Protozoa (E. Histolytica, trichomonas, giardia).

Q1. Only protozoa parasite found in Lumen & human small intestine (Duodenum & Jejunum)

a) Giardia lamblia b) E. Histolytica c) E. Despar d) Giardia

Q2. Protozoa transmitted by sexual contact except.

a) Trichomonas vaginalis b) Giardia lamblia c) E. Histolytica d) Toxoplasma

Q3. Flagellated parasite are all except.

(a)Giardia lamblia b) Trichomonas c) Trypanosoma d) leishmania e) Toxoplasma

Q4. Causative Agent of PAM (primary amoebic meningoencephalitis).

a) Naegleria fowleri b) E. Histolytica c) Endolimax nana d) Dientamoeba fragilis

Q5. Causative agent of granulomatous amoebic meningoencephalitis.

a) Acahthamoeba

b) E. Histolytica

c) E. Despar

d) Naegleria

Q.6 which of the following infection leads to malabsorption

a) Giardia lamblia

b) Ascaris

c) Necator americanus.

d) Ancyclostoma duodenale

Q7. Recurrent giardiasis is associated with:-

a) SCID

b) Combined variable immunodeficiency

c) Digeorge syndrome

d) C8 deficiency

e)

Q8.Diagnostic test for amoebic hepatitis is

(a)Indirect haem agglutination

(b) isolation from pus

(c) Isolation from wall of cavity

(d) Cyst in stool

Q9.Cystic form of all are seen in man except

(a)E.histolytica

(b)Giardia

(c)trichomonas

(d)Trichomonas

Q10.Amoeba not found in human intestine

(a)E.histolytica

(b) E.coli

(c)E.nana

(d)E.gingivalis

Q11.All are true about entamoeba histolytica except

(a)Cyst are 8 nucleated

(b) Cyst are 4 nucleated

(c)Trophozoites colonize in colon

(d)Chromatid bodies stained in iodides

Q12.Investigation of choice for amoebiasis is

(a)ELISA

(b) E.coli

(c)H.nana

(d)E.gingivalis

Q13.Most common test done for invasive amoebiasis is

(a)IHA indirect haem agglutination

(b) microscopy

(c) Colonoscopy

(d) ELISA

Q14.Amoeba lack cystic stage and transmitted by direct oral contact

(a)E.gingivalis

(b) E.coli

(c)Acanthamoeba

(d)Naegleri

Q15.Infective stage of E.histolytica

(a)Trophozoite

(b)Quadrinucleated cyst

(c)metacystic trophozoite

(d)Amoeboid form

Q16.True about amoebic colitis except

(a) Caused by E.histolytica

(b) Cyst contain 8 nuclei

(c) flask shaped ulcer present

(d) Caecum is most commonly effected

Q17.A patient present with lower GI bleeding on sigmoidoscopy flask shaped ulcer seen most likely

organism is

(a)E.histolytica

(b)Giardia

(c)Toxoplasma

(d)Plasmodium

Q18.Analysis of stool on wet mount shows motile protozoa without RBC & pus cells most likely

organism is

(a)B.coli

(b)Giardiasis

(c)T.hominis

(d)E.histolytica

Q19.Binucleate pear shape trophozoite seen in

(a)Giardiasis

(b)E.histolytica

(c)Toxoplasma

(d)Trichomonas

Q20.Amoebic cysteine proteinase virulent factor present in

(a)E.histolytica

(b)E.dispar

(c)E.gingivalis

(d)Tooplasma

Q21. Falling leaf motility seen in

(a)Giardia

(b)Trypanosoma

(c)leishmania

(d)Listeria

Q22.Content of Amoebic abscess is called as

(a)Anchovy paste

(b)pasty

(c)Creamy pus

(d)pus

Q23.flask shape ulcer of amoebiasis have

(a)narrow neck and stout base

(b)long neck and broad base

(c)broad base and broad neck

(d)narrow neck and broad base

Q24.A patient present with pain in right hypochondrium, the movement of chest on right side

diminished, apical impulse of heart displaced upward and laterally on diagnostic USG aspirate shows

anchovy sauce appearance most likely organism caused this abscess is

(a)E.dispar

(b)Toxoplasma

(c)E.coli

(d)E.histolytica

Q25.Excystation of cyst of E.histolytica occurs in

(a)Stomach

(b)duodenum

(c)jejunum

(d)caecum

1 A 2 D

3 E 4 A

5 A

6 A 7 B

8 A 9 D

10 D 11 A

12 B

13 A 14 A

15 B 16 B

17 A 18 B

19 A

20 A 21 A

22 A

23 D 24 D

25 D

VIRUS (HEPATITIS, MISCELLANEOUS)

Q1. Most common hepatitis associated with blood transfusion

a) Hepatitis A

b)Hepatitis B

c)Hepatitis D

d) Hepatitis C

Q2. Most common hepatitis virus transmitted perinatally

a)Hepatitis A

b)Hepatitis B

c)Hepatitis C

d)Hepatitis D

Q3. Which of the following hepatitis virus is cultivable

a)Hepatitis A

b)Hepatitis B

c)Hepatitis C

d)Hepatitis D

Q4.Marker of acute Hepatitis B is

a) HBV DNA polymerases

b) Ig G anti HBc

c) HBc Ag

d) Anti HBs Ag

Q5.Marker of Chronic Hepatitis B is

a)IgG anti HBc Ag

b)IgM anti Hbc Ag

c)HBe Ag

d)Ig G anti HBc Ag + HBs Ag

Q6.Marker of Vaccination of hepatitis

a)Ig G anti HBc

b) HBe Ag

c) Anti HBs Ag alone

d)IgM anti HBc Ag

Q7.Most Common Cause of fulminant Hepatitis in Pregnancy

a)Hepatitis B b) Hepatitis E c) Hepatitis A d)Hepatitis D

Q8.Which Hepatitis Virus is notorious for causing chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis

a)Hepatitis C b)Hepatitis B c) Hepatitis E d) cytomegalo virus

Q9.Hepatits A & Hepatitis E transmitted through

a) Blood route b)By inhalation c)Feco-oral d) All Q10.Presence of HBeAg in patient with hepatitis indicates

a)Simple carrier b) Late convalescence c)Carrier status d)High infectivity

Q11.Hepatitis B is not transmitted by

a)Blood transfusion b)Pasteurized Albumin c)Cryoprecipitate d)Sexual contact

Q12.HBV is associated with all except

a)hepatitis cancer b) chronic Hepatits c)Hepatic adenoma d) Hepatitic Cirrhosis

Q13.Which of the following is not present in DANE particle

(a)Core Ag (b) Surface Ag (c) P53 (d)none

Q14.Commonest cause of acute hepatitis in India

(a) Hepatits A (b)Hepatitis B (c)Hepatitis C (d)Hepatitis B+ D

Q15.HBV variant present in India is

(a)Adw (b)Ayw (c)Adr (d)Ayw+Adr

Q16.A 48-year-old female presents to a physician with malaise, loss of appetite, nausea, moderate

fever, and jaundice. Laboratory tests indicate a marked increase in serum transaminases. Serology

for hepatitis viruses is performed and indicates positive results for the presence of HBs Ag, HBc IgM antibody, and HCV antibody. Antibody tests for HBs Ab and HAV are negative. The results indicate:

(a) A dual infection of HBV and HAV (b). Chronic hepatitis A infection (c). Chronic hepatitis B

infection (d)Hepatitis C infection (e). The presence of an acute HBV infection.

Q17.A patient presents to a physician with jaundice. Physical examination reveals a nodular,

enlarged liver. CT of the abdomen shows a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. CT-guided biopsy of the

mass demonstrates a malignant tumor derived from hepatic parenchymal cells. Infection with which

of the following viruses would most likely be directly related to the development of this tumor?

A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) C. Human herpesvirus type 8 (HHV 8) D. Human papillomavirus (HPV) E. Human T-lymphocyte virus (HTLV-1)

Q18.Prion are

(a)infectious protein (b)made up of bacteria and virus particle (c)Nuclear material (d)can be cultured

in cell free media

Q19.Which of the following not prion associated disease

(a)Scrapie (b)Kuru(c)Creutzfeldt-jakob disease(d)Alzheimer`s disease

Q20.Mad cow disease is due to

(a)slow virus(b)mycoplasma (c)bacteria (d)Fungus

Q21.Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is the delayed manifestation of

(a)measles (b)polio(c)mumps(d)influenza

Q22.Human cannabilism is associated with

(a)Q fever(b)sleeping sickness(c)Trachoma (d)Kuru

Q23.Rota virus is detected by

(a)Ag in stool (b)Ab in serum (c)Stool culture (d)Demonstration of virus

4.Reassortment typically seen in

(a)parvovirus(b)rotavirus(c)hepadna(d)astrovirus

Q25.Human papilloma virus contains

(a)SS RNA (b)DS DNA (c)SS DNA (d)DS RNA

Q26.Human papillomatosis caused by

(a)HSV (b)HPV(c)HIV(d)HBV

Q27.Virus induces aplastic crisis in children suffering from sicle cell anaemia

(a)Parvo virus B19(b)Prvo virus B39(c)Parvo virus B9(d)Parvo virus B29

Q28.All are true about congenital rubella except

(a)Infection after 16wks of gestation result in major congenital defect

(b) Diagnosed when IgG Ab persist >6month

(c)Most common congenital defect are deafness, cardiac malformation,cataract

(d)Diagnosed when IgM Ab at birth

Q29.full form of SARS is

(a)Severe acquired respiratory syndrome

(b)Severe acute respiratory syndrome

(c)Severe acquired rubella syndrome

(d)severe acute rhino sclerosis

Q30.Ebola virus belongs to family

(a)Filovridiae(b)coronaviridae(c)Arenaviridiae(d)flaviviridiae

Immunlogy( infection,immunity,Ag ,Ab,Ag-Ab reaction,complement system)

Q1.Hapten is

A) Same as isotope

B) Small molecular weight protein

C) Requires carrier for specific Ab production

D) Simple haptens are precipitate

1 D 2 B

3 A

4 A 5 D

6 C 7 B

8 A 9 C

10 D

11 B 12 C

13 C 14 A

15 D 16 E

17 B

18 A 19 D

20 A 21 A

22 D 23 A

24 B

25 B 26 B

27 A 28 A

29 B 30 A

Q2.which of the following statement is true about hapten

A) It induces brisk immune response

B) It needs carrier to induce immune response

C) It is a T dependent antigen

D) It has no association with MHC

Q3.All the following statements about carbohydrate Ag are true except

A) It has lower immunogenicity

B) Memory response is seen

C) Cause polyclonal B cell stimulation

D) Does not require stimulation by T cells

Q4.which of the following T cell independent antigen act through

A) Tcell

B) B cell

C) Macrophages D) CD8+ T cells

Q5. Which part of bacteria is most antigenic

A) Protein coat

B) Lipopolysachharide

C) Nucleic acid

D) Lipids

Q6. Antigen combining site of antibody

A) Idiotype

B) Paratope

C) Epitope

D) Both a and b

Q7. A superantigen is bacterial product that

A) Binds to B7 and CD28 costimulatory molecules

B) Binds to the betea chain of TCR and Mhc class 2 of APC stimulating T cell activation

C) Binds to CD4+molecules causing T cell activation

D) It presented by macrophages to a larger than normal number of T helper CD4+ lymphocytes

Q8. Autoantigen is

A) Blood group antigen

B) Forssman antigen

C) Both

D) none

Q9. The main of adjuvant is to increase

A) distribution

B) absorption

C) antigenicity D) metabolism

Q10. All of the following forces are involved in antigen antibody reaction except

A) vander waal `s forces

B) electrostatic bond

C) hydrogen bond D) covalent bond

Q11. Which of the following statement is true

A) Paul Bunnel test is used to diagnose measles

B) Rose Waalar test is a complement fixation state

C) indirect haemaagltination test is less sensitive than gel diffusion test D) antigen antibody reaction cannot occur in the absence of electrolyte

Q12. The reaction between antibody and soluble antigen is demonstrated by

A) agglutination

B) precipitation

C) complement fixation test

D) haemoagglutination test

Q13. Skin test based on neutralization reaction is/are

A) casoni test

B) lepromin test

C) tuberculin test

D) shick test

Q14. Naegler reaction is a type of

A) neutralization reaction

B) CFT

C) Precipitation

D) Agglutination

Q15. Coombs test is

A) Precipitation test

B) Agglutination test

C) CFT

D) Neutralization test

Q16. Prozone phenomenon is seen with

A) Same concentration of antibody and antigen

B) Is antigen excess to antibody

C) Antibody excess to antigen

D) Hyperimmune reaction

Q17.prozone phenomenon is a feature of

A) Tularaemia

B) Legionnaire`s disease

C) Plague D) Brucellosis

Q18.The following methods of diagnosis utilize labelled antibody except

A) ELISA

B) Hemagglutination inhibition test

C) Radio immunoassay D) Immunofluorescence

Q19. Which is not heterophile agglutination test

A) Weil felix test

B) Widal test

C) VDRl D) All

Q20. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is known as

A) Agglutination

B) Precipitation

C) Flocculation

D) Complement fixation

Q21.VDRl is a

A) Slide flocculation test

B) Tube flocculation test

C) Gel precipitation test

D) Indirect haemagglutination test

Q22. Isoantigens are

A) Found in some but all members of species

B) Found in some but not all members of species

C) Occurs in different biological species,class and kingdom

D) All individual in particular species

Q23. Antibodies are most responsive to

A) recipient tissue

B) donor tissue

C) isograft

D) autograft

Q24. Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called

A) opsonisation

B) chemotaxis

C) decoding

D) CFT

Q25.DNA is detected by

A) Southern blot

B) Western blot

C) Northern blot D) Eastern blot

Q26.most sensitive test for detection of antigen is

A) RIA

B) ELISA

C) Immunofluorescence D) Passive hemagglutination

Q27. A single immunoglobulin molecule contains

A) 1 light chain ,1 heavy chain

B) 2 heavy chains, 1 light chain

C) 2 light chains ,2 heavy chains

D) 2 light chains ,1 heavy chain

Q28. Which of the following class specific antigenic determinants of an immunoglobulin is associated with

A) L-chain

B) H-chain

C) J-chain D) Variable region

Q29.variable portion of antibody molecule is

A) C-terminal

B) N-terminal

C) CHO moiety D) None

Q30. Antigen binding site on antibody is

A) Hinge region

B) Constant region

C) Both D & E

D) Hyper variable region E) Idiotype region

Q31. Antibody diversity is due to except

A) Gene rearrangement

B) Gene translocation

C) Antigenic variation D) Mutation

Q32. Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight of 50000

A) Secretory type

B) H-chain

C) L-chain D) J-piece

Q33. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is

A) Ig A

B) Ig M

C) Ig G D) Ig D

Q34. Which of the following immunoglobulin is responsible for opsonisation

A) Ig A

B) Ig G

C) Ig E D) Ig M

Q35. Activation of classical component pathway

A) Ig A

B) Ig G

C) Ig M

D) Ig D

Q36. The secretory component of immunoglobulin molecule is

A) Formed by epithelial cells of lining mucosa

B) Formed by plasma cells

C) Formed by epithelial cell and plasma cell

D) Secreted by bone marrow

Q37. Bronchial secretion secretes

A) IgA

B) IgM

C) Ig D

D) Ig G

Q38. Pentameric structure is

A) Ig M

B) Ig G

C) Ig D

D) Ig A

Q39. Which precipitate at 50-60 0 C but disappear on heating

A) Heavy chain

B) Light chain

C) Both

D) None of these

Q40. Bence jones protein best described as

A) Chains

B) Gamma Chain

C) Kappa & lambda chain D) Fibrin split products

Q41. All of the following are part of innate immunity except

A) Complement

B) NK Cells

C) Macrophages D) T cells

Q42. All are true about innate immunity except

A) Non specific

B) First line of defence

C) Not affected by genetic D) Include complement

Q43. Active immunity is not acquired by

A) Infection

B) Vaccination

C) Immunoglobulin transfer

D) Sub-clinical infection

Q44.adaptive immunity is by

A) Infection

B) Injection of antibodies

C) Injection of lymphocytes

D) Immunization

Q45.type of immunity conferred on individual by vaccination

A) Artificial active

B) Artificial passive

C) Natural active

D) Natural passive

Q46.true about secondary immune response

A) Both C & D

B) Usually of low titre

C) Antibodies appear in short term

D) Persist for long

Q47. Complement formed in liver

A) C2,C4

B) C3,C6,C9

C) C5,C8

D) C1

Q48. Which of the following best denotes classical complement pathway activation in immune-inflammatory condition

A) C2,C3,C4 decreases

B) C2 C4 normal C3 decreases

C) C3 normal C2 C4 decreases D) C2 C3 C 4 all are elevated

Q49. C3 convertases acts on

A) C4 2b

B) C4b 2B 3a

C) C4 b D) C3

Q50. Center of complement pathway

A) C3

B) C1

C) C5 D) C2

Q51. Chemoattractant is

A) C5a

B) C1

C) C3 D) C2

Q52. Opsonins are

A) C3a

B) C3b

C) C5a D) C5-C9

Q53. Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to

A) Deficiency of C1 inhibitor

B) Deficiency of NADPH oxidase

C) Deficiency of MPO D) Deficiency of properdin

1 C

2 B 3 B

4 B 5 D

6 B 7 D

8 D

9 C 10 D

11 D 12 B

13 D 14 A

15 B

16 C 17 D

18 B 19 B

20 B 21 A

22 B

23 B 24 A

25 A 26 A

27 C 28 B

29 B

30 B 31 B

32 B 33 B

34 D 35 C

36 A 37 A

38 A

39 B 40 C

41 D 42 C

43 C 44 C

Bacteriology( haemophilus ,bordetella, brucella )

Q1. Brucella melitensis is commonly found in (animal)

A) Pig

B) Sheep

C) Camel

D) Goat

E) Both B & D

Q2. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following ,except

A) Contact with infected placenta

B) Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected forms

C) Person to person transmission

D) Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol

Q3. Which of this is capnophilic

A) Brucella abortus

B) Brucella canis

C) Brucella melitensis.

D) Bordetella spp.

Q4. For growing Hemophilus spp., which medium is best?

a)Blood agar.

b)Chocolate gar.

c)Nutrient agar.

d)Peptone water.

Q5. Standard agglutination tets is done for…. ?

a. Hemophilus spp.

b. Brucellosis.

c. Salmonellosis.

d. Bordetella infection.

45 A 46 C

47 B 48 A

49 D

50 A 51 A

52 B 53 A

Q6. Regan-Lowe medium is done to grow: ….. ?

a. Bordetella spp.

b. Brucella suis.

c. Hemophilus aphrophilus.

d. H. ducreyi.

Q7. “School of fish” appearance is found in; …… ?

a. H. influenzae.

b. H. paraaphrophilus.

c. H. ducreyi.

d. S.aureus.

Q8. Urease positive motile Bordetella spp. Is: …. ?

a. B. pertussis.

b. B. parapertussis.

c. B. bronchiseptica.

d. None of above.

Q9. 2- Mercaptoethanol is used to distinguish between which 2 antibodies formed in Brucellosis.?

a. IgM and IgG.

b. IgE and IgD.

c. IgY and IgA.

d. None of above.

Q10. Satelliitism around S. aureus colony on blood agar is seen in.: ….. ?

a. H. influenzae.

b. H. parainfluenzae.

c. S. pneumoniae.

d. E. coli.

Q11. Which of these is a species in genus Brucella?

a. B. neotomae.

b. B. burgdorferi.

c. B. pertussis.

d. B. aureus.

Q12. Bisected pearl colonies are seen in:…. ….?

a. Bordetella spp.

b. Brucella spp.

c. Sporothrix spp.

d. Hemophilus spp. St

Q13. Milk ring test is done to detect:…

a. Brucella spp.

b. Bordetella spp.

c. S. aureus.

d. Enterococcus spp.

Q14. A farmer rearing sheep, present with complaint of fever and weakness for last one month

With generalised lymphadenopathy associated with hepatomegaly, on liver biopsy non-

caseating granuloma seen,most likely due to infection with..

a) Yersinia pestis

b) Brucella canis

c) Francisella tularensis

d) Brucella melitensis

Q15. Castaneda method of blood culture is employed for..?

a) Brucella spp

b) Bordetella spp

c) Francisella spp

d) Enterococcus

Q16.Which of following bacteria is a common cause of septic arthritis in children?

a. Brucella spp.

b. Hemophilus influenzae.

c. S. pyogenes.

d. S. epidermidis.

Q17. Chancoid is caused by; …. ?

a. H. aphrophilus.

b. H. ducreyi.

c. H. influenza.

d. T. pallidum.

Q18. Which of following diseases in vaccine preventable?

a. Brucellosis.

b. Hemophilus influenza type b infection.

c. B. pertussis infection.

d. Both b and c.

Q19. Lymphocytosis promoting factor is also known as: … ?

a.Pertussis toxin.

b. Cholera toxin.

c. Diphtheria toxin.

d. Salmonella enterotoxin.

Q20. Which of following is/ are virulence factors of B. pertussis?

a. Filamentous hemagglutinin.

b. Tracheal cytotoxin.

c. Pertactin.

d. All of the above.

Q21. Which of following is a common cause of sinusitis?

a. Bordetella sopp.

b. Pseudomonas spp.

c. H. influenzae.

d. Rotavirus.

Q22. Which age group is most susceptible to whooping cough?

a. 30-40 yrs..

b. Less than 2 years.

c. 2- 5 yrs.

d. More than 20 yrs.

Q23. Which of following drugs is used for treating brucel losis?

a. Rifampicin.

b. Streptomycin.

c. Amikacin.

d. Either a or b, with Tetracycline.

Q24. In which of the following organism capsule not acted as virulence factor

a) H.influenzae

b) Bordetella pertussis

c) N.meningitidis

d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q25.Malta fever is caused by

a) Legionella

b) Borrelia burgdorferi

c) Brucella melitensis

d) pseudomonas

1 E

2 C 3 A

4 B 5 B

6 A 7 C

8 C

9 A 10 A

11 B 12 D

13 A 14 D

15 A

16 B 17 B

18 D 19 A

20 D 21 C

22 B

23 D 24 B

25 C 25