | C | 2,300 A ? (A) 100 (B)300 (C)400 (D)1800

    73. 275 | 10%

    10 % | ? (A)200 (B)205 (C)225 (D)242.5

    74. 8,072 3:2 | ? (A)2 (B)4 (C)6 (D)12

    75. A 12 | B 60% A , B A ? (A)80/13 (B)70/13 (C)75/13 (D)60/13

    76. 8% 2 2,916 | 9% 3 ? (A)600 (B)675 (C)650 (D)625

    77. 25 | 10 35 | ? (A)25 (B)30 (C)35 (D)45

    78. | 3 . | ? (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    79. 5 520 7 568 , ? (A)400 (B)120 (C)510 (D)220

    80. A B 450 300 A B AB=48 , ? (A)24 (B)24( +1) (C)24 +1) (D)96 +1)

    81. ABCD AB||DC AB = 2DC | : AOB COD ?

    (A)3 :1 (B)2 :1 (C)4 :1 (D)3 :2

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    82. Each circle of radius 1 cm. touches each other. Then the perimeter of rope in comparing the three circles is:

    (A)2 + 6 (B)3 + 4 (C)2 + 4 (D)3 + 6

    83. A man bought a certain quantity of rice at the rate of Rs. 650 per quintal. 20% of the rice was spoiled. At what rate should he sell the remaining rice to gain 20% on the outlay?

    (A)Rs. 775 (B)Rs. 850 (C)Rs. 890 (D)Rs. 975

    84. If S be surface area and V be the volume of a cuboid of dimensions a, b, c, then 1/V is equal to:

    (A)

    (a+b+c) (B)

    (

    +

    +

    )

    (C)

    (D)2S (a+b+c)

    85. A cylindrical vessel 32 cm high having 18 cm as the radius of the base if filled with sand. This is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, the radius of base is:

    (A)12cm (B)24cm (C)36cm (D)48cm

    86. If

    +

    = 6 , find the value of

    +

    ?

    (A)176 (B)198 (C)184 (D)None of these

    87. If (x3/2 -x.y1/2+ x1/2 y-y3/2) is divided by (x1/2-y1/2) the

    quotient is: (A)x + y (B)x -y (C)x1/2 + y1/2 (D)x2 y2

    88. If 3tan + 4 = 0 where

    , find the value of

    2cot - 5 cos - sin ?

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    89. If cosec - sin = m and sec - cos = n, then (m2n)2/3 + (mn2)2/3 (A)1 (B)-1 (C)0 (D)none of these

    90. If

    =

    , then is equal to

    (A)x -y (B)x + y

    (c)

    (D)

    91. If a solid sphere of radius 10 cm is molded into 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius, then the surface area of each ball is:

    (A)60 cm2 (B)50 cm2 (C) 75 cm2 (D)100 cm2

    92. If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is

    (6+3 ) then the area of the triangle is: (A)4.5m2 (B)5.4 m2 (C)9 m2 (D)81 m2

    93. If x4 +

    = 194, then find the value of x-3+x3.

    (A)168 (B)14

    (C)79 (D)52

    94. If a2 + b2 + 2b + 4a +5 = 0, [(

    )-1]-2 is equal to :

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)9 (D)4

    95. If pth term of an AP is q, and its qth term is p, then what is the common difference?

    (A)-1 (B)0 (C)2 (D)1

    96. If = /2 and sin =

    . Then sin is equal to

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)2/3 (D)3/4 97. If 3(x-1) + 3(x+1) = 30, then what is the value of 3(x+2) +

    3x? (A)30 (B)60 (C)81 (D)90

    98. The ratio of bases of two triangles is x : y and that of their areas is a : b. Then the ratio of their corresponding altitudes will be:

    (A)

    :

    (B)ax : by

    (C)ay : bx (D)

    :

    Directions (98-100): In the following questions, the pie-chart shows the number of students admitted in different faculties of a college. Study the chart and answer the questions.

    99. How many students are more in commerce than in

    law if 1000 students are in science?

    (A)200 (B)2000 (C)500 (D)20

    100. If 1000 students are admitted in science, what is the ratio of students in science and arts?

    (A)6 : 5 (B)7 : 5 (C)7 : 6 (D)5 : 6

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    82. 1 . |

    ? (A)2 + 6 (B)3 + 4 (C)2 + 4 (D)3 + 6

    83. 650 | 20% | 20% | (A)775 (B)850 (C)890 (D)975

    84. a, b, c, S V 1/V ? (A)

    (a+b+c) (B)

    (

    +

    +

    )

    (C)

    (D)2S (a+b+c)

    85. 32 . 18 . | | 24 . ? (A)12. (B)24. (C)36. (D)48.

    86.

    +

    = 6 ,

    +

    ?

    (A)176 (B)198 (C)184 (D)

    87. (x3/2 -x.y1/2+ x1/2 y-y3/2) (x1/2-y1/2) ? (A)x + y (B)x -y (C)x1/2 + y1/2 (D)x2 y2

    88. 3tan + 4 = 0

    , 2cot - 5 cos - sin ?

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    89. cosec - sin = m , sec - cos = n, (m2n)2/3 + (mn2)2/3 (A)1 (B)-1

    (C)0 (D) 90.

    =

    , ?

    (A)x -y (B)x + y (c)

    (D)

    91. 10 .| 8 , ? (A)60 cm2 (B)50 cm2 (C) 75 cm2 (D)100 cm2

    92. (6+3 ) : (A)4.5m2 (B)5.4 m2 (C)9 m2 (D)81 m2

    93. x4 +

    = 194, x-3+x3 ? (A)168 (B)14

    (C)79 (D)52

    94. + b2 + 2b + 4a +5 = 0, [(

    )-1]-2 ? (A)

    (B)

    (C)9 (D)4

    95. (AP ) p q , ? (A)-1 (B)0 (C)2 (D)1

    96. = /2 sin = , sin =?

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)2/3 (D)

    97. 3(x-1) + 3(x+1) = 30 , 3(x+2) + 3x ? (A)30 (B)60 (C)81 (D)90

    98. x:y a:b | ? (A)

    :

    (B)ax : by

    (C)ay : bx (D)

    :

    (98-100): , | |

    99. 1000

    , | (A)200 (B)2000 (C)500 (D)20

    100. 1000 , ? (A)6 : 5 (B)7 : 5 (C)7 : 6 (D)5 : 6

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    PART C

    GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

    101. Which of the following are incorrectly paired? (A)Sri Krishna Devaraya Amuktamalyada (B)Harshavardhana Nagananda (C)Kalidasa Ritusamhara (D)Visakhadatta Kiratarjuniyam

    102. Who was the first muslim president of the Indian national congress? (A)Muhammad Ali Jinnah (B)Badruddin Tyabji (C)Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (D)Abul Kalam Azad

    103. In which year, Gandhiji established Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat (A)1916 (B)1917 (C)1918 (D)1929

    104. Most of the chola temples were dedicated to (A)Vishnu (B)Shiva (C)Brahma (D)Durga

    105. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called _____ (A)Bali (B)Vidatha (C)Varman (D)Kara

    106. Operation Flood is associated with ____ (A)Milk production(B)Wheat production (C)Flood Control (D)Water Hasvesting

    107. Which of the following is not the source of the revenue of central Government? (A)Income tax (B)Corporate tax (C)Agricultural Income tax (D)Excise duty

    108. A fall in demand or rise in supply of a commodity ___ (A)Increases the price of that commodity (B)Decreases the price of that commodity (C)Neutralizes the changes in the price (D)Determines the price elasticity

    109. No confidence Motion against the union council of ministers can be initiated _____ (A)In rajya sabha only (B)In lok sabha only (C)Both in lok sabha and rajya sabha (D)Speaker

    110. Which one of the following is not the result of underground water action? (A)Stalactites (B)Stalagmites (C)Sinkholes (D)Fiords

    111. The coastal part of water bodies of the oceans which is structurally part of the mainland of the continents is called ____ (A)Isthmus (B)Oceanic ridge (C)Continental Shelf (D)Continental Slope

    112. Which one of the following has the highest value of specific heat? (A)Glass (B)Copper (C)Lead (D)Water

    113. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is _____ (A)Sonar (B)Radar

    (C)Laser (D)Maser 114. Seaweeds are important source of _____

    (A)Fluorine (B)Chlorine (C)Bromine (D)Iodine

    115. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (A)Tetanus BCG (B)Tuberculosis ATS (C)Malaria Chloroquin (D)Scurvy Thiamin

    116. Tear gas used by the police to disperse the mob contains_____ (A)Carbon dioxide (B)Chlorine (C)Ammonia (D)Hydrogen Sulphide

    117. Subroto Cup is associated with which games/ sports? (A)Hockey (B)Foot ball (C)Tennis (D)Badminton

    118. What does the open market operation of the RBI mean? (A)Buying and selling shares (B)Auctioning of foreign exchange (C)Trading in securities (D)Transactions in gold

    119. Who is known as the Lady with the Lamp? (A)Sarojini Naidu (B)Joan of Arc (C)Mother Teresa (D)Florence Nightingale

    120. The government of which state has instituted the Tansen Samman ? (A)Uttar Pradesh (B)Madhya Pradesh (C)Gujarat (D)Maharashtra

    121. In which state the folk painting Madhubani is popular? (A)West Bengal (B)Orissa (C)Bihar (D)Assam

    122. A substance that stimulates the production of antibodies when introduces into a living organism is known as _____ (A)Carcinogen (B)androgen (C)antigen (D)Oestrogen

    123. Electron microscope was given by ______ (A)Knoll and Ruska (B)Robert Koch (C)Leeuwenhock (D)C.P. Swanson

    124. Convectional rainfall occurs in _____ (A)Equatorial region (B)Temperate region (C)Tropical region (D)Polar region

    125. Darwin finches refer to a group of ____ (A)Fishes (B)Lizards (C)Birds (D)Amphibians

    126. Where has the worlds largest monolithic statue of Buddha been installed? (A)Bamiyan (B)Hyderabad (C)Kandy (D)Lhasa

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    PART-C lkekU; tkudkjh

    101. - ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    102. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    103. ? (A)1916 (B)1917 (C)1918 (D)1929

    104. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    105. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    106. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    107. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) /

    108. ,____ (A) (B) (C) (D)-

    109. _____ | (A) (B) (C) (D)

    110. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    111. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    112. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    113. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    114. __________ | (A) (B) (C) (D)

    115. ? (A) ... (BCG) (B).. ...(ATS) (C) (D)

    116. , ________ | (A) (B) (C) (D)

    117. ? (A) (b) (C) (D)

    118. - (A) (B) (C) (D)

    119. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    120. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    121. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    122. , - (A) (B) (C) (D)

    123. ? (A) (B) (C) (d)..

    124. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    125. (A) (B) (C) (D)

    126. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

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    127. What is the distance between the popping crease and the stumps on a cricket pitch? (A)2 feet (B)3 feet (C)3 feet (D)4 feet

    128. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of ______ (A)Conduction (B)Condensation (C)radiation (D)Insolation

    129. In which year UN General assembly adopt the Universal Declaration of human rights? (A)1945 (B)1948 (C)1952 (D)1955

    130. Who empowered to transfer a judge from one court to another high court? (A)Chief Justice of India (B)President of India (C)Chief justice of high court (D)Governor of that particular state

    131. Devaluation usually causes the internal prices to ____ (A)fall (B)rise (C)remain unchanged (D)None of the above

    132. Which amidst the following taxes collected by the Union is NOT mandated to be assigned to the states? (A)Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by rail-way. Sea or air (B)Taxes on railway fares and freights. (C)Taxes on Consignment of goods (D)Service Tax

    133. Which two countries were involved in a hundred years war? (A)Turkey and Austria (B)England and France (C)Palestine and Isreal (D)Germany and Russia

    134. The secretary general of lok sabha is the chief of its Secretary and is _____ (A)Elected by the Lok sabha (B)Elected by the both houses of the parliament (C)Appointed by the speaker (D)Appointed by the President

    135. To which of the following bills the president must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration? (A)Ordinary bills (B)Money bills (C)Bills passed by both houses of the parliament (D)Bill seeking amendment to constitution

    136. Legal Tender money refers to _____ (A)Cheques (B)Drafts (C)Bill of exchange (D)Currency notes

    137. Sellers market denotes a situation where _____ (A)Commodities are available at competitive rates (B)Demand exceeds Supply (C)Supply exceeds demand (D)Supply and demand are evenly balanced

    138. Where in the Indian constitution Economic Justice has been provided as one of the objectives?

    (A)Preamble and the fundamental rights (B)Preamble and the directive principles (C)Fundamental rights (D)Fundamental rights and the directive principles

    139. Which animal produces, the biggest baby? (A)Camel (B)Lion (C)Elephant (D)Blue Whale

    140. Which amidst the following states has a legislative council? (A)Bihar (B)Orissa (C)West Bengal (D)Punjab

    141. Who is the author of the best seller My Life (A)Nelson Mandela (B)Bill Clinton (C)Hilary Roddham Clinton (D)Margaret Thatcher

    142. Which of the following acts gave representation to the Indians for the first time in Legislation? (A)Indian Councils Act 1909 (B)Indian Councils Act 1919 (C)Government of India Act 1919 (D)Government of India Act 1935

    143. On which day International happiness day celebrated? (A)20th March (B)15th March (C)17th July (D)29th February

    144. Which space Vehicle put man on the moon first time? (A)Apollo (B)Challenger (C)Columbia (D)Explorer

    145. What is the maximum time interval permitted between two sessions of parliament? (A)4 months (B)6 months (C)8 months (D)45 days

    146. The presidential Government operates on the principle of ____ (A)Division of powers between Centre and States (B)Centralization of powers (C)Balance of powers (D)Separation of powers

    147. Which from the following territories does not have a border with Mizoram? (A)Nagaland (B)Myanmar (C)Assam (D)Tripura

    148. A collection of pictures that can be inserted into documents is called _____ (A)Photo Shop (B)Auto Shapes (C)Word Art (D)Clip Art

    149. Which of the following rivers does not originate in Indian Territory? (A)Godavari (B)Jhelam (C)Ravi (D)Ghagra

    150. In nuclear reactor, heavy water is used as ______ (A)Coolant (B)Fuel (C)Moderator (D)Atomic Smasher

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    127.

    ? (A)2 (B)3 (C)3 (D)4

    128. , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    129. ? (A)1945 (B)1948 (C)1952 (D)1955

    130. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    131. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    132. , ? (A) , | (B) (C) (D)

    133. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    134. _______ | (A) (B) (C) (D)

    135. : ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    136. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    137. | (A) (B) (C) (D)

    138. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    139. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    140. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    141. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    142. ? (A) 1909 (B) 1919 (C) 1919 (D) 1935

    143. ? (A)20 (B)15 (C)17 (D)29

    144. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    145. ? (A)4 (B)6 (C)8 (D)45

    146. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    147. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    148. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    149. ? (A) (B) (C) (D)

    150. ? (A) (B)

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    (C) (D)

    PART D GENERAL ENGLISH

    Direction : In Question nos. 151 to 155, some part of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval [] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B), (C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D)in the Answer Sheet. 151. As I reached the hospital (A)/ I had found a

    great rush of visitors (B)/ whose relatives had been admitted there for one or the other ailment. (C)/ No error (D)

    152. One should study the history (A)/ of his country because it alone can satisfy (B)/ ones natural curiosity to know what happened in the past. (C)/No error (D)

    153. It is interesting to note (A)/ that the greatest lines in poetry are simple (B)/ and yet there is with them some quality which makes them outstandingly great. (C)/No error (D)

    154. In order to make human life happy, (A)/ man should live as far as possible (B)/ in perfect harmony with nature. (C)/ No error (D)

    155. You have heard (A)/ of Socrates, I suppose, (B)/ Undoubtedly he was one of the greatest man of the world. (C)/ No error (D)

    Directions : In Question nos. 156 to 160, sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet. 156. Owing to the choking atmosphere of city life,

    public parks and gardens have become .......... necessity of a modern city.

    (A)recurring (B)delectable (C)praiseworthy (D)indispensable 157. Human beings are ........... drawn towards

    the unknown and the unfamiliar. (A)proactively (B)vehemently (C)meticulously (D)instinctively 158. We daily hear ............. tales of murder and

    robbery in running trains. (A)gruesome (B)profound (C)dangerous (D)preposterous 159. Jagdish has a habit of bullying with ..........,

    smaller and weaker boys in the class. (A)comfort (B)disbelief (C)fortification (D)impunity 160. A sound body is the most ............. treasure

    a man can cherish. (A)alarming (B)durable

    (C)splendid (D)engineered

    Direction: In Question nos. 161 to 165, a sentence/ a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the

    sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

    161. What we have done is from humanity point of view.

    (A)had done being

    (B)have been doing was

    (C)have done were

    (D)No improvement

    162. Despite considerable achievements in other areas, humans still cant control weather and probably never be able to do so.

    (A)probably not be able

    (B)perhaps be never have ability

    (C)probably will never be able (D)No improvement

    163. The newly-wed couple was shocked when it was observed that many people who had been invited missing.

    (A)were invited

    (B)had been invited were

    (C)had invited were

    (D)No improvement

    164. Though people should be the right to protest, it should not be by upsetting the livelihood of others.

    (A)would be righteous in protesting

    (B)should have the right to protest

    (C)would be right in protest

    (D)No improvement

    165. They have made a futile attempt of suppressing the truth and suggest falsehood.

    (A)for suggestion of falsehood

    (B)before suggesting falsity

    (C)and suggesting falsehood

    (D)No improvement

    Directions : In Question nos. 166 to 169 out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

    166. Obsolete

    (A)Transparent (B)Irregular

    (C)Outmoded (D)Strange

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    167. Baleful

    (A)Uncovered (B)Ruinous (C)Gentle (D)Trial

    168. Hoodwink

    (A)Bamboozle (B)Anticipate

    (C)Desperate (D)Humble

    169. Nimble

    (A)Clumsy (B)Honest

    (C)Needless (D)Agile

    Directions : In question nos. 170 to 172, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

    170. Base

    (A)exalted (B)helpful

    (C)unmarked (D)harsh

    171. Fidelity

    (A)perfidy (B)loyalty

    (C)amnesty (D)freshness

    172. Indignation

    (A)animosity (B)insolence

    (C)forbearance (D)alertness

    Directions : In question nos. 173 to 175, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

    173. (A) Reprimond (B) Resplendant

    (C) Repositary (D) Requisite

    174. (A) Necter (B) Necassary

    (C) Puntuation (D) Pungent

    175. (A) Irrelavance (B) Maintenence

    (C) Exuberance (D) Acquaintence

    Directions : In Question nos. 176 to 180, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet.

    176. A state of being married to only one person at a particular time

    (A) polygamy (B) monogamy

    (C) polyandry (D) patrimony

    177. The study of physical life or living matter

    (A) physiology (B) biology

    (C) zoology (D) psychology

    178. A book of names and addresses

    (A) diary (B) manual

    (C) directory (D) catalogue

    179. An associate in crime

    (A) criminal (B) friend

    (C) accomplice (D) accompaniment

    180. 180. An inscription on a tomb

    (A) espionage (B) epilogue

    (C) epitaph (D) elegy

    Direction : In Question nos. 181 to 185, four alternative are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

    181. I think it is a square deal.

    (A) a fair bargain

    (B) a decent sale

    (C) an unfair sale

    (D) an unfair bargain

    182. Rohit will have to mend his ways if he wants to keep his job.

    (A) modify his plans

    (B) imporve his work

    (C) improve his habits

    (D) plan his future

    183. His winning the Man of the Match award is a feather in his cap.

    (A) a feather added to his collection

    (B) an achievement of which he can be proud

    (C) an exciting event (D) a prize no one else has won

    184. Ever since the Sinhas moved to their new flat, they've tended to put on airs.

    (A) play a lot of music

    (B) use the fan a great deal

    (C) behave as if they're better than they really are

    (D) become very argumentative and opinionated

    185. Though he is a close fisted person, he donated liberally to the Earthquake Relief Fund.

    (A) a frugal person

    (B) physically handicapped

    (C) a miserly person

    (D) a poor person

    Direction : In Question nos. 186 to 195, in the following passages some of the words have been left out. Read the passages carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternative and fill in the blanks.

    CLOZE TEST Even before the commencement of the age of metal large human 186 were seen at many places. The development of agriculture has 187 the way for settled life. Agriculture gave rise to many 188 professions and vocations. Society 189 to be organized into various classes. The concept of private property and trade started 190 ground. Out of the 191 to protect life and property and to 192 social life, 193 the idea of public administration. Large human settlements 194 with such administrative machinery generally 195

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    in the valleys of the major rivers and are known as the river valley civilization. 186. (A)potential (B)groups

    (C)habitations (D)nourishment

    187. (A)nurtured (B)developed

    (C)directed (D)paved

    188. (A)allied (B)peculiar

    (C)old (D)durable

    189. (A)flourished (B)came

    (C)involved (D)established

    190. (A)evolving (B)expressing

    (C)founding (D)gaining

    191. (A)claim (B)allusion

    (C)exposure (D)need

    192. (A)adjust (B)regulate

    (C)engulf (D)advocate

    193. (A)questioned (B)demarcated

    (C)enlarged (D)arose

    194. (A)equipped (B)acquainted

    (C)beset (D)invested

    195. (A)polarized (B)cultivated

    (C)developed (D)absorbed

    Direction : In Question nos. 196 to 200, you have a brief passages with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate oval [] in the Answer Sheet.

    PASSAGE

    The story is told of a certain carter whose wagon was stuck in the mud. Finding no means to get over his difficulty he prays to Hercules, the God of strength, to come to his rescue. Answering his prayer Hercules exhorted him to put his own shoulder to the wheel. The carter took the advice. He was soon able to pull the wagon out of the rut.

    There is no doubt that men and women are born to perform certain duties. In the honest and sincere performance of these tasks lies the realization of the meaning of life. The world is a busy beehive. There is no place in it for drones.

    The duties assigned to us by Nature must be performed by us ourselves single-handedly or with the help of others. Those who are weak or cowardly look to others for help. This habit of looking to others for assistance is harmful because it weakens our capacity for work. It makes man too much dependent on others. It takes away all his initiatives from him and kills self-realization. All these are the things which count a lot in achieving success. Without them man is a moral and physical wreck. He commands no respect from fellow men. Apart from this, the habit of depending on others usually leads one to failure and disappointment. One feels bitter. One expects help and if it does not reach him in time

    he feels sad and miserable. Repeated disappointments make man cynical.

    But altogether different destiny awaits him who has learnt the lesson of self-realization. Before his strong determination and his will to conquer all dangers, obstacles and impediments simply disappear. Lives of great men who reached excellence in life stand out as noble examples of what self-realization can achieve. It is customary for most of us to pray to God for divine help in all our undertakings. In doing so, our aim is to propitiate God. But, we should never forget that Gods blessings are reserved only for those who are themselves up and doing. God is always on the side of the willing workers. God will help us if we are prepared to help ourselves. 196. What should be kept in mind when we pray

    to God for divine help ?

    (A)We should pray with all seriousness and sincerity

    (B)We must purify our mind before prayer

    (C)We should surrender our ego and pride to God

    (D)God will help those who help themselves

    197. What are the characteristics of the self-reliant man, as mentioned in the passage.

    (A)He is kind and noble

    (B)He is honest and reactive

    (C)He is purposeful and expressive

    (D)He is determined and strong-willed

    198. The meaning of life is realized when one

    (A)derives satisfaction in the divine company

    (B)controls ones desires and wants

    (C)carries out the assigned tasks with honesty and sincerity

    (D)develops the habit of procrastination

    199. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word exhorted as used in the passage.

    (A)urged (B)helped (C)appreciated (D)denounced

    200. Why, according to the passage, is the habit of looking to others for assistance is bad ?

    (A) it makes us over-cautious and self-indulgent

    (B) it snatches away our initiative and destroys self-reliance

    (C) it makes us unkind and dishonest

    (D) it does not adequately boost our collaborative spirit

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