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1. Oxygen is a diatomic gas of molecular

weight of 32. If the universal gas constant is 8.314 J/mol-K, what is the gas constant of oxygen in J/g-K?

A. 0.12 B. 0.18 C. 0.22 D. 0.26 *

2. A gas of mass 2.1 grams occupies a

volume of 1.72 liters at 30 degrees Celcius ad 101.325 kPa. Compute the molecular weight of the gas in gram per mole. A. 20

B. 30 *

C. 40

D. 50

3. The atomic number of a certain uranium

isotope is 92 and the mass number is 238. Compute the number of electrons in one atom of uncharged uranium. A. 82

B. 84

C. 88

D. 92 *

4. The atomic number of a certain uranium

isotope is 92 and the mass number is 238. Compute the number of neutrons in one atom of uncharged uranium.

A. 146 *

B. 148

C. 150

D. 152

5. How many nuclei are there in a 0.01

gram of gold whose atomic weight is 196.97 and atomic number of 72? A. 3.057 x 10

17

B. 3.057 x 1018

C. 3.057 x 1019

*

D. 3.057 x 1020

6. A metal cylinder with rigid walls contains

1 kg of oxygen gas. The gas is heated until the pressure doubles from 101.325 kPa. Calculate the work done by the gas considering the volume of the cylinder to be 1 m

3.

A. 0 * B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

7. Three moles of an ideal gas are cooled

at constant pressure at 45 degrees Celsius to 20 degrees Celsius. Calculate the work done on the gas. Universal gas

constant = 8.314 J/mol-K. A. – 420.123 J

B. – 421.398 J

C. – 424.014 J *

D. – 425.298 J

8. The condition called STP (Standard

temperature and pressure) where clean rooms are based, the temperature of the gas must be at 0oC and a pressure of 1 atmosphere. If a mole of an ideal gas is to be kept at STP, how big (in m

3) is the

container needed? Note: Universal gas

constant = 8.314 J/mol-K

A. 0.0224 * B. 0.0327 C. 0.0447 D. 0.0581

9. A doughnut contains 3 grams of protein,

18 grams of carbohydrates and 7 grams of fat. The average food-energy values of these substances are 4 kcal/gm for protein and carbohydrates and 9 kcal/gm for fat. During heavy treadmill exercise, an average person uses energy at a rate of 510 kcal/hr. How long would an average person exercise in an electronic treadmill in order to burn the fats of one doughnut?

A. 7.41 min * B. 7.55 min C. 8.21 min D. 8.88 min

10. A car tire is filled to a gage pressure of

24 psi when the temperature is 22oC.

After the car has been running at high speed, the tire temperature rises to 60

oC. What is the new gage pressure

within the tire, if the tire’s volume does not change? A. 26.34 psi B. 27.48 psi C. 28.98 psi * D. 29.34 psi

11. What is the velocity of sound in 66

oC

water of bulk modulus of elasticity of 2.26 x 10

6 kPa? Use density of water as

980 kg/m3.

A. 1329.4 m/s

B. 1489.2 m/s

C. 1518.6 m/s *

D. 1678.2 m/s

12. A 0.15 m

3 of water is compressed to 35

MPa(gage). What is the decrease in volume (in m

3) of water if the

temperature is 15.6oC? Note: Bulk

modulus of water at 15.6oC is 2.26 x 10

6

kPa. A. – 0.0012

B. – 0.0023 *

C. – 0.0032

D. – 0.0044

13. A systolic blood pressure is found to be

120 mm of Hg. If the standard atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi,

compute the ratio of the systolic blood pressure to the standard atmospheric pressure.

A. 0.12 B. 0.14 C. 0.16 * D. 0.18

14. Compute the dynamic viscosity of oil of

specific gravity of 0.8 and kinematic viscosity of 1.3 x 10

-8 m

2/s.

A. 0.00104 Pa-s * B. 0.00298 Pa-s C. 0.00321 Pa-s D. 0.00443 Pa-s

15. An oil with kinematic viscosity of 0.0005

m2/s flows at 3 m/s through a 3-inch

diameter pipe. Which of the following is true about the flow of fluid?

A. The flow is laminar B. The flow is turbulent C. The flow can never be laminar nor

turbulent D. The fluid cannot flow because of very

small Reynolds number 16. What is the diameter of a droplet of

water if the pressure within it is 700 Pa greater than the outside pressure? Surface tension, at 20

oC = 0.0728

N/m. A. 0.122 mm

B. 0.247 mm

C. 0.382 mm

D. 0.416 mm *

17. The mercury column in a barometer has

a measured height of 740.35 mm. The temperature is –5.0

oC, at which

temperature the density of mercury is 1.3608 x 10

4 kg/m

3. The free fall

acceleration “g” at the site of the

barometer is 9.7835 m/s2. What is the

atmospheric pressure in torr? A. 723.74

B. 728.44

C. 739.29 *

D. 741.20

18. A projectile is fired upward with a muzzle velocity of 200 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees with the level ground. With what velocity will it hit the ground?

A. 180 m/s B. 200 m/s * C. 210 m/s D. 220 m/s

19. A water tank has an orifice of 8 cm

2 in

one vertical side 3 m below the surface level of the tank. What is the rate of discharge assuming that there is no wasted energy? A. 6.67 m/s

B. 7.67 m/s *

C. 8.21 m/s

D. 9.43 m/s

20. A 40 kg rests at the top of an inclined

smooth plane whose length is 4 m and whose height is 0.5 m. How long will it take for the block to slide to the bottom of the plane when released?

A. 1.45 s

B. 2.05 s

C. 2.55 s *

D. 3.15 s

21. The parents planned for their son to

receive P50,000 ten years from now. What amount in pesos should they invest now if it will earn interest of 12% compounded annually for the first five years and 15% compounded quarterly during the next five years?



A. P 12,673.22

B. P 13,586.82 *

C. P 13,250.33

D. P 12,302.11

22. If the bank teller informs you that you

super savings account earns annually

18%, what is the approximate net percentage income of your investment per month if a 20% withholding tax is imposed?

A. 1.2 % * B. 2.1 % C. 1.8 % D. 2.8 %

23. What is the book value of an equipment

purchased three years ago for P15,000 if it is depreciated using sum of the years digit method? The expected life is 15 years. A. P 2,500 B. P 2,800 C. P 3,000 * D. P 3,200

24. A golf club weighing 1.5 kg strikes a 45 gram golf ball at a speed of 70 m/s. The club and the ball remain in contact for 0.8 x 10

-3 sec. Determine the average

force of the club on the ball.

A. 3940 N *

B. 3490 N

C. 3094 N

D. 3049 N

25. What is the amount of an annuity of

P5,000 per year at the end of each year for 7 years at 5% interest compounded

annually? A. P 38,459 B. P 39,120 C. P 40,710 * D. P 41,355

26. An absent minded driver traveling at 75 mph suddenly sees a check point ahead

blocking the roadway. The driver applies the brakes following a 0.75 second delay. After the brakes are applied, the car decelerates at 4.2 m/s

2. Determine

the stopping distance.

A. 156.21 m B. 155.28 m C. 158.95 m *

D. 157.89 m 27. A customer buys an electric fan from a

store that charges P 1,500 at the end of 90 days. The customer wishes to pay cash. What is the cash price if money is worth 10% simple interest?

A. P 1,463.41 *

B. P 1,327.89 C. P 1,429.12 D. P 1,387.22

28. The air column in a closed pipe is in

resonance with a 312 vps tuning fork. If the room temperature is 25 degrees Celsius, what would be the length of the pipe?

A. 25.34 cm B. 26.89 cm C. 27.72 cm *

D. 28.45 cm

29. Two forces of 30 N at 90 degrees and

40 N at 180 degrees act at the origin. Determine the magnitude and direction of the equilibrant force.

A. 50 N at 323 degrees *

B. 50 N at 333 degrees

C. 50 N at 313 degrees

D. 50 N at 343 degrees

30. A spring with a normal length of 30 cm

is attached to a block of 2 kg mass. If the spring is stretched 15 cm, determine the initial acceleration of the block when released. Assume a spring constant of 200 N/m. A. 12

B. 14

C. 15 *

D. 17

31. What is the change in the gravitational

attraction between an orbiting object and the earth if the distance between them is doubled?

A. One-half B. One-fourth * C. Two times

D. Four times

32. A block weighing 500 kN rests on a ramp inclined at 39 degrees with the horizontal. What is the force that tends to move the block down the ramp? A. 305 kN

B. 310 kN

C. 315 kN *

D. 320 kN

33. In how many years will P 1000 double if

interest is 10% compounded quarterly? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 *

D. 8

34. What is the momentum of an x-ray photon with wavelength 10 nm? Express answer in kg-m/s.

A. 5.3 x 10

-26

B. 5.8 x 10-26

C. 6.1 x 10

26

D. 6.6 x 1026

*

35. What is the energy in electronvolts of a photon of green light of wavelength 546 nm? A. 2.12 eV B. 2.41 eV C. 2.28 eV *

D. 2.62 eV 36. A photographer has an 8x magnifier for

examining negatives. What is the focal length of the magnifier lens? A. 3.1 cm * B. 4.9 cm C. 3.8 cm

D. 8.1 cm

37. A steel wire is 6 m long, hanging

vertically supports a load of 2000 N. Neglecting the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140 MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 4 mm. E = 200,000 MPa.

A. 3.4 mm B. 5.4 mm C. 4.4 mm * D. 6.4 mm

38. For a photographic lens, we want to design a simple antireflection coating that will be most effective for green light of λ = 550 nm. The coating material is magnesium fluoride, which has an index of refraction of 1.38. How thick should the coating be?

A. 98.8 nm B. 95.4 nm C. 99.6 nm * D. 96.4 nm

39. A hollow shaft has an inner diameter of

0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06 m. Compute for the torque in N-m, if the stress is not to exceed 120 MPa.

A. 4000 N-m B. 5000 N-m C. 4500 N-m * D. 5500 N-m

40. What power would a spindle 55 mm in

diameter transmit at 480 rpm. Stress allowed for short shaft is 59 N/mm

2?

A. 95.34 kW B. 96.88 kW * C. 97.56 kW

D. 99.54 kW

41. What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?

A. Identical salvage value B. Different salvage value C. Identical equivalent uniform annual

cash flows

D. Different equivalent uniform annual cash flows *

42. Which of the following does not affect

owner’s equity? A. Dividends paid B. License to start business * C. Invested capital

D. Revenues

43. Air has a specific heat of 1 kJ/kg-K. If 100 g of air are heated with a 1500 W heater, which of the following occurs?

A. The air heats up at a rate of 15 K/s. B. The air reaches a final temperature

of 1500 K.

C. The air undergoes a nonisentropic process.

D. The air heats up at a rate of 15 K/s and undergoes a nonisentropic process. *



44. Which of the following is not true

regarding Blasius boundary layer solution?

A. It is valid only for potential flow. * B. It is valid for laminar flow. C. It is an approximation solution.

D. It permits one to calculate the skin friction on a flat plate.

45. How many independent properties are

required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?

A. 1 B. 2 * C. 3 D. 4

46. If an ideal gas mixture of constituents i

and j, what is the mole fraction xi equal to?

A. Ti/(Ti + Tj) B. Zi/(Zi + Zj)

C. PiVi/ RT D. Pi/(Pi + Pj) *

47. The critical point for a mixture occurs for

which of the following cases?

A. The vapor and liquid have a single form. *

B. The liquid has no absorbed gas. C. The vapor phase is stable. D. The liquid is completely vaporized.

48. In order to assign oxidation states in

polyatomic molecules, which of the following rules is followed?

A. The oxidation of all elements in any

allotropic form is zero. *

B. The oxidation state of oxygen is always – 2.

C. The oxidation state of hydrogen is always + 1.

D. All other oxidation states are chosen such that the algebraic sum of the oxidation states for the ion or molecule is zero.

49. In molecules of the same composition,

what are variations of atomic arrangements known as?

A. Polymers B. Noncrystalline structures C. Monomers D. Isomers *

50. What is the first coordination number of

a body-centered structure?

A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 * D. 10

51. How are the closed-packed planes in a

face-centered cubic metal designated?

A. (100) B. (200) C. (110) D. (111) *

52. Which one of these statements is TRUE

for twinning?

A. It occurs at a lower shear stress than slip.

B. It is the most significant form of

plastic deformation. C. It cannot be caused by impact or

thermal treatment. D. It frequently occurs in hexagonal

close-packed structure. *

53. If G is the shear modulus, b is the Burgers vector, and r is the half the distance between particles, what is the local stress, s, required to bend dislocations around a particle?

A. s = Gb/r * B. s = Gbr C. s = br/G D. s = G/br

54. _____ is an important factor to consider in understanding the properties of polycrystalline materials because it affects the area and length of the grain boundaries.

A. Grain size *

B. Creep C. Hot-working D. Cold-working

55. Which of the following correctly

describes atoms located at grain boundaries?

A. They are located primarily in high

strained and distorted positions. B. They have higher free energy than

atoms in the undisturbed part of the crystal lattice.

C. They are oriented so as to attain a minimum energy state.

D. All choices are correct *

56. Low density polyethylene undergoes

extensive elongation (over 100 %) prior to rapture, while polystyrene undergoes only 1 to 2 % elongation. What is the main reason for this difference?

A. The polyethylene is less dense. B. The large styrene groups in the

polystyrene prevent slippage. * C. More cross linking occurs in the

polystyrene.

D. Polyetylene is less crystalline. 57. As the amount of slip increases,

additional deformation becomes more difficult and decreases until the plastic flow finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is applied. What is this phenomenon known as?

A. Cooling B. Crowding C. Strain hardening * D. Twinning

58. Which of the following best describes

the 0.2% offset yield stress?

A. It is the elastic limit after which a

measurable plastic strain has occurred.

B. It is the stress at which the material plastically strains 0.2 %. *

C. It is the stress at which the material elastically strains 0.2 %.

D. It is 0.2 % below the fracture point of the material.

59. Which of the following is NOT an

advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?

A. Lower equipment costs B. Increased efficiency

C. Increased turbine life D. Increased boiler life *

60. What is the equation for the work done

by a constant temperature system?

A. W = mRTln(V2 – V1) B. W = mR(T2 – T1) ln (V2/V1) C. W = mRT ln (V2/V1) * D. W = RT ln (V2/V1)

61. If you consider a very small portion of a

material that is the same throughout, the density of the small sample will be

A. much less B. slightly less C. the same *

D. greater

62. The newton-meter is called a joule. The similar unit in the English system, the foot-pound is called a

A. horsepower B. slug C. gem D. foot-pound, with no other name *

63. The metric unit of heat called a “calorie”

is

A. equivalent to 3.6 degree Fahrenheit B. the energy needed to increase the

temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius *

C. equivalent to a little over 8 joules of mechanical work

D. all choices are correct

64. Einstein applied Planck’s quantum discovery to light and found

A. a direct relationship between the

energy and the frequency of light B. that the energy of a photon divided

by the frequency of the photon always equaled a constant known as Planck’s constant

C. that the energy of a photon divided by Planck’s constant always equaled the frequency

D. all choices are correct *

65. Using the laws of motion for moving

particles and the laws of electrical attraction, Bohr calculated that electron could

A. move only in orbits of certain

allowed radii * B. move, as do the planets, in orbits at

any distance from the nucleus C. move in orbits at distances from the

nucleus that matched the distances between colors in the line spectrum

D. move in orbit at variable distances from the nucleus that are directly proportional to the velocity of the electron



66. The label of a container states that the

product contains “petroleum distillates”. Which of the following hydrocarbons is probably present?

A. CH4 B. C5H12 *

C. C16H54 D. C40H82

67. Tetraethyl lead (“ethel”) was added to

gasoline to increase the octane rating by

A. increasing the power by increasing the heat of combustion

B. increasing the burning rate of the gasoline

C. absorbing the pings and knocks D. decreasing the burning rate *

68. The OH in ROH represents

A. a functional group * B. a hydrocarbon group with a name

ending in “-yl”

C. the hydroxide ion, which ionizes to form a base

D. the site of chemical activity in a strong base

69. What is the proof of a “wind cooler” that

is 5 percent alcohol by volume?

A. 2.5 proof B. 5 proof C. 10 proof * D. 50 proof

70. Hydrogen-3 is a radioactive isotope of

hydrogen. Which type of radiation would you expect an atom of this isotope to emit?

A. an alpha particle B. a beta particle * C. either an alpha particle or a beta

particle D. neither an alpha particle nor a beta

particle

71. Which of the following is a value of spin quantum number?

A. 1 B. Any positive number C. 1/2 * D. Either 1 or - 1

72. What principle of physics is considered

as the immediate consequence of the principle of equivalence?

A. Gravitational red shift * B. Gravitational blue shift C. Doppler’s effect D. Gravitational time dilation

73. Which of the following must be satisfied

by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?

A. Newton’s second law of motion. B. The continuity equation. C. The principle of conservation of

energy. D. All choices are correct *

74. Which of the following flow meters

measure the average fluid velocity in a pipe rather than a point or local velocity?

A. Venturi meter B. Pitot tube C. Hot wire anemometer

D. Venturi meter and orifice meter *

75. The compressibility factor, x, is used for

predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How is the compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (c refers to critical value)

A. x = p/pc B. x = pV/RT * C. x = T/Tc D. x = RT/pV

76. The _____ from organic matter

generally reacts with copper oxide to produce carbon dioxide which darkens limestone.

A. carbon * B. oxygen C. hydrogen D. zinc

77. What are the most common slip planes

for face-centered cubic and body-

centered cubic structures, respectively?

A. Face-centered: (111), body-centered (110) *

B. Face-centered: (100), body-centered (110)

C. Face-centered: (110), body-centered (111)

D. Face-centered: (111), body-centered (100)

78. A shaft made of good quality steel

breaks in half due to fatigue. What would the surface of the fracture site look like?

A. Like a cup and cone B. Very jagged and rough

C. Pokemarked with very small cavities

D. Smooth over most of the surface although it appears torn at the location of fracture *

79. Plastic deformation of a single crystal

occurs either by ______ or by ____, but is the more common method.

A. high pressure; high temperature; high pressure

B. high temperature; high pressure; high temperature

C. slip; twinning; slip * D. twinning; slip; twinning

80. How can an ordered solid solution be

distinguished from a compound?

A. When heated, an ordered solid

solution becomes disordered before melting. *

B. An ordered solid solution appears glassy.

C. The atoms in an ordered solid solution from layers in the lattice structure.

D. The solute atoms in an ordered solution substitute for atoms in the parent lattice.

81. How many atoms are there per unit cell

for a face-centered cubic structure?

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4 *

82. What is the molar mass of oxygen in

g/mole?

A. 32 B. 8 C. 4 D. 16 *

83. One of the disadvantages of this type of

organization is that it has poor crossfeed of technical information between projects. What is the type of project organization?

A. Projectized organization * B. Matrix organization C. Functional organization D. Coordinated organization

84. One of the advantages of this type of

organization is that it serves as training ground for general management. What is the type of project organization?

A. Coordinated organization

B. Functional organization C. Projectized organization * D. Matrix organization

85. Monel metals contain ____ carbon.

A. 0.12 % * B. no amount of C. 0.008 % D. 0.06 %

86. Bronze can be welded using bronze

electrodes by what particular welding process?

A. Cold process B. Forge process C. Arc process *

D. Friction process 87. What percent of the dry air atmosphere

is oxygen?

A. 21.03 % B. 22.04 % C. 19.03 % D. 20.93 % *

88. Which cast iron contains 2.0 to 2.6 % carbon?

A. Malleable cast iron * B. Ductile cast iron C. Gray cast iron D. White cast iron

89. Which of the following materials has the

least modulus of elasticity?

A. Steel B. Glass * C. Copper D. Aluminum

90. Which of the following is true regarding

the effect of the grain size to the

strength of the material? A. The bigger the grain size, the more

ductile the material. B. The smaller the grain size, the

stronger the material. * C. The smaller the grain size, the

more it becomes susceptible to dislocation.

D. The bigger the grain size, the more the material be subjected to embrittlement.



91. What is the maximum moment of a

beam supported at both ends and carries a uniform load of w throughout its entire length?

A. wL

2

B. wL

8

C. 2wL

8*

D. 2wL

4

92. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

A. few seller and two buyers B. two sellers and many buyers C. many sellers and two buyers * D. one seller and two buyers

93. What type of bond where the

corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it?

A. Preferred bond B. Registered bond * C. Incorporators bond D. Callable bond

94. The price at which the callable bond

will be redeemed from the bondholder is called ______.

A. par value B. call value * C. face value D. redemption value

95. What refers to the present worth of

cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time?

A. Annual cost B. Increment cost C. Capitalized cost * D. Operating cost

96. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

A. Feel slippery on the skin B. Turn litmus paper to blue C. Taste bitter D. Dissolve metals producing various

salts and hydrogen gas * 97. What is the charge of an electron in

coulombs?

A. – 1.70217733 x 10-19

B. – 1.60217733 x 10

-19 *

C. – 1.50217733 x 10-19

D. – 1.40217733 x 10

-19

98. Silicon makes up over ____ of the

earth’s elements. A. 10 % B. 25 % * C. 5 % D. 20 %

99. What is a high-energy, electrically

charged gas produced by heating the gas until the electrons in the outer orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving the atoms with a positive charge?

A. Quartz B. Quark C. BEC D. Plasma *

100. What are the elements of contracts?

I. Essential

II. Natural III. Accidental IV. Conditional

A. I, II and III * B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II, III and IV

END

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