Marketing Pquestions

8/17/2019 Marketing Pquestions

1/27

www.iqnglobal.com

DIPLOMA IN

MARKETING

january 2016

PRACTICE QUESTIONS


2/27

Page 1 of 26

Practice Questions Marketing

1. The transaction in which goods are exchanged with goods is called

A) Bartering

B) Portering

C) Galvanizing

D)

Trickling

2. The main purpose of marketing is

A) increasing sales

B) customer care

C) customer and supplier satisfaction

D) creating brand

3.

Consumer research deals with

A) personality of consumer

B)

personality of product

C) personality of people

D) both A & B

4. A company which makes what it thinks will be bought by customers is said to have

A) Sales orientation

B)

Production orientationC) Purpose orientation

D) Consumerism

5. One of the advantages of Marketing orientation is

A) It is cheap

B)

Rational consumer behaviour

C) Visionary focus

D) Caters to need of customer

6. The significant advantage a product enjoys over its rivals is termed as

A) USP

B) PUS

C) UPS

D) PPS


3/27

Page 2 of 26


7. Which of the following factors is not a PEST factor

A) Economic influence

B) Social influence

C)

Technological influence

D) Public influence

8. The concept of Marketing mix is also referred to as

A) Marketing push

B) Marketing dynamics

C) Marketing offer

D)

Marketing cloud

9. To define a product by its basic description, such as cosmetics, is a description of

A)

Actual product

B) Core product

C) Augmented product

D)

Luxury product

10. Which of the following C is not included in Ohmae’s “strategic triangle”

A)

CompanyB) Customer

C) Condition

D)

Competition

11. Which of the following type of strategies is a result of planning

A)

Deliberate strategies

B) Emergent strategies

C) Both A & B

D)

None of the above

12. Which of the following factors played the most important role in changing the

traditional distinguishing patterns of marketers?

A) Technological advancement

B) Political crises

C) Globalization

D) Social stratification


4/27

Page 3 of 26


13. ____________ is a statement that tells what a company is trying to achieve through its

conduct.

A) Vision statement

B)

Mission statement

C) Status Quo

D) Statement of entry

14. Specific goals of the organization as a whole are termed as

A) Organizational objectives

B) Commercial objectives

C)

Operating objectives

D) Corporate objectives

15. _________ is a systematic evaluation of marketing position and performance.

A) Marketing evaluation

B) Marketing appraisal

C)

Marketing audit

D) Marketing feedback

16. Market intelligence is a result of _________.

A) Environmental scanning

B) Political scanning

C)

Market scanning

D) Industry scanning

17. Which of the following is NOT an element of SWOT analysis?

A) Strength

B) Weakness

C)

OpportunitiesD) Turnover

18. To create an advantage through cutting down cost is an example of

A) Nicheing

B) Differentiation

C) Cost leadership

D) Pricing strategy


5/27

Page 4 of 26


19. Which of the following forecasts is not valid one in the stages of sales forecast?

A) Environmental forecast

B)

Market forecast

C) Industry forecast

D) Company forecast

20. Qualitative forecasting doesn’t depend on ________ data.

A) historical

B) numerical

C)

financial

D) social

21. When quality works as a philosophy supervises every organizational activity, it is a case

of

A) Total Quality Value (TQV)

B)

Total Quality Management (TQM)

C) Total Quality Approach (TQA)

D) Total Quality Template (TQT)

22.

__________ covers every aspects of organization’s relationship with customers

A) Customer approach

B)

Customer motive

C) Customer care

D) Customer preference

23. The phenomenon of sellers confusing wants and needs is known to be

A) Marketing hazard

B)

Marketing commaC) Marketing myopia

D) Marketing strangulation

24. Customer delight is simply another synonym for

A) Customer preference

B) Customer satisfaction

C) Customer loyalty

D) Customer kudos


6/27

Page 5 of 26


25. A satisfied customer is not supposed to

A)

buy again from the same supplier

B) switch to another supplier

C) buy more of same or costlier products

D) recommend supplier to friends

26. The process of building long term relationship with customers is known as

A) Relationship strategy

B)

Relationship approach

C) Relationship loyalty

D)

Relationship marketing

27. The potential lifetime profits from an individual customer is known as

A) lifetime profit system

B) lifetime customer value

C)

lifetime customer gain

D) lifetime profit margin

28. What relationship is created with a customer when he is encouraged to communicate if

needs be?

A) Basic

B)

Accountable

C) Reactive

D) Partnership

29. Customer care is aimed to close the gap between customer’s

A) Intensity and loyalty

B)

Knowledge and realityC) Demand and supply

D) Expectation and experience

30. Which of the following approaches is NOT an actual approach of quality control?

A) Cost minimization

B) Price segmentation

C) Zero reject

D) 100% quality


7/27

Page 6 of 26


31. Patterns in society that affects all the industries, not only individual firms or

households is known as

A) Micro environment

B) Macro environment

C) Pseudo environment

D) Trapezoid environment

32. All aspects of a market affecting relationship with customers and the pattern of

competition is called

A) Market strata

B)

Market dominion

C) Market environment

D) Market ambience

33. The three broad based stakeholder categories include each of the following categories

EXCEPT

A) Executive stakeholders

B)

Internal stakeholders

C) External stakeholders

D)

Connected stakeholders

34. Bankers to an organization is an example of

A) Executive stakeholder

B)

Internal stakeholder

C) External stakeholder

D)

Connected stakeholder

35.

The response risks likely to arise from an interest group includes all of the followingelements EXCEPT

A) Direct action

B) Publicity

C) Resignation

D) Sabotage

36. The ___________ environment is where the firm can exercise greatest control and

should possess the greatest knowledge.

A) internal


8/27

Page 7 of 26


B) marketing

C) industrial

D) operational

37. The ___________ comprises those firms which use a particular competence,

technology, product or service.

A) industry

B) company

C) economy

D) state

38. Porter’s five competitive forces include which of the following forces

A) Threat of new entrants.

B)

Threat of substitute product

C) Bargaining power of customers

D) All of the above

39. Which of the followings is NOT a barrier to entry for prospective new entrants?

A) Economies of Scale

B)

Switching costs

C) Industry turnover

D) Product differentiation

40.

_________ is the study of population characteristics and population trends.

A) Ethnography

B)

Demography

C) Lexicography

D) Geography

41. A consumer is a person who

A) is the end user of a product

B)

one of the parties in a purchase transactionC) is a user of range of services

D) is exercising special skills in purchasing

42. A state of felt deprivation is called

A) Need

B) Want

C) Desire

D) Expectation

43.

__________ can be defined as the decision processes and acts of individuals involved inbuying and using products or services.


9/27

Page 8 of 26


A) Consumer buying behaviour

B) Consumer switching behaviour

C) Consumer credit behaviour

D) Consumer inducing behaviour

44. The group of brands that consumer will recognize and consider buying among the

awareness set is termed as

A) Unawareness set

B) Awareness set

C) Evoke set

D) Void set

45. Which of the followings is NOT a characteristic of culture?

A) Learned

B) Cumulative

C)

Creative

D) Shared

46. The characteristic of culture that points out the fact that culture is handed down to

each new generation is

A)

Adaptive

B)

CumulativeC) Learned

D) Social

47. A distinct and identifiable cultural group within the society as a whole is called

A) micro-culture

B) macro-culture

C) tertiary culture

D) ethno-culture

48. The process by which the individual internalizaes social expectation is called

A) Socialization

B)

Stratification

C) Acculturation

D) Familiarity

49. Opinon leaders are people

A) who lead the society

B) who everyone looks for information

C)

who provide the best opinion

D)

who lead the pressure group


10/27

Page 9 of 26


50.

Motivation arises from _________ needs.

A) actual

B) perceived

C) artificial

D) individual

51. The concept of subdividing a market into homogeneous subgroups is termed as

A) Marketing mix

B)

Market segmentation

C) Market division

D) Market economy

52. The consideration for segmentation that refers to the extent of a sub-market’s size in

order to be accepted as a different segment can be termed as

A) Measurability

B)

Sustainability

C) Accessibility

D)

Constructability

53. Some of the non-profit benefits of market segmentation include each of the following

benefits EXCEPT

A)

Specialization

B) Competitive advantage

C)

Larger turnover

D) Product assortment

54. A total market of a particular product is

A) likely to homogeneous

B) likely to heterogeneous

C) both A & B

D) none of the above

55. A particular segment of a market generally is found to have

A) common needs and preferences

B) varied needs and preferences

C)

common needs but varied preferencesD) varied needs but common preferences


11/27

Page 10 of 26


56. A market or segment selected for special attention by an organization is known as

A) Marketing mix

B) Homogeneous market

C) Selective market

D) Target market

57. Picking a particular market and creating a single product suitable for this segment is

known as

A) Target marketing

B) Concentrated marketing

C)

Differentiated marketing

D) Unitary marketing

58. A company attempting to create varied products each for a particular segment is called

A)

Target marketing

B) Concentrated marketing

C)

Differentiated marketingD) Unitary marketing

59. Which of the following types of segmentation distinguish market as - heavy user,

medium user, light user?

A) Segmentation by location

B)

Segmentation by demography

C) Segmentation by benefits

D) Segmentation by product usage

60.

The sum of expectations which other people have on an individual in a relationship istermed as this individual’s

A) Role

B) Class

C) Status

D) Value

61. A ___________ is something that satisfies a set of wants that customers have.

A)

productB) price


12/27

Page 11 of 26


C) commodity

D) goods

62. ____________ is done mainly to increase the satisfaction of customers by bulding the

benefits the core product has.

A) Fermentation

B) Cataclysm

C) Augmentation

D) Benefit plotting

63. Which of the following products is a wrong example of consumer goods?

A) Shopping goods

B) Accessories

C)

Speciality goods

D) Unsought goods

64. Unsought goods are that which customers

A)

can hardly find in the market

B) do not prefer

C)

do not know they needD) sale back

65. The aspect of a product which distinguishes it from others is called

A)

Unit Selling Proposition

B) Unique Selling Proposition

C)

Unique Segment Proposition

D) Unit Segment Proposition

66. Which of the following functions doesn’t belong to packaging?

A) Protection

B) Distribution

C) User convenience

D) Segmentation

67. Which of the following orders is the correct order of a PLC or Product Life Cycle?

A)

Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline, SenilityB) Introduction, Maturity, Growth, Senility, Decline


13/27

Page 12 of 26


C) Introduction, Senility, Maturity, Growth, Decline

D) Introduction, Maturity, Senility, Growth, Decline

68. Most products in the market are in their

A) Introductory stage

B) Senile stage

C) Maturity stage

D) Growth stage

69. Reduction in the product range is sometimes known as

A) Generalization

B) Rationalization

C)

Augmentation

D) Cauterization

70. A ________________ is a section within a larger organization which is responsible for

planning, developing, producing and marketing its own products or services.

A) Strategic Business Unit

B)

Segmented Business UnitC) Stochastic Business Unit

D) Stewardship Business Unit

71. All the entities influencing the activities of an organization are regarded as its

A) Shareholder

B)

Creditholder

C) Stakeholder

D) Positionholder

72. The use of existing scientific and technological knowledge to create something new is

known to be

A) Creation

B) Development

C) Augmentation

D) Application

73. The approach to ask for premium prices on the launch of new product to profit from

the lead time over competition is known as


14/27

Page 13 of 26


A) Concept Definition

B) Product Championship

C) Skimming Strategy

D) Lead Time Approach

74. The ___________ rate of new product is very high.

A) birth

B) mortality

C) selling

D) demand

75.

The spread of market information regarding a product is called

A) Dissemination

B)

Dispersion

C) Diffusion

D) Elucidation

76. Product development is generally followed by ____________

A) Product identification

B)

Concept definitionC) Concept build-up

D) Product construction

77. “New baby syndrome” is just another name for ___________.

A) Product championship

B)

Skimming strategy

C) Concept definition

D) Product development

78.

Different market segments will require products of

A) different price and quality

B) similar price and quality

C) different price and similar quality

D) similar price and different quality

79. Early adopters and innovators are thought to operate as

A) opinion leaders

B)

social leadersC) market leaders


15/27

Page 14 of 26


D) segmentation leaders

80. New products should only be considered worth going for if there is evidence of

A)

Adequate demand

B) Compatibility with existing marketing ability

C) Compatibility with existing production ability

D) All of the above

81. In marketing the process of getting products to customers is called

A) Segmentation

B) Distribution

C) Diffusion

D)

Channeling

82. The five rights of distribution do not include which of the following rights?

A)

Right people

B) Right place

C) Right price

D)

Right quantity

83. _________ earn a commission on whatever sales they make on behalf of producer.

A)

DistributorsB) Agents

C) Brokers

D)

Franchises

84. The intermediaries who stock a range of products from competing manufacturers to sell

on to other organizations are called

A)

retailers

B) agents

C) wholesalers

D)

dealers

85. When a product goes straight from producers to consumers, the distribution is called

A) Direct distribution

B) Field distribution

C) Primary distribution

D) Force distribution

86.

Which of the following product characteristics has an effect on design of the channel ofdistribution?


16/27

Page 15 of 26


A) Durability

B) Quality

C) Cheap price

D) Demand

87. Which of the following factors is not favouring the intermediaries in distribution?

A) Insufficient resources to finance a large sales force

B) Potential buyers spread over large areas

C)

Supplier having insufficient marketing skills

D) The need for an expert sales force to demonstrate product

88. The desire to maintain a relationship is termed as

A) Trust

B) Friendship

C)

Commitment

D) Faith

89. Which of the following options is NOT an example of Direct Selling?

A) Mail order

B) Door-to-door selling

C)

Franchise

D) Computer-shopping

90. An ______________ is any firm which buys from one post of the chain and sells to

another in the process of product channeling.

A)

Distributor

B) Intermediary

C) Amazon

D)

Producer

91. ________ is the measure of the value transacted by the buyer for the value he receives

from the seller.

A) Fringe benefit

B) Value added service

C) Price

D) Index

92. The study that involves the calculation of costs of products (or services) is known as


17/27

Page 16 of 26


A) Actuaries

B) Cost Accounting

C) Manegerial Accounting

D) Actual accounting

93. A product cost is applied to a

A) finished product

B)

work-in-progress

C) JIT

D)

Supply chain

94. Which of the following costs is an example of direct cost

A) cost of materials

B)

wages

C) insurance

D) cost of cleaning materials

95.

Which of the following costs is NOT an example of variable cost

A) Sales commission

B)

Material costs

C) Building rent

D) Phone call charges

96. ________________ costs are often said to be avoidable costs.

A)

Impressionable costs

B) Marketable costs

C) Reasonable costs

D)

Controllable costs

97. Which of the following key constructs is NOT considered while setting price?

A) The prices charged by competitors

B) Cost of production

C) Cost of new entry barrier

D) Value of offerings to customers

98.

___________ is a principle of how an organization operates, how it does somethingconsistently in a certain way as laid down by the management.


18/27

Page 17 of 26


A) Policy

B) Decorum

C) Methodology

D) Procedure

99. __________ is the way by which organizations meet their objectives by using resources

in particular ways.

A)

Marketing

B) Strategy

C)

Procedure

D) Policy

100. Price leaders are _____________ market leaders.

A)

always

B) can be

C) in most cases

D)

never

101. The technique to scrutinize the inter-relationship between costs, volume and profit

is

A) Jarque-Berra analysis

B) Break-even analysis

C)

Box-cox analysis

D) Akaike analysis

102. Which of the followings is correct formula of Break-even point?

A) Variable Costs/ Price – Fixed Costs

B) Price/ Variable Costs – Fixed CostsC) Price / Fixed Costs – Variable Costs

D) Fixed Costs / Price – Variable Costs

103. Sales value minus variable costs of sales yields

A) Contribution

B) Appreciation

C) Break-even

D) Catenation


19/27

Page 18 of 26


104. ___________ can be regarded as the phenomenon of decrease of average cost as

output increases.

A) Economies of Scope

B) Economies of Scale

C)

Economies of Output

D) Economies of Sales

105. The statement that most fixed costs are step costs is

A)

true

B) false

C)

partially correct

D) unobservable

106. Full cost plus pricing is a ___________ approach of costing.

A)

traditional

B) modern

C) innovative

D)

obsolete

107. Which of the following measures is a measure of the responsiveness of demand to

changes in price?

A) Price elasticity of demand

B) Demand elasticity of price

C)

Price elasticity of turnover

D) None of the above

108. In which situation average pricing strategy is the way to go?

A) Products offered by competitors are similar

B) The company wants to be an aggressor in the market

C) Market is volatile.

D) Both A & B is true

109. Which of the following discount schemes extends over a period?

A) Quantity discounts

B) Cash discounts

C)

Cumulative quantity discountsD) Sales price


20/27

Page 19 of 26


110. When a company wants to earn high profits at the expense of its customers, the

pricing is called

A)

predatory pricing

B) aggressive pricing

C) feline pricing

D) unethical pricing

111. When a customer ask for the brand by name the resultant effect is said to be

A) pull effect

B)

push effect

C) side effect

D) dope effect

112. Getting the company’s goods into the distribution network is called

A) pull effect

B) push effect

C)

side effect

D) dope effect

113. SOST, a technique of integrated marketing planning, includes all of the following

factors EXCEPT

A) Situation

B)

Objectives

C) Strategy

D)

Technicality

114.

The correct hierarchy of the AIDA model is

A) Awareness > Desire > Interest > Action

B) Action > Awareness > Desire > Interest

C) Awareness > Interest > Desire > Action

D) Awareness > Action > Desire > Interest

115. The effective promotion tool to cover the stage “desire” in the AIDA model will be

A) Advertising

B)

Public RelationsC) Sales promotion


21/27

Page 20 of 26


D) Personal selling

116. Which one of the followings is the largest media in UK?

A)

Press

B) Television

C) Cinema

D) Outdoor

117. Which of following factors is not an advantage for cinema in terms of promotion?

A)

High attention span

B) Production expense

C) Regional flexibility

D)

High impact

118. Which of the followings is not an actual type of advertising?

A) Informative advertising

B)

Persuasive advertising

C) Creative advertising

D)

Reminding advertising

119. Conferring with another with the view to compromising or agreeing on some issue is

called

A)

Conference

B) Consultation

C)

Discussion

D) Negotiation

120. __________ is the presentation of products and associated persuasive

communication to potential clients, employed by the supplying organization.

A) Personal Selling

B) Practical Demonstration

C) Aggressive Marketing

D) Window Marketing

121. Which of the following roles is NOT one for a sales representative?

A) Deliverer


22/27

Page 21 of 26


B) Technician

C) Missionary

D) Producer

122.

Which of the following activities of a sales representative is regarded “the art of

selling”?

A) Communicating

B) Prospecting

C) Selling

D) Servicing

123. Which of the following is a category of benefits derived by a customer from a given

product?

A) Standard benefits

B) Company benefits

C)

Differential benefits

D) All of the above

124. Which of the following benefits relate to the offer of a supplier compared to what

his competitors are offering?

A) Standard benefits

B)

Company benefitsC) Differential benefits

D) All of the above

125. Direct marketing involves which of the following distribution intermediaries

A) Distributors

B)

Retailers

C) Wholesalers


126. Direct marketing is also referred to as

A) Direct response marketing

B) Direct channeling

C) Direct output base

D) Direct contribution method

127. ____________ are goods which are bought relatively frequently at a low cost.

A) Fast Track Consumer Goods


23/27

Page 22 of 26


B) Fast Moving Consumer Goods

C) Fast Distributing Consumer Goods

D) Fast Consumer Goods

128.

Bread is an example of what class of consumer goods

A) Shopping goods

B) Speciality goods

C) Convenience goods

D) Unsought goods

129. Formerly known as industrial goods market, it is now regarded as

A) Business to Customer

B) Supplier to producer

C)

Business to Business

D) Direct Marketing

130. Manufacturing falls under the domain of which industry?

A)

Primary industry

B) Secondary industry

C)

Tertiary industryD) All of the above

131. Consortiums are mostly __________ partnerships.

A)

short term

B) permanent

C)

immediate

D) economic

132. A _____________ organisation is one whose attainment of its primary goal is not

assessed by economic measures.

A) Direct marketing organisations

B) Not for profit organisations

C) Social marketing organisations


133. Which of the following factors does a reseller need to consider beside costs?

A) Anticipated resell price


24/27

Page 23 of 26


B) Appeal of the product

C) Reputation of the selling company

D) All of the above

134.

Which of the following services is NOT an after-sales service?

A) JIT delivery

B) Quotations

C) Maintenance

D) Guarantees

135.

Intangibility refers to the feature of a service which is

A) absence of physicality

B)

varieties

C) perishability

D) quality

136. Transfer of property is ________ in service

A) not possible

B)

a mustC) obvious

D) not necessary

137. ___________ is the totality of features and characteristics of that service which

bears on its ability to meet customer needs.

A)

Service Quality

B) Service Features

C) Service Appraisal

D)

Service Accounting

138. Which of the following components is NOT a component of service quality?

A) Technical Quality

B) Functional Quality

C) Additional Quality

D) Image

139.

Quality can only be defined by __________.


25/27

Page 24 of 26


A) Suppliers

B) Customers

C) Market

D) Producers

140. Services can’t be _________ .

A) stored

B) used

C) bought

D) created

141. _______________ refers to the marketing occurring between two or more countries

pertaining to both goods and services.

A) Cross-Countries Marketing (CCM)

B) International Marketing (IM)

C)

Global Marketing (GM)

D) Holistic Marketing (HM)

142. Companies enter in international marketing for which of the following reasons

A) National necessity

B) Growth

C)

Economies of Scale

D) All of the above

143. The three major criteria determining entrance in international market includes

each of the following EXCEPT

A) Market attractiveness

B)

Technical know-howC) Competitive advantage

D) Risk

144. _______________ is domestic country orientation in which IM is secondary to home

marketing.

A) Ethnic Conflict

B) Patriotism

C) Ethnocentrism

D)

Myopic concentration


26/27

Page 25 of 26


145. ________ is a synthesis of both ethnocentrism and polycentrism.

A) Geocentrism

B) Combocentrism

C)

Equacentrism

D) Duocentrism

Answers

1 A 41 A 81 B 121 D

2 C 42 A 82 A 122 C

3 D 43 A 83 B 123 D

4 B 44 C 84 C 124 D

5 D 45 C 85 A 125 D

6 A 46 D 86 A 126 A7 D 47 A 87 D 127 B

8 C 48 A 88 C 128 C

9 B 49 B 89 C 129 C

10 C 50 B 90 B 130 B

11 A 51 B 91 C 131 B

12 A 52 B 92 B 132 B

13 B 53 C 93 A 133 D

14 D 54 B 94 A 134 B

15 C 55 A 95 C 135 A

16 A 56 D 96 D 136 A

17 D 57 B 97 C 137 A18 C 58 C 98 A 138 C

19 B 59 D 99 B 139 B

20 A 60 A 100 B 140 A

21 B 61 A 101 B 141 B

22 C 62 C 102 D 142 D

23 C 63 B 103 A 143 B

24 B 64 C 104 B 144 C

25 B 65 B 105 A 145 A

26 D 66 D 106 A

27 B 67 A 107 A

28 C 68 C 108 A29 D 69 B 109 C


27/27


30 B 70 A 110 A

31 B 71 C 111 A

32 C 72 B 112 B

33 A 73 C 113 D

34 D 74 B 114 C

35 C 75 C 115 C

36 A 76 B 116 A

37 A 77 A 117 B

38 D 78 A 118 C

39 C 79 A 119 D

40 B 80 D 120 A

Marketing Pquestions

Documents

Transcript of Marketing Pquestions