Mock SNAP Paper

1 Mock SNAP 2011 www.sitm.ac.in

Presents

Mock SNAP TEST 2011 Time: 120 minutes

Please read the following instructions carefully. Do not open the seal until the Invigilator

instructs you to open.

The sequence of the sections differs in each Booklet series. However as mentioned in SNAP Test

2008 Bulletin, the Sections remain the same;

Section No. of Questions No. of Questions Total

Mark 1 each Marks 2 each

General English 40 - 40

Quantitative & Data

Interpretation &

Data Sufficiency

40 - 40

General Awareness:

General Knowledge,

Current Affairs,

Business

40 - 40

Analytical &

Logical Reasoning

- 30 30

Total 120 30 150


General English

Q No. 1-4 In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence or the entire sentence is

underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are

indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the five. Check grammar, usage,

semantics, mechanics, redundancy, punctuation, spelling and style elements.

1. The questionare consisted of 5 questions on vaccum

:

A) The questionare consisted of 5 questions on vaccum.

B) The questionnaire consisted of 5 questions on vacuum.

C) The questionare consisted of 5 questions on vacuum.

D) The questionnaire consisted of 5 questions on vaccum.

2. Rahul misspelled the word- occurance

.

A) Rahul misspelled the word- occurance

B) Rahul misspelled the word- occurrence.

C) Rahul mispelled the word- occurance.

D) Rahul mispelled the word- occurrence.

3. Bill was asked by his mother to prepare meat on barbeque , to which Bill obediently

followed.

A) Bill was asked by his mother to prepare meat on barbeque, to which Bill

obediantly followed.

B) Bill was asked by his mother to prepare meat on barbecue, to which Bill obediantly

followed.

C) Bill was asked by his mother to prepare meat on barbecue, to which Bill obediently

followed.

D) Bill was asked by his mother to prepare meat on barbeque, to which Bill obediently

followed.


Q No. 5-7. Each question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing link,the location

of which is shown parenthetically [(....)]. From the five options available,choose the one that

best fits into the sequence.

5. But not everyone played along. Though the recent financial meltdown has shifted these

numbers a bit,Americans overwhelmingly identify up the economic ladder. In 2004,a full

20% thought they actually were among the richest 1% of income earners,while a further

19% thought they one day would be. When nearly 40% of Americans are identifying with

the richest 1%,it makes it harder to paint the wealthy as others. While we were trying our

damnedest to say "The rich are not like us," much of our target audience was saying

[……….].

A) '’We have always been that way.

B) "Let’s get back to the good old days."

C) "I am,what I think I am."

D) "The rich are us,or soon will be."

6. [……….]. You're more likely to talk to your buddies about your herpes sores than to

share salary figures. In the public sphere,there's the great shame of America: how can such

poverty live amidst such wealth? And the (literally) billion dollar question that no one

wants to go near: do the wealthy have too much and don't know what to do about it? And

for all of us,there's the ever-repressed knowledge that money is a pure abstraction,a

consensual hallucination hiding a profoundly arbitrary system of value -- and don't be the

one to wake us up,because this teetering house of cards will all fall down. For all these

reasons,great and small,our culture is uncomfortable talking honestly about money.

A) Talking about the great social divide would be the last option.

B) Discussing your package can be vulnerable to image.

C) In some ways,money is the last taboo.

D) In spite of an open society,we have some reservations.

4.

A) Bittu attended the millennium party at the Carribean islands.

Bittu attended the millennium party at the Carribean islands.

B) Bittu attended the millennium party at the Caribbean islands.

C) Bittu attended the millenium party at the Carribean islands.

D) Bittu attended the millennium party at the Carribean islands.


7. In honor of Whitefish Bay,I propose a new iron law of economics very different from

the one I learned in graduate school. It goes something like this: When we allow surplus

capital to pile up in the hands of the few,the money will be pumped into a fantasy finance

casino that will ultimately crash the economy. [……….]: When that casino goes bust,we

pay yet again -- in lost jobs and pensions-and in tax dollars to bail out the biggest financial

institutions that crashed the system in the first place.

A) And here's the unfortunate logic.

B) And here's the unfortunate hypothesis.

C) And here’s the unfortunate formula.

D) And here's the unfortunate corollary.


Q No. 8-13

The Battle of Hastings was the first major Norman victory in the Norman conquest of

England in 1066 A.D. On September 28, 1066, William of Normandy, bent on asserting by

arms his right to the English crown, landed unopposed at Pevensey. On hearing the news, the

Saxon King Harold, who had just destroyed the Norwegian Viking army under King Harold

Hardråde at the Battle of Stamford Bridge in Yorkshire, hurried southward, gathering what

forces he could on the way. He took up his position, athwart the road from Hastings to

London, on Senlac Hill some six miles inland from Hastings, with his back to the great forest

of Anderida (the Weald) and in front of him a long glacis-like slope, at the bottom of which

began the opposing slope of Telham Hill. Thetown called Battle in the modern county of East

Sussex was named to commemorate this event. The English army was composed almost

entirely of infantry, and had just been through two forced marches and a battle.

The shire levies, for the most part destitute of body armour and with miscellaneous and even

improvised weapons, were arranged on either flank of Harold’s guards (huscarles), picked

men armed principally with the Danish axe and shield. Before this position Duke William

appeared on the morning of October 14. His host, composednot only of his Norman vassals

but of barons, knights and adventurers from all quarters, was arranged in a centre and two

wings, each corps having its archers and arbiasters in the front line, the rest of the infantry in

the second and the heavy armoured cavalry in the third. Neither the arrows nor the charge of

the second line of footmen, who, unlike the English, wore defensive mail, made any

impression on the English standing in a serried mass behind their interlocked shields. Then

the heavy cavalry came on, led by the duke and his brother Odo, and encouraged by the

example of the minstrel Taillefer, who rode forward, tossing and catching his sword, into the

midst of the English line before he was pulled down and killed. All along the front the

cavalry came to close quarters with the defenders, but the long powerful Danish axes were as

formidable as the halbert and the bill proved to be in battles of later centuries, and they

lopped off the arms of the assailants and cut down their horses.

The fire of the attack died out and the left wing (Bretons) fled in rout. But as the levies broke

out of the line and pursued the Bretons down the hill in a wild, formless mob, William’s

cavalry swung round and destroyed them, and this suggested to the duke to repeat

deliberately what the Bretons had done from fear. Another advance, followed by a feigned

retreat, drew down a second large body of the English from the crest, and these in turn, once


in the open, were ridden over and slaughtered by the men-at-arms. Lastly, these two disasters

having weakened the defenders both materially and morally, William subjected the huscarles,

who had stood fast when the fyrd broke its ranks, to a constant rain of arrows, varied from

time to time by cavalry charges. The huscarles endured the trial for many hours, from noon

till close on nightfall; but at last, when the Norman archers raised their bows so as to pitch the

arrows at a steep angle of descent in the midst of the huscarles, the strain became too great.

While some rushed forward alone or in twos and threes to die in the midst of the enemy, the

remainder stood fast, too closely crowded almost for the wounded to drop.

At last Harold received a mortal wound, supposedly pierced through the eye by an arrow. The

English began to waver, and the knights forced their way in. Only a remnant of the defenders

made its way back to the forest; and William, after resting for a night on the hardly-won

ground, began the work of the Norman Conquest.

Battle Abbey was built at the site of the battle, and a plaque marks the place where Harold

fell.

8. Who was Harold?

A) the king of Norway

B) the king of England

C) the king of Saxony

D) the Duke of Normandy

9. What does the word “athwart” as used in the passage mean?

A) parallel to

B) next to

C) across

D) near

10. Which of the following statements is the only one that can be inferred from the

information given in the passage?

A) The Bretons were on the side of the English.

B) The Battle of Hastings took place near Stamford bridge in Yorkshire.

C) The Danish fought alongside the English in the Battle of Hastings.

D) The Normans had been mediocre in battle prior to the battle of Hastings.


11. Which of the following was not weapon/weapons used during the Battle of Hastings?

A) sword

B) bow and arrow

C) axe

D) halberd

12. Which of the following statement is justified by the passage?

I. The Normans were better prepared for battle than the English during the Battle of Hastings.

II. It is not known for certain how Harold died.

III. The Battle of Hastings lasted for several days.

A) only II

B) only III

C) both I and II

D) both II and III

13. Which of the following best describes the style of the passage?

A) narrative

B) descriptive

C) analytical

D) discursive

14-18 Each question has a jumbled sentence, rearrange the phrases so as to form a

grammatical and meaningful sentence.

14. 1. attempt major change

2. people's performance in ways that

3. the systems must

4. encourage them to

5. measure and reward

A) 35241

B) 35214

C) 41253

D) 34152


15. 1. our difficulty in finding

2. by the fact that

3. thousands of ideologies and philosophies

4. the ultimate meaning is compounded

5. compete for our loyalty.

A) 42135

B) 13524

C) 14235

D) 42315

16. 1. growing twice as fast as

2. and we foresee strong growth

3. our card business has been

4. the card industry

5. in the years to come

A) 45123

B) 31425

C) 54132

D) 21453

17. 1. Pakistan answers

2. much more than

3. as it looks for

4. history's wake - up call

5. just a cease - fire.

A) 24351

B) 15324

C) 12435

D) 14352

18. 1. decisions

2. brand management organisation

3. all the major brand


4. top management through the

5. bubble up to

A) 15432

B) 21543

C) 25134

D) 31542

19-21 Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the

correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of

these' will be the answer.

19. To make clean breast of

A) To gain prominence

B) To praise oneself

C) To confess without of reserve

D) To destroy before it blooms

20. To have an axe to grind

A) A private end to serve

B) To fail to arouse interest

C) To have no result

D) To work for both sides

21. To play second fiddle

A) To be happy, cheerful and healthy

B) To reduce importance of one's senior

C) To support the role and view of another person

D) To do back seat driving


22-26 Kindly fill the blanks to complete the paragraph

The principal advantage in having a clear cut objective of business is that it does not derail;

the enterprise does not stray ...(22)... the direct route that it has set for ...(23)... Enterprises

with well defined objectives can conveniently undertake ...(24)... and follow long range

development policies. Recognition of objectives ...(25)... the temptation to compromise long

range ...(26)... for short term gains and improves coordination in work and consistency in

policy.

22.

A) from

B) on

C) along

D) towards

23.

A) others

B) industry

C) itself

D) government

24.

A) production

B) research

C) audit

D) appraisal


25.

A) invites

B) defers

C) shifts

D) removes

26.

A) objectives

B) loses

C) interests

D) profits

Q 27-29 In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be

substituted for the given word/sentence.

27. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool

A) Imbecility

B) Senility

C) Dotage

D) Superannuation

28. The act of violating the sanctity of the church is

A) Blashphemy

B) Heresy

C) Sacrilege

D) Desecration


29. A style full of words

A) Verbose

B) Pedantic

C) Rhetorical

D) Abundant

Q 30-32 Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make

the sentence meaningfully complete

30. The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.

A) avidly

B) admiringly

C) thoughtfully

D) earnestly

31. The passengers were afraid, but the captain ...... them that there was no danger.

A) promised

B) assured

C) advised

D) counselled

32. The team was well trained and strong, but somehow their ...... was low.

A) feeling

B) moral

C) consciousness

D) morale


Q 33-35 Choose the correct synonym for the given words

33. EMBEZZLE

A) Misappropriate

B) Balance

C) Remunerate

D) Clear

34. AUGUST

A) Common

B) Ridiculous

C) Dignified

D) Petty

35. SHALLOW

A) Artificial

B) Superficial

C) Foolish

D) Worthless

Q 36-38 Choose the correct antonym for the given words

36. QUIESCENT

A) Active

B) Dormant

C) Weak


D) Unconcerned

37. HAPLESS

A) Cheerful

B) Consistent

C) Fortunate

D) Shapely

38. FICKLE

A) Courageous

B) Sincere

C) Steadfast

D) Humble

Q. 39-40 In the questions below the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From

the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in

Passive/Active voice

39. They greet me cheerfully every morning.

A) Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.

B) I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.

C) I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning.

D) Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me.


40. You can play with these kittens quite safely.

A) These kittens can played with quite safely.

B) These kittens can play with you quite safely.

C) These kittens can be played with you quite safely.

D) These kittens can be played with quite safely


Quantitative and Data Interpretation and

Sufficiency Q 1- 4. Answer Based on the Information Provided in Figure

Mr. X is travelling from P to Q by car. He can choose a number of different routes to reach

Q. The various routes are shown in the diagram. The dotted line represents state highways

and the bold line represents national highways. The arrow indicates the direction of travel.

Since Mr.X was travelling without any documents for his car he will be caught by the traffic

police (O), mobile court (□) or vehicle inspector (◊) who are stationed on his path of travel.

Numbers indicated on the various symbols denote the time in hours he was detained by the

respective authorities and numbers indicated on the routes denote the time required (in hours)

to travel. The fine for being caught by mobile court, traffic police and vehicle inspector are

Rs.100, Rs.75 and Rs.50 respectively. When travelling on national highways he incurs a cost

of Rs.100/hour while on the state highways it is Rs.152/hour.

1. If Mr.X is at A currently, via how many different routes it is possible for him to reach

Q from there?

(A) 9 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

2. How much time (in hours), will Mr.X take if he decides to follow the route P - F - H -

D - Q?

(A) 14 (B) 17 (C) 19 (D) 21


3. What will be the total amount Mr.X has to spend if he decides to follow the route P -

E - G - C - D - Q?

(A) 1750 (B) 2025 (C) 2075 (D) 1925

4. If Mr.X has just reached E and the time is 9:00 a.m. the earliest he can reach Q is by

(A)8:00 p.m. same day (B)10:00 p.m. same day

(C)2:00 a.m. next day (D)5:00 a.m. next day

Q. 5- 10 Each problem contains a question and two statements which give certain data. You

have to select the correct answer depending on the sufficiency of the data given in the

statements to answer the question.

5. Who is the uncle of X?

I. X is the son of Y and has a sister Z, who has an uncle P.

II. S is the father of Y, whose brother is K.

(A) Only one among Statement I or statement II alone can answer the question .

(B) The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

(C) Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and

additional data specific to the problem are needed.

(D) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither

statement alone is sufficient.


6. What is Rama's position from the beginning of the queue?

I. Krishna is 13th from the beginning of the same queue.

II. There are six persons between Rama and Krishna.







7. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table, at equidistant chairs not

necessarily in the same order. Who sit opposite to C?

I. A is to the right of D and D is opposite to F.

II. B sits in between A and F and does not sit opposite to C.





(D) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.


8. How many students of a class of strength 100 play neither of the two games, chess

and cricket?

I. 60 students play chess and 40 students play cricket.

II. 80 students play at least one of the given two games.







9. Which building is to the south of building C?

I. Building C is to the east of building B, which is to the north of building D, which

is to the west of building E.

II. Building B is to the north of building D which is to the east of building C which is

to the north-east of building A which is to the east of building E.







10. KSR, a software development company has 8200 employees. What is the average

wage per year of an employee of the company?

I. 3800 employees are executives.

II. The total amount the corporation pays in wages each year is Rs.840,000,000








11. P, Q, R, S and T are in arithmetic progression. Is S > 0?

I. T > 0.

II. P and Q are negative







12. If P, Q and R are digits, is P + Q + R divisible by 8? (A digit is one of the integers 0,

1, 2, 3, --- 9.)

I. The three-digit number PQR is divisible by 8.

II. P × Q × R is divisible by 8.








13. Rama's salary is 25% more than Kiran's salary and Umesh's salary is 20% more than

Kiran's salary. The difference between the salaries of Rama and Umesh is Rs.250.

How much is Kiran's salary? (in Rupees)

(A) 8000 (B) 18000 (C) 10000 (D) 5000

14. A hostel has 28 students. If six students joined, the expenditure would become Rs.28

more than original expenditure and the average expenditure of each student decreases

by Rs.2. What is the original expenditure? (in Rupees)

(A) 448 (B) 438 (C) 458 (D) 468

15. A dishonest trader professes a loss of 10% on the cost price but weights 810 grams

instead of 1 kg. What is the loss or gain percent on the transaction?

(A) 11 1/9 % gain (B) 11 1/9 % loss (C) 9 1/9 % loss (D) 11 3/9 %gain

16. Kavitha and Kalyani sold two articles at same price. Kavitha calculated the profit on

the basis of selling price and Kalyani calculated on the basis of cost price. The profit

percentage for them is the 20% and the difference between profits is Rs.200. Find the

selling price

(A) Rs.4,000 (B) Rs.5,000 (C) Rs.6,000 (D) Rs.7,000

17. The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 3 and expenditures are in ratio of 7 : 3. If each

saves Rs.2,400, then what are their incomes (in rupees) respectively?

(A) 5000, 3000 (B) 8000, 4800 (C) 6000, 3600 (D) 6500, 3900

18. A takes six hours and B takes four hours to read a book. Both started at the same time

to read the book. After how many hours the number of pages to be read by A, is twice

that of B?

(A) 2 hours (B) 1 hour (C) 2 hours 20 minutes (D) 3 hours


19. A is the active partner and B is the sleeping partner in a business. A will take 8 1/3 %

of total profit for maintaining the business and the remaining will be shared in the

ratio of their investments. The investments of A and B are Rs.4000 and Rs.5000

respectively and they got a profit of Rs.1080. What are the respective shares of A and

B? (in Rupees)

(A) 440, 550 (B) 540, 540 (C) 480, 600 (D) 530, 550

20. What is the units digit of 151 151× 323 567 × 187 118 x 319 319 ?

(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 1 (D) 4

21. The investments of P and Q are Rs.5000 and Rs.6000 respectively. P takes Rs.20 as

monthly salary for running the business and the remaining profits is divided, based on

the investments. If P got a total of Rs.640 then how much does Q get in the total

profit.

(A) Rs.460 (B) Rs.480 (C) Rs.520 (D) Rs.500

22. The sum and difference of LCM and HCF of 2 numbers is 638 and 580. The sum of

two numbers is 290. What are the two numbers?

(A) 29, 261 (B) 87, 203 (C) 21, 269 (D) Data inadequate

23. Two alloys A and B contain gold and copper in the ratio of 2 : 3 and 3 : 7. Equal

quantities of alloys A and B are melted to make an alloy C. The ratio of gold and

copper in alloy C is

(A) 5 : 8 (B) 6 : 11 (C) 7 : 13 (D) 9 : 13

24. Eswar typed 5/8th of the total number of pages in the first day and 3/5th of the

remaining pages on the second day. If the number of pages yet to be typed is 36, then

how many pages is the typing work?

(A) 240 (B) 320 (C) 180 (D) 270

25. A can do a work in 30 days and B can do the work in 20 days. Working together, in

how many days they complete the work?

(A) 11 1/2 (B) 12 days (C) 14 days (D) 13 days


26. When two unbiased dice are tossed what is the probability of getting a total which is

a perfect square?

(A) 5/36 (B) 1/6 (C) 7/36 (D) 2/9

27. A shopkeeper sells 20% of his stock at 10% profit and sells the remaining at a loss of

5%. He incurred an overall loss of Rs.400. Find the total worth of the stock. (in Rs)

(A) 25000 (B) 20000 (C) 15000 (D) 22000

28. Two chemicals A and B are mixed in the ratio of 3 : 5 and the cost of the resulting mixture is Rs.37.50 per 10 grams. If A and B are mixed in the ratio 5 : 3, the cost of the mixture would be Rs.30 per 10 grams. Find thecost of A per 10 grams. (1) Rs.30 (2) Rs.50 (3) Rs.20 (4) Rs.40 (5) None of these

29. The area of a rectangle increases by 7 sq.units when its breadth alone is increased by

1 unit. The area increases by 5 sq.units when its length alone is increased by 1 unit.

Find the perimeter of the original rectangle (in units).

(A)17 (B) 36 (C) 18 (D) 24

30. The ratio of the amount with four persons P, Q, R and S was 7:9:5:3. The average

amount with P and Q was Rs 52 more than the average amount with other two. Find

the amount with Q (in Rs)

(A)234 (B)117 (C)91 (D)182

31. P and Q complete a job in 20 days. P and R can complete it in 15 days. Q and R can

complete it in 12 days. Who is/are the fastest worker/s among them.

(A)P (B)Q (C)R (D)Both P and R

32. In a group of N children the youngest child is 6 years old. The ages of the children in

the group are in arithmetic progression with common difference of 2 months. If the

sum of ages of all the children is 200 years, Find N

(A)13 (B)7 (C)19 (D)25


33. In an office of 200 employees, 80 employees are unmarried and 70 employees own a

two wheeler. Of the unmarried, 25% own a two wheeler. Find the probability that an

employee selected at random is neither unmarried not an owner of two wheeler.

(A).25 (B).35 (C).2 (D).3.

34. P, Q, R and S wrote an exam in which the maximum score was 600. P scored 540 in

it. His score was 20% more than Q’s score, which was 10% less than R’s score, which

is 25% more than the score of S. Find the score of S

(A)360 (B)320 (C)450 (D)400

35. Ashok bought two tables for Rs 800. He sold one of them for 16% loss and other at

24% gain. In this transaction, he neither had a loss nor a gain. Find the individual cost

price of the two tables.

(A)480,320 (B)500,200 (C)400,300 (D)360,440

36. A boat has a speed of 12 km/hr in still water. It takes the same time to cover a

distance of 60 km downstream as it takes to cover a distance of 12 km upstream. Find

the speed (in km/hr) of the stream.

(A)10 (B)9 (C)8 (D)6


Q 37-40. Answer the questions based on the following table. The Following table gives the

arrival and departure timings of the two bus A and B from Mumbai to Pune

Station Bus A Bus B

Mumbai D 8:50 10:50 Distance

between

Bombay and

Pune is 300

kms.

(D=departure

A=Arrival)

Dadar A 9:00 11:00

Dadar D 9:02 11:02

Kalyan A 9:50 11:40

Kalyan D 9:55 11:47

Karjat A 10:38 12:38

Karjat D 10:42 12:40

Lonavala A 11:32 13:27

Lonavala D 11:35 13:32

Pune A 12:55 15:10

37. The highest difference between the time taken by the two buses was in the stretch of

(A)Lonavala-Pune (B)Karjat- Lonavala (C)Kalyan-Karjat (D)Dadar-Kalyan

38. The ratio of the total stoppage time of bus A to that of bus B is

(A)2:3 (B)3:2 (C)7:8 (D)4:3

39. The ratio of the average speed of Bus A to that of bus B is

(A)1.1 (B)1.06 (C)0.9 (D)0.95

40. The longest stop at any station is ______________

(A)Bus A at Kalyan (B)Bus A at Karjat (C)Bus B at Lonava (D)None of these


General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business

1. The latitudinal differences in pressure delineate a number of major pressure zones, which correspond with

A. zones of climate B. zones of oceans

C. zones of land D. zones of cyclonic depressions

2. The present Lok Sabha is the

A. 9th Lok Sabha B. 10th Lok Sabha

C. 14th Lok Sabha D. 15th Lok Sabha

3. Mainstream Nationalism in India

A. was characterized by Chauvinism B. aimed at restoration of the Hindu state

C. had national socialism as its ultimate goal D. aimed at emancipation from colonial rule

4. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India?

A. Chemicals other than fertilizers B. Services sector

C. Food processing D. Telecommunication

5. If an economy is equilibrium at the point where plans to save and to invest are equal, then government expenditure must be

A. zero B. equal to government income

C. larger than government income D. Negative

6. Foreign Direct Investment ceilings in the telecom sector have been raised from 49 percent to

A. 74 percent B. 51 percent

C. 90 percent D. 100 percent


7. Which is known as 'Garden City of India'?

A. Trivandram B. Imphal

C. Simla D. Bangalore

8. Which city is called 'White City' of Rajasthan?

A. Bihar B. Jaipur

C. Udaipur D. Jodhpur

9. On a rainy day, small oil films on water show brilliant colours. This is due to

A. dispersion B. interference

C. diffraction D. polarization

10. Natural radioactivity was discovered by

A. Marie Curie B. Ernest Rutherfor

C. Henry Baquerel D. Enrico Fermi

11. Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?

A. Geet Sethi B. Wilson Jones

C. Michael Ferreira D. Manoj Kothari

12. Which county did Sunil Gavaskar play for?

A. Somerset B. Worcestershire

C. Warwickshire D. Glamorgan


13. India won its first Olympic hockey gold in...?

A. 1928 B. 1932

C. 1936 D. 1948

14. The headquarters of Food and Agriculture Organisation is in

A. Washington B. Paris

C. Madrid D. Rome

15. First Indian to make a speech in Hindi before the UN General Assembly is

A. Moraji Desai B. A.B. Vajpayee

C. Lal Bahadur Shastri D. Lal Krishna Advani

16. Which organ of the United Nations has ceased to be operational?

A. Economic and Social Council B. International Court of Justice

C. Trusteeship Council D. Secretariat

17. What J. B. Dunlop invented?

A. Pneumatic rubber tire B. Automobile wheel rim

C. Rubber boot D. Model airplanes

18. Who invented Bifocal Lens?

A. Alfred B. Nobel B. Thomas Alva Edison

C. Benjamin Franklin D. Rudolf Diesel

19. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

A. Parliament B. Supreme Court

C. High courts D. Election Commission


20. The position of the president which was undermined by the 42nd amendment was sub-sequently somewhat retrieved by the

A. 44th amendment B. 45th amendment

C. 26th amendment D. None of the above

21. The preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in

A. the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purana Swaraj

B. the Nehru report

C. a resolution adopted at the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress

D. the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly

22. The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the

A. chief minister B. chief justice

C. governor D. vice-president

23. The office of the prime minister of India

A. has a constitutional basis B. has a statutory basis

C. has conventional basis D. None of the above

24. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate compound in which central metal is

A. copper B. magnesium

C. iron D. Calcium

25. The two elements that are frequently used for making transistors are

A. boron and aluminium B. silicon and germanium

C. iridium and tungsten D. niobium and columbium


26. Who among the following got the 'Bharat Ratna' award, before becoming the President of India?

A. R. Venkatramanan B. Dr. Zakir Hussain

C. V. V. Giri D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

27. The Nobel peace prize is awarded in which city?

A. Oslo B. Stockholm

C. Brussels D. Geneva

28. The only Indian to win the Nobel prize in physics is

A. Dr. J.C. Bose B. Dr. C. V. Raman

C. Dr. Vickram Sarabhai D. Dr. H. J. Bhabha

29. The first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi's 'Khel Ratna' award is

A. Vishwanathan Anand B. Leander Peas

C. Kapil Dev D. Limba Ram

30. Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?

A. T.N.Kaul B. J.R.D. Tata

C. Khushwant Singh D. Nani Palkhivala

31. The creator of 'Sherlock Holmes' was

A. Arthur Conan Doyle B. Ian Fleming

C. Dr.Watson D. Shakespeare


32. The serial 'India's Rajiv' was produced and directed by

A. Simmi Garewal B. Satyajit Ray

C. Shyam Benegal D. Mira Nair

33. In which year was the 'All India Radio' set up?

A. 1936 B. 1927

C. 1947 D. 1950

34. Rabindranath Tagore's 'Jana Gana Mana' has been adopted as India's National Anthem. How many stanzas of the said song were adopted?

A. Only the first stanza B. The whole song

C. Third and Fourth stanza D. First and Second stanza

35. Kathak is a classical dance of

A. North India B. Tamilnadu

C. Manipur D. Kerala

36. In which of the following festivals are boat races a special feature?

A. Onam B. Rongali Bihu

C. Navratri D. Pongal

37. When is the World Population Day observed?

A. May 31 B. October 4

C. December 10 D. July 11


38. Todar Mal was associated with

A. music B. literature

C. land revenue reforms D. Law

39. Though Ashoka had many sons, the inscriptions mentioned only one who is not mentioned in any other source. He is

A. Kunala B. Tivara

C. Mahendra D. Jalauka

40. What J. B. Dunlop invented?

A. Pneumatic rubber tire B. Automobile wheel rim

C. Rubber boot D. Model airplanes


Analytical and Logical reasoning

1. How many pairs of letters are there in the word "QUESTION" which have as many

letters between them as they have in the English alphabet?

(A)Four (B)Three (C) Five (D) Two

2. In a certain code language, if Violet is called Indigo, Indigo is called Blue, Blue is called

Green, Green is called Yellow, Yellow is called Orange and Orange is called Red, then

what is the colour of Sky in that language?

(A) Blue (B) Red (C) Green (D) Orange

3. In a certain code language, 'Rose is Red' is coded as "bil kil ril", 'Milk is White' is coded

as "ril pil dil", and 'Red White Green' is coded as "mil dil kil" then what is the code for

'Milk is Rose'?

(A) mil ril bil (B) ril kil dil (C) pil ril bil (D) mil kil dil

4. If X + Y means X is the wife of Y; X □ Y means X is the brother of Y; and X ∆Y

means X is the daughter of Y, then which of the following represents that S is the son of

R?

(A) S□U∆R (B) T∆R□S (C) T∆R∆S (D) R+T∆S

5. Four out of the following five are similar in specific manner and hence form a group.

Find the one which does not belong to that group.

(A) 1 (B) 22 (C) 333 (D) 444


Q 6 -10 In these questions given below some statements are followed by two conclusions

I and II. Consider the statements to be true, even if they vary from the commonly known

facts. Depending on whether the given conclusions can be deduces from the statements,

choose the appropriate answer choice

6. .Statements: All pets are animals.

All animals are birds.

Conclusions: I.All birds are pets.

II.Some pets are not birds.

(A) Only I follows. (B) Only II follows.

(C) Either I or II follows. (D) Neither I nor II follow.

7. Statements: Some trees are leaves.

All trees are not flowers.

Conclusions: I. Some flowers are not leaves.

II. Some leaves are not flowers.



8. Statements: All Laptops are i-pods.

Some PC's are Laptops.

Conclusions :I. Some PC's are i-pods

II. Some PC's are not i-pods




9. Statements: No mare is a puppy.

All puppies are horses.

Conclusions: I. All mares are horses.

II. Some horses are not mares.



10. Statements: Some lecturers are teachers.

Some teachers are professors.

Conclusions: I. some lecturers are professors.

II. No lecturers is a professor.



Q11-15 These question are based on the following information.

Certain blood relations are represented by symbols as given below. Read the following

data carefully and answer the questions which are based on the symbolic representation

and the blood relations.

A # B means A is the father of B.

A + B means A is the mother of B.

A - B means A is the sister of B.

A $ B means A is the son of B.

A @ B means A is the daughter of B.

11. If P # Q - R - S $ T, then how is T related to P?

(A) Wife (B) Daughter (C) Son (D) Cannot be determined


12. Which of the following implies that J is the father of M?

(A) J $ K + L - M (B) J @ K - L - M (C) J # K - L - M (D) J @ K - L + M

13. If P # Q + R - S, then how is P related to S?

(A) Grandson (B) Grand mother (C) Grand father (D) Grand daughter

14. L @ N # P then how is P related to M?

(A) Sister-in-law (B) Brother (C) Sister (D) Cannot be determined

15. If A + B - C @ D, then how is A related to D?

(A) Aunt (B) Wife (C) Niece (D) Cannot be determined

Q 16 – 20 Find the missing number in each of the following series and select the correct

alternative from the given choices.

16. 99, 176, ____, 330, 407

(A) 250 (B) 251 (C) 252 (D) None of these

17. 7, 13, 21, ____, 43, 57

(A) 31 (B) 27 (C) 32 (D) 29

18. 15015, 5005, 1001, ____, 13, 1

(A) 303 (B) 91 (C) 101 (D) 143

19. Find the missing number in each of the following series and select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

40, 41, 9, 12, 13, 5, 24, ____, 7, 4, 5, 3

(A) 5 (B) 25 (C) 19 (D) Cannot be determined

20. 22, 44, 88, 176, ____, 1595

(A) 352 (B) 644 (C) 847 (D) None of these


Q. 21- 25 These questions are based on following sequence of symbols, digits and letters.

@ 8 N P % 2 5 $ A * Q 1 α £ C 9 4 T & M 3 R B 7 # S

21. How many digits are there which are immediately followed by a letter but not

immediately preceded by a symbol?

(A) One (B) Two (C) three (D) More than three

22. If the first half of the given sequence is reversed, then which is the 5 element to the

right of the 7 element from the left end?

(A) £ (B) @ (C) N (D) 8

23. What is the next term in the following series based on the positions of the elements in

the above sequence?

P & S , 5 C 2 , * Q 1 , α 5 T, ____

(A) 9PB (B) 9NB (C) 4N7 (D) 9N7

24. What is the 9th element to the left of the 15th element from the right end?

(A) 8 (B) P (C) N (D) 7

25. How many digits are there.

(A)six (B) eight (C) nine (D) seven


Q26 – 30 These questions are based on the information given below.

Titan Industries Limited (Jewellery Division) is looking for suitable candidates for the

posts of Senior Officer (Jewellery), Assistant Manager (Quality) and Trainee Manager.

The candidate

1.should have a Diploma or a Bachelors degree (B.A./B.Sc./B.Com) with at least

70% marks.

2.should have at least four years of experience in jewellery manufacturing.

3.should have a certification in jewellery manufacturing, approved by IDTE.

4.should have excellent communication skills.

Any candidate who satisfies all the above conditions can be selected as Senior Officer

(Jewellery), if a candidate satisfies all the above conditions except

A. condition (1) alone, but is a B.Tech or B.E. with at least 60% marks,

the candidate can be selected as Senior Officer (Jewellery).

B. condition (2) alone, but has at least three years of experience in

quality assurance, then the candidate can be selected as Assistant

Manager (Quality).

C. condition (3) alone, but has at least four years of experience in

supply chain management, then the candidate can be selected as

Trainee Manager.

D. condition (4) alone, but has analytical skills and knowledge of

computers, the candidate can be selected as Trainee Manager.

Based on the above conditions and alternatives, decide the course of action in each of the

following questions and choose the most appropriate answer chocie. Do not assume anything

about unknown information. If data is not sufficient to take any decision, mark your answer

as data inadequate. The bio-data of the following applicant is given as on 30th November

2006.


26. Renju is a B.A. graduate with 75% marks and has excellent communication skills. She

got a certificate approved by IDTE, in Jewellery manufacturing. She has only two years

of experience in Jewellery manufacturing and four years of experience in quality

assurance.

(A)The candidate may be selected as Trainee Manager.

(B) The candidate may be selected as Senior Officer (Jewellery).

(C) The candidate may be selected as Assistant Manager (Quality).

(D) The candidate is to be rejected.

27. Rakesh is a B.Com graduate with excellent communication skills. Although he has 6

years of experience in supply chain management and 6 years of experience in Jewellery

manufacturing, he is unable to attain any certification from IDTE. He got 71% in his

graduation.

(A) The candidate may be selected as Trainee Manager.




28. Rohit is a diploma holder with 82% marks and has excellent communication skills. He

has a certificate approved by IDTE in Jewellery manufacturing. Also he has an

experience of 6 1/2 years in Jewellery manufacturing.





29. Sunil is a B.Com graduate with 90% marks. He has a certificate in Jewellery

manufacturing which was approved by IDTE. He has experience only in Jewellery

manufacturing that too for three years. He has excellent communication skills.






30. Jagadish is a B.Sc graduate with 88% marks. He does not have any certificate approved

by IDTE. He has excellent communication skills. He has 4 years of experience in supply

chain management, 4 years of experience in quality assurance and 3 years of experience

in Jewellery manufacturing.


(B) The candidate may be selected as Senior Officer (Jewellery)

(C) The candidate is to be rejected.

(D) The data is inadequate.

Mock SNAP Paper

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Transcript of Mock SNAP Paper