Miller 7th Edition (Question & Answer)

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    Chapter 1 Introductory Topics

    1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in accordance with the low-frequency intelligence to create a modulated signal?

    a. Phaseb. Frequencyc. Timed. Amplitude

    2. Communication systems are most often categorized by what characteristic?a. Modulation frequencyb. Carrier frequencyc. Transmission distanced. Information transmitted

    3. Voltage gain in decibels isa.

    b.

    c.

    d.

    4. Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W referencea. dBm(1)b. dB1c. dBWd. dB(W)

    5. An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75 input resistance. If it is operating at22 C and has a voltage gain of 300, the noise produced at the output of this amplifier wouldbe approximately

    a. 128Vb. 7.33pVc. 1.56Vd. 469V

    6. Which of the following is not an example of external noisea. Fluorescent lightb. Solar emissionc. Resistor noised.

    Lightning7. An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal mixed in with 45 Vrms of

    undesired noise. The load impedance is 50. What is the amplifier's output S/N level in dB?

    a. 22.9 dBb. 54.9 dBc. 45.9 dBd. 51.9 dB

    8. Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth than a 2-kHz sinewave?a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave.b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics, whereas the sinewave has

    only one.

    c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage, whereas the sinewave

    does not.

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    9. The relationship between information and bandwidth is calleda. Information theoryb. Fourier analysisc. FFTd. Hartley's law

    10.Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring whena. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified

    11.Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel resonant circuit?a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a minimum.b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if it were a series.c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current from the constant-

    voltage source.

    12.The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit for swamping out theeffect of the transistor's internal capacitances is the

    a. Hartley designb. Clapp designc. Colpitts designd. Crystal design

    13.The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is due toa. The flywheel effectb. Barkhausen criteriac. The piezoelectric effectd. Frequency synthesis14.The Barkhausen criteria has to do witha. Receiver noiseb. Fourier analysisc. Oscillationd. Troubleshooting

    15.Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan?a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stagesb. Signal tracing and signal injectionc. Voltage and resistance measured.

    Substitutione. All the above

    Chapter 2 Amplitude Modulation: Transmission

    1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is not called thea. Modulating signalb. Information signalc. Modulating waved. Carrier

    2. A 7.0 MHz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three frequency components of100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the lower sideband?

    a. 6.9997 MHz, 6.9998 MHz, and 6.9999 MHzb. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz

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    c. 6.9999 MHz, 7.0000 MHz, and 7.0001 MHzd. 7.0001 MHz, 7.0002 MHz, and 7.0003 MHz

    3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured to be 850 W. What is the totaloutput sideband power if it has a percent modulation of 100%?

    a. 425 Wb. 850 Wc. 283.3 Wd. 141.65 W

    4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20 Hz 2 kHz signal. The upper sideband isa. 102 kHzb. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHzc. 101 kHzd. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz

    5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which percentage of a full sinewave?a. 25%b. 50%c. 100%d. 200%

    6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 Vpp and at minimum is 40 Vpp. The modulationpercentage is

    a. 250%b. 40%c. 25%d. 37.5%

    7. 7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W when modulated with a singlesinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously modulated with another sinewave at 60%

    modulation, calculate the total transmitted power.a. 1084 Wb. 1170 Wc. 1350 Wd. 1224 W

    8. Low-level modulation isa. The most economic approach for low-power transmitters.b. Characterized by the use of "linear" power amplifiers to amplify the AM signal.c. Characterized by having the carrier and the intelligence signals mix at low power

    levels

    d.

    All the above.9. The main advantage of a high-level modulation system compared to a low-level system isthat it

    a. Allows more efficient amplification.b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence signal.c. Provides higher modulation percentage.d. Is more economical.

    10.What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a transmitter?a. a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious frequencies in the output signals.b. b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency.c. c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from drifting off frequency.d. d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.

    11.The purpose of an antenna coupler is to

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    a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the antenna's impedance toprovide maximum power transfer.

    b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas at the same time.c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM output signal.d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier frequency at the same

    time.

    12.The main reason for using a dummy antenna is toa. Prevent damage to output circuits.b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.c. Prevent over modulation.d. Prevent undesired transmissions.

    13.A spectrum analyzer isa. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a CRT.b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is free from any

    spurious signals.

    c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency range.d. All the above.

    14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the following.a. Verify that a problem exists.b. Isolate the defective stage.c. Isolate the defective component.d. Replace the defective component and hot check.e. All the above.

    15.A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and sideband combine to form the AMwaveform is

    a. The tangential method.b. Phasor representation.c. Keying.d. None of the above.

    Chapter 3 Amplitude Modulation: Reception

    1. The main problem with the TRF design isa. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stationsb. Poor demodulation of an AM stationc. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one stationd.

    Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to

    a. Withstand shockb. Receive one station versus anotherc. Receive weak stationsd. All the above

    3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device is an AM waveform consisting of a carrier andits sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing produces the original intelligence because

    a. The intelligence signal is one of its inputs.b. A dc component is also produced.c. The difference between the carrier and its sidebands is the original intelligence

    frequency.

    d. The intelligence frequencies are the upper and the lower sideband frequencies.

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    4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of 940 kHz is to be mixed with a local oscillatoroutput signal in order to produce an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At what should the

    L.O. frequency be set?

    a. 455 kHzb. 1395 kHzc. 910 kHzd. 1850 kHz

    5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to produce a capacitance that varies inverselyproportional to the amount of reverse bias are called

    a. Varactor diodesb. Varicap diodesc. VVC diodesd. All the above

    6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver using a 455-kHz IF and tuned to astation at 680 kHz would be

    a. 1135 kHzb. 225 kHzc. 1590 kHzd. 1815 kHz

    7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem ofa. Image frequencyb. Trackingc. Diagonal clippingd. Poor sensitivity

    8. An auxiliary AGC diodea. Reduces selectivityb. Increases sensitivityc. Decreases sensitivityd. All the above

    9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having AGC?a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning from a weak signal to

    a strong signal.

    b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the speaker.c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as the weather and

    ionosphere change.

    d. All the above10.

    The only roadblock to having a complete receiver manufactured on an integrated circuit isa. Tuned circuits and volume controls

    b. Costc. Phase-locked loopsd. Ceramic filters

    11.The decibel difference between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and itssensitivity is called

    a. The decibel power gain of the receiverb. Automatic gain control (AGC)c. The dynamic range of the receiverd. The IF amplifier gain

    12.The simplest AM detector is thea. Synchronous detectorb. Product detector

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    c. Heterodyne detectord. Diode detector

    13.Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using aa. Trimmer capacitorb. Padder capacitorc. Varicap dioded. a and be. All the above

    14.If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band, the likely problem isa. Low RF gainb. Poor AGC operationc. IF selectivityd. LO tracking

    15.If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem area is thea. Power supplyb. RF sectionc. Audio amplifierd. AGC diode

    Chapter 4 Single-Sideband Communications

    1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50 load results in a PEP rating ofa. 200 Wb. 50 Wc. 100 Wd. 800 W

    2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted powerb. Easy carrier reinsertionc. Elimination of carrier interferenced. a and c

    3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM isa. 35 dBb. 57 dBc. 810 dBd. 1012 dB

    4.

    What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a regular modulator?a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced modulator.b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180 phase shift between the upper and lower

    sidebands.

    c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are suppressed.

    5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is accomplished bya. A dual-gate FET having symmetryb. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic fieldsc. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are usedd. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages

    6. Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to SSB?a. Crystal filterb. Ceramic filter

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    c. Mechanical filterd. Tank circuit

    7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter isa. The shape factorb. The peak-to-valley ratioc. The insertion lossd. The quality factor

    8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase method over the filter method inproducing SSB?

    a. The design of the 90 phase-shift network for the intelligence frequencies is simple.b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically used, because a high-Q filter is

    not necessary.

    c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary, because high-Q filters are notneeded.

    d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other.9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be amplified by

    a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidthb. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energyc. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidthd. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion

    10.The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB do not apply to transmission ofa. Codeb. Musicc. Noised. All the above

    11.Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband" attenuation of a Butterworth filter.a. 3-dB slope per octaveb. 3-dB slope per decadec. 6-dB slope per octaved. 6-dB slope per decade

    12.An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal bya. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the resulting different frequenciesb. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and the internally generated

    carrier signal

    c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband signal frequenciesd. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action

    13.Common types of balanced modulators includea. Ring modulator

    b. Phase modulatorc. Lattice modulatord. All the above

    14.Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB transmitter's balanced modulator if it exhibitscarrier leak through.

    a. Trapezoidal waveb. Sinewavec. FM waved. AM wave

    15.The two-tone test is used toa. Test carrier suppressionb. Test filter ripple

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    c. Test amplifier linearityd. None of the above

    Chapter 5 Frequency Modulation Transmission

    1. Angle modulation includes the following types of modulation:a. FMb. PMc. AMd. All the abovee. a and b

    2. The amount of frequency increase and decrease around the center frequency in an FMsignal is called the

    a. Index of modulationb. Frequency deviationc. Phase deviationd. Bandwidth of the FM signal

    3. The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the intelligence frequency ina. An FM signalb. A PM signalc. Both FM and PM signalsd. Neither FM nor PM signals

    4. An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and a maximum deviation of 10 kHz. Ifits carrier frequency is set at 162.4 MHz, what is its index of modulation?

    a. 10b. 5c. 2d. 20

    5. The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given modulating input voltage level iscalled the

    a. Frequency deviationb. Index of modulationc. Deviation constantd. Deviation ratio

    6. Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum bandwidth ofa. 150 kHzb.

    200 kHzc. 75 kHz

    d. 15 kHz7. Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary

    a. Frequency deviationb. Bandwidthc. Capture ratiod. Modulation index

    8. An FM transmitter has an output power of 500 W when it is not modulated. Whenintelligence is added, its modulation index is 2.0. What is its output power with a

    modulation index of 2.0?

    a. 250 Wb. 500 Wc. 1000 W

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    d. 2000 W9. Another way to describe the modulation index is using the

    a. Deviation ratiob. Deviation constantc. Capture ratiod. Maximum deviation

    10.The inherent ability of FM to minimize the effect of undesired signals operating at the sameor nearly the same frequency as the desired station is known as the

    a. Capture effectb. Signal-to-noise ratioc. Noise figured. Bessel function

    11.In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center frequency of 2.04 MHz and adeviation of 69 Hz is passed through four cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two triplers,

    one doubler, and one quadrupler. What type of signal appears at the output of the last

    multiplier stage?

    a. Center frequency of 2.04 MHz and deviation of 4.96 kHzb. Center frequency of 146.88 MHz and deviation of 4.96 kHzc. Center frequency of 2.04 MHz and deviation of 69 Hzd. Center frequency of 146.88 MHz and deviation of 69 Hz

    12.The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a transmitter up to a specifiedvalue is called the

    a. Multiplierb. Expanderc. Pump chaind. All the above

    13.The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast transmitter is toa. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L R audiob. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L R channelsc. Separate the left channel from the right channeld. Modulate the L + R and L R signals with the carrier signal

    14.An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a maximum deviation of 25 kHz. Itsindex of modulation is

    a. 125b. 0.2c. 5d.

    615.Frequency multipliers

    a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal of an FM signalb. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit that filters out a single

    harmonic

    c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM signald. All the above

    Chapter 6 Frequency Modulation Reception

    1. A difference between AM and FM receiver block diagrams is that the FM version includes aa. Limiterb. Discriminatorc. Deemphasis network

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    d. All the above2. An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without an RF amplifier because

    a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input signal levels due to their noisecharacteristics

    b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth.c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in their IF amplifier stages.d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be able to decode stereo signals.

    3. A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 113 dB prior to its limiter. The limiter'squieting voltage is 400 mV. Its sensitivity is approximately

    a. 2.0 Vb. 1.0 Vc. 0.9 Vd. 0.7 V

    4. The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier stagesa. Offers increased dynamic range over those of JFETsb. Produces higher-frequency responses than do JFETsc. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do JFETsd. Is not compatible with AGC

    5. The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to the ratio detector in that ita. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude variationsb. Also provides an output AGC signalc. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM deviationsd. Does not need a limiter stage

    6. Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation through thea. Receiver's wiringb. IF transformerc. Antennad. All the above

    7. Which is not one of the three stages in which a PLL can be operated?a. Free-runningb. Capturec. Locked/trackingd. Searching

    8. A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9 MHz. The VCO does not change frequencyunless its input is within 75 kHz of 8.9 MHz. After it does lock, the input frequency can be

    adjusted within 120 kHz of 8.9 MHz without having the PLL start to free-run again. The

    capture range of the PLL isa. 75 kHzb. 120 kHzc. 150 kHzd. 240 kHz

    9. Slope detection is seldom used due toa. Nonlinearityb. Attenuationc. Complexityd. All the above

    10.In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of the 2353-kHz filter?a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the discriminatorb. To filter out the L R signal at the output of the discriminatorc. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the discriminator

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    d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L + R and L signals11.A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of channel separation. If the right channel

    has 4 W of output power, how much of this power could be due to the left channel

    intelligence?

    a. 4 Wb. 79 nWc. 1.26 Wd. 2.25 mW

    12.The hold-in range for a PLL concerns thea. Range of frequencies in which it will remain lockedb. Allowable range of dc voltagec. Allowable range of ac input voltaged. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures

    13.The input signal into a PLL is at thea. VCOb. Low-pass filterc. Comparatord. Phase detector

    14.The square-law relationship of the FETs input versus outputa. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiverb. Provides improved noise performancec. Reduces shot noised. Minimizes cross-modulation

    15.When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the input signal should be abouta. 10 Vb. 100 Vc. 1 mVrmsd. 100 mVrms

    Chapter 7 Communication Technique

    1. Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem in FM receivers than they are in SSBor AM receivers?

    a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic.c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.d.

    FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design.2. The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a superheterodyne receiver are called the

    a. Front endb. Tunerc. Preselectord. All the above

    3. The signal-strength meter that shows the relative signal-strength level is called the________.

    a. S meterb. Signal meterc. Strength meterd. All the above

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    4. An AM broadcast receiver has two identical tuned circuits with a Q of 50 prior to the IFstage. The IF frequency is 460 kHz and the receiver is tuned to a station on 550 kHz. The

    image-frequency rejection is

    a. 41 dBb. 36.2 dBc. 72.4 dBd. 82 dB

    5. An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at some arbitrarily high value ofreceived signal in order to prevent overloading the receiver is known as

    a. Arbitrary AGCb. Auxiliary AGCc. Delayed AGC

    6. Up-conversion offers the following advantage(s):a. Less expensive filtersb. Good image-frequency rejectionc. Minimized tuning range for the LOd. b and c

    7. The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a usable output is calledthe

    a. Level of acceptabilityb. Dynamic rangec. Degree of usefulnessd. Specified input

    8. A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 MHz bandwidth, a 6-dBm third intercept point, anda 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity is

    a. 94 dBb. 82.2 dBc. 79.2 dBd. 81 dB

    9. Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of frequencies into the VHF band due toa. Its ability to work at practical power consumptionsb. Its ability to work at practical speedsc. The insufficient speed and power of the basic programmable divider designsd. All the above

    10.The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS) over analog frequency synthesizers isa. Its complexity and costb.

    Its limited maximum output frequencyc. Its higher phase noise

    d. All the above11.The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of

    a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB modulation modesb. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation mode and a channel guard

    function

    c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF frequenciesd. A cellular telephone transceiver

    12.The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched frequency or timetransmissions is known as

    a. Synthesizingb. Facsimilec. Spread spectrum

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    d. Compression13.The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

    a. Carrier-division multiple-access systemsb. Capture-division multiple-access systemsc. Code-division multiple-access systemsd. Channel-division multiple-access systems

    14.A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a frequency synthesizer isa. A small frequency errorb. A large frequency errorc. No outputd. All the above

    15.A transceiver isa. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of frequenciesb. A transmitter that transmits digital datac. A receiver that receives digital datad. A transmitter and receiver in a single package

    Chapter 8 Digital Communication: Coding Technique

    1. The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications over analog includea. Noise performanceb. Regenerationc. Digital signal processingd. All the above

    2. In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage isa. Aperture timeb. Acquisition timec. Flat-top timed. Dmin

    3. Error signals associated with the sampling process are calleda. Foldover distortionb. Aliasingc. Nyquist rated. a and b

    4. Which of the following is not a common RZ code?a. RZ-unipolarb.

    RZ-bipolarc. RZ-M

    d. RZ-AMI5. In an asynchronous data system

    a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to the same clock frequency.b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and followed by a stop bit to frame

    the word.

    c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received data stream.d. All the above.

    6. A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. The minimumsample rate to satisfy the Nyquist criteria is

    a. 20 Hzb. 20 kHzc. 40 Hz

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    d. 40 kHz7. With respect to converter circuits

    a. DACs include an ADCb. ADCs include a DACc. DACs and ADCs are virtually identicald. All the above.

    8. The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the parameters of the transmitted andreceived signal is known as

    a. Phase modulationb. Pulse modulationc. Amplitude modulationd. Frequency modulation

    9. An alphanumeric code for representing the decimal values from 0 to 9 that is based on therelationship that only one bit in a binary word changes for each binary step is known as

    a. ASCIIb. EBCDICc. Baudot coded. Gray code

    10.The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made less significant bya. Compandingb. Using time-division multiplexingc. Using frequency-division multiplexingd. Filtering out the alias frequency

    11.When the message and the BCC are transmitted as separate parts within the sametransmitted code, it is called a(n)

    a. Systematic codeb. CRCc. (n,k) cyclic coded. Interleaved code

    12.The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been shifted in is thea. Quantile intervalb. Codecc. BCCd. Syndrome

    13.Which of the following is not an example of code error detection and correction in a datacommunication channel?

    a.

    Parityb. Frequency-shift keyingc. Block-check characterd. Hamming code

    14.Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the receiver are calleda. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)b. Block-check characters (BCC)c. Forward error correcting (FEC)d. Parity

    15.Codes producing random data that closely resemble digital noise area. Systematic codesb. PN codesc. Pseudonoise codesd. b and c

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    Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission

    1. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits that provide information onnoise, jitter, and linearity is called a(n)

    a. Constellation patternb. Loopbackc. Statistical Concentrationd. Eye pattern

    2. Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic equipment?a. It uses an automatic request for repetition.b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code.c. The parity bit is difficult to detect.d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an extremely complicated process.

    3. A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data rates in limited-bandwidthchannels is called

    a. Delta modulationb. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)

    4. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude-modulation systems with respect toa. Noise performanceb. Bandwidth requirements of the channelc. Ionospheric fading characteristicsd. Power consumption

    5. Which is not a type of pulse modulation?a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM)d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

    6. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems ina. Noise characteristicsb. Bandwidth characteristicsc. Simplicity in designd. Frequency response of the intelligence signal

    7. Half-duplex operation involves communicationa.

    In one direction onlyb. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time

    c. Where both parties can talk at the same timed. All the above

    8. A procedure that decides which device has permission to transmit at a given time is calleda. Line controlb. Protocolc. Flow controld. Sequence control

    9. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an output with logical 0sand 1s determined by comparing the phase of two successive data bits is

    a. CSU/DSUb. TDMc. CVSD

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    d. DPSK10.Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular phenomenon without the

    presence of human monitors is known as

    a. Radio teletypeb. Radio multiplexingc. Radio facsimiled. Radio telemetry

    11.The bit error rate isa. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number of bits transmittedb. The most common method of referring to the quality of a digital communication

    system

    c. Virtually the same as the error probabilityd. All the above

    12.The major difficulty faced by delta modulators isa. Excessive noise producing errorsb. Slope overloadc. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signald. Complexity of design

    13.The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of 2047 if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz isa. 30,000 bits per secondb. 33,000 bits per secondc. 38,500 bits per secondd. 35,000 bits per second

    14.The AT&T T1 linesa. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channelsb. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channelsc. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channelsd. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels

    15.A digital transmission has an error probability of and is long. Its expected number of errorbits is

    a. b. c. d.

    Chapter 10 Network Communications

    1. An interconnection of users that allows communication with one another is known as aa. Modemb. UARTc. Networkd. Protocol

    2. A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from signals that are traveling down longtransmission lines is called a(n)

    a. Delay equalizerb. UARTc. Attenuation distortion filterd. Trunk switcher

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    3. Which of the following is not a way that designers of telephone equipment are adapting tothe increasing use of computers and digital coding in telephone communication links?

    a. The use of shorter transmission linesb. The use of computers in finding unused portions of multiplex systems to maximize

    use

    c. The application of digital switching theory to increase channel capacityd. Sharing of communication links by voice and data signals

    4. The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an example ofa. A cellular telephone systemb. A telephone system that uses frequency reusec. A cell-splitting telephone systemd. All the above

    5. Which is not a major function of a protocol?a. Framingb. Line controlc. Flow controld. Topologye. Sequence control

    6. The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment Corporation, and Intel in 1980 iscalled

    a. IEEE-488b. Ethernetc. OSId. CSMA/CD

    7. A device interconnecting two networks that use different protocols and formats is called aa. Bridgeb. Gatewayc. Routerd. Node

    8. A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have identical protocols at the physicaland data link layers is called a

    a. Bridgeb. Gatewayc. Routerd. Node

    9.

    In telephony, traffic is defined ina. Hundred-call secondsb. Average number of calls in a specific period of timec. Erlangd. All the above

    10.The Internet and the WWW area. The same thingb. Completely differentc. Relatedd. Local area networks

    11.In a telephone system, the grade of service isa. The ratio of calls lost to calls offeredb. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offeredc. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost

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    d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic loste. a and b

    12.The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone systems.a. Frequency reuseb. Cell reusec. Cell splittingd. Handoff

    13.In local area networks, the following topology or topologies are seldom used.a. Starb. Ringc. Busd. a and b

    14.The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax and twisted pair is rarely useda. 10 Base 2b. 10 Base 5c. 10 Base Td. 100 Base FXe. a and b

    15.The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate isa. VDSLb. SDSLc. HDSLd. IDSLe. ADSL

    Chapter 11

    Transmission Lines

    1. The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line isa. Minimized radiation lossesb. Low costc. Low noise pick upd. Low resistive losses

    2. Unshielded twisted-pair cable isa. Seldom used due to noise problemsb. Increasingly used in computer networkingc.

    More costly than coaxial cabled. All the above

    3. The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is calleda. Velocity factorb. Relative dielectric constantc. Velocity of propagationd. Delay time

    4. In a balanced line, the same current flows in each line but isa. 45 out of phaseb. 90 out of phasec. 180 out of phased. 270 out of phase

    5. What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG-8A/U coaxial cable at a frequencyof 144.2 MHz if its velocity factor is 0.69?

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    a. 52.1 cmb. 35.9 cmc. 143.6 cmd. 2.08 m

    6. A nonlossy transmission line that is terminated with a resistive load that is equal to thecharacteristic impedance of the line

    a. Has the same impedance at all points along the lineb. Has a VSWR of 1:1c. Has the same voltage at points along the lined. Has a reflection coefficient at the load equal to zeroe. All the above

    7. A flat line indicatesa. No reflectionb. VSWR = 1c. No physical imperfectionsd. a and b

    8. A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit has ana. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the incident voltageb. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the incident voltagec. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than the incident voltaged. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than the incident

    voltage

    9. A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and attenuation isa. ACRb. CASc. CAAd. AAC10.A 50 transmission line that has a load impedance of 300 has a VSWR ofa. 6:1b. 1:6c. 0.666:1d. 1.5:1

    11.The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a 50 transmission line that isterminated with a short is

    a. 50b. 0 (a short)c.

    Infinite (open)d. 100

    12.A device that is used to match an unbalanced transmission line to a balanced transmissionline is called a

    a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformerb. Balunc. Shorted-stub sectiond. Slotted line

    13.A 50 transmission line with a 300 load impedance has a reflection coefficient ofa. 6b. 0.166c. 0.714d. 1.4

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    14.A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft. and capacitance of 1 nF/ft. The delay introduced by a1ft. section is

    a. Not able to be calculated with the given informationb. c. d.

    15.A transmission line can be used as a(n)a. Inductorb. Capacitorc. Filterd. Matching sectione. All the above

    Chapter 12 Wave Propagation

    1. An antenna can be thought of as a(n)a. Oscillatorb. Capacitorc. Transducerd. Frequency multiplexer

    2. A wave that is characterized by having its direction of propagation perpendicular to itsoscillation is known as

    a. Isotropicb. Transversec. Polarizedd. Refractive

    3.

    Which is not an effect of our environment on wave propagation?a. Radiationb. Reflectionc. Refractiond. Diffraction

    4. A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy equally in all directions is calleda. Transverseb. Isotropic point sourcec. Omnisphered. Shadow zone

    5. The process of waves, which traveling in straight paths, bending around an obstacle isa. Radiationb. Reflectionc. Refractiond. Diffraction

    6. Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio wave from the transmitting toreceiving antenna?

    a. Ground waveb. Shadow wavec. Space waved. Satellite linke. Sky wave

    7. The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F layers of the ionosphere is:a. Ground wave

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    b. Space wavec. Sky waved. Satellite

    8. The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when transmitted vertically under givenionospheric conditions is called the

    a. Critical frequencyb. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)d. Skip zone

    9. The characteristic impedance of free space isa. Not knownb. Infinitec. 50d. 377

    10.The area between the point where the ground wave ends and first sky wave returns is calledthe

    a. Quiet zoneb. Skip zonec. Null Zoned. All the abovee. a and b

    11.The refraction and reflection action of a sky wave between the ionosphere and ground isknown as

    a. Space diversityb. Skipc. Tropospheric scatteringd. Fading12.A satellite communication system used by companies such as K-Mart to quickly verify credit

    cards and check inventory data is called

    a. VSATb. MSATc. SATCOMd. WESTAR

    13.A common type of radio wave interference isa. EMIb. Fadingc.

    Reflectionsd. All the above

    14.Diversity reception does not include:a. Space diversityb. Time diversityc. Frequency diversityd. Angle diversity

    15.When installing a receiving antenna, you can often overcome diffraction problems byfinding a

    a. Null zoneb. Downlinkc. Hot spotd. Skip zone

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    Chapter 13 Antennas

    1. The process of interchangeability of receiving and transmitting operations of antennas isknown as

    a. Polarizationb. Reciprocityc. Efficiencyd. Counterpoise

    2. A half-wave dipole antenna is also known asa. Marconi antennab. Hertz antennac. Vertical antennad. Phased array

    3. An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such that the ground acts as areflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a

    a. Hertz antennab. Dipole antennac. Marconi antennad. All the above

    4. The angular separation between the half-power points on an antenna's radiation pattern isthe

    a. Bandwidthb. Front-to-back ratioc. Lobe distributiond. Beamwidth

    5. The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is approximatelya. 36.6b. 50c. 73d. 300

    6. As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below a quarter-wavelength, theradiation resistance

    a. Increasesb. Decreasesc. Remains the samed. All the above

    7.

    A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300

    transmission line. If a quarter-wave matchingtransformer is to be used as the non-resonant matching section, what must be the

    characteristic impedance of the cable used in the matching transformer?

    a. 186.5b. 103.9c. 122.5d. 147.9

    8. An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission line as it approaches theantenna is called a

    a. Delta matchb. Quarter-wave matching devicec. Directord. Counterpoise

    9. A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to

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    a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance of the antennab. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance of the antennac. Raise the input impedance of the antennad. Decrease the losses of the antenna

    10.Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of transmitting antennas?a. Driven collinear arrayb. Marconi arrayc. Yagi-Udad. Log-periodic

    11.The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast receivers is aa. Ferrite loop antennab. Folded dipole antennac. Slot antennad. Log-periodic antenna

    12.The folded dipole antenna hasa. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipoleb. A 288 input impedancec. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipolea. d.. a and bd. b and c

    13.The Yagi-Uda antenna consists ofa. A driven director and parasitic reflectorb. A driven reflector and parasitic directorc. A parasitic director and reflectord. All the above

    14.A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of tuned circuitsa. By connection in series with the inductanceb. By connection in parallel with the inductancec. Without power being applied to the tuned circuitd. By connection in series with the capacitance

    15.When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that indicates a problem isa. Greater than 1b. Less than 1c. Greater than 1.5d. Less than 0.5

    Chapter 14

    Waveguides & RADAR

    1. At a frequency of 1 GHz and transmitter-receiver distance of 30 mi, which is the mostefficient device for energy transfer?

    a. Transmission linesb. Waveguidesc. Antennasd. None of the above

    2. The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal 1500ft. would typically bea. Transmission linesb. Waveguidesc. Antennasd. None of the above

    3. The dominant mode for waveguide operation is

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    a. TE10b. TE01c. TM10d. TM01

    4. The propagation velocity of the signal in a waveguide, when compared to the speed of lightis

    a. largerb. smallerc. the same velocityd. either b or c

    5. Ridged waveguides are advantageous over rectangular waveguides in theira. costb. attenuationc. ability to work at lower frequencyd. ease of construction

    6. A circular waveguide is used fora. Efficiency reasonsb. Ease of manufacturec. Rotating section applicationsd. Greater bandwidth

    7. Variable attenuators are used in waveguides toa. Isolate a source from reflections at its load so as to preclude frequency pulling.b. Adjust the signal levels.c. Measure signal levels.d. All the above.

    8. The coupling in dB of a directional coupler that has 85 mW into the main guide and 0.45 mWout the secondary guide is

    a. 22.8b. 18.9c. 188.9d. 45.6

    9. The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by changing the cavity'sa. Volumeb. Inductancec. Capacitanced.

    All the above10.The guide wavelength is

    a. Greater than free-space wavelengthb. Equal to free-space wavelengthc. Less than free-space wavelengthd. All the above

    11.The process of employing radio waves to detect and locate physical objects is known asa. The Doppler effectb. Radarc. Directional couplingd. Cavity tuning

    12.The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller conductive strip with constantseparation by a dielectric material on a printed circuit board for use at frequencies above

    500 MHz is known as

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    a. Artwork tracesb. Dielectric waveguidec. Microstrip/striplined. MICs or MMICs

    13.Second return echoes area. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a second tripb. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulsec. Echoes caused by the PRT being too longd. All the above

    14.The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides isa. 75b. 377c. Dependent on frequencyd. Dependent on waveguide shapee. c and d

    15.A dielectric waveguide isa. Enclosed by a conducting materialb. A waveguide with just a dielectricc. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar dielectrics can guide wavesd. b and c

    Chapter 15 Microwaves & Lasers

    1. Which is not a type of horn antenna design for microwave frequencies?a. Parabolic hornb. Circular hornc. Pyramidal hornd. Sectoral horn

    2. Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna involves aa. Dipole antennab. Point-source antennac. Secondary reflectord. Any of the above

    3. Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish antenna with a 6-m mouth diameter whenused at 5 GHz.

    a. 0.49b.

    4.9c. 7

    d. 0.74. Zoning refers to

    a. A method of producing a radomeb. Changing a spherical wavefront into a plane wavec. Creating a polar radiation patternd. Fading into nonreality

    5. Which microwave oscillator has high gain, low-noise characteristics, and wide bandwidth?a. Traveling wave tube oscillatorb. Gunn Oscillatorc. Klystron oscillatord. Magnetron oscillator

    6. Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide oscillator?

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    a. Ease of removing heat from the chipb. Small sizec. Ruggednessd. Lack of filamentse. Low cost of manufacture

    7. The i in P-I-N diode refers toa. Indiumb. Impactc. Integratedd. Intrinsic

    8. Which is not a typical application of a ferrite in a microwave system?a. attenuatorb. amplifierc. isolatord. circulator

    9. A low noise microwave amplifier that provides amplification via the variation of a reactanceis known as a

    a. Maserb. Laserc. Yigd. Parametric amplifier

    10.The major difference between a laser and a maser is thea. Frequency of the signal being amplifiedb. Amplitude of the signal being amplifiedc. Bandwidth of the signal being amplifiedd. Phase of the signal being amplified

    11.Lasers are useful ina. Industrial weldingb. Surgical proceduresc. Distance measuringd. Compact disc playerse. All the above

    12.The following semiconductor is not used as a microwave device:a. PIN diodeb. Baritt diodec. Zener dioded.

    Tunnel diode13.Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for a TWT amplifier?

    a. Low gainb. Spurious modulationc. Poor frequency responsed. Low RF outpute. All the above

    14.Which of the following is not used as a microwave antenna?a. Patch antennab. Marconi antennac. Lens antennad. Horn antenna

    15.Compared to linear power supplies, switching power supplies area. Less efficient

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    b. More efficientc. Simplerd. Heavier

    Chapter 16 Television

    1. A television transmitter actually transmits two signals at once. They area. An amplitude-modulated video signal and frequency-modulated audio signalb. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and audioc. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and frequency-modulated video signald. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and audio

    2. The most widely used type of TV camera is thea. Charge couple deviceb. Vidiconc. Image orthicond. Iconoscope

    3. Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing pulses, followed by serrations, followed bymore equalizing pulses at a rate of 60 times per second are called

    a. Color synchronizing pulsesb. Horizontal retrace pulsesc. Vertical retrace pulsesd. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses

    4. The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is approximatelya. 30 frames per secondb. 40 frames per secondc. 60 frames per secondd. 100 frames per second

    5. Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to 210 MHz. The channel 12 carrierfrequency is approximately

    a. 204.5 MHzb. 205.25 MHzc. 211.25 MHzd. 211.75 MHz

    6. The length of time an image stays on the screen after the signal is removed is termeda.

    Retentionb. Flicker

    c. Persistenced. Back porch

    7. Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV receiver?a. The rf amplifier stageb. The mixer stagec. The local oscillator staged. The video-detector stage

    8. The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical and horizontal retrace pulses from thevideo signal is the

    a. Video detectorb. Video IF amplifierc. Sync separator

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    d. Sound detector9. The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the electron beam with its magnetic field is

    called the

    a. Coilb. Yokec. Deflectord. Magneto

    10.A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV receiver in order to make sure that thethree electron beams of the picture tube are positioned exactly on their respective color

    dots on the face of the picture tube is called

    a. Alignmentb. Convergencec. Interleavingd. Interlacing

    11.A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and raster but no picture must havea problem in the

    a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supplyb. Main power supplyc. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoffd. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff

    12.Raster refers toa. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being receivedb. CRT resolutionc. CRT aspect ratiod. All the above

    13.The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the low-voltage power supplyusing

    a. Its power-line transformerb. The yoke coilc. The vertical oscillatord. The flyback transformer

    14.The introduction of digital television in the United States has been hampered bya. Delays in chip designsb. Shortages of appropriate chipsc. Customer rejectiond. Less than ideal regulatory climate

    15.When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the video, it isa. due to bandwidth problems

    b. Called a pixelatec. Due to noised. b and c

    Chapter 17 Fiber Optics

    1. Which is an advantage of optical communication links over using transmission lines orwaveguides?

    a. Small sizeb. Extremely wide bandwidthsc. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)d. Lower cost

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    e. All the above2. The most common light used in fiber-optic links is

    a. Infra-redb. Redc. Violetd. Ultraviolet

    3. The optical band designation(s) includea. Sb. Cc. Ld. a and b abovee. All the above

    4. In the telecommunications industry, the most commonly used fiber(s) area. 50 micronb. 62.5 micronc. 50 and 62.5 micrond. 125 micron

    5. The abrupt change in refractive index from core to cladding of fiber-optic cable is called thea. Total internal reflectionb. Numerical aperturec. Dispersiond. Step index

    6. A technique that is used to minimize the pulse dispersion effect is toa. Use a higher frequency light sourceb. Use plastic claddingc. Minimize the core diameterd. All the above7. The loss (attenuation) of signal in optical fiber is due toa. Scatteringb. Absorptionc. Macrobendingd. Microbendinge. All the above

    8. Calculate the optical power 100 km from a 0.5 mW source on a single mode fiber that has0.10 dB per km loss.

    a. 50 nWb.

    500 nWc. 5 W

    d. 50 W9. Which is not an important characteristic of a light detector?

    a. Responsitivityb. Dark currentc. Power consumptiond. Response speede. Spectral respons

    10.The dispersion in fiber optics is termeda. Modalb. Chromaticc. Polarization moded. All the above

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    e. a and b above11.Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due to

    a. Air gapsb. Rough surfacesc. Axial misalignmentd. Angular misalignmente. All the above

    12.Fiber optic technology is used in applications ofa. Local area networks (LANs)b. Cable TV (CATV) systemsc. Telephone networksd. All the above

    13.The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a portion of the light energy traveling inthe cladding is called

    a. Modal dispersionb. Material dispersionc. Waveguide dispersiond. Cable dispersion

    14.Recent laser developments for fiber optic communication includea. Distributed feedback (DFB)b. Heterojunctionc. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)d. a and b abovee. a and c above

    15.The following consideration is important when deciding between using a diode laser or anLED

    a. Response timeb. Power levelsc. Temperature sensitivityd. Failure characteristicse. All the above

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    Answer Key

    CHAPTER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

    1 C D C C E D B D D C A C B C A A E

    2 B A C D B A C A D A B B B B C A A

    3 D C C D B C A D C A A A C A D C E

    4 C B B A B A D C C D C B D B B A C

    5 D C D B C C B B C D B D C C A B D

    6 C D C D B C D D A B E B B C A C C

    7 C C A B B D B B B B D C D D D D E

    8 B D C A B C C B A A B A A A B C D

    9 D A D D A A D D D D A D A D D B C

    10 A C A B A B D A D C A E B A A B D

    11 A A C C B C B A D E C B A B E C E

    12 B D D B C A C D B B B A D C C A D

    13 C D D A B D C B C C C D C B E D C

    14 C D D D C D D C C E B B C E B D E

    15 E B A C D D D D A A E C C D B D A