MCQ to the 4th year exam at the discipline of Oral ...

CATEDRA CHIRURGIE ORO-MAXILO-FACIALA ȘI IMPLANTOLOGIE ORALA „ARSENIE GUȚAN”

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APROBATE

La şedinţa Catedrei chirurgie oro-maxilo-facială,

şi implantologie orală „Arsenie Guţan”,

Proces verbal Nr.5 din 27.02.2020

Şef catedră, dr.hab.şt.med., conf.univ.

N. Chele _____________________

MCQ to the 4th year exam at the discipline of

Oral Implantology

1. Bone density MOST precisely determined before surgery by :

a) Periapical radiograph

b) Lateral cephalometric image

c) Computed tomograpgy

d) OPG

e) Telaradiography

2. Strength of the bone from strong to weak:

a) D2, D4, D1, D3

b) D1, D2, D3, D4

c) D4, D3, D2, D1

d) D3, D1, D4, D2

e) D1, D3, D2, D4

3. Method of preventing overheating during osteotomy, except:

a) 50ml/min of sterile physiologic saline

b) Intravenous dextrose solution

c) Intermittent pressure on drill

d) Distilled water

e) None of the above

4. Factors related to heat generated during implant osteotomy, except:

a) Amount of bone being prepared

b) Amount of bleeding

c) Drill speed

d) Variation in cortical thickness

e) None of the above

5. supply for D1 bone is from?

a) Blood vessels


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b) Bone marrow

c) Periosteum

d) Lymphatic

e) Capillaries

6. Advantages of D2 bone, except:

a) Provides excellent implant interface healing

b) Copious cooled sterile is not needed

c) Allow more bleeding

d) Provides initial rigid interface

e) All of the above

7. Disadvantage of D4 bone, except:

a) Implant need coating

b) One time implant placed

c) Increased find width and legth

d) Additional implant indicated

e) All of the above

8. Advantages of implant supported overdentures are:

a) Minimum bone loss

b) Decreased occlusal efficiency

c) Increased prosthesis size

d) Less support

e) More expensive

9. Use of additional implant causes:

a) Increased cost

b) Bone resorption

c) Decrease implant and prosthetic risks

d) Less movements

e) Bone apposition

10. A history of ____ has a greater impact on the success/failure of implants.

a) traumatic extraction

b) pre-prosthetic surgery

c) periodontitis

d) dental caries

e) bone grafting procedures

11. Vertical bone loss should be less then __ mm for the success of an implant.

a) 0.2


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b) 0.4

c) 0.5

d) 0.6

e) 0.8

12. Gingivoplasty can be used for management of implants with:

a) satisfactory health

b) compromised health

c) local gum inflammation

d) clinical or absolute failure

e) none

13. No history of exudates is seen in implants with:

a) optimum health

b) satisfactory health

c) compromised health

d) both a&b

e) both b&c

14. Mobility of the implant is seen in:

a) clinical / absolute failure

b) compromised health

c) both a&b

d) optimum health

e) satisfactory health

15. Osteogenesis:

a) growth of bone from viable cells transferred within the graft

b) bone growth by apposition from surrounding bone

c) new bone formation from progenitor cells derived from primitive mesenchymal cells under the

influence of inducing agents emanating from bone matrix

d) allogenous is the only graft material available with osteogenic property

e) the recruitment of immature cells and the stimulation of these cells to develop into

preosteoblasts

16. Allograft:

a) osseous transplanted tissue from the same specie as the recipient bit of different genotype

b) are fabricated from inorganic portion of the bone from animals other than human

c) exclusively synthetic, biocompatible product developed to cover a broad range of indication

d) there is no risk of rejection and disease transmission

e) the transplant of an organ, tissue, or cells to an individual of another species.


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17. First generation blade implants, were thought to form a ligamentous attachment to bone, which

was deemed:

a) periodontium

b) periodontal collagen fibre

c) pseudoperiodontium

d) periodontal ligament fibres

e) muscular fibres

18. Osteoblast, osteoclast and possibly their precursors are thought to communicate by chemical

messengers known as:

a) integrins

b) cadherin

c) intercellular adhesion molecule

d) coupling factors

e) neuropeptides

19. According to enlow, the overall pattern of growth of bone occurs by:

a) external bone remodelling

b) external bone remodelling and internal resorption

c) only by internal resorption

d) bone remodelling and resorption externally

e) internal bone remodeling

20. All the following are the controlling factors for bone modeling, except:

a) mechanical factors

b) endocrine factors

c) paracrine factors

d) neural factors

e) autocrine factors

21. The ideal metabolic state for maintaining skeletal mass is:

a) positive calcium balance

b) negative calcium balance

c) zero calcium balance

d) neutral state of calcium balance with positive calcium balance when required.

e) neutral state of calcium balance with negative calcium balance when required.

22. Dentist should be aware of treating patient (implant fixation) with all the following, except:

a) smoking

b) low skeletal mass

c) osteopenia with corrective medical therapy started

d) osteopenia without corrective medical therapy

e) metabolic bone disease


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23. Which of the following is found in the premaxilla region?

a) thin porous cortical bone

b) dense cortical bone

c) fine trabecular bone

d) dense trabecular bone

e) none of the above

24. Minimum interimplant distance:

a) 1mm

b) 2mm

c) 3mm

d) 4mm

e) 5mm

25. Which has the lowest implant survival rate?

a) edentulous maxilla

b) edentulous mandible

c) partially dentulous mandible

d) partially dentulous maxilla


26. The incisive foramen often expand laterally within the palatal bone and the central incisor implant

osteotomy may encroach on this structure, resulting in fibrous tissue at the interface. This is

prevented by:

a) placing the implant distally

b) placing the implant mesially

c) placing the implant labially

d) placing the implant palatally

e) it doesnt matter

27. Contraindication for dental implant treatment includes:

a) diabetic patients

b) osteoporosis

c) patient undergoing radiation therapy

d) smokers

e) drug addicts

28. An absolute contraindication for implant treatment is:

a) atrophic maxilla

b) current infection

c) periodontal disease

d) thin gingiva


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29. Reason why patient undergoing radiation therapy is contraindicated for implant treatment:

a) osteoporosis

b) osteoradionecrosis

c) osteomalacia

d) osteochondrosis

e) both a&b

30. Osteoradionerosis is:

a) exposure and infection of bone following soft tissue dehiscence

b) exposure and infection of bone without tissue necrosis

c) formation of multiple small cavitations inside the bone

d) none of the above

e) only infection of bone following tissue dehiscence

31. The parafunctional habit that must be carefully evaluated prior to implant treatment is:

a) thumb sucking

b) tongue thrusting

c) bruxism

d) lip / cheek biting

e) obesity

32. The fundamental problem in all types of osteoporosis is:

a) increased bone mineral density

b) macroscopic porosities inside bone

c) exposure and infection bone

d) all the above

e) decreased bone mineral density

33. Smoking and tobacco use can lead to failure of implant because:

a) smoking is a known for osteoporosis

b) poor healing capacity

c) infection due to impaired organ function

d) all the above

e) they lead to obesity

34. It is very important to evaluate this anatomical structure before placement of an implant in the

posterior maxilla.

a) posterior palatal seal area

b) maxillary tuberosity

c) maxillary sinus


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d) both a&c

e) inferior alveolar nerve

35. Anatomical structures of maxilla pertinent to treatment planning of an implant patient:

a) maxillary sinus and canine fossa

b) incisive papilla, labial and buccal frenulum

c) canine fossa and incisive foramen

d) both a&c

e) both a&b

36. Anatomical structures of mandible pertinent to treatment planning of an implant patient:

a) mandibular canal and submandibular fossa

b) mental foramen an lingual inclination of alveolar ridge

c) mental foramen and retromolar pad area

d) both a&c

e) both a&b

37. Which of the following is recommended in a pre-implant surgery?

a) alloplast

b) autograft

c) allograft

d) xenograft

e) periotest

38. Small bone dehiscence defects can be corrected by:

a) bone graft followed by guided tissue regeneration membrane placement

b) induce bleeding from healthy bone and place guided tissue regeneration membrane

c) bone graft followed by guided bone regeneration membrane placement

d) induce bleeding from healthy bone and place guided bone regeneration membrane

e) bone grafting only

39. Sinus elevation by osteotome technique is used when amount of available bone is less than:

a) 10mm but greater than 7mm

b) 7mm but greater than 4mm

c) 4mm but greater than 2mm

d) 100 mm but greater than 6mm

e) Less than on the opposite side

40. Bone augmentation procedure with higher success rate:

a) vertical augmentation

b) horizontal augmentation

c) vertical=horizontal


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d) distraction osteogenesis

e) sinus lift

41. Formation of bone by osteblasts from the margins of the defect on the bone graft material is:

a) osteoconduction

b) osteinduction

c) osteogenesis

d) osteoprogenesis

e) bone resorption

42. Osteinduction is:

a) formation of bone by osteoblasts from the margins of the defect on the bone graft material

b) formation of bone by simulation of osteoprofenitors from the defect

c) formation of bone through living osteoblasts from bone graft material

d) formation of bone by simulation of osteoprogenitors from the graft

e) osteoconduction

43. Formation of bone through living osteoblasts from bone graft material is:

a) osteoinduction

b) osteoprogenesis

c) osteconduction

d) osteogenesis

e) bone resorption

44. Revascularization is better in:

a) particulate bone graft

b) monocortical block graft

c) decalcified freeze dried bone

d) sectional block graft

e) xenograft

45. Primary indication to determine pre-implantation procedure evaluation:

a) occlusal radiographs

b) lateral cephalometric

c) panoramic radiograph

d) CT

e) Blood tests

46. The term matrix protein refers to:

a) collagenous protein

b) non-collagenous protein

c) collagenous and non-collagenous protein



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e) osteoblasts and osteoclasts

47. The most abundant protein in organic matrix of bone:

a) type II collagen

b) type I collagen

c) type III collagen

d) type IV collagen

e) type V collagen

48. Maxillary nerve leaves the middle cranial fossa by passing through the formaen ___

a) ovale

b) spinosum

c) rotundum

d) magnum

e) infraorbitalis

49. The muscle which is rarely of concern to implant surgeon is:

a) levator anguli onis

b) incisivus labi superioris

c) levator labii superioris

d) buccinator

e) mentalis

50. Maxillary sinus opens into:

a) medial wall

b) lateral wall

c) superior meatus

d) middle meatus

e) inferior meatus

51. Mandibular nerve passes through

a) foramen ovale

b) foramen spinosum

c) foramen rotundum

d) foramen magnum

e) foramen mentale

52. Main artery supplying the mandible

a) madnibular artery

b) jugular artery

c) inferior-alveolar artery

d) trigeminal artery

e) facial artery


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53. Posterior superior alveolar artery & infra orbital artery is a branch of

a) maxillary artery

b) ophtalmic artery

c) mandibular artery

d) inferior alveolar artery

e) facial artery

54. Stage II surgery permits:

a) indirect evaluation of bone condition

b) direct evaluation of bone condition

c) direct evaluation of hard and soft tissue


e) immediate prosthodontics

55. Treatment option(s) available for the management of horizontal bony defect which is more than

half of implant height:

a) position the soft tissue apically, graft autogenous bone

b) osteoplasty

c) remove the implant

d) convert into vertical defect by leveling off bone

e) no treatment option is available

56. An useful test to determine implant micromovements:

a) mobility test

b) periotest

c) compressive test

d) vertical force(lateral) test

e) stability test

57. Bone removal over or adjacent to the crestle module can be achieved by:

a) bone profile in a low-speed handpiece

b) gingivoplasty

c) bone profile in high-speed handpiece


e) using a forceps

58. Long term failure, describes

a) failures between 5-10 years

b) failures between stage I and II surgery

c) failures after 10 years

d) failures during surgery

e) failure after 6 months


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59. Healing sequence in a hard tissue:

a) epithelialization, fibroplasia, inflammation and remodeling

b) fibroplasia, remodeling, inflammation and epithelialization

c) epithelialization, inflammation, fibroplasia and remodeling

d) inflammation, epithelialization, fibroplasia and remodeling

e) inflammation and epithelization

60. The new bone formation stage begins as early as:

a) third day after extraction

b) first week after extraction

c) third week after extraction

d) sixth day after extraction

e) 5 months after extraction

61. The complete process of a healthy socket healing takes:

a) 4-6months

b) 2-3months

c) 2-3weeks


e) 6-8 months

62. Which of these landmarks acts as a donor site for maxillary sinus grafting?

a) posterior palatal slopes of residual alveolar ridge


c) buccal shelf area

d) hamular notch

e) hard pallate

63. The most common site for the intraoral bone graft harvest is:

a) buccal shelf area


c) hamular notch

d) alveolar ridge

e) iliac crest

64. Implant placed in an infected immediate extraction site may become involved by:

a) infection

b) retro grade infection

c) cancer

d) periimplantitis


65. When 2 implants are used to replace 2 adjacent central incisors, the implant diameter should be:


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a) 3.8mm

b) 3-4mm

c) 3.5mm

d) 4.0 mm


66. Adjacent implants should have ___ mm minimum distance between them.

a) 2

b) 2.5

c) 3

d) 3.5

e) 4

67. The most common complication for single tooth implant failure is:

a) abutment screw loosening

b) prosthesis loosening

c) implant fracture

d) infection

e) periimplantitis

68. Ideal diameter of a single toothed implant depends on the:

a) type of implant

b) length of implant

c) screw design

d) mesiodistal dimension of the missing teeth

e) vertical dimension of the bone

69. Drills used in osteotomy during implant placement:

a) straight fissure bur

b) pilot drill

c) flame shaped drill

d) ball shaped drill

e) surgical drill

70. Ideal implant size from the adjacent tooth is:

a) 2 to 5 mm

b) 1.5 to 2 mm

c) 2 to 3 mm

d) 3 to 3.5 mm

e) 3.5 to 4 mm

71. Mesiodistal dimension of the missing tooth determines the:

a) type of implant

b) ideal diameter of a implant

c) screw design


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d) length of the screw

e) lenght of the implant

72. To counteract the activity of beta-lactamase distruction of penicilin by resistan bacteria, which

antibiotic was synthesized?

a) amoxicillin

b) cephalosporin

c) augmentin

d) clindamycin

e) doxycycline

73. Which combination of antibiotics was synthesized to form augmentin?

a) amoxicillin and cephalosporin

b) amoxicillin and clavulanic acid

c) amoxicillin and erythromycin

d) amoxicillin and clindamycin

e) none

74. Which of the following is the most common macrolide used in dentistry:

a) amoxicillin

b) erythromycin

c) clindamycin

d) doxycycline

e) none

75. NSAID reduce inflammation by:

a) inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid

b) by altering the connective tissue response to injury

c) causing lysis by binding to bacterial cell membrane

d) all the above

e) inhibiting the synthesis of arachidonic acid

76. The opioid analgesics among the following are:

a) NSAID

b) codeine

c) glucocorticoids

d) meperidin

e) both b&d

77. The non-opioid analgesics used in dentistry are:

a) acetaminophen

b) hydrocodone

c) glucocorticoids


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d) codeine

e) morphine

78. Primary failure of an implant to integrate initially with bone is due to :

a) operator inefficiency or inexperience

b) bone pathology

c) excessive heat during osteotomy and pressure at implant-bone interface

d) micro movement of implant

e) inflammation

79. Which of the following is not a biomechanical failure of implant

a) early loading failure

b) micro movement

c) healing failure

d) engineering failure

e) excesive loading failure

80. Exudate around an implant is more likely to be present when:

a) probing depth is greater than 5mm

b) aerobic environment exists around the implant

c) both

d) none

e) probing depth is less than 1 mm

81. A decrease in bone remodeling can lead to:

a) increase in bone loss

b) decrease in bone loss

c) no bone loss

d) could be all the above

e) osteoporosis

82. Which of the following refers to the bone resorption that occurs around both cemented and

uncemented orthopedic implant:

a) osseodisintegration

b) osseoradionecrosis

c) ostelysis


e) osteoinduction

83. Rate of bone loss ___ after the first year of loading:

a) increases

b) rapidly increases

c) decreases


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d) rapidly decreases

e) remains constant

84. Marginal bone loss is :

a) less in the mandible compared to the maxilla

b) less in the maxilla compared to mandible

c) equal in both

d) differs in different individuals

e) less in case of implant failure

85. A threaded implant with 10 threads for 10 mm has ___ surface area than one with 5 threads:

a) less

b) more

c) the same

d) none of above

e) a and c

86. The first drill to enter the bone is termed the:

a) twist drill

b) penetration drill

c) Misch drill

d) pilot drill

e) cylindrical drill

87. 4 surgical time sequences exist to address interproximal height except one of the following:

a) before bone graft with connective tissue graft

b) in conjunction with bone graft

c) at implant insertion

d) 6 months post implant uncover

e) 12 months post implant uncover

88. Bone density quality of bone is often dependent on:

a) width of arch

b) arch position

c) height of arch

d) quality of arch

e) age

89. Bone density change is greater after tooth loss:

a) anterior mandible

b) anterior maxilla

c) posterior mandible

d) posterior maxilla

e) in periodontal disease


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90. Class 1 bone structure is:

a) evenly spaced trabecula with smaller concelled space

b) evenly spaced trabecula with larger concelled space

c) less uniform of osseous pattern

d) large marrow filled space

e) present only in maxilla


a) evenly spaced trabecula with small concelled space

b) larger cancellated space with less uniformity

c) evenly spaced trabecula with large concelled space

d) large narrow filled space



a) evenly spaced trabecula with small concelled space

b) larger concellated space with less uniform

c) evenly spaced trabecula with large concelled space

d) large narrow filled space


93. States the 4 quality of bone in 1985:

a) Lekholm

b) Linknow

c) Zarb

d) Lekholm & Zarb

e) Misch

94. Quality 1 is imposed of:

a) homogenous compact bone

b) compact bone surrounded by dense trabecular bone

c) thin layer of cortical bone surrounded by dense trabecular bone

d) thin layer of cortical bone surrounded by low trabecular bone


95. Quality 2 is:




d) thin layer of cortical bone surrounded by low dense trabecular bone


96. Quality 3 is :


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97. Quality 4 is:






98. D1 is:

a) dense cortical

b) porous cortical & coarse trabecula

c) porous cortical & fine trabecula

d) fine trabecula


99. D2 is:

a) dense cortical



d) fine trabecula


100. D3 is:

a) dense cortical



d) fine trabecula


101. D4 is:

a) dense cortical



d) fine trabecula

e) porous cortical

102. A very soft bone will in complex mineral and large intertrabecular space:

a) D1


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b) D3

c) D4

d) D5


103. D3 is very common in :

a) mandible

b) maxilla

c) anterior region of maxilla

d) posterior region of maxilla

e) only in maxilla

104. Apparent density of bone is__:

a) direct proportion to elastic modulus

b) inversly proportion to elastic modulus

c) double the elastic module

d) triple the elastic module

e) equal to elastic module

105. Surface is suggested in soft bone:

a) smooth

b) rough

c) none of the above

d) both a&b

e) coated

106. Compressive strength of implant materials are greater than:

a) shear strength

b) tensile strength

c) both

d) none of them

e) elastic module

107. The transformation of primary products is on the level of:

a) melting point

b) solubility

c) saturation capacity

d) solubility of transfer

e) electrical module


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108. ___ alloys are most often used in an as cast of annealed metallurgy

a) iron-nickel-chromium based

b) cobalt-chromium-molybdenum based

c) titanium

d) others

e) zirconium

109. Secondary phases provide strength that is :

a) 1*that of compact bone

b) 2*that of compact bone

c) 3*that of compact bone

d) 4*that of compact bone

e) 0

110. ____ alloy is used most often in a wrought and heat treated metallic condition which

results in high strength and high ductility alloy.

a) iron-chromium-nickel based

b) cobalt-chromium-nickel based

c) titanium based

d) others

e) vitalium

111. ____ has resulted in limitation of ceramics

a) colour

b) thickness

c) inherrent brittlenes

d) all the above


112. ____ sterilization is recommended for most ceramics:

a) cold

b) autoclave

c) chemical

d) dry heat

e) UV rays sterizilation

113. Steam autoclaving can significantly change the basic structure and properties of CPC.

This may result in an unknown biomaterial condition at the time of implantation.

a) both are false

b) first is true

c) second is true

d) both are true

e) first true, second false


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114. Ceramics are brittle material and exhibit high___ strength compared with _____ strength.

a) tensile ; compressive

b) shear ; tensile

c) tensile ; shear

d) compressive ; tensile

e) compressive;shear

115. In general, solubility is greater for TCP then for hydroxyapatite. Smaller the particle size,

longer the material will remain at a augmented site.

a) both are true

b) first is true

c) second is true

d) both are false

e) ---

116. In general, the polymers have:

a) low strength and elastic modulus

b) high strength and elastic modulus

c) low strength and expansion


e) high elastic moduls

117. Polymers are resistant to:

a) corrosion

b) biodegradation

c) errosion

d) abrasion

e) saliva

118. Oxides on implants are primarily amorphous in atomic structure. Oxides are usually thin

and adhere.

a) both are true

b) first is true

c) second is true

d) both are false

e) none of them

119. ____ showed that fluoride gels lead to degradation of titanium oxide layer.

a) Lemors, Marshall

b) Marshall, Rostoker

c) Rostoker, Pretzell

d) Cohen, Burdairon


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e) Misch

120. Surface quality can be related to ___ and ___:

a) tissue integration ; clinical longevity

b) shine ; smothness

c) all the above


e) shine, shear

121. ____ sutures have been fabricated by plasma spraying a powder of molten droplets at

high temperature

a) smooth and uniform

b) rough and porous

c) rough and uniform


e) nylon

122. Hydroxyapatite coating by plasma spraying was introduced by:

a) Kay et al

b) Lemors

c) DeGroot

d) Block et al

e) Misch

123. The presence of fibrous tissue

a) decrease long term survival of root form implant

b) increase long term survival of root form implant

c) both


e) is considered a physiological state

124. Excessive loads on osseointegrated implant can cause:

a) mobility of supporting device

b) mobility of implant body

c) both


e) osteoconduction

125. Bite force can range from:

a) 50-1000 N


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b) 42-1245 N

c) 60-800 N

d) 100-500 N

e) 800-1000N

126. Magnitude of force is greater in :

a) canine region

b) anterior region

c) molar region


e) premolar region

127. Titanium - aluminium - vanadium alloy exhibit:

a) mechanical properties

b) physical properties

c) corrosion resistance

d) all the above

e) electrical properties

128. Implant to bone interface cause

a) microscopic retention

b) macroscopic retention

c) both


e) bone resorption

129. Reduction in shear load at thread to bone interface can be obtained by:

a) decrease overload

b) inadequate load

c) increase overload


e) immediate loading

130. As the load increases the stresses around the implant:

a) decrease

b) increase

c) both


e) remains constant

131. Implant failure occur more in:

a) D1


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b) D2

c) D3

d) D4

e) maxilla

132. Functional surface area is also called as:

a) active surface area

b) passive surface area

c) both


e) bone-implant interface

133. Total surface area is also called:

a) active surface area

b) passive surface area

c) none of the above

d) osseo surface area

e) bone-implant area

134. Carbon component are classified as ceramics because of their ___ and absence of__:

a) chemical inertness ; ductility

b) colour ; durability

c) thickness ; durability


e) a and b

135. Functional surface area is:

a) per unit length of implant

b) per unit width of implant

c) surface area of implant


e) osseo surface area

136. Total surface area reduce:

a) mechanical stress

b) compressive stress

c) tensile stress

d) all the above

e) elastic module

137. Larger the taper

a) greater the compressive load

b) lesser the compressive load


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c) greater the tensile load

d) lesser the tensile load

e) larger the force

138. Tapered thread implant has

a) less thread

b) deep thread

c) more thread

d) both a&b

e) both a and c

139. Which is strongest and deepest bone

a) D2

b) D1

c) D3

d) D4

e) Crestal bone

140. Primary cause of implant failure is

a) bone over heating

b) over instrumentation

c) soft tissue impingement


e) infection

141. Crest module is characterized by:

a) decrease concentration of tensile stress

b) increase concentration of mechanical stress

c) both


e) decrease concentration of mechanical stress

142. Who described microstain?

a) Frost

b) Branemark

c) Robert et al

d) Davidson

e) Misch

143. Who investigated implant supported prosthesis:

a) Barbier

b) Schepies

c) Barbier and Schepies


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d) Frost

e) Kennedy

144. According to Misch, arch is divided in to

a) 4 segments

b) 5 segments

c) 2 segment

d) 0 segments

e) 8 segments

145. Increase in number of abutment:

a) increase the risk of uncertain restoration

b) decrease the risk of uncertain restoration

c) no effect on restoration


e) increase risk of implant failure

146. Cantilever in prosthesis is least preferred in:

a) central incisor

b) lateral incisor

c) molar

d) both a&b

e) premolars

147. When the span of the edentulous area increases

a) no of replaced teeth increases

b) no of replaced tooth reduces

c) same as the missing tooth


e) a and b

148. Diagnostic casts helps in analysing the following except:

a) arch relationships

b) curve of Wilson & curve of Spee

c) opposing dentition

d) balanced occlusion

e) implant failure

149. The distance from the hinge axis to the central incisor range from:

a) 10-20mm

b) 60-80mm

c) 87-120mm


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d) 127-200mm

e) 200-250mm

150. A unique facebrow transfer, that corresponds to the facial midline and horizontal plane,

to the 100mm distance of conditional hinge position was developed by:

a) Misch

b) Snow

c) Bennett

d) Kois

e) Kennedy 151. In cases of severe bleeding and lingual hematoma during the placement of the implant

in the lower incisor region, which artery do you think is injured:

a. submental

b. sublingual

c. inferior labial

d. transverse facial

e. carotid

152. The path of the inferior dental canal inside the mandible is not straight and deviates

from the lingual to the buccal in the area of:

a. third molar tooth

b. second molar tooth

c. second premolar tooth

d. first molar tooth

e. none of the above

153. Implant placed in front of the mental foramen should be 6 mm from the foramen to

prevent the encroachment of:

a. mental foramen

b. submental artery

c. anterior loop of the inferior dental nerve

d. incisive canal

e. b&c

154. During the procedure of autogenous bone grafting harvested from the area of

symphysis, dysesthesia can occur because:

a. damaging to the lower incisior teeth

b. muscle detachment during flap raise

c. incisive nerve damage

d. hematoma formation postoperatively

e. oedema formation postoperatively

155. Severe bleeding and lingual hematoma that occur during implant placement in the

lower premolar area can be caused by severing the artery of:

a. lingual

b. submental artery

c. inferior alveolar artery

d. long buccal

e. none of the above 156. At an early age, the mandible blood supply is central, but over time, the blood supply

becomes peripheral:

a. inferior alveolar artery


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b. lingual artery

c. endosteum

d. periosteum and attached muscle

e. mucosa 157. The anterior loop of an inferior dental nerve can be predicted when the nerve comes:

a. above the mental foramen

b. below the mental foramen

c. above the mental foramen

d. same level with the mental foramen

e. disappear before the mental foramen 158. During implant placement and nerve injury, patients will feel numbness only when

the injured nerve supply:

a. soft tissue

b. bony tissue

c. teeth

d. muscular tissue

e. b& c 159. Dentoalveolar innervation and the periodontal ligament area of the innervation are:

a. nerve endings with nociceptors

b. sympathetic

c. parasympathetic

d. nerve endings with mechanoreceptors

e. a&b 160. Incisions on the buccal vestibules may cause severe edema and postoperative pain

due to:

a. incision on loose tissue

b. plexus of blood vessels found in the vestibule

c. incision in non keratinized tissue

d. poor lymphatic drainage in this area

e. all of the above 161. The periosteum and both the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus and its Schneiderian

membrane are supplied by two arterial branches:

a. middle and posterior superior alveolar artery

b. anterior and middle superior alveolar artery

c. posterior superior alveolar artery and the infraorbital artery

d. posterior superior and greater palatin artery

e. none of the above 162. The lateral wall of the maxillary sinus hosts the superior alveolar canal:

a. branches of the posterior superior alveolar and infraorbital arteries

b. branches of posterior and middle superior alveolar arteries

c. branches of posterior superior alveolar arteries only

d. branches of middle superior and infraorbital arteries

e. branches of posterior superior and greater palatine artery 163. The inferior border of the mandible receives most of its blood supply from:

a. periosteum

b. inferior alveolar artery

c. muscle attachment d. mucosa

e. a&d


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164. The gingiva and periosteum receive their blood supply mainly through the

supraperiosteal vessels, which run ____________________ to the long axis of the teeth:

a. angular

b. perpendicular

c. parallel

d. circular

e. a&b 165. The vascular network within the periosteum and the periodontal plexus communicate

directly via:

a. Volkmann’s canals b. Haversian canals

c. Intraseptal plexus

d. Bone marrow

e. Schneiderian membrane 166. Translation movement of the condylar head onto the articular eminence during jaw

opening is achieved through the action of:

a. anterior belly of diagastric

b. medial pterygoid muscle

c. lateral pterygoid muscle

d. geniohyoid muscle

e. omohyoid muscle 167. Nerve fibers in dentate jawbone are usually limited to:

a. periodontium

b. cortical bone

c. bone marrow

d. canceloous bone

e. b&d 168. The lingual nerve provides a sensory supply to the:

a. lingual aspect of the mucosa, mandibular incisiors, anterior 2/3 of the tongue

b. lingual aspect of the mucosa, floor of the mouth, posterior 2/3 of the tongue

c. lingual aspect of the mucosa, floor of the mouth, lateral border of the tongue

d. lingual aspect of the mucosa, floor of the mouth, anterior 2/3 of the tongue e. lingual mucosa 169. The motor innervation of the mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric muscles

through:

a. motor branch of the lingual nerve

b. motor branch of the inferior dental nerve

c. chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve

d. hypoglossal nerve

e. glossopharyngeal nerve 170. The sensory innervation of the skin and mucous membranes of the lower lip:

a. mental nerve

b. incisive nerve

c. buccal branch of the facial nerve

d. long buccal

e. b&c

171. Implant placed nearby the mental foramen should be 6 mm from the foramen to

prevent the encroachment of:


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a. mental nerve

b. submental artery

c. anterior loop of the inferior dental nerve

d. incisive canal

e. digastric muscle

172. At an early age, the mandible blood supply is central, but over time, the blood

supply becomes peripheral:

a. inferior alveolar artery

b. lingual artery

c. periosteum

d. attached muscle

e. ligaments

173. The incisive nerve innervates:

a. Wisdom tooth

b. canine, lateral and central incisor

c. first premolar

d. second premolar

e. only the incisors

174. During implant placement and nerve injury, patients will feel numbness only

when the injured nerve supply:

a. Skin

b. bony tissue

c. teeth

d. mucosa

e. periosteum

175. The periosteum and both the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus and its

Schneiderian membrane are supplied by two arterial branches:

a. middle and posterior superior alveolar artery

b. anterior and middle superior alveolar artery

c. posterior superior alveolar artery

d. infraorbital artery

e. jugular vein

176. The lingual nerve provides a sensory supply to the:

a. lingual aspect of the mucosa, mandibular incisiors, anterior 2/3 of the tongue

b. lingual aspect of the mucosa, floor of the mouth

c. posterior 2/3 of the tongue

d. anterior 2/3 of the tongue

e. lower lip

177. The middle meatus of the middle conchae drains the following structure:

a. posterior ethmoidal sinus


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b. sphenoidal sinus

c. maxillary sinus

d. anterior and medial ethmoidal sinus

e. superior meatus

178. Some structures and veins have connections to the cavernous sinus, such as:

a. pterygoid plexus

b. facial veins (valveless)

c. submental vein

d. internal jugular

e. trigeminal nerve

179. For more bone- implant engagement and better stability during the immediate

implant placement period in the upper anterior teeth:

a. the palatal bone is thick

b. shallow palatal vault

c. the palatal bone is thin

d. high palatal vault

e. soft bone

180. During mastication, we use the temporalis muscle for quick closure and gentle

biting, while for more powerful crushing, we use:

a. medial pterygoid muscle

b. lateral pterygoid muscle

c. infra hyoid muscles

d. masseter muscle

e. sternocleidomastoidian muscle

181. The temporomandibular joint is technically classified as a ginglymoarthrodial

articulation, which by definition is:

a. originated from cartilagenous and membraneous type of bone

b. capable of hinge movement

c. capable of sliding type of movement

d. articulation between the mandible and occipital bone

e. articulation between mandible and parietal bone

182. In dentoalveolar gingival tissue, the direction of the blood supply is mainly from

the vestibule to the gingival margin. The circulation changes that were observed suggest

that flaps receive their primary blood supply from their apical aspect. The circulatory

disturbance is greater when:

a. greater the ratio of flap length to base

b. greater the ratio of flap base to length

c. full thickness flap raised

d. the width of flap is wider than the base

e. the patient is hypertensive


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183. Peri- and postoperative gingival blood flow is affected by:

a. anesthesic containing a vasoconstrictor

b. smoking

c. periosteal disruption

d. suturing material

e. type of bone

184. In the maxillary jaw, the blood supply is permanently reduced with age, which

may be due to:

a. microvascular defect

b. stenotic changes

c. reduction of the intramedullary flow

d. type of blood supply

e. concomitant diseases

185. Decreasing blood supply with age will lead to maxillary jaw atrophy through:

a. inhibition of the osteoblastic activity

b. delay in bone mineralization

c. reduction in cancellous bone

d. smoking

e. obesity

186. Osteoclast cells can cause bone resorption by dissolving the apatite crystals and

digesting collagen fiber, which can be achieved by:

a. organic acids

b. metalloproteinases

c. collagenase

d. interleukines

e. macrocytes

187. The main differences in periodontium between natural teeth and dental implants

are:

a. collagen fibers non- attached to the dental implant

b. run parallel to the implant surface

c. collagen fiber attached to the dental implant

d. run perpendicular to the implant surface

e. run circullary towards the implant surface

188. The major producers of collagen are mesenchymal cells and their derivatives,

which are:

a. fibroblast

b. osteoblast

c. chondrocyte

d. cementoblast

e. erytrocytes


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189. Bones resist forces applied along the axis of their fibrous tissue component, and

therefore, bone fractures occur because:

a. tensile stress

b. compressive forces

c. slicing stress

d. cycling forces

e. physical forces

190. - Osteon is a type of cylindrical bone comprising:

a. Fibrous cells

b. Haversian canal

c. bone cells lining

d. capillaries

e. lymphatic ducts

191. Periosteum includes an outer fibrous layer and an inner layer next to the bone

surface comprising:

a. osteoclasts

b. Fibrous cells

c. Submucosal tissue

d. bone cells, precursors cells

e. blood vessels

192. Osteoblasts are bone- forming cells that can synthesize:

a. collagenous bone matrix protein

b. hydroxyapatite crystals

c. noncollagenous bone matrix protein

d. lymphocytes

e. monocytes

193. The most important hormones in bone metabolism are:

a. testosteron

b. parathyroid hormone

c. 1,25- dihydroxyvitamine D

d. calcitonin

e. estrogen

194. The values for insertion torque in different parts of the jawbone were higher in:

a. the mandible than maxilla

b. the anterior than posterior region

c. the maxilla than mandible

d. Posterior than anterior

e. Medial than distal

195. The events involved in osseous wound healing after implant placement:

a. bleeding, hemostasis, clot formation


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b. fibrinolysis, angiogenesis, formation of a loose connective tissue

c. collagen matrix formation

d. Demineralization

e. remineralization

196. Burnt bone syndrome refers to:

a. Bone resorption has occurred because of damage to the bone at implant placement

b. Excesive irrigation of the bone during the drilling operation

c. over torque of the implant

d. pressure necrosis

e. failure to cool the bone during the drilling operation

197. Pressure necrosis during implant placement will lead to:

a. micro bone crack

b. soft tissue formation around the implant

c. delay healing

d. bone blood vessels obliteration

e. osteointegration

198. Lamellar bone cannot form a scaffold, such as woven bone, but rather grows by

apposition on a preformed solid base, such as:

a. Metallic surfaces

b. woven bone

c. pre- existing or pristine bone

d. implant surface

e. abutment surface

199. In a single- stage implant procedure and after the abutment placement heals, the

periimplant soft tissue maturation and junctional epithelium apical migration will be

completed in:

a. 2weeks

b. 12- 24 weeks

c. 36 weeks

d. 6 weeks

e. 8weeks

200. PRP offers many advantages:

a. Induces the osteointegration

b. decreases the frequency of intraoperative and postoperative bleeding at the recipient sites

c. induces only hard tissue regeneration

d. may promote rapid vascularization of the healing tissue by delivering growth factors

e. can be used for gingival grafting

201. A patient experiencing pain from the dental implant during mastication indicates

that:

a. implant failure


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b. implant placed adjacent to the inferior alveolar nerve

c. crestal bone loss

d. Implant placed near the mental nerve

e. Implant placed near the lower incisive loop

202. Bone heating up to ____________________ for 1 minute is sufficient to impair

bone formation:

a. 32˚C

b. 37˚C

c. 49˚C

d. 47˚C

e. 100 ˚C

203. In a patient suffering from squamous carcinoma in the lateral surface of the

tongue who needs an implant in a partially edentulous area of the left maxilla, the optimal

time to place the implant is:

a. before radiotherapy

b. after radiotherapy ended

c. simultaneously during ablative tumour surgery

d. it is an absolute contraindication

e. 6 months after radiotherapy ended

204. Bone remodeling characterizes the last stage of osseointegration but continues for

the rest of the life of the implant. This process has sequence stages for completion:

a. Resorption by osteoclasts

b. Vascular loop formation

c. Deposit concentric layers of lamellar bone by osteoblasts.

d. Implant failure

e. inflammation

205. Osteogenesis can be defined as:

a. A process by which precursor cells establish regions of bone formation

b. Material surfaces act as scaffold for vascular ingrowth

c. A process by which viable osteoblasts induce bone formation

d. Bone formation after trauma

e. A process by which osteoclasts induce bone formation

206. Osteoconduction can be defined as:

a. Process by which viable osteoblasts establish regions of bone formation


c. Material surfaces act as cellular attachment

d. A process by which precursor cells establish regions of bone formation

e. A regenerative process

207. Osteoinduction can be defined as:

a. A process by which precursor cells establish the activity of osteoblasts


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c. Process of transformation of recruited precursor cells into osteoblastic cells

d. Bone formation after trauma

e. A regenerative process

208. All wounds heal in 4 stages, including:

a. haemostasis, inflammation, scaring and remodelling

b. haemostasis, followed by epithelisation

c. haemostasis, followed by inflammation

d. proliferation, followed by remodeling

e. scaring followed by remodeling

209. All wounds heal using a combination of 3 mechanisms:

a. Contraction

b. Epithelisation

c. Connective tissue formation

d. Scaring

e. remodeling

210. Regarding the surface topography of implants, three categories of roughness can

be found:

a. Smooth Sa 0.001 mm

b. Maximally rough Sa 4mm

c. minimally rough Sa 0.5–1mm

d. moderately rough Sa 1–2mm

e. rough Sa >2mm

211. The main biological difference between implants and natural teeth is:

a. functionality

b. periodontal ligament

c. vascular blood supply

d. connective tissue

e. junctional epithelium

212. The purpose of platform switching is to allow the formation of the biological

space on the remaining platform of the implant, thereby decreasing crestal bone

resorption. Platform switching has no effect when the implant is placed in:

a. angulation

b. subcretal

c. thin biotype

d. supracrestal

e. subcrestal

213. The difficulty with the periapical radiograph technique for implant registration

is:

a. periapical region does not show


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b. parallelism

c. elongation

d. cone cut

e. artefacts

214. Peri- apical radiolucency in dental implants indicates:

a. infection

b. overheating

c. thining or perforation of the cortical plate

d. osteointegration

e. implant failure

215. The magnification of the orthopantomogram is not constant in one radiograph but

varies from one anatomical site to another. This is due to:

a. osteoporosis

b. Bone density

c. position of the head of the patient

d. variable distance between the object and the film and the distance between the object and

the source

e. angulation of the object

216. In panoramic radiographs, the normal anatomy shadow can be divided into real

and ghost shadows. The ghost shadow is:

a. orbital rim

b. nasal septum and chonchae

c. axis

d. atlantis

e. clavicular bone

217. Regarding maxillary sinuses, the best radiograph to show the floor of the sinus is:

a. periapical

b. panoramic

c. occipitomental

d. antero- posterior skull view

e. lateral skull view

218. Which of the following views can be achieved with cone beam computerized

tomography (CBCT):

a. osteodensimetry

b. periapical radiograph

c. orthopantamogram

d. cephalogram

e. tomography

219. All of the following are relative contraindications for sinus floor elevation except:

a. sinus floor convolutions


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b. sinus septum

c. sinusitis

d. benign tumor

e. malign tumor

220. After maxillary sinus membrane elevation, there will be membrane changes, such

as:

a. membrane thinning

b. decrease blood supply

c. increase in the ciliary and washing action

d. decrease in the ciliary and washing action

e. membrane thickening

221. The horizontal soft tissue incision in the posterior maxillary edentulous area

should be slightly palatal, which will offer:

a. better view of the alveolar ridge

b. more keratinized gingival tissue

c. inclusion of palatine blood vessels in the wound healing process

d. less keratinized gingival tissue

e. less bleeding

222. When an implant is placed in the mandibular posterior area, the distance from the

inferior alveolar nerve should be 2 mm because:

a. mandibular jaw angulation make the nerve nearer to the crest

b. the apex of the drill (1.5) not estimated in most implant system

c. anatomical variation

d. allows the implant to be placed with angulation

e. mandibular jaw resorption makes the nerve nearer to the crest

223. During a single implant placement in upper anterior area, the implant apico-

coronal placement should be:

a. 3mm from the gingival margin

b. 4mm from the cemento- enamel junction

c. 2mm from the cemento- enamel junction

d. 2mm from the gingival margin

e. 1 mm from the gingival margin

224. The proper position of the implant during immediate placement in the upper

anterior socket is:

a. palatally placed

b. labially angulated

c. palatally placed but parallel to the labial wall

d. vestibullary placed

e. palatally placed but parallel to the neighbor tooth


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225. When an implant will be placed in hard, dense bone, which implant should be

chosen to avoid pressure necrosis:

a. wide diameter implant

b. aggressive implant design

c. regular diameter implant

d. blade implant

e. none tapered implant (parallel wall)

226. Simultaneous implant placement and sinus augmentation is not recommended

when:

a. using xenograft as a graft material

b. regular size implant is used

c. tapered implant is used

d. bone height underneath the maxillary sinus is less 5mm

e. bone height underneath the maxillary sinus is less 2mm

227. During a socket preservation procedure, the following should be considered:

a. no active infection

b. graft should be placed with layering

c. no condensation should be done to the graft material

d. no over grafting

e. washing with clorhexidine

228. Athorough investigation of the upper posterior edentulous area is needed to

determine the bone volume availability before implant placement because:

a. difficult to determine the bone angulation in this area

b. thick gingival tissue can mask the bone volume

c. most of the time the soft tissue does not follow bone resorption

d. poor bone density can resorbed easily

e. good bone density

229. The implant should be submerged when:

a. poor primary implant stability

b. soft tissue grafting

c. bone grafting

d. esthetic purposes

e. good primary implant stability

230. The disadvantage of the punch flapless technique is:

a. blind technique

b. difficult to determine implant position in bone level implant

c. difficult to change drilling position or angulation

d. higher costs

e. lower risk of complications


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231. The operator may be unable to place the implant at the level of the bone or

countersink it because:

a. Bone taping used

b. debris at the apical part of the socket, failed to wash out

c. crestal preparation not done for the tapered implant

d. underdrilling of the implant socket

e. overdrilling of the implant socket

232. To increase the primary stability of an implant placed in soft bone, which of the

following should be considered:

a. undersize drilling

b. wide diameter implant

c. drilling the socket 1.5mm deeper

d. short implant

e. thiner implant

233. To increase the primary stability of an implant placed in soft bone, which of the

following should be considered:

a. grafting

b. Deep threaded implant

c. subcrestal placement implant d- deep threaded implant, with the thread until the top

d. taping

e. non-taping

234. To avoid bone overheating during drilling, the following should be considered:

a. use internal irrigation

b. use sharp drills

c. incremental drilling procedure with increasing diameter drills

d. continuous drilling

e. high torque and high rotations

235. The best management for wound dehiscence after a GBR procedure and exposure

of the resorbable collagen membrane to the oral cavity is:

a. antibiotic prescription, maintain good oral hygiene

b. special care to the exposed membrane by Chlorhexiden irrigation and removal of the

plaque from the membrane

c. no management needed

d. resuturing the dehiscence with complete closure

e. changing the membrane

236. Implants placed in the mandible are exposed and loaded earlier than those in the

maxilla (approximately 3 months vs. 6 months) because:

a. poor bone quality of the maxilla

b. high bone density on the mandible

c. mandibular implant engage with more cortical bone that give more support


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d. bone implant contact on the mandible is higher than the maxilla

e. better vascularization

237. Implants placed in the anterior of the mandible can be immediately loaded with a

provisional complete prosthesis because:

a. dense bone give support to the implant

b. bi- cortical engagement

c. the implants can be splinted together

d. delated osseointegration of the implant to the surrounding bone

e. thick periosteum in this area

238. During implant placement in the upper first premolar area, special consideration

should be given to:

a. curved apex of the adjacent canine

b. maxillary sinus

c. mesial curvature of the second premolar root

d. distal root angulation of the adjacent canine

e. mesial root angulation of the adjacent canine

239. Due to limited space in the upper central area, the implant may need to be placed

in the incisive foramen. The best management approach in this case is:

a. enamoplasty with orthodontic movement to adjacent teeth to create space

b. evacuation of the foramen content then implant place in the foramen

c. evacuation of the foramen content, bone grafting then implant placed after graft healing

d. place the implant more labial with labial bone grafting

e. place the implant more palatal

240. When autogenous bone is needed for one implant, the intraoral harversian donor

site is:

a. symphysis

b. external oblique ridge

c. tuberosity

d. orbicular rim

e. mandibular notch

241. To decrease stress on the crestal bone, the following should be considered:

a. use platform switch abutment

b. smooth collar implant should place subcrestaly

c. choose wide diameter implant

d. avoid subcrestaly placed implant in dense bone, may lead to over torque the implant

e. try to avoid angulated implant placement

242. A short implant should be avoided in which of the following cases:

a. dense bone

b. compromised patient

c. soft bone


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d. patient with bruxism

e. D3, D4 bone

243. Immediate implant loading is determined when:

a. implant placed torque more than 35Ncm

b. implant placed in dense hard bone

c. an infection was present

d. soft bone is present

e. when multiple implants splinted together

244. The following is needed in bone grafting:

a. intimate contact between the graft and the recipient site

b. blood supply

c. infection free in the grafted site

d. partial soft tissue coverage

e. complete soft tissue coverage

245. Graft immobilization or fixation is crucial during a bone grafting procedure

because:

a. graft mobility does not allow soft tissue growth

b. graft mobility cause wound opening

c. graft mobility prevent blood vessels sprouting into the graft material

d. graft mobility enhance inflammation and interleukin- I

e. graft mobility cause wound opening and dehiscence

246. The advantage of an H- incision is:

a. can explore the anatomical area

b. good flap adaptation in soft tissue grafting

c. minimal invasive with blood supply preservation

d. provide wide surgical view

e. easier to perform

247. To enhance soft tissue thickening around a dental implant, the following

procedure can be performed:

a. connective tissue grafting

b. subperiostel alloplast bone grafting

c. apical repositioning flap

d. alloderm grafting

e. xenoderm grafting

248. What is the anatomical finding that increases the incidence of maxillary sinus

membrane perforation during a sinus lift procedure?

a. thin membrane

b. narrow medio- lateral space of the sinus

c. scaloped shape of the sinus floor

d. thick membrane


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e. sinus septae

249. The following complication is expected when an implant is placed in a patient

who has not yet reached puberty:

a. change implant angulation due to bone growth

b. under developed alveolar bone at implant site due to ankyloses

c. implant sinking due to bone growth

d. crown spacing

e. aesthetic issues

250. Placing an implant in soft bone is usually associate with an increased failure rate.

To reduce implant failure, which of the following should be considered:

a. Reduce implant height and width

b. increase implant length and width

c. increase the number of the implant

d. reduce implant crown height and width

e. use grafting

251. A late implant failure usually occurs because of mechanical problems or an

overloaded implant. The best management approach in this case is:

a. Antibiotic treatment

b. Early implant placement

c. trephine bure used to remove the implant

d. bone grafting with GBR procedure

e. late implant placement after bone grafting healing

252. Cancellous bone has more osteogenic potential than does cortical bone due to

presence of hematopoietic marrow. However, cortical bone has some advantages over the

cancellous bone, including:

a. provides the most bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)

b. contain high percentage of endothelial growth factor

c. rich in blood vessels that carry osteoprogenerator cells

d. resistant to all type of forces

e. impedes soft tissue ingrowth into the graft site

253. The collagen membrane usually develops from:

a. type I collagen

b. type II collagen

c. combination of type I and III collagen

d. type IV collagen

e. combination of type II and type IV collagen

254. Esthetic outcomes are more challenging when:

a. only central incisor tooth is missing

b. lateral and canine teeth are missing

c. two central incisors teeth are missing


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d. one central and one lateral teeth are missing

e. lateral teeth are missing

255. To achieve a more predictable outcome in the esthetic zone, the following should

be considered in the treatment plan:

a. smile line

b. Biotype of the periodontium and tooth shape

c. The bony anatomy of the implant site

d. hard and soft tissue amount

e. only hard tissue amount

256. In a case of upper posterior missing teeth, only 7 mm of bone height remains

under the maxillary sinus, and the patient declines a sinus lift operation. The alternative

treatment plan is:

a. short and wide implant

b. crestal sinus left approach

c. mini implant

d. angulated implant

e. wide implant

257. Placing an implant too deep in the esthetic zone will result in the following

complications:

a. poor primary implant stability

b. proximal bone resorption with gingival recession

c. vestibular bone resorption with gingival recession

d. abutment screw loosening

e. periimplantitis

258. The healing period in maxillary sinus augmentation depends on:

a. antrum width

b. amount of bone graft

c. type of bone graft

d. type of mucosa

e. type of suture

259. For a fully edentulous arch that needs multiple implants, which implant should be

placed first:

a. midline implant

b. first and second from midline

c. most distal on the left

d. most distal on the right

e. all at the same time

260. From a surgical point of view, lower second molar implant placement is difficult

because:

a. limited access


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b. inferior alveolar canal is near the alveolar crest at this area

c. less dense bone

d. good acces

e. weak bone offer

261. Implants should never be placed in the midline of the maxilla because:

a. fracture of the nasal spine

b. expand the suture between two maxilla

c. aesthetic and phonetic complication

d. sever angulation of the implant

e. may lead to infectious complications

262. The anatomical landmark that should be considered during implant placement in

the inter- mental foramen region for a fully edentulous denture patient is:

a. Buccinators muscle

b. facial artery

c. lingual artery

d. mental nerve

e. infraorbital nerve

263. Sufficient bone height is always available for implant placement at the site of:

a. upper canine area

b. upper incisor area

c. lower anterior area

d. lower first molar area

e. lower second molar area

264. Nerve damage during implant placement can be caused by:

a. complicated anatomic nerve path

b. poor planning design and/or surgical skill

c. decision make based on 2D scan

d. decision made based on 3D scan

e. excesive pression

265. Different surgical techniques can be utilized to increase the width of the

keratinized soft tissue around an implant. All of the following are true about these

procedures except:

a. periosteum release

b. coronal repositioning flap

c. apical repositioning flap

d. lingualized incision designs

e. bone grafting

266. To achieve a better esthetic result for an implant placed in the esthetic zone with a

thin gingival biotype, the implant should be placed:

a. labial and apical


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b. palatal and coronal

c. palatal

d. apical

e. avoid implantation

267. Blood supply is an important factor in the success of a bone grafting procedure.

The posterior resorbed ridge of the mandible always suffers from a diminished blood

supply during bone augmentation because:

a. higher cortical bone content in this area

b. difficult to achieve tension- free primary flap closure

c. less keratinized tissue always found

d. central blood supply

e. thin periosteum

268. A common biological complication reported for zygomatic implants is:

a. necrosis

b. sinusitis

c. soft tissue infections

d. oroantral fistula

e. sepsis

269. Possible factors related to Schneiderian membrane tearing during the lateral

approach technique include:

a. absence of alveolar bone

b. overfilling with the graft material with insufficient elevation of the membrane

c. previous sinus surgery

d. irregularities of the sinus floor

e. thick membrane

270. A 1/2- circle suture needle is used more frequently in:

a. areas of restricted space

b. suturing a soft tissue graft

c. vertical bone augmentation flap closure

d. retromolar donor flap site closure

e. extractions.

271. A passive and tension- free flap closure is important and can be achieved through:

a. para- crestal incision with three sided flap

b. scoring of the periosteum

c. elevating a split thickness flap apically

d. vertical mattress suture

e. continous suture

272. Evaluating gingival thickness before implant placement is crucial because it

affects

the selection of:


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a. implant design

b. flap design

c. abutment design

d. abutment material

e. type of grafting material

273. Contraindications of zygomatic implant placement include all of the following

except:

a. lateral wall of the maxilla is severely concave

b. maxillary sinus with pathological condition

c. pneumatisation

d. maxillary sinus expansion

e. less than 8mm available

274. For socket preservation with bone grafting, the graft should have all of the

following characteristics except:

a. preserve the space to maintain the bone volume

b. bone graft with small particles for better condensation

c. transfers pathologic diseases

d. osteoconductive availability

e. convent into dense bone for better stability

275. Factors that may affect the flap design for the procedure of a chin donor site

include all of the following except:

a. depth of the vestibule

b. amount of keratinized tissue

c. root length of the lower central incisor

d. gingival biotype

e. root length of lower lateral incisor

276. A medically compromised patient may have poor wound healing, including:

a. uncontrolled diabetes

b. chronic steroid use

c. immunocompromise

d. alcoholism

e. age

277. Failing implant are characterized clinically by:

a. increased mobility

b. periimplant radioluceny

c. probing depth more than 6 mm

d. probing depth more than 4 mm

e. gingival swelling

278. Long- term studies have shown that peri- implantitis occurs more frequently in

patients

who are:

a. periodontally compromised

b. diabetic


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c. cigarette smokers

d. implant covered with non- keratinized mucosa

e. keratinized mucosa is present

279. The disadvantage of hydroxyapatite coating surface implant is:

a. surface detachment with high torque implant placement

b. high surface roughness prevent osteoblast attachment

c. surface coating resorption in acidic media

d. functional surface area reduced

e. same functional area

280. To avoid scratching and roughening the titanium implant abutment surface, the

scaling

instruments should be made of:

a. diamond

b. hard plastic

c. stainless steel

d. titanium

e. zirconium

281. Progressive marginal bone loss or ‘Saucerization’ because of:

a. peri- implantitis

b. using wide diameter implant

c. overloading of the implant

d. coronal microthread implant

e. wide implant

282. Fistula tract lesions have been found mostly at the level of the implant/abutment

connection, the cause of these lesions is:

a. loose abutment screw

b. fractured abutment screw

c. crestal bone resorption

d. crown decemtation

e. implant failure

283. After one year of loading, implant failure should be attributed to:

a. surgical failure

b. overloading

c. peri- implantitis

d. osseointegration failure to achieve

e. prosthetic failure

284. Patient education and home care after prosthesis delivery for dentate and

edentulous

patient should focus on:

a. hygiene of the natural teeth and/or implant

b. hygiene of the surrounding tissue

c. hygiene of prosthesis

d. type of toothbrush


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e. type of toothpaste

285. The accuracy of the probing measurement can be affected by:

a. prosthetic design

b. implant angulation

c. gingival hyperplasia

d. loss of reference point

e. anatomical features

286. The purpose of gingival probing during implant follow up is to evaluate:

a. bleeding

b. exudate

c. tissue consistency

d. pocket depth

e. aesthetics

287. Pain and patient discomfort with dental implant can be related to:

a. nerve encroachment by implant

b. soft tissue entrapped between the implant body and abutment

c. mobile implant

d. overloaded implant

e. normal occlusion

288. Keratinized mucosa is preferred over non- keratinized mucosa around dental

implant

because of:

a. resist abrasion

b. resist gum recession

c. decrease probing depth

d. can fill the interdental papillae

e. stability

289. Periodontal involved tooth adjacent to dental implant may has adverse effect on

the

dental implant through:

a. increase the crown length

b. implant solely loaded

c. infection may spread to the implant

d. decrease crown length

e. gingiva overgrowth

290. The treatment of choice in peri- implantities case is:

a. open surgery, debridement

b. bone grafting and collagen membrane

c. laser decontamination

d. conservative debridement (non surgical)

e. open surgery and collagen membrane

291. The type of bacteria in peri- implant lesions are similar to deep periodontal

pockets,


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but peri- implantitis treatment prognosis is much less predictable, because of:

a. less blood supply

b. unknown anatomy

c. none well- defined surface structure

d. limited access to the site

e. good blood supply

292. The early signs of peri- implantities (mucositis) is:

a. purulence

b. oedem

c. bleeding on probing

d. bone loss

e. gingival recession

293. The following should be considered to avoid peri- implant infection and

inflammation:

a. occlusion should be checked and adjusted

b. adequate buccal bone thickness

c. careful use of cement material

d. proper prosthesis design for better patient maintenance

e. smoking

294. Peri- implantities has many etiological factors one of these is the patient himself,

like:

a. periodontal disease

b. bone volume

c. bone density

d. soft tissue

e. general status

295. According to the implant design, dental implants can be classified in:

a. alloplastic

b. Endosteal

c. Subperiosteal

d. Transosteal

e. Intramucosal

296. Fibrointegration of a dental implant, term proposed by Charles Wiess, means:

a. Complete incapsulation of implant with soft tissues

b. Complete incapsulation with hard tissues

c. Soft tissue interface resembles the highly vascular periodontal fibers

d. Soft tissue interface resembles a joint like structure

e. Implant failure

297. Osseointegration, described by Branemark, means:

a. Direct contact between the bone and the surface of the loaded implant

b. Using bioactive materials that stimulate the formation of bone

c. Implant failure

d. Soft tissue interface


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e. Complete incapsulation of implant with soft tissues

298. Main characteristics of a threaded dental implant are:

a. Increase the contact area

b. Better distribution of forces

c. Greater periimplant bone volume

d. Worse distribution of forces

e. Less surgical steps for implant insertion

299. Indications for implant treatment:

a. Restoring dental aesthetics

b. Restoring lost dental function

c. Orthodontic anchorage

d. Bone resorption

e. Infectious diseases

300. The fundamental objectives of optimal biomechanical implant design are:

a. To minimise stress concentration at the bone-implant interface

b. To enhance primary and secondary implant stability within bone

c. To increase and distribute occlusal forces transmitted to the bone-implant interface

d. To solve occlusal problems

e. To reduce and distribute occlusal forces transmitted to the bone-implant interface

301. According to Lekholm and Zarb, the maxilla has :

a. Type 1 bone in the anterior and premolar regions

b. Type 2 bone in the anterior and premolar regions

c. Type 2 bone in molar areas

d. Type 3 bone in the anterior and premolar regions

e. Type 4 in molar areas.

302. According to Lekholm and Zarb, the mandible has:

a. The mandible may have Type 1 bone anteriorly

b. Types 2 and 3 bone lateraly

c. Type 1 and 3 lateraly

d. Type 2 anteriorly

e. Type 5 everywhere

303. Short implants, angled implants and in the maxilla, zygomatic and pterygoid

implants may be used in special circumstances, in order to

a. avoid encroaching on anatomical structures

b. avoiding damaging anatomical structures

c. easier procedure

d. better osteointegration

e. reducing occlusal forces

304. The major anatomical structures that need to be taken into consideration when

planning dental implant placement:

a. the maxillary sinus

b. nasal floor

c. inferior dental nerve


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d. mental nerves

e. inner ear

305. Possible disadvantages of immediate implant placement include:

a. difficulty in obtaining primary stability of the implant

b. the presence of residual infection causing peri-implant infection (peri-implantitis)

c. the space between the implant and the socket wall which may require grafting

d. can lead to high implant survival rates

e. may be associated with a high risk of mucosal recession

306. Risk factors for the development of mucosal recession around immediate

implants:

a. Obesity

b. Smoking

c. Presence of a thin buccal bone plate <1mm thick

d. Presence of a thin soft tissue biotype

e. Buccal implant position

307. Late placement is indicated when:

a. the tooth has been chronically infected

b. the socket requires substantial regeneration using the Guided Bone Regeneration

c. socket augmentation techniques

d. good bone offer

e. in lateral areas

308. Ridge preservation is indicated in:

a. Maintenance of the existing soft and hard tissue envelope

b. Maintenance of a stable ridge volume for optimising functional and aesthetic outcomes of

implant treatment

c. Simplification of treatment procedures subsequent to the ridge preservation

d. When a healing period of 6 months is required

e. When the vestibular wall was damaged during the extraction

309. Post-operative complications are:

a. Infection

b. Bleeding

c. Pain

d. Swelling and bruising

e. Antibiotherapy

310. Post-operative complications are:

a. Suture granuloma

b. Wound dehiscence and break down

c. Membrane exposures

d. Altered sensation or numbness to teeth, gum, lip etc.

e. Root canal treatment

311. Signs and symptoms of nerve injury:

a. Pain

b. Numbness


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c. Tingly sensation

d. Bleeding

e. Inflammation

312. Localised infection at an implant site can arise from:

a. poor surgical technique

b. necrosis or contamination due to failure to reduce the bacterial count in the surgical field

c. Smoking

d. uncontrolled diabetes

e. in elder patients

313. Early implant failures usually arise:

a. Poor surgical technique

b. inability to achieve primary fixation

c. inadvertent implant loading during the integration phase

d. infection and systemic conditions

e. wrong chosen implants

314. Late failures are caused mainly by:

a. Biological failures: caused by plaque-induced peri-implant disease

b. Mechanical failures: caused by unfavourable loading conditions due to poor restorative

design or failure to control occlusal interferences

c. inability to achieve primary fixation

d. inadvertent implant loading during the integration phase

e. infection and systemic conditions

315. Dental implants differ from natural teeth:

a. The peri-implant tissue has less blood supply

b. There are no transeptal or gingivodental fibres around implants

c. There is a junctional epithelium attachment to the implant abutment

d. There is no periodontal ligament associated with an implant, instead it is fused directly to

the bone (osseointegration)

e. No significant differences have been detected

316. The following should be assessed at 6 months check-up:

a. Oral hygiene

b. Peri-implant tissue: tone, colour and texture

c. Inflammation: gently squeeze the peri-implant tissues assessing erythema, edema

bleeding and exudate

d. probe implant sulcus

e. grafting material status

317. Signs and symptoms of mucositis include:

a. bleeding on probing

b. increased pocket depth

c. swelling

d. radiographs show no evidence of crestal bone loss

e. radiographs show significant evidence of crestal bone loss

318. Signs and symptoms of peri-implantitis include:


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a. bleeding on probing

b. increased pocket depth

c. swelling

d. radiographs show no evidence of crestal bone loss

e. radiographs show significant evidence of crestal bone loss

319. Placement of implants in the posterior mandible poses few specific concerns:

a. The bone is less dense and has larger medullary space than the anterior mandible

b. The inferior alveolar nerve and vascular bundle are closer to the edentulous ridge

c. The width of the ridge, the attachment of lateral pterygoid muscle is An obstacle

d. Wider implants are required

e. There is always need in grafting surgeries.

320. Being the most common used suture, the interrupted suture leads to:

a. Secondary healing

b. Create area of intermittent ischemia

c. Serve as a general source of annoyance for the tongue and lips

d. Grafting material movements

e. Implant failure

321. Continuous sutures have the following characteristics:

a. are useful for long wounds

b. minimize the tension

c. may be used to secure a split- or fullthickness skin or gingival graft

d. lead to secondary healing

e. serve as a general source of annoyance for the patient

322. Disadvantages of a continuous suture are:

a. risk of dehiscence if the suture material ruptures

b. difficulty in making fine adjustments along the suture line

c. minimal tension to the gingival tissue

d. quick placement

e. more rapid reapproximation of wounds

323. Membranes are used in the following situations:

a. Primary soft tissue closure is questionable.

b. A void exists in the osseous operative site.

c. A mucosal pedicle is required.

d. The graft material is physically stable.

e. Additional bone height or width is required.

324. Non-resorbable membranes are:

a. Gore-tex

b. PTFE- polytetrafluoroethylene

c. Polymers

d. Tephlon membranes

e. Laminar bone

325. According to Misch, the D1 bone is:

a. Dense cortical bone, highest in the density


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b. Coarse trabecular bone, surrounded by thick porous cortical bone

c. Fine trabecular bone, surrounded by thin porous cortical bone

d. Fine trabecular bone, with almost no cortical bone

e. Found in the anterior mandible






e. Anterior mandible and maxilla






e. Posterior maxilla and mandible






e. Posterior maxilla

329. Advantages of D1 bone are:

a. Implant achieves highest implant stability

b. Implant achieves highest bone-implant surface

c. Fewer implants can support a multiple unit prosthesis

d. Requires 3-4 months of primary healing

e. Slow lamellar bone formation

330. Disadvantages of D1 bone are:

a. Slow lamellar bone formation

b. Highest rate of failure in implant surgery

c. Chances of bone heating during osteotomy

d. Implant achieves highest implant stability

e. Implant achieves highest bone-implant surface

331. Immediate implantation has the following indications:

a. Extracted tooth was no subject to infection

b. Osseous topography is favorable

c. Adequate bone volume is present

d. Adequate zone of thick, stable and keratinized soft tissue around the extraction socket

e. Socket with one bony wall

332. Immediate implantation has the following contraindications:

a. Socket with 2 bony walls

b. Socket with one bony wall


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c. Unfavourable osseous defect

d. Adequate bone volume is present

e. Adequate zone of thick, stable and keratinized soft tissue around the extraction socket

333. Loading classification for the immediately inserted implant includes:

a. Conventional loading- more than 9 months after implant placement

b. Immediate loading- the implant is restored in occlusion, within 48 h of insertion

c. Delayed loading-the implant is restored after 2 months

d. Delayed loading-the implant is restored after 3 months

e. Conventional loading- 3-6 months after implant placement

334. Risk factors for immediate implantation and functional loading:

a. Parafunction

b. Low quality bone

c. Infected implantation site

d. Large osseous defect

e. Elder patients

335. Absolute contraindications for implant therapy include:

a. Severe systemic disorders

b. Psychiatric diseases

c. Drug or alcohol abusers

d. Smokers

e. Diabetes

336. The absolute contraindications for implant therapy are:

a. Myocardial infarction, less than 6 months ago

b. Acute cardiovascular disease, treated by valvular prosthesis, coronary stents

c. Severe renal disorders

d. Smoking

e. Diabetes

337. Relative contraindications of implant therapy include:

a. Abusing corticosteroids

b. Smoking

c. Diabetes

d. Calcium and phosphate metabolism disorders

e. Drug abusers

338. The mechanism of bisphosphonates-induced osteonecrosis can be explained by:

a. A defect in physiologic remodeling of the bone

b. Inhibition of normal bone turnover

c. Calcium deficiency

d. decreasing the bone mineral density

e. increasing the risk of fractures

339. Biophosphonate-induced osteonecrosis must meet few requirements:

a. History of previous or current treatment with bisphosphonates

b. Exposed, necrotic bone present in the OMF region for more than 8 weeks

c. Exposed, necrotic bone present in the OMF region for more than 16 weeks


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d. No history of radiation therapy

e. History of treatment with alendronic acid

340. Normal clotting and bleeding time have the following normal values:

a. Clotting time- 4 to 6 minutes

b. Clotting time- 8 to 12 minutes

c. Bleeding time- 5 to 8 minutes

d. Bleeding time- 8 to 12 minutes

e. Same values, both 5 to 8 minutes

341. CBCT provides:

a. greater clarity

b. accuracy in the radiologic survey of the surgical site (the slice

thickness is 0.3 to 1 mm)

c. images that are free of magnifi cation, superimposition of neighboring structures

d. a bi-dimensional image of the OMF region

e. enough information for implant therapy planning

342. CBCT is indicated in a large number of cases, such as:

a. assessment of the facial bones for infection

b. quantitative and qualitative assessment of residual

c. visualization of the mandibular condyle and the articulating components

d. visualization of facial vascularization

e. visualization of the cavernous sinus

343. Placement of implants in the posterior maxilla poses few specific concerns:

a. The bone is much less dense, with large medullar spaces, which can result in a longer

healing time

b. The maxillary sinus is close to the edentulous ridge, making sometimes the implant

insertion impossible

c. The bone is dense, so there is need in a bigger torque

d. There should be at least 5 mm between the apex of the implant and the maxillary sinus

e. Immediate implantation is recommended always.

344. Placement of implants in posterior mandible poses few specific concerns:

a. Dense bone with large medullar space creates good conditions for implantation

b. The inferior alveolar nerve must be at 2 mm from the apex of the implant

c. The mylohyoid muscle insertion might lead to perforation during implant socket drilling

d. The bone is much less dense, with large medullar spaces, which can result in a longer

healing time

e. The maxillary sinus is close to the edentulous ridge, making sometimes the implant

insertion impossible

345. Pre-implant surgery procedures are:

a. Root canal treatment

b. Ridge reduction

c. Ridge augmentation

d. Sinus lift

e. Scalling


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346. Cement retention offers many benefits, including the following:

a. Cemented suprastructures tend to loosen less often than the screwed ones

b. More passive suprastructures

c. Occlusal surface remains intact

d. Worse aesthetics

e. More occlusal porcelain fractures

347. Disadvantages of cement retention:

a. Abutments must be prepared intraorally, sometimes

b. Gingival retraction may be needed

c. Occlusal surface has a hole inside

d. Aesthetic aspect

e. Cement often washes out

348. The prematurely washing out of the temporary cement might result in:

a. Improper loading

b. Prosthesis dislodgement

c. Food impaction

d. Gingival retraction

e. Implant failure

349. Screw retention has the following advantages:

a. Prosthetic flexibility

b. Allows the use of short profile abutments

c. Screws can support hybrid suprastructures

d. Gingival retraction

e. Aesthetic aspect

350. Antirotational features on various implant system include:

a. The external hex

b. The internal hex

c. The Morse taper

d. The short profile abutments

e. The angled implants

351. The internal hex geometry offers several advantages:

a. A more precise abutment-implant interface

b. Easier intraoral connection of abutment

c. It allows cover screw to be placed above the implant level

d. They protrude above the bone, in the first-stage surgery

e. Do not allow simple suturing techniques

352. Four most successful ways to prevent mandibular canal perforation:

a. Measurements must be taken carefully in the planning and

operating stages.

b. Infiltration anesthesia, rather than block anesthesia, should

be used, because the patient may be able to respond as an

instrument approaches the canal.

c. The tactile sense should be used to alert the dental surgeon


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of contact with the cortical bone superior to the canal.

d. Undistorted intraoperative periapical films should be used.

e. Using wide implants, rather than long ones.

353. In case of maxillary sinus perforation:

a. Air bubbles leaking from the osteotomy site

b. Valsava probe is positive

c. Graft material can be used

d. The flap is sutured over affected bone

e. The intervention continues without any changes

354. There are various options for loading a dental implants, classified into:

a. Immediate loading procedure.

b. Early loading (one week to twelve weeks

c. Delayed loading (over three months)

d. Imeddiate post-extraction implant placement

e. Late implantation

355. Osseointegration is:

a. A dynamic process

b. A passive process

c. A cellular modulated process

d. The formation of a direct interface between the bone surface and the implant surface

e. The formation of a indirect interface between the bone surface and the implant surface

356. Platform switching is:

a. Whenever an abutment smaller in diameter than the implant platform is used

b. Can help prevent crestal bone loss

c. Can increase the volume of soft tissue around the implant platform

d. Damages the aesthetic result

e. Decreases the volume of soft tissue around the implant platform

357. For ideal insertion and function, two implants should be:

a. Parallel

b. Perpendicular to the occlusal plane

c. Equal distance from the midline

d. Angulated

e. 1.5 mm one from another

358. Anterior mandible is the preferred site, because:

a. Retention

b. Greatest available height

c. Optimum density of bone

d. Best cortical bone

e. Possibility to insert angulated implants

359. Dental implants offer several benefits over conventional tooth replacement

option:

a. It prevents bone loss, because the implant osseointegrates with the bone

b. Restores the function and aesthetics


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c. Easier to perform

d. No complications

e. Has no significant contraindications

360. Clinical evidence of successful osseointegration:

a. Implant has a good stability after the healing period

b. Stable crest bone levels

c. Healthy soft tissue

d. Signs of mild inflammation are present

e. Radiolucency of the peri-implant area

361. The soft tissue integration can be defined as:

a. A biological process that occurs during the formation and maturation of the implant

b. It occurs between the soft tissue and the transmucosal implant superstructures

c. It occurs between the soft tissue and the dental crown

d. It is a pathological process

e. Requires a non-keratinized gingiva

362. Subperiosteal implants are:

a. Placed under the periosteum and fixed on the jaw

b. Are preferred in cases of severely resorbed mandible

c. Are preferred in cases of severe resorbed maxilla

d. Usually, holds a removable or fixed prosthesis

e. Are used in D1 bone, with sufficient height

363. The endosseus implants are:

a. Implants which are placed within the jaw bone

b. Blade implants

c. Root form implant

d. Subperiosteal implants

e. Microimplants

364. Transosteal implants are:

a. Used in severely resorbed mandible

b. Prevents the mandible from getting fractured

c. Blade implants

d. Root form implants

e. Widely used

365. Non-threaded implants have the following characteristics:

a. Do not have any threads along their body

b. Are tapped into the osteotomy slot

c. Have a larger contact area with the bone

d. Can be placed in a one stage protocol

e. Do not require a special technique.

366. Implants of the maxilla show a lower success rate, because:

a. Poor bone density

b. Lower bone volume

c. Sinus pneumatization


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d. Facial cantilevering

e. Thick cortical bone

367. Clinical advantages of hydroxyapatite coating are:

a. Increases the surface area

b. Increases roughness for primary stability

c. Stronger bone to implant interface

d. Decreases roughness for primary stability

e. Increases corrosion

368. Advantages of zirconia dental implants:

a. No corrosion

b. No piezo-electric currents appear in the oral cavity

c. Thermally non-conductive

d. Thermally conductive

e. Less bone-implant contact

369. If the osteotomy becomes oversized during insertion of a implant:

a. Use a larger diameter of implant

b. Use HA grafting material

c. Discontinue the procedure and wait 6 months to repeat the procedure

d. Use a longer implant (1-1.5mm longer)

e. Use membranes- GTRM

370. In case of fracturing the buccal or lingual cortical plate, during the osteotomy:

a. Discontinue the procedure

b. If the fractured plate is attached to the mucoperiosteum, do not remove it

c. If the fractured plate is attached to the mucoperiosteum, remove it

d. Suture continuously

e. Use grafting material 371. Density of available bone in an edentulous site has a primary influence on:

a) Healing time

b) Surgical approach

c) Implant design

d) Procedure time

e) Strength of bone

372. What cand be determined during implant osteotomy?

a) Density of trabecular bone

b) Presence of a crestal cortical bone

c) Thickness of crestal cortical bone

d) Type of suture that will be used

e) The implant design

373. Histological composition of D1 bone:

a) Dense lamellar bone

b) Complete haversian system

c) Highly mineralized

d) Thin lamellar bone

e) Poor mineralization


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374. Anterior mandible is the preferred site because of:

a) Retention

b) Greatest available height

c) Optimum density of bone

d) Very dense bone

e) Normal available height

375. Risk factors in treatment option:

a) Length of edentulous plan

b) Position of connecting bar

c) Bone type

d) Patient age

e) Patient general status

376. Titanium is less flexible than:

a) Alveolar bone

b) surrounding tissue

c) lamellar bone

d) periodontal tissue

e) soft tissue

377. Clinical findings of falling implants include:

a) inflammation

b) pockets

c) progressive bone loss

d) pain

e) pus

378. Specific pathogens in implant pockets, greater than 6mm include:

a) Prevotella intermedia

b) actinomycetes

c) AH1N1

d) s. Aureus

e) s. haemolitic

379. A through review of ____ is essential before commencing any maintenance procedures

a) patient's oral hygiene

b) age

c) mucoepithelial attachment

d) bad habits- alcohool, drugs, smoking

e) occlusion

380. The following are the feature of peri-implantitis:

a) associated with plaque biofilm

b) irreversible

c) loss of bone

d) reversible

e) at the soft tissue-bone level

381. Most common site for autograft:

a) chin and ramus

b) ileac crest

c) tibia and fibula


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d) maxillary tuberosity

e) hard palate

382. Maxillary sinus is lined by:

a) motile cilia

b) specialised respiratory membrane

c) Schneidarian membrane

d) Wharton membrane

e) Keratinized tissue

383. Osteoblasts forms bone by secreting ______:

a) type 1 collagen

b) osteopontin

c) osteoclastin

d) hydroxiapatite

e) calcium

384. Causes of implant losses include:

a) poor implant placement at the time grafting

b) parafunctional and trauma form the overlying removal prosthesis

c) advance uncontrolled bone lost

d) chronic sinusitis

e) smoking

385. Types of failures of an implant includes:

a) osseous healing fracture

b) surgical

c) early loading

d) abutment unscrewing

e) abutment loosening

386. Organisms which has higher incidence to occur around the exposed implant

a) prevotella intermedia

b) streptococcus mutans

c) streptococcus beta hemolysin

d) actinomycetes

e) treponema pallidum

387. Procedures involved in uncovery:

a) soft tissue incision

b) bone-to-implant interface evaluation

c) ridge augmentation

d) soft tissue augmentation

e) osteotomy

388. Causes of bone loss at stage II uncovery:

a) premature implant exposure

b) excess torque during implant insertion

c) crestal bone trauma at surgery

d) vestibular plate fracture

e) bacteria

389. Advantages of reverse torque testing at stage II surgery?

a) Biomechanical measure of initial stability


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b) definitive verification of initial osteointegration

c) safe test to perform

d) physical measure of initial stability

e) detects bacteria

390. Two main tissues that surrounds the natural teeth:

a) attached, keratinized

b) unattached, keratinized

c) unattached, non-keratinized

d) hard tissue

e) soft tissue

391. Types of oral mucosa found around an implant:

a) non-keratinized, non-mobile tissue

b) non-keratinized, mobile tissue

c) keratinized, mobile tissue

d) attached gingiva

e) mobile gingiva

392. Method(s) of increasing the zone of keratinized tissue:

a) place dense hydroxyapatite around permucosal extension

b) place acellular tissue grafts over the implant

c) place an indirect coping

d) place a direct coping

e) apical repositioned flap

393. Criteria for evaluation of a successful implants at stage II uncovery:

a) absence of crestal bone loss

b) adequate zone of keratinized gingiva

c) sulcus depth of 4mm

d) sulcus depth of 6mm

e) non-keratinized, mobile tissue is present

394. Socket grafting can be done using these materials except:

a) alloplast

b) allograft

c) FDB

d) Resorbable membranes

e) Unresorbable membrane

395. Surgical approach of posterior single tooth implant surgery are?

a) 2 stage surgery

b) 1 stage surgery

c) direct (flapless) one stage surgery

d) sinus lift

e) sinus lift with bone grafting

396. Advantages of 2 staged surgery are:

a) direct observation of crestal bone volume before osteotomy

b) direct observation during osteotomy

c) ability to graft the time of implant placement

d) flapless design

e) minimum invasive


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397. The goals of implant dentistry are to replace a patient's missing teeth to:

a) normal contour

b) comfort and function

c) esthetics and speech

d) improve fonation

e) improve parafunctional habits

398. Which bone is primarily present in posterior region of jaw

a) d3

b) d2

c) d4

d) d1

e) d1 and d2

399. Posterior short implant may have a higher failure rate after loading compared with longer

implants:

a) higher bite forces

b) bone density in region

c) increase crown height

d) decreases occlusal stress

e) lower bite forces

400. Advantage of short implants:

a) no surgical risk of sinus perforation

b) no surgical risk of paresthesia

c) more strength

d) short crown height

e) less occlusal stress

401. Implant size collection criteria in posterior maxilla:

a) 1.5 mm from adjacent tooth

b) 3 mm from adjacent implant

c) 4 mm from adjacent implant

d) 2mm from adjacent implant

e) Nor significant

402. The disadvantage with use of antibiotics include:

a) infectious endocarditis

b) development of resistant bacteria

c) adverse reactions

d) infection control

e) decreases risk of post-insertion complications

403. Which of the following are systemic factors associated with increased risk of infection

for implant procedure

a) diabetes

b) smoking

c) hypothyroidism

d) hypertension

e) cancer

404. Local factors associated with increased risk of infection in implant procedures are:

a) periodontal disease


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b) type of grafting material

c) odontogenic infections

d) diabetes

e) hypothyroidism

405. Surgical factors associated with increased risk of infection in implant procedure

a) poor aseptic technique

b) increased duration of surgery

c) skill of surgeon

d) diabetes

e) smoking

406. Advantages of bactericidal over bacteriostatic medication are:

a) results are faster

b) greater flexibility with dosage intervals

c) bacteria destroyed by the antibiotic alone

d) bacteria destroyed by enzimes

e) drug resistance

407. The complications of antibiotic prophylaxis are:

a) allergic reactions

b) gastrointestinal complications

c) respiratory complications

d) kidney failure

e) liver failure

408. Three faciopalatal angulations of implant body are suggested:

a) facial angulation so emergence of final crown is similar to adjacent teeth

b) under incisal edge of final restoration

c) within cingulum position of implant crown

d) palatal angulation

e) above incisal edge of final restoration

409. Soft tissue contouring consists of one or more of the following:

a) soft tissue graft before bone augmentation

b) soft tissue graft in conjunction with bone graft before implant surgery

c) nonresorbable hydroxyapatite graft

d) resorbable membranes

e) sinus lift

410. The threaded implant may be place by:

a) using a handpiece at 30rpm

b) using a hand wrench

c) using the suregon's fingers

d) using a handpiece at 100 rpm

e) using a high torque- 80N/cm2

411. The following treatment options exist for replacement of anterior single missing tooth.

a) removable partial denture

b) resin-bonded prosthesis

c) implant prosthesis

d) orthodontic treatment

e) dental bridge


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412. Prosthetic options for soft tissue contouring and emergence profile include:

a) wide healing abutment

b) narrow healing abutment

c) temporary contouring through provisional restoration

d) anatomical abutment

e) pink porcelain on abutment

413. Remodeling is a process of:

a) resorption

b) formation

c) phase of bone renewal

d) includes a phase os aseptic necrosis

e) is a temporary process

414. Oxide ceramic were introduced for surgical implant devices because of their:

a) inertness to biodegradation

b) high strength

c) minimal conductivity

d) good thermoconductibility

e) good electroconductibility

415. Functional surface area per unit length of implant modified

a) thread pitch

b) thread depth

c) thread shape

d) thread number

e) thread size

416. Advantage of hydroxyapatite

a) faster healing bone interface

b) stronger interface than TPS

c) less corrosion of metal

d) weaker interface than TPS

e) lower contact surface

417. Disadvantage of coating are, as follows:

a) Causes flaking

b) Causes cracking

c) Causes scaling

d) implant failure

e) bone resorption

418. Guided tissue regeneration is a surgical procedure that:

a. Eliminates a bony defect around a dental implant

b. Decreases the connective tissue growth

c. Increases the growth of bone in defect

d. Increases the connective tissue growth

e. Decreases the growth of bone in defect

419. Indications for implant placement are:

a. Fixed restoration of single or multiple teeth

b. Retention of a removable prosthesis in a partial edentulous maxilla

c. Retention of a removable prosthesis in a complete edentulous jaw


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d. Patients with osteoradionecrosis

e. Patient with heart failure

420. To prevent infective eendocarditis, the prophylactic antibiotic coverage during dental

procedures is acceptable, being performed with:

a. Cephalexin

b. Amoxicillin

c. Clindamycin

d. Erythromycin

e. Azithromycin

421. Treatment-resistant diabetes predispose the patient that will undergo an implant insertion

to:

a. Tissue degeneration

b. Compromised healing

c. Higher risk of infection, peri-implantitis

d. Kidney failure

e. Thrombosis

422. The clinical aspects of a successful implantation are:

a. Immobility

b. Clear sounds at percussion

c. Lack of infection

d. Lack of pain

e. Paresthesia

423. Radiological aspects of a successful implantation are:

a. Absence of radiolucency

b. Less than 2mm bone loss in the 1st year of function

c. Less than 4mm bone loss in the 1st year of function

d. Mild radiolucency after 6 months

e. Immobility

424. Lamellar bone formation:

a. Takes 2-4 months

b. Takes 3-6 months

c. The trabecular bone transforms into lamellar bone

d. The lamellar bone transforms intro trabecular bone

e. Lamellar bone consists of primary and secondary osteons

425. Osteointegration can be influenced by:

a. Bone-implant interface

b. Biocompatibility of implant

c. Implant shape

d. Implant surface

e. Implant size

426. Noninvasive methods for implant stability testing are:

a. Insertion torque

b. Branemark probe

c. Radiographic examination

d. Removal torque value

e. Reverse torque value

427. Hydroxiapatite is described as:


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a. The most compatible grafting bone material

b. No local toxicity or systemic reaction

c. Unresorbable, osteophilic substance

d. Resorbable substance

e. Induces an immune reaction, leading to allergies

428. Relative general contraindications of implant treatment are:

a. Compensed diabetes

b. Pregnancy

c. Endocrine diseases

d. Paget disease

e. Osteomalacy

429. Absolute general contraindications of implant treatment are:

a. Acute leukemia

b. Recent heart failure- less than 6 months

c. Compensed diabetes

d. Pregnancy

e. Endocrine diseases

430. According to the time of prosthetic conduction used over implants, we have the following

classification:

a. Immediate occlusal loading

b. Immediate non-occlusal loading

c. Early occlusal loading

d. Early occlusal loading

e. Late loading

431. According to the EAO, implants can be loaded as follows:

a. Immediate loading- in the same day

b. Early loading- in a few days or weeks

c. Conventional loading- after 3-6 months

d. Delayed loading- more than after 3-6 months

e. Unloaded

432. Bone grafting materials can be divided in:

a. Autograft

b. Allograft

c. Xenograft

d. Alloplast

e. Biograft

433. The alloplast, or synthetic materials, are:

a. Osteogenic cells

b. Growth factors

c. TCP

d. Bioglass

e. Hydroxyapatite

434. The buccal nerve releases sensitive branches for:

a. the skin of oral cavity region

b. the mucosa on the internal face of the buccinators m

c. buccinatory m.

d. the posterior part of the buccal mucosa


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e. m. tensor of palatine wave

435. What are the terminal branches of inferior alveolar nerve?

a. mylohyoid n.

b. inferior and posterior dental nerve

c. inferior and middle dental nerve

d. mental nerve

e. incisive nerve

436. What are the areas of innervation for the superior and posterior alveolar nerve?

a. maxillary bone

b. first, second and third molars

c. distal periosteum of the zygomatic-alveolar crest

d. the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus

e. the gingival and vestibular mucosa near the molars

437. The motor branches of the mandibular nerve includes:

a. m. masseter

b) m. pterygoid

c) mylohyoid muscles

d) m. tensor of the eardrum

e) m. lifter of the upper eyelid

438. Which nerves are responsible for the innervation of the walls of the maxillary sinus?

a. superior anterior alveolar n

b. superior posterior dental n

c. superior-middle alveolar n

d. zygomatic n

e. infraorbital n

439. Superior dental plexus innervates:

a. Alveolar maxillary bone

b. the maxillary sinus

c. teeth in the upper jaw

d. nasal fossa

e. nasal wing

440. Blockage of nerve conduction caused by the local anesthetic:

a) involves easier nerve fibers with smaller diameter.

b) involves easier nerve fibers that are not at all or slightly myelinated.

c) involves easier myelinated fibers.

d) involves easier fibers with short axons.

e) involves easier fiber with a high discharge rate and a potential for sustainable action

441. The duration of anesthetic action depends on:

a) The ability of the substance to bind to proteins.

b) the concentration of cationic forms around the axon.

c) Anesthetic capacity of diffusion .

d) Injection rate.

e) rate of elimination of the anesthetic

442. The anesthetic power of the anesthetic substance is favored by:

a) the alkaline environment.

b) Low p H.

c) Increased p H.


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d) the acidic environment.

e) No Correct Answer

443. Anesthetics from amides group are:

a) Chlorprocaine

b) Mepivacaine

c) Bupivacaine

d) Lidocaine

e) Butacaine

444. C.M. Select the anesthetics from the esters group:

a) Procaine (novocaine, neocain)

b) Chlorprocaine (noncaine)

c) Propoxicine

d) Cocaine

e) Tetracaine

445. The anesthetic substance used in local anesthesia in dental medicine pass the:

a) Nerves tissue

b) blood flow

c) lungs

d) liver

e) kidneys

446. What are the firs clinical signs of central neurotoxicity?

a. Agitation (anxiety)

b. Tinnitus (ringing or buzzing in the ears)

c. Visual disorders

d. Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart action)

e. Tachypnea (abnormally rapid breathing)

447. Allergic reactions after the administration of local anesthetic are:

a) Purpura (a rash of purple spots on the skin)

b) Urticarial (a rash of round, red weals on the skin which itch intensely)

c) Edema

d) Nystagmus (rapid involuntary movements of the eyes)

e) Anaphylactoid reactions

448. CM. Articaine is administrated with caution for patients with:

a) Liver diseases

b) Kidney diseases

c) Digestive diseases

d) Psychological diseases

e) Osteoarticular diseases

449. Local effect of adrenaline is:

a) Fast hemostasis

b) Induce bleeding

c) Reduce resorption of anesthetic substance

d) Increase the effect of anesthetic substance

e) Decrease the effect of anesthetic substance

450. Plexal anesthesia is more effective in:

a) Elder people

b) Children


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c) Young people

d) In case of a more dens cortical bone

e) In case of a more expressed spongy bone

MCQ to the 4th year exam at the discipline of Oral ...

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