MIT104-B0808,B0809-MQP

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Model Question Paper Subject Code: MIT104 Book ID: B0808, B0809 Subject Name: Software Engineering Credits: 4 Marks: 140 Section A (Compulsory) Descriptive Questions (10 Marks each) Answer any four Questions 4 x 10 = 40 Marks Note: For Questions 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 Refer Book ID: B0809 1. A) What are the benefits of prototyping Model? [4 marks] (Refer section 1.4.1 for details) B) What are the characteristics of the software development strategies? [6 marks] (Refer section 1.2 for details) 2. A) Write down the differences between Upper and Lower CASE tools. [6 marks] (Refer section 2.2 for details) B) Write an overview on the Rational Unified Process. [4 marks] (Refer section 2.3.2 for details) 3. A) What are the challenges for software driven approaches to problem solving? [4 marks] (Refer section 6.1 for details) B) Write on problem solving and implications of software engineering. [6 marks] (Refer section 6.4 for details) 4. A) Explain the process of Top-down integration and Bottom-up Integration. [6 marks] (Refer section 9.5 and 9.6, Book ID: B0808 for details) B) What is the importance of ‘Software Validation’, in testing? [4 marks] (Refer section 9.5 and 9.6, Book ID: B0808 for details) 5. What are the team contributions and characteristics for the software development process?

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Transcript of MIT104-B0808,B0809-MQP

Page 1: MIT104-B0808,B0809-MQP

Model Question Paper

Subject Code: MIT104 Book ID: B0808, B0809

Subject Name: Software Engineering

Credits: 4 Marks: 140

Section A (Compulsory)

Descriptive Questions (10 Marks each)

Answer any four Questions 4 x 10 = 40 Marks Note: For Questions 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 Refer Book ID: B0809

1. A) What are the benefits of prototyping Model? [4 marks]

(Refer section 1.4.1 for details)

B) What are the characteristics of the software development strategies? [6 marks]

(Refer section 1.2 for details)

2. A) Write down the differences between Upper and Lower CASE tools. [6 marks]

(Refer section 2.2 for details)

B) Write an overview on the Rational Unified Process. [4 marks]

(Refer section 2.3.2 for details)

3. A) What are the challenges for software driven approaches to problem solving? [4 marks]

(Refer section 6.1 for details)

B) Write on problem solving and implications of software engineering. [6 marks]

(Refer section 6.4 for details)

4. A) Explain the process of Top-down integration and Bottom-up Integration. [6 marks]

(Refer section 9.5 and 9.6, Book ID: B0808 for details)

B) What is the importance of ‘Software Validation’, in testing? [4 marks] (Refer section 9.5 and 9.6, Book ID: B0808 for details)

5. What are the team contributions and characteristics for the software development process?

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(Refer section 8.6 for details)[10 marks]

6. A) What are the effects of lack of communication? [5 marks]

(Refer section 7.4.2.3 for details)

B) What is Round-Trip Problem-Solving Approach? [5 marks]

(Refer section 5.8.1 for details)

Section B

Multiple Choice Questions

Part A (One Mark Questions) 50 x 1 = 50 Marks

1. ___________ is a set of programs that are built by software engineers.

A. Software

B. Hardware

C. Program

D. Application

2. ___________ is a collection of programs written to service other program.

A. System Software

B. Real Time Software

C. Business Software

D. Embedded Software

3. ___________ makes use of non-numerical algorithms to solve complex problems

that are not amenable to computation or straightforward analysis.

A. Personal Computer software

B. Web Based Software

C. Business Software

D. Artificial Intelligence software

4. RAD stands for ___________. A. Random Application Development

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B. Robust Application Development

C. Raw Application Development

D. Rapid Application Development

5. ___________ Model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model.

A. Linear Sequential Development

B. Iterative Development

C. Incremental Development

D. Spiral Development

6. The ___________ model combines elements of the linear sequential model with the

iterative of prototyping.

A. Spiral

B. Incremental

C. Component based

D. Waterfall

7. ____________ is the process of modifying the state space of the system so that the

effects of the fault are minimized.

A. Backward Recovery

B. Forward Recovery

C. Fault Recovery

D. None of the above

8. ____________ is an approach to development, which tries to maximize the reuse of

existing components.

A. Software development with reuse

B. Software development for reuse

C. Generator – based reuse

D. None of the above

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9. ___________ is needed in situations where system failure would cause large

economic losses.

A. Fault Detection

B. Fault avoidance

C. Fault Tolerance

D. None of the above

10. ___________ are used to show how data flows through a sequence of processing

steps.

A. Data Flow Model

B. Semantic Data Models

C. Classification Data Model

D. Process Model

11. ___________ is a list of names used by the systems arranged alphabetically.

A. Data Mart

B. Meta data

C. Data dictionary

D. None of the above

12. In ___________ design, the sub-systems making up the system and their

relationships are identified and documented.

A. Component

B. Architectural

C. Abstract

D. Interface

13. A ___________ design strategy relies on decomposing the system into a set of

interacting functions with a centralized system state shared by these functions.

A. Object-oriented

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B. Class-oriented

C. Function-oriented

D. None of the above

14. A ___________ is an entity that has a state and a defined set of operations, which

operate on that state.

A. Class

B. Message

C. Interface

D. Object

15. Objects are organized into a ___________ structure that shows how one object is

composed of a number of other objects.

A. Aggregation

B. Hierarchy

C. Inheritance

D. None of the above

16. Which of the following is non-technical factor, which affect maintenance?

A. Program age

B. Programming style

C. Program validation

D. Programming language

17. __________ is the process of changing a system after it has been delivered and is

in use.

A. Software refactoring

B. Software reengineering

C. Software maintenance

D. None of the above

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18. ___________ Maintenance involves implementing new functional or non-functional

system requirements.

A. Perfective

B. Corrective

C. Adaptive

D. Preventive

19. White-box testing is also called as ______________.

A. Glass-box testing

B. Grey- box testing

C. Black box testing

D. Behavioral testing

20. Black-box testing is also called as __________.

A. Glass-box testing

B. Grey- box testing

C. White box testing

D. Behavioral testing

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

A. Observability

B. Operability

C. Robustness

D. Simplicity

22. __________ refers to a different set of activities that ensure that the software that

has been built is traceable to customer requirements.

A. Verification

B. Validation

C. Testing

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D. None of the above

23. ___________ refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly

implements a specific function.

A. Verification

B. Validation

C. Testing

D. None of the above

24. __________ testing is particularly relevant to distributed systems based on a

network of processors.

A. Verification

B. Validation

C. Thread

D. Stress

25. ___________ focuses verification effort on the smallest unit of software design the

software component or module.

A. System Testing

B. Functional Testing

C. Unit Testing

D. None of the above

26. In ___________, the software and other system elements are tested as a whole.

A. System Testing

B. Functional Testing

C. Unit Testing

D. None of the above

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27. ___________ is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted

systematically.

A. Maintenance

B. Validation

C. Testing

D. Verification

28. Software engineering process integrates and uses ___________ to execute its

activities and meet its goals.

A. Tools

B. Time

C. Interdisciplinary resources

D. Data

29. Which of the following will address the relevant human needs regardless of the role

of the software in meeting those needs:

A. Data

B. Capabilities

C. Problem definition

D. Tools

30. Software problems are primarily driven by :

A. External software factors

B. Internal hardware factors

C. External hardware factors

D. Internal software factors

31. Software project was understood as:

A. Hobby

B. High end education

C. Product manufacturing

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D. Business school interest

32. If a firm does not respond on time to the new business needs, it results in:

A. Advantageous advances to be exploited by the competitors

B. Serious losses in sales

C. Reduction in margin

D. Employee dissatisfaction

33. Comprehensive conclusions regarding a unified process model derived through a

broad selection and understanding of process models is done in which of the

following assessment:

A. Improvement assessment

B. Taxonomy driven assessment

C. Metric-oriented assessment

D. Software based environment assessment

34. Metric-oriented assessments framed or synthesized processes and provide

standards and _______ for further process enhancement and evaluation.

A. Information

B. Data

C. Metrics

D. Capability

35. Aspects of an issue that have not been revealed is:

A. In-width ignorance

B. In-depth ignorance

C. In-bound ignorance

D. In-breadth ignorance

36. Which of the following is a major source of Ignorance:

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A. Interorganizational ignorance

B. In-depth ignorance

C. Lack of communication

D. Partial knowledge

37. Data too low on quality that is to be considered for processing is:

A. Unused data

B. Untailored data

C. Unprocessed data

D. Vague data

38. What is the prevalent characteristic of software process modeling?

A. Diversity

B. Technology

C. Unity

D. Constant Requirements

39. Differences of Degree or Value is also known as:

A. Diversity of technology

B. Diversity of Relationships

C. Diversity of Inheritance

D. Diversity of communication

40. Economic considerations are more systematically addressed by incorporating

___________ in process models.

A. Technology

B. Risk Management

C. Quality metrics

D. Rapid Development

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41. The process of changing a system after it has been delivered and is in use is called

___________ .

A. software maintenance

B. Software testing

C. Software re-engineering

D. Software refactoring

42. Problem complexity is typically low at the __________ level.

A. Lower

B. Upper

C. Operational

D. Ground

43. Applying ________ allows the problem to be viewed from many alternative angles

so that the solution receives a sufficiently broad analysis.

A. Intended knowledge

B. Intelligent knowledge

C. Extended knowledge

D. Broad knowledge

44. Extranets can be extended to larger geographic or metropolitan areas through

________.

A. Metronets

B. Intranets

C. Widenets

D. Metricnets

45. The project definition serves as a basis for _______.

A. Resources

B. Project Planning

C. Development

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D. Project closure

46. _______ observe that “agile processes do not have separate coding and testing

phases; rather, code written during an iteration must be tested and debugged

during that iteration.

A. Agarwal et al

B. Dagnino

C. Weske

D. Cohn and Ford

47. _______Improves the Design of Software

A. Forward engineering

B. Refactoring

C. Reverse engineering

D. Code restructuring

48. The feasibility of the project is determined at:

A. Project Initiation Level

B. Requirements Gathering Level

C. Project Conception Level

D. Project Initiation Level

49. _______ describes white-box testing as 'testing in the small.'

A. Kiczales et al.

B. Hetzel

C. Weske

D. Cohn

50. Traditionally, people are just considered as ________ by software engineering only

if they were explicitly involved in carrying out software development tasks –

analysis to design for implementation.

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A. Important

B. Resources

C. Objects

D. Unnecessary

Part B (Two marks questions) (25*2 = 50 marks)

51. ____________and __________ are important factors in determining the nature

of a software application.

A. Information content, Business Information

B. Determinacy, Document

C. Business Information, Determinacy

D. Information content, Determinacy

52. Identify the true statements with respect to Real time software.

I. Real time software monitors/analyzes/controls real-world events as they occur is

called real time.

II. Real time software is a collection of programs written to service other programs.

A. Both I and II are True

B. I is True II is False

C. Both I and II are False

D. I is False II is True

53. The incremental model combines elements of the ___________ with the

_________ of prototyping.

A. RAD, Iterative

B. Linear sequential, RAD

C. Spiral , RAD

D. Linear sequential model, Iterative

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54. Software Engineering is the systematic approach to the development, operation,

maintenance and retirement of software. This definition is given by _____.

A. IEEE

B. Boehm

C. Bauer

D. Charles Babbage

55. Identify the true statements with respect to Fault recovery.

I. Forward recovery involves trying to correct the damaged System State.

II. Backward recovery restores the System State to a known ‘correct’ state.

A. Both I and II are True

B. I is True II is False

C. Both I and II are False

D. I is False II is True

56. ________________ involves trying to correct the damaged System State. And

____________ restores the System State to a known ‘correct’ state.

A. Forward recovery, Fault recovery

B. Fault recovery, Backward recovery

C. Fault recovery, Backup recovery

D. Forward recovery, Backward recovery

57. In Data-flow models, ___________ represents data stores and ___________

represents processing steps.

A. Rounded rectangles, Arrows

B. Rectangles , Rounded rectangles

C. Arrows , Rectangle

D. Rectangle , Square

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58. ___________ and ___________ re the types of domain-specific architectural

model.

A. Generic Model, Architecture Model

B. Architecture Model, Structural model

C. Generic Model, Reference Model

D. Reference Model, Architecture Model

59. Inheritance is valuable for ____________ and ______________.

A. Function-oriented modeling, Function-oriented programming

B. Object-oriented modeling, Function-oriented programming

C. Function-oriented modeling, Object-oriented programming

D. Object-oriented modeling, Object-oriented programming

60. When objects are created they inherit the ______ and ______ of their class.

A. State, Attributes

B. Attributes, Operations

C. Operation, Variable

D. Variable, Functions

61. _________ and _______ management are the processes of identifying and

keeping track of different versions and releases of a system.

A. Version, Change

B. Configuration, Change

C. Version, Release

D. Release, Configuration

62. ________ changes are intended to fix faults and ________ changes are

intended to implement new requirements or to improve system maintainability.

A. Adaptive, Perfective

B. Corrective, Perfective

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C. Corrective, Adaptive

D. Perfective, Relative

63. ________ is performed early in the testing process and ______ tends to be

applied during later stages of testing.

A. White-box testing , Glass-box testing

B. White-box testing , Black-box testing

C. Black- box testing , Behavioral testing

D. Behavioral testing , Comparison testing

64. The Pareto principle implies that ______ percent of all errors uncovered during

testing will likely be traceable to _______ percent of all program components.

A. 50 , 50

B. 80 , 20

C. 75 , 25

D. 60 , 40

65. ________ outlines the classes of tests to be conducted and ________ defines

specific test cases that will be used to demonstrate conformity with

requirements.

A. Test plan , Test environment

B. Test environment , Test specification

C. Test environment , Test procedure

D. Test plan , Test procedure

66. Thread testing is a testing strategy, which was devised for testing _________

systems and Thread testing involves identifying and executing each possible

processing _________.

A. Distributed , Thread

B. Real-time , Class

C. Distributed , Class

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D. Real-time , Thread

67. In Top-down Integration modules subordinate to the main control module are

incorporated into the structure in either a ______ or _____ manner.

A. Depth-first , Top-down

B. Breadth-first , Bottom-up

C. Depth-first , Breadth-first

D. Top-down , Bottom-up

68. Bottom-up integration testing, as its name implies, begins ______ and _____

with atomic modules.

A. Construction , Analysis

B. Verification , Construction

C. Testing , Validating

D. Construction , Testing

69. The multidisciplinary aspects of the people factor manifest themselves at what

level?

I: Problem level

II: Solution level

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. None of the above

70. A project termination can be triggered by:

I: Premature termination

II: Incomplete goals

III: Project manager decision

IV: Successful achievement of goals

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A. I and II

B. II and III

C. III and IV

D. I and III

71. People are at the core of problem solving because business problems are

solved by ______ for _______.

A. People, technology

B. People, people

C. Technology, people

D. Technology, technology

72. Partial knowledge refers to ______ and _______ ignorance.

A. In-width, in-depth

B. In-width, in-breadth

C. In-bound, in-depth

D. In-breadth, in-depth

73. Reliability of a source can be determined by examining the _______ and

_______ of the data being provided.

A. Accountability, continuity

B. Credibility, quality

C. Accountability, quality

D. Credibility, continuity

74. When solving a problem, it is not a good idea to give priority to __________ over

_________.

A. Integration, communication

B. Differentiation, diversification

C. Differentiation, integration

D. Integration, differentiation

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75. One can estimate the reliability of a human source by examining characteristics

of subjects such as their:

A. Skills and rapport

B. Communication and rapport

C. Psychology and skills

D. Rapport and psychology

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Answer Keys (Part A & Part B)

Subject Code: MIT104 Book ID: B0808

Part - A

Part - B

Q. No. Ans. Key

Unit no. / Page no.

Q. No. Ans. Key

Unit no. / Page no.

Q. No. Ans. Key

Unit no./

Page no.

1 A 1/01 26 A 9/174,175 51 D 1/03

2 A 1/04 27 C 9/173 52 B 1/04

3 D 1/05 28 C 5/124 53 D 2/17

4 D 2/14 29 C 5/119 54 A 2/09

5 A 2/11 30 D 5/115 55 A 3/43

6 B 2/17 31 D 5/117 56 D 3/43

7 C 3/43 32 B 5/114 57 B 4/55

8 A 3/46 33 B 5/112 58 C 4/77

9 C 3/36 34 C 5/112 59 D 5/84

10 A 4/55 35 D 7/154 60 B 5/83

11 C 4/61 36 C 7/155 61 C 6/110

12 B 4/63 37 D 7/158 62 B 6/112

13 C 5/94 38 A 7/146 63 B 7/139

14 D 5/82 39 C 7/161 64 B 7/133

15 A 5/91 40 B 7/148 65 D 8/152

16 A 6/119 41 A 6/106 66 D 8/159

17 C 6/106 42 C 8/164 67 C 9/177

18 A 6/115 43 C 8/163 68 D 9/177

19 A 7/137 44 A 8/165 69 C 8/167

20 D 7/138 45 B 8/168 70 D 8/170

21 C 7/134,135 46 D 4/92 71 B 8/163

22 B 8/151 47 B 6/125 72 D 8/154

23 A 8/151 48 C 8/169 73 B 8/153

24 D 8/159 49 B 7/149 74 C 8/152

25 C 9/176 50 B 8/163 75 C 8/154