MOCK EXAM (FOR PRACTICE ONLY) - Carleton University€¦ · b) This is an example of the bottleneck...

NAME: Rebecca Prowse

COURSE: BIOL 1104 AB

MOCK EXAM (FOR PRACTICE ONLY)

It is most beneficial to you to write this mock exam UNDER EXAM CONDITIONS. This means:

• Complete the exam in 3 hour(s). • Work on your own. • Keep your notes and textbook closed. • Attempt every question.

After the time limit, go back over your work with a different colour or on a separate piece of paper and try to do the questions you are unsure of. Record your ideas in the margins to remind yourself of what you were thinking when you take it up at PASS.

The purpose of this mock exam is to give you practice answering questions in a timed setting and to help you to gauge which aspects of the course content you know well and which are in need of further development and review. Use this mock exam as a learning tool in preparing for the actual exam.

Please note:

• Come to the PASS workshop with your mock exam complete. During the workshop you can work with other students to review your work.

• Often, there is not enough time to review the entire exam in the PASS workshop. Decide which questions you most want to review – the Facilitator may ask students to vote on which questions they want to discuss in detail.

• Facilitators do not bring copies of the mock exam to the session. Please print out and complete the exam before you attend.

• Facilitators do not produce or distribute an answer key for mock exams. Facilitators help students to work together to compare and assess the answers they have. If you are not able to attend the PASS workshop, you can work alone or with others in the class.

Good Luck writing the Mock Exam!!

Dates and locations of mock exam take-up: April 21st @ 4:05 – 5:55 PM & April 22nd @ 4:05 – 5:55 PM via BigBlueButton




1. Whales don’t have legs, but have a pelvic bone similar to animals that have

legs. What is this an example of? Choose the best answer

a) Homoplasy

b) Analogy

c) Vestigial structure

d) Homology

2. Which tree is not the same as the others?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4




3. Imagine that there is a group of mice species that includes their common

ancestor and some of its’ descendants. What type of group would this be?

a) A monophyletic group

b) A paraphyletic group

c) A clade

d) A polyphyletic group

4. What is the arrow indicating?

a) A shared ancestral trait of species C

b) A shared derived trait of species C

c) A & B

d) None of the above

5. Sometimes bacteria exchange genetic information by taking up DNA

fragments from their environment. What is this called?

a) Transduction

b) Absorption

c) Transformation

d) Conjugation




6. What was the earliest direct evidence of life?

a) Stromatolites, 3.5 billion years ago

b) The oxygen revolution, 2.7 billion years ago

c) Stromatolites, 2.7 billion years ago

d) The oxygen revolution, 3.5 billion years ago

7. What is true of a photoheterotroph?

a) It derives energy from light and carbon from inorganic compounds

b) It derives energy from light and carbon from organic compounds

c) It derives both energy and carbon from organic compounds

d) It derives energy from inorganic chemicals and carbon from inorganic

compounds

8. Which of the following is not evidence for the endosymbiont theory of the

evolution of mitochondria and plastids?

a) Their inner membranes are similar to plasma membranes of prokaryotes

b) They can self-replicate

c) They have their own nucleus

d) Their ribosomes resemble prokaryotic ribosomes

9. What type of organism causes Malaria?

a) Protists, which are prokaryotes

b) Protists, which are eukaryotes

c) Bacteria, which are prokaryotes

d) Parasites, which are prokaryotes




10. What is mycorrhizae?

a) A commensalism between fungi and plants

b) A mutualistic symbiosis between bacteria and plants

c) A facilitation between bacteria and plants

d) A mutualistic symbiosis between fungi and plants

11. Which is the protist most closely related to land plants?

a) Choanoflagellates

b) Charophytes

c) Porifera

d) Saprobes

12. Imagine there is a species of beetle introduced to a new environment. Those

that are small and those that are large are not caught easily. The medium size

beetles are caught and eaten more frequently. What type of selection would

this be?

a) Directional selection

b) Disruptive selection

c) Stabilizing selection

d) Destabilizing selection

13. Which type of mutation is most likely to be detrimental?

a) Single nucleotide polymorphism

b) Silent mutation

c) Deletion

d) Point mutation




14. Which is not a flaw of the saying “survival of the fittest”?

a) It doesn’t consider the necessity of reproduction

b) Bigger and stronger is not necessarily better

c) The organism who displays novel phenotypes, rather than fitness, is more

likely to survive

d) It suggests all or nothing thinking, that only those reaching a certain

threshold will survive

15. Evolution has both random and non-random components. Please select the answer that best describes this concept.

a) Variation is non-random due to mutations, selection is random

b) Variation is random due to mutations, selection is non-random

c) Variation is non-random due to heritability, selection is random

d) Variation is random due to heritability, selection is non-random

16. Given the following information, what is the allele frequency of Ax?

AXAx N = 53

AyAy N = 12

AxAy N = 39

a) 0.7

b) 0.4

c) 1.4

d) 0.3




17. Imagine that there is a gene that can code for a lethal disease. The B allele is dominant over b, and carries the disease. Over time, what would happen to the frequency of allele b?

a) It would remain stable

b) It would decrease

c) It would experience fixation

d) It would be removed from the population

18. Sickle cell anemia results from having two copies of a deleterious recessive allele. However, having one copy of the recessive allele leads to resistance against Malaria. This means that both alleles stay present in the population. What is this an example of?

a) Frequency dependent selection

b) Frequency independent selection

c) Heterozygote advantage

d) Homozygote advantage

19. What are homeotic genes?

a) They are homologous gene copies formed by duplication within a genome, and they have high macroevolutionary potential

b) They specify which part of the body goes where, and they have high macroevolutionary potential

c) They are homologous gene copies formed by duplication within a genome, and they have low macroevolutionary potential

d) They specify which part of the body goes where, and they have low macroevolutionary potential




20. A small group of foxes became isolated from the larger population. What is true about this scenario?

a) This is an example of the founder effect, where some alleles may be lost due to genetic drift

b) This is an example of the bottleneck effect, where some alleles may be lost due to genetic drift

c) This is an example of the founder effect, where new alleles will enter the population due to gene flow

d) This is an example of the bottleneck effect, where new alleles will enter the population due to gene flow

21. Imagine a group of bunnies. Genotype A/A codes for grey fur, genotype B/B

codes for brown fur. If bunnies are heterozygotes, their fur is multicoloured.

Which statement about this population is true? Choose the best answer.

Critical value = 3.84

a) This population does not differ significantly from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

b) This population differs significantly from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

c) This population does not differ at all from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

d) There is not enough information provided




22. “Species are defined by their structural features”. What species concept does

this describe?

a) Biological species concept

b) Ecological species concept

c) Morphological species concept

d) Phylogenetic species concept

23. Two species of birds have different mating seasons, so they are unable to

reproduce. What is this an example of?

a) Behavioural isolation

b) Temporal isolation

c) Habitat isolation

d) Mechanical isolation

24. Imagine that there are two species of bird that are able to reproduce in their

hybrid zone. Their offspring end up being more fit to the environment than

either of the parental species. What is the likely outcome?

a) Reinforcement

b) Speciation

c) Stability

d) Fusion




25. Imagine there are two species of bird: blue and purple. The females chose their mate based on their colour (i.e. blue females should choose blue males). This is because their hybrid is less viable. Which females would be more likely to choose a mate from the wrong species?

a) Females in an allopatric zone

b) Females in a sympatric zone

c) It wouldn’t make a difference, they will both recognize their own species

d) It wouldn’t make a difference, blue and purple are easy to get mixed up

26. Based on this diagram, when did species B and species D diverge?

a) 2 million years ago

b) 4 million years ago

c) 8 million years ago

d) 10 million years ago




27. Which was not something that plants developed when they moved onto land?

a) Waterproofing, because they are no longer surrounded by water

b) Roots, because they need to access water and nutrients

c) A mechanism to use oxygen, because they are exposed to oxygen now

d) Support to remain upright, because they are experiencing gravity now

28. Which is not a shared derived trait of land plants?

a) Alternation of generations

b) A vascular system

c) Sporophytes produce spores from sporangia

d) Embryo retained in the gametophyte

29. Which is not a key characteristic of chordates?

a) Dorsal, hollow nerve cord

b) Vertebrate

c) Pharyngeal slits

d) Post anal tail

30. Which statement is correct?

a) Protostomes use spiral and determinate cleavage

b) Deuterostomes use radial and indeterminate cleavage

c) Protostomes use radial and determinate cleavage

d) Deuterostomes us spiral and indeterminate cleavage




31. Lactase persistence evolved independently in multiple parts of the world. This

is clear because there are different genetic factors underlying it in different

populations. What is this an example of?

a) Convergent evolution

b) Homologies

c) Analogies

d) A & C

32. Which conclusion was made when investigating the origin of lactase

persistence?

a) It pre-dated cultural factors such as dairying practices

b) It rose to ubiquity due to genetic drift

c) The allele related to lactase persistence was randomly associated with other

alleles on nearby loci

d) There was a positive feedback loop between cultural practices and genetic

variation




33. What statement about this image is most accurate?

a) There are more opportunities for recombination between alleles in

chromosome set 1 because the alleles are closer together

b) It will be just as likely that genotypes aB or Ab are formed between

chromosome set 1 and chromosome set 2

c) There are more opportunities for recombination between alleles in

chromosome set 2 because the alleles are further apart

d) The concept that this image represents allowed us to conclude that lactase

persistence originated from genetic drift

34. Which of the following is not a derived character of primates?

a) Forward looking eyes

b) Well-developed parental care

c) Bipedalism

d) Grasping hands and feet




35. Which pair is most closely related?

a) Tarsiers and gibbons

b) Gorillas and humans

c) Orangutans and humans

d) Lemurs and old world monkeys

36. What is true of Hominins?

a) They are more closely related to chimpanzees than to humans

b) The evolution of Hominins to humans today resembles a ladder

c) Hominins evolved bipedal walking evolved to be energy efficient in

environments with low vegetation

d) Early Hominins had large brains

37. Why are there deserts approximately 30 degrees away from the equator in

either direction?

a) Because those are the points on the earth where the sun hits most directly

b) Because convection cells draw moisture from these regions

c) Because convection cells bring hot air to these regions

d) Because solar radiation is less concentrated in these regions

38. Which factor is not beneficial to primary productivity ?

a) Sufficient precipitation

b) Decomposition by bacteria and fungi

c) Cold temperatures

d) Nutrient availability




39. Which is a consequence of phosphorous runoffs in freshwater ecosystems?

a) Decreased primary productivity in algae

b) Decreased bacterial decomposition

c) Decreased oxygen concentration

d) Decreased nutrient

40. Which is true of a La Niña year?

a) The water is warmer

b) The trade winds are stronger

c) There is reduced upwelling

d) The thermocline is deeper

41. Carbon emissions can increase ocean acidification. Why is this particularly

detrimental?

a) Because animals that use calcium carbonate for their shells cannot form

under such acidic conditions

b) Because the carbonate pump gets impacted

c) Because it can result in a negative feedback loop where the ocean cannot

draw as much carbon from the atmosphere

d) All of the above

42. What is the most common limiting nutrient in lakes and rivers?

a) Nitrogen

b) Phosphorous

c) Carbon

d) Oxygen




43. What part of the nitrogen cycle is exploited by humans for agricultural

purposes?

a) Immobilization

b) Fixation

c) Denitrification

d) Nitrification

44. What is NPP?

a) The overall rate of productivity in a primary producer

b) The rate of productivity in a primary producer contained in live biomass

c) The rate of productivity in a primary producer after accounting for

respiration

d) The amount of carbon in a primary producer’s biomass

45. Which of the following is true of the exponential model of population growth?

a) The population grows until it reaches its carrying capacity

b) Growth rate is constant

c) Growth rate is exponential

d) Population growth is constant

46. What is not true of carrying capacity?

a) It is the maximum population size an environment can support

b) It limits exponential growth

c) r gets smaller once the carrying capacity is reached

d) It varies with the abundance of limiting resources




Questions 3-5 will be regarding this scenario:

Imagine you are trying to estimate the population size of white-tailed deer in southern

Manitoba using the mark-recapture method. In your first sample, you capture 32 deer and

mark them. In your second sample, you capture 27 deer and 13 of them are marked.

47. What would you estimate the population size to be?

a) 15

b) 66

c) 11

48. What would happen to your estimation of population size if there was a lot of

immigration of white-tailed deer into the region between your samples?

a) You would overestimate your population size because the proportion of

marked deer decreased

b) You would overestimate your population size because the proportion of

marked deer increased

c) You would underestimate your population size because the proportion of

marked deer decreased.

d) You would underestimate your population size because the proportion of

marked deer increased




49. Imagine that when you catch the deer on your first sample you give them a

carrot. This makes the deer more likely to approach you again when you take

your second sample. What would this do to your population estimate?

a) You would overestimate the population because your x value would be

skewed to be smaller

b) You would overestimate the population because your x value would be

skewed to be larger

c) You would underestimate the population because your x value would be

skewed to be smaller

d) You would underestimate the population because your x value would be

skewed to be larger

50. What does the following graph suggest to you? (The y-axis is on a log scale)

a) This animal has a higher mortality rate at the start of its life than at the end

b) This animal has a higher mortality rate at the end of its life than at the start

c) This animal likely displays a high level of parental care

d) This animal has a constant mortality rate throughout its life




51. Which of the following factors impacting birth and death rates is density-

independent?

a) Disease

b) Natural disasters

c) Predation

d) Territoriality

52. Under which situation does population decline?

a) When r > 0

b) When r < 0

c) When r = 0

d) The size of r is not related to population growth

53. Imagine that there is a population of 130 otters. In a year, there are 20 deaths

and 40 births. Using the exponential model of population growth, how many

otters would there be in 5 years? (1 year = 1 time).

a) 230

b) 266

c) 130

d) 307




54. Imagine there is a population of 12 mice. In a year, there is 1 death and 4

births. The environment can support only 70 mice. How long will it take to

reach this capacity?

a) 8 years

b) 16 years

c) 25 years

d) 33 years

Answer the following 3 questions with this table:

Community

1

Species 1 Species 2 Species 3 Species 4 Species 5

Ni 23 12 57 25 6

Community

2

Species 1 Species 2 Species 3 Species 4 Species 5

Ni 14 25 27 25 12

55. Which community has a higher H’ value?

a) Community 1

b) Community 2

c) They are the same

d) There is not enough information to calculate the answer




56. What would the Shannon Index be for community 1?

a) – 1.37

b) 1.37

c) – 9.39

d) 9.39

57. Which community has the higher species richness?

a) Community 1

b) Community 2

c) They are the same

d) There is not enough information to calculate the answer

58. One harmless beetle species evolves to have markings that are similar to a

poisonous beetle species to avoid being eaten. What is this an example of?

a) Müllerian mimicry

b) Batesian mimicry

c) Cryptic colouration

d) Mechanical defence




59. What type of species would be represented by this star?

a) Dominant species

b) Foundation species

c) Keystone species

d) Trophic species

60. Barnacles attach themselves to whales because they cannot move on their

own. They do not harm or benefit the whale by doing so. What is this an

example of?

a) Facilitation

b) Mutualistic symbiosis

c) Commensalism

d) Parasitism

MOCK EXAM (FOR PRACTICE ONLY) - Carleton University€¦ · b) This is an example of the bottleneck...

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