Live Test & Discussion Session - 1 File Download

Live Test & Discussion Session DR. MADHU UPADHYAY

PSM T & D – 2020

1. Which of the following is a discovery of

the scientist shown below:

a. Small pox vaccine b. Rabies vaccine c. Theory of Multifactorial disease

causation d. OPV vaccine

2. Infectivity of a disaese agent implies: a. Ability to be transmitted b. Ability to produce severe cases c. Ability to invade & multiply in the

host body d. Ability to produce clinically apparent

illness

3. ICD – 11 replaces the term Mental

Retardation with which of the following?

a. Mental Disability

b. Intellectual Disability

c. Mental incapacity

d. Functional disorders

4. Which of the following is the cut off for

Lethal BMI?

a. <10

b. <11

c. <12

d. <13

5. Incidence is defined as:

A. Number of cases existing in a given

population at a given moment period

B. Number of cases existing over a given

period

C. Number of new cases occurring during a

specified period

D. Number of old cases present

6. Study of a person who has already

contracted the disease is called:

A Case control B. Cohort

C. Control cohort D. None of the

above

7. Diseases which are imported into a

country in which they do not otherwise

occur is:

A. Exotic B. Epizootic

C. Endemic D. None of the above

8. When disease enters and first symptom

appears is known as:

A. Serial interval B. Incubation period

C. Quarantine D. Period of infectivity


9. Notifiable disease is:

A. Varicella B. Cholera

C. Malaria D. Filaria

10. Which is most economical and best

screening:

A. Mass screening B. High-risk

screening

C. Multiphasic screening D. Any of the

above

11. True statements concerning cohort studies include all the following except: A. Cohort studies are longitudinal in design B. Subjects are selected on the basis of

characteristics present before the onset of the condition being studied

C. Subjects are observed over time to determine the frequency of occurrence of the condition under study

D. Cohort studies are necessary to estimate the prevalence of disease

12. Most difficult criteria to establish causal association in etiology of a disease is: A) Temporality B) Strength of association C) Specificity of association D) Biological plausibility

13. Disinfection by autoclaving is NOT

recommended for:

A. Sputum' B. Linen

C. Sharp instruments D. Glass syringes

14. The ability of a test to correctly

diagnose the percentage of sick people

who are having the condition is called

as?

(A) Sensitivity B. Specificity (B) Specificity

(C) Positive predictive value D. NPV (D) Negative predictive value

15. Time gap between

infection and maximum

infectivity is known as?

(A) Incubation period

(B) Serial interval

(C) Generation time

(D) Communicable

period

16. Communicability of

disease is assessed by?

a. Secondary attack

rate

(b) Serial interval

© Generation Time

d.Incubation period

17. Selection bias can be eliminated

by?

(A) Randomization

(B) Single blinding

(C) Double blinding

(D) Matching

18. Secular trend is

best demonstrated by?

a. Line diagram


b. Bar graph

c. Stem-leaf plot

d. Box &Whisker

plot

19. A Chi square test with a contingency

table having 4 rows & 4 columns would

have the following degrees of freedom:

a. 16

b. 4

c. 9

d. 8

20. Where is the head-quarter of this UN

agency situated?

a. New York

b. Geneva

c. Rome

d. Washington DC

21. Screening of the diseases is

which type of prevention?

(A) Primordial (B) Primary

(C) Secondary (D) Tertiary

22. Best study for assessment of unknown

or new disease with no etiological

hypothesis is:

a. Cohort study

b. Case control study

c. Cross sectional study

d. Descriptive epidemiology

23. One DALY signifies?

a. 1 year of disease free

life

b. 1 month of bedridden life

c. 1 lost year of healthy life

d. None of these

24. Berkesonian bias is due to?

a. Presence of confounding factors in

both cases & controls

b. Questioning the cases more

thoroughly as compared to controls

c. Different rates of admission to hospital

due to different diseases

d. Better recall by the cases as

compared to controls


25. In simple random sampling

a. All have equal chance of getting selected

b. Selection is dependent on individuals

characteristic

c. Only possible when complete sampling

frame is not available

d. Suitable for large heterogeneous

population

26. Continuous frequency distribution of a grouped data is given by: A) Bar chart B) Pie chart C) Histogram D) None of the above 27. The mean Hb level of healthy women is 12g / dl and the SD is 1.5. What is the Z score for a woman with Hb level of 15 g/dl? A) 1 B) 2 C) 10 D) 9 28. Which of the following indicators is not required to determine physical quality of life index? A. Birth rate B.

Infant mortality

C. Life expectancy at age one D.

Literacy

29.. Which of these is not a measure of

central tendency?

A. Cumulative frequency B. Arithmetic

mean

C. Median D. Mode

30. Differences between the means of two

samples are tested using which one of the

following methods?

A. t- Test B. Analysis of variance

C. Chi-square test D.Correlation analysis

31. The relative risk of developing lung

cancer for smokers versus non-smokers is

24 this implies that:

A. 24% of all lung cancer patients smoke

cigarettes

B. The incidence of lung cancer among

smokers is 24 times that among non-

smokers

C. The prevalence of lung cancer among

smokers is 24 times that among non-

smokers

D. 24% of all smokers develop lung cancer

32. Which of the following parasitic infections is transmitted to human by the black fly and can cause blindness? A. Onchocerciasis B. Toxocariasis

C. Trichuriasis D. Strongyloidiasis

33. Which of the following is false regarding kala-azar:

a. Vector is sand fly


b. Man is the only reservoir host c. Causes by Leishmania

donovani d. Infants are not susceptible

34. Which of the following wastes are disposed in the bag shown below:

a. Anatomical waste b. Sharp waste c. Urine bags d. Soiled waste

35. Most commonly reported disease in post disaster period is: A) ARI B) Malaria C) Tetanus D) Gastroentritis

36. All are water washed diseases except: A) Scabies B) Trachoma C) Typhoid D) Conjunctivitis

37.Identify mosquito larva shown in Fig.

A. Anopheles

B. Aedes

C. Culex

D. Mansonia

38. Identify the disease manifesting as

lesions given in the image?

A. Measles

B. Chickenpox

C. Rubella

D. Erythema infectiosum

39. Newborn care corner is present in -

A. NICU

B. OPD

C. Labour room

D. Wards side room


40. Theory of web of causation was

given by?

(A) Mc Mahon and Pugh

(B) Pettenkoffer

(C) John snow

(D) Louis Pasteur

41. Missing cases are detected by?

a. Active surveillance

(b) Sentinel surveillance

(c) Passive surveillance

(D) Monitoring

42. Most common direct cause of maternal

mortality in our country is:

a. Hemorrhage

b. Anemia

c. Heart disease d.Infection

43. Which of the following is the commonest vector for malaria transmission in India:

A) A. stephensi B) A. culicifacies

C) A. sundaicus D) A. fluviatilis

44. Which statement is true concerning measures of central tendency?

a. If more outlying observations are smaller than the rest of

the values, the data are skewed to the right

b. If more outlying observation is larger than the rest of the values, the median will be smaller than the mean

c. If the data are skewed to the left, the means is larger than the median

d. The median is more sensitive than the means to extreme observation

45. Which of the following indices of obesity is height independent: A) Quetlet’s index B) Ponderal index C) Broca’s index D) Corpulence index

46. Which of the following drugs is not used in the continuation phase of management of a multi drug resistant TB as per the DOTS Plus regime?

a) Ethionamide b) Cycloserine c) Kanamycin d) Ethambutol

47. Minimum depth for the brick lining of a sanitary well is? A. 10 feet B. 20 feet

C. 35 feet D. 50 feet

48. In HIV commonest mode of

transmission is by:

a. Homosexual b. Blood transfusion

c. Heterosexual d. Needle prick


49. Which of the following disease is spread

by soft tick as a vector:

a. Pediculosis

b. Q fever

c. Epidemic typhus

d.Trench fever

50. Which of the following is true with regard to Bhore Committee report of 1946:

A) 1 PHC for every 40000 population

B) 1 PHC for every 50000 population

C) 1 PHC for every 30000 population

D) 1 SC for every 3000-3500 population

51. In a programme the end point of all activities which may not be operationally measurable is called?

a. Objective

b. Target

c. Mission

d. Goal

52. Environmental manipulation which enables genes to express themselves readily is known as: A) Positive eugenics B) Negative eugenics C) Euthenics D) Genetic counseling

53. Microorganism used as weapon in

biological terrorism:

A. Small pox virus B. Rabies virus C. Human Parvovirus D. Influenza C virus

54. Chronic carriers are seen in all of the

following except:

a. Measles

b. Diphtheria

c. Dysentry

d. Gonorrhoea

55. All of the following are true for

incineration except:

a. Pre-treatment with

appropriate chemical needed for

optimum results

b. Double chamber pyrolytic

incinerators – to burn infectious health

care wastes

c. Combustible matter more

than 60%

d. Moisture content <30%

56. Which of the following diseases is not included under national vector borne diseases control programme

(A) Dengue

(B) Filaria

(C) Chickungunya

(D) KFD

57. Which of the following is the

contraceptive of choice for emergency

contraception?


a) Levonorgestral b) IUD c)

Combined pills d) high dose estrogen

58. Which of the following is the nodal ministry for ICDS: A) Ministry of HRD B) Ministry of Social Justice & empowerment C) Ministry of Women & Child Development D) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare 59. Triage is:

A. Treating the most serious cases

B. Treating mentally ill patients

C. Categorization of patients and treating

them according to the available resources

D. Treating terminally ill patients

60. Health guides work at the level of:

a. PHC b. Village c. Subcenter d. Community

61. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator:

(A) Literacy rate (B) Family size (C) Housing (D) Doctor population ratio

62. According to Registration Act 1969 (Amendment), birth is to be registered within:

A. 7 days after the birth B. 14 days after the birth

C. 21 days after the birth D. Within 48

hours of birth

63. Universal precaution is applied to: A. Stool B. Sputum

C. Semen D. Urine

64. Samuel Hahneman is referred to as founding father of: A) Ayurveda B) Allopathy C) Homeopathy D) Yoga 65. Henry Dunant’s name is associated with

A) Indian Red Cross

B) International Red Cross

C) Rockefellar Foundation

D) None of the above

66. Quarantine was first applied for

A) HIV/AIDS B) TB C) Leprosy D) Plague

67. In lepromin test, Mitsuda reaction is read after:

a. 3 weeks b. 48 hours c. 24 hours d. 8 weeks

68. A series of speeches is given by experts but there is no discussion among speakers. This is seen in: A) Symposium B) Lecture C) Panel discussion D) Workshop


69. WHO day is celebrated on: a. April 10 b. April 7th c. May 31st d. Dec 1st

70. Mid-day meals

provided in schools is:

a. One half of calories and one half of protein

b. One third of calories and one half of protein

c. One half of calories and one third of protein

d. One third of calories and one fourth of protein

71. Mala N contains:

a. Levonorgestrel 0.15 mg + ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg

b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate 150 mg

c. Levonorgestrel 0.25 mg + ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg

d. Desogestrel 0.3 mg + ethinyl oestradiol 0.03 mg

72. In a standard normal

curve, mean 2 standard deviation covers:

a. 60% b. 65% c. 99% d. 95%

73. Odds ratio, is calculated from:

a. Cohort study b. Cross sectional

study c. Case control study d. Randomized

controlled trial

74. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of ________________epidemic:

a. Propagated b. Point source c. Continuous d. Modern

75. Pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per:

a. Hundred women years

b. Thousand women years

c. Hundred live births d. Hundred stillbirths

76. Kata thermometer is used to measure:

a. Cooling power of air b. Maximum

temperature c. Minimum

temperature d. Body temperature

77. Ideal desk

recommended for a school child is: a. Minus desk b. Plus desk c. Zero desk d. Any of the above

78. Candidate for copper-T insertion include all of the following, except:

a. Has borne at least one child

b. Is willing to check IUD tail

c. Has a history of ectopic pregnancy


d. Has normal menstrual periods

79. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?

a. Cause specific death rate

b. Case fatality rate c. Standardization

mortality ratio d. Five year survival

80. Which of the following is true about chi-square test:

a. Tests the significance of difference between two proportions

b. Also be used when more than two groups are to be compared

c. Both A and B d. None of the above

81. Comparison of the

value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:

a. Evaluation b. Monitoring c. Input-output analysis d. Network analysis

82. Yellow Fever certificate of

vaccination is valid for?

(A) 6 years, starting from 6 days after

vaccination

(B) 10 years, starting from 10 days

after vaccination

(C) 10 years, starting from 6 days after

vaccination

(D) 6 years, starting from 10 days

after vaccination

83. Ridel Walker coefficient is used to

assess:

a. Effect of autoclaving

b. Sufficiency of pasteurization

c. Germicidal property of

disinfectant

d. Effect of incineration

84. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except:

a. Mass chemoprophylaxis

b. Proper disposal of excreta

c. Chlorination of water d. Early detection and

management of cases 85. Conditions that have

been identified as immediate priorities within VISION 2020 include the following EXCEPT

a. Cataract b. Trachoma c. Onchocerciasis d. Epidemic

conjunctivitis

86. Type of biological transmission in Filariasis?

a. Cyclo developmental b. Propagative c. Cyclo propagative d. Mechanical

87. Most common cause

of neonatal mortality in India is: a. Diarrheal diseases


b. Birth injuries c. Prematurity d. Congenital

anomalies

88. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine?

a. Aluminum b. Formaldehyde c. Zinc d. Protein

89. New RNTCP software for online

monitoring of TB patients is? a. Nikshay, b. Nirbhya, c. e-DOT, d. Nischay

90. Which of the

following is the most sensitive index to study the trend of malaria in the community:

a. Infant parasite rate b. Proportional case

rate c. Annual Parasite

Incidence d. Parasite density

index

91. Which of the following formulae is used

for computing the Aedes aegypti Index:

a. Number of bites of aedes aegypti x 100

Total number of man hours

b. No. of houses positive for Aedes aegypti

breeding X 100

Total no. of houses surveyed

c.No. of containers positive for Aedes aegypti

breeding X 100

Total no. of containers examined

d.No. of containers positive for Aedes

aegypti breeding X 100

Total no. of houses surveyed

= Breteau’s Index

92. The pathogenic agent responsible for

the causation of Donovanosis:

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

c. Haemophilus ducreyi

d. Herpes simplex

93. Benefits in cost benefit analysis of a program are measured in terms of: A) Number of lives saved B) Monetary gains C) Comparison of alternatives D) Sequence of actions

94. Disease transmitted by Hard ticks

includes all except:

A. Rocky mountain spotted fever B. Viral

encephalitis

C. Tularemia D. Oriental sore

95. Under National Health Mission a U-PHC

caters to a population of:

a. 2.5 lakh population

b. 50000 population

c. 1 lakh population

d. 1000 – 2500 population

96. Which of the following is the

recommendation for IFA prophylaxis under


National Iron Plus Initiative for children between

6 to 10 years of age?

a. 100 mg of elemental iron & 500

microgram of folic acid per day

b. 100 mg of elemental iron & 500

microgram of folic acid per week

c. 45 mg of elemental iron & 400

microgram of folic acid per week

d. 20 mg of elemental iron & 100

microgram of folic acid per day

97. Zinc deficiency is characterized by:

a. Sexual Infantilism

b. Poor wound healing

c. Diarrhoea

d. All of the above

98. Most sensitive test for aduleration of

mustard oil with sanguinarine is:

a. FeCl3

b. Nitric Acid test

c. Paper chromatography

d. Methylene blue test

99. Quantity of water available per capita considered adequate to meet the needs of all urban domestic purposes?

A. 100-150 L B. 150-200 L

C. 200-250 L D. 250-300 L

100. Which of the following has high glycemic index:

a. Fruits b. White bread c. Brown bread d. Lentils


School health Service (School Health Committee – 1961)

1. No class room should accommodate more than 40 students

2. Per capita space for students in a classroom should not be less than 10 sq ft

3. Desks should be minus type

4. Window area should be at least 25 percent of the floor space; windows should be

placed on different walls for cross ventilation

5. Ventilators should not be less than 2 % of floor area

6. One urinal for 60 students and one latrine for 100 students

Some important definitions to be mugged up:

1. An objective is a planned end point of all activities; it may or may not be achieved.

2. Target often refers to discrete activity that has to be achieved within a given time

frame. These are small measurable component of the entire goal. They permit the

concept of degree of achievement.

3. Goal is define as the ultimate desired state towards which objectives and resources

are directed. Goals are not constrained by time or the existing resources nor are they

necessarily attainable.

4. Mission in turn refers to attainment of a certain goal within a stipulated time period

with added impetus to the program wherein all resources and activities are to be utilized

to its fullest extent to achieve the desired result. Lot of attention is also given to the

supervisory and evaluation aspect; in a nutshell it is the mode in which we function to

attain the target.


Attitudes are acquired characteristics of an individual. They are more or less

permanent ways of behaving. Attitudes are not learnt from books, they are acquired by

social interaction, e.g., attitude towards persons, things, situations and issues. Once

formed attitudes are difficult to change.

6. Belief is the psychological state in which an individual holds a proposition Values are

considered subjective, vary across people and cultures and are in many ways aligned

with belief and belief systems. Types of values include ethical/moral values,

doctrinal/ideological (religious, political) values, social values, and aesthetic values. It is

debated whether some values are intrinsic.

"Values are beliefs and attitudes about the way things should be. They involve what

is important to us. Values are applied appropriately when they are applied in the right

area. For example, it would be appropriate to apply religious values in times of

happiness as well as in times of despair. "A way of measuring what people value is to

ask them what their goals are.

I. Health committees and their recommendations:

1. Bhore committee, 1946

a. Setting up of national programs for health system development in the country.

b. Integration of preventive and curative services.

c. Creation of Social physician by 2 months compulsory posting in PSM

d. Short Term Plan: Setting up of primary health centres (PHCs) for every 40000

population

e. Long Term plan (3 Million Plan): 1 PHC for every 10000 to 20000 population

2. Mudaliar committee, 1962


a. Looked into progress made since the Bhore committee report.

b. Strengthening of district hospitals and regional health services to serve as referral

c. Set up All India Health Services

3. Chadah committee, 1963

a. Looked into the activities of the National Malaria Eradication Programme.

b. Integrated malaria vigilance operation with general health services and Introduced

the concept of a basic health worker per 10,000 population.

4. Mukerji committee, 1965

a. Recommended separate staff for family welfare programme.

b. Recommended de- linking of malaria activities from family planning activities.

5. Jungalwalla committee, 1967

a. Recommended integration of health services at all levels.

6. Kartar singh committee, 1973

a. Recommended that auxiliary nurse midwifes (ANMs) be replaced by ‘Female Health

Workers’.

b. Introduced the concept of ‘Multipurpose Workers’.

c. One primary health center per 50,000 population, each divided into 16 sub centers of 3000 population each.

7. Shrivastav committee, 1975

a. Creation of bands of paraprofessional and semiprofessional workers from the

community itself.

b. Reforms in health and medical education – ROME Scheme – ReOrientation of

Medical Education

c. Village Health Guide Scheme

d. Setting up of referral service complex

e. National Medical Education Commission

f. Designed a suitable curriculum for health assistants.

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