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Transcript of Law Paper III
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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept anopen booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither theQuestion Booklet will be replaced nor any extratime will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated belowon the correct response against each item.Example :where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at anyplace other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not beevaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for thespace allotted for the relevant entries, which may discloseyour identity, or use abusive language or employ any otherunfair means, you will render yourself liable todisqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OriginalOMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examinationcompulsorily and must not carry it with you outside theExamination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carryduplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates 1.
2. - 3. , -
- , :(i) -
-
(ii) - / -
-
(iii) OMR -
4. (A), (B), (C) (D) :(C)
5 . OMR OMR ,
6.
7 . (Rough Work) 8 . OMR , , , , ,
9. - OMR OMR
10. / 11. ()
12.
[Maximum Marks : 150Time : 2 1/2hours]
PAPER-III
LAW
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Signature and Name of Invigilator
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
Roll No.
(In words)
1. (Signature) __________________________(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________RollNo.________________________________
5 8
(In figures as per admission card)
J 1 2
J-58-12 1 P.T.O.
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Paper-III 2 J-58-12
1. The new Constitution establishes,
indeed a system of Government whichis at the most quasi-federal, almost
devolutionary in character, a unitary
state with subsidiary federal features
rather than the federal state with
unitary features said by
(A) Dr. K.C. Wheare
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
2. In which of the following case it washeld that Right to Life does not
include Right to Die ?
(A) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Chenna Jagdeshwar Vs. State of
A.P.
(C) State of U.P. Vs. Sanjay Kumar
Bhatia
(D) Deena Vs. Union Bank of India
3. Assertion (A) : An accused person
cannot be compelled to give hissignature or thumb impression.
Reason (R) : An accused person
cannot be compelled to be a
witness against himself.
Codes :(A) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. After a Money Bill has been passed by
the House of the People, within howmany days it is transmitted to the
Council of States for its
recommendations ?
(A) Thirty days
(B) Twenty four days
(C) Sixty days
(D) Fourteen days
5. Assertion (A) : Directive Principles
are not enforceable by any
Court.
Reason (R) : Directive Principles
are more or less fundamental in
the governance of the country.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of(A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
6. The Supreme Court does not have
original jurisdiction regarding a
dispute between
(A) a citizen and a State
(B) the Government of India and
one State(C) two States
(D) the Government of India and
one State on one side and one
State on the other side
7. In the Constitution of India, provision
relating to the formation of new States
can be amended by
(A) A Parliamentary resolution
which should be ratified by
majority of State Legislatures.(B) A simple majority in each House
of Parliament.
(C) 3/4th
majority in the Parliament
(D) 2/3rd
majority in the each Houseof Parliament provided they also
constitute the majority of total
members of each House.
LAW
Paper III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
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J-58-12 3 Paper-III
1. , , ?(A) . . . (B) . (C) . . . (D)
2. ?(A) (B) (C) . . (D)
3. (A) :
(R) :
( )
:(A) (A) , (R) (B) (A) , (R) (C) (A) (R) (D) (A) (R)
4. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. (A) :
(R) :
:(A) (A) (R) , (R),
(A) (B) (A) (R) (R),
(A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R)
6. :(A) (B)
(C) (D)
7. , ?(A)
(B)
(C) 3/4 (D) 2/3
III
: (75) - (2)
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Paper-III 4 J-58-12
8. Holding of periodic, free and fair
elections by the Election Commission
is part of the basic structure of the
Constitution as per the following :
(A) Election Commission of India
Vs. AIADMK
(B) S.S. Dhanoa Vs. Union of India
(C) In Gujarat Assembly Election
matter
(D) Sadiq Ali Vs. Election
Commission of India
9. Writ ofMandamus cannot be issued,where a fundamental right is infringed
by
(A) A Statute
(B) A Statutory Order
(C) An Executive Order
(D) Private Body
10. Assertion (A) : The principles of
natural justice ensures fair hearing.
Reason (R) : It requires unbiased
judge to decide after hearing all
parties.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is good explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is not a good explanation of
(A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. Prerogative writs to review anadministrative action are :
(A) Two : Writ of Habeas Corpus
and Writ of Mandamus.
(B) Three : Writ of Habeas Corpus
and Writ of Mandamus
and Writ of Prohibition.
(C) Four : Writ of Habeas Corpus
and Writ of Mandamus
and Writ of Prohibition
and Writ of Certiorari
and Writ of Quo
Warranto.
(D) Five : Writ of Habeas Corpus,
Writ of Mandamus,
Writ of Quo warranto,
Writ of Certiorari and
Writ of Prohibition.
12. A mandatory procedural requirement
for an administrative tribunal must be
(A) Legal representation
(B) Cross examination
(C) Reasoned decision
(D) All of the above
13. Judicial review of an administrative
action means
(A) Review by the Parliament
(B) Review by the Government
(C) Review by the Legislative
Assembly
(D) Review by the Judiciary
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J-58-12 5 Paper-III
8. -
?
(A) AIADMK
(B) . .
(C)
(D)
9.
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10. (A) :
(R) :
:
(A) (A) (R) (R),
(A)
(B) (A) (R) , (R),
(A)
(C) (A) , (R)
(D) (A) , (R)
11. :
(A) :
(B) : ,
(C) : , , , -
(D) : , , - ,
12. ( ) :
(A)
(B) -
(C) (D)
13. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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Paper-III 6 J-58-12
14. Match an item in List I with correctanswer in List II.
List I List II
Institution of
Lokpal and
Lokayukta
(A) Law should be able
to control the
numerous widediscretionary
powers
(B) Ensure fair hearing
(C) Evaporatemaladministration
and corruption to
bring good
governance
(D) Check and control
abuse of power andexecutive excesses
15. Find correct answer :
(A) Administrative law is a branch
of public law and is only a part
of Constitutional law. It cannot
control the Constitutional law.
(B) Administrative law is a branch
of private law.
(C) Administrative law isindependent to Constitutional
law.
(D) Administrative law is neither the
branch of public law nor of
private law, but a part of
Constitutional law.
16. Benthams definition of law is
imperative in nature because
(A) law is an assembling of signs.
(B) law is declaration of volitionconceived or adopted by
sovereign in a State.
(C) because it is adopted by non-
sovereign State.
(D) (A) & (B) both
17. The term Legal theory has been first
time used by
(A) Llewlyne
(B) Ihring
(C) Salmond
(D) W. Friedman
18. Bracket theory of corporate
personality is also known as
(A) Concession theory
(B) Symbolist theory
(C) Fiction theory
(D) Will theory
19. A says to B that he will give a sum
of rupees five thousand if B marrieshis daughter, this is
(A) Vested Right
(B) Contingent Right
(C) Primary Right
(D) Secondary Right
20. Assertion (A) : Kelsen follows Kant
in distinguishing between is
and ought.
Reason (R) : Kelsen is a forerunnerof philosophical school.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not a correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
21. The possession is the
(A) five point in ownership
(B) seven point in ownership
(C) nine point in ownership
(D) ten point in ownership
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J-58-12 7 Paper-III
14. -I -II :
I II
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) ( )
15. :(A)
(B) (C)
(D)
16. (A) (B)
(C) -
(D) (A) (B)
17. ?(A) (B) (C) (D) .
18. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. , , :(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. (A) : (is)
(ought) (R) :
:(A) (A) (R) (R),
(A) (B) (A) (R) , (R),
(A)
(C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R)
21. () :(A) (B) (C) (D)
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J-58-12 9 Paper-III
22. :I.
II. III. IV. : :(A) I, III IV(B) II, III IV(C) I, II IV(D) I, II III
23. -
?(A) -(B) (C) (D)
24. , ,
?(A) 299 1(B) 300 1(C) 299 2(D) 300 2
25. ?(A) 29 (B) 30(C) 31 (D) 13
26.
82 ?(A) 12 (B) 7 (C) 16 (D) 18
27. / ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
28. : + =
: M, B M
B
M ?(A) M (B) M (C) M (D) M
29. : :(A) (B) /(C) (D)
30. : ______ (A) (B) (C) (D)
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Paper-III 10 J-58-12
31. Fill in the gap which is moreappropriate.
Inducing a girl under 18 years of age to
go away with him from _________ is
an offence of
(A) Normal home
(B) Place of work
(C) Domestic area
(D) Any place
32. Find the correct answer :
The principle of intergenerational
equity envisages :
(A) Conservation of options
(B) Conservation of quality
(C) Conservation of access(D) All the above
33. Find the correct answer :
The Supreme Court allowed
compensation of ` 23.84 lakhs and
later allowed additional compensation
of ` 47 lakhs to the farmers whose
crops got damaged, being irrigated by
subsoil water drawn from a stream
which was polluted from untreated
effluents of 22 industries. It wasdecided in the case of
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum
vs. Union of India
(B) Indian Council ForEnvironment Action vs. Union of
India
(C) S. Jagannath vs. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs.
Union of India
34. The concept of sustainable
development contains which of the
following essentials ?
(A) The precautionary principle
(B) The polluter pays principle
(C) The doctrine of public trust
(D) All above
35. Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court
in Banwasi Seva Ashram vs.
State of Uttar Pradesh,
permitted the government
agency to acquire the forest
land, ousting certain tribaldwellers to implement a power
project only after they agreed to
provide certain facilities
approved by the Court.
Reason (R) : Because the
governmental action had an
environmental impact that
threatened to dislocate poor
forest dwellers and disrupt their
life-style infringing theirfundamental right to life, which
include the right to livelihood.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) and (R) both are true, but
(R) is not a correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is good explanation of (A).
36. The Supreme Court observed that
noise pollution cannot be tolerated,
even if such noise was a direct result
of and was connected with religious
activities in the case of
(A) A.P. Pollution Control Board vs.
Prof M.V. Naidu
(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) inIndia vs. KKR Majestic Colony
Welfare Association.
(C) K.M. Chinappa vs. Union of
India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs.
Union of India
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J-58-12 11 Paper-III
31. :18 ______
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32. : :(A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. : 23.84 ` 47` , 22 ?(A)
(B)
(C) . (D)
34. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)
35. (A) :
,
(R) :
:
(A) (A) (R)
(B) (A) (R) (R),
(A)
(C) (A) (R)
(D) (A) (R) (R),
(A)
36.
( )
:
(A) . . .
..
(B) ( )
. . .
(C) . .
(D)
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Paper-III 12 J-58-12
37. Assertion (A) : Nobody can claim afundamental right to create noise
pollution by amplifying the
sound of his speech with the
help of loudspeaker.
Reason (R) : While one has a right
to speech, others have a right to
listen or decline to listen.
Anyone who wishes to live in
peace, comfort and quiet within
his house has a fundamental
right to prevent the noise as
pollutantion reaching him.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not a correct explanation.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is good explanation of (A)
38. In which of the following cases it was
held that there is no reason to compel
non-smokers to be helpless victims of
air pollution ?
(A) Samantha vs. State of A.P.
(B) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
(C) Murli Deora vs. Union of India
(D) Sheela Barse vs. Union of India
39. Protection and improvement of
environment and safeguarding forests
and wildlife is
(A) A fundamental right(B) One of the Directive Principles
of State Policy.
(C) One of the Fundamental Duties
(D) Both one of the Directive
Principles of State Policy and
one of the Fundamental Duties
40. Who stated that international law is
not true law but positive international
morality only, analogous to the rules
binding a club or society ?
(A) Oscar Schachter
(B) John Austin
(C) Louis Flenkin
(D) Hans Kelson
41. Opino juris sive necessitatismeans
(A) Opinions of jurists is necessary
evidence for determining rules
of international custom
(B) Opinions of jurists is not
necessary for ascertaining the
rules of international law
(C) The feeling on the part of States
that in acting as they do they are
fulfilling a legal obligation
(D) None of the above
42. Which of the following cases supports
constitutive theory of recognition,
namely, the act of recognition alone
confers international personality on an
entity purporting to be a state or
clothes new government with an
authority to enter into international
relations ?
(A) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939)
A.C. P 256
(B) A.M. Luther Vs. James Sagor &
Co, (1921) 3 K.B. P.532
(C) Tinoco Concessions, (1923) 1
United Nations Reports of
International Arbitral Awards P
369
(D) None of the above
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J-58-12 13 Paper-III
37. (A) : ,
(R) : ,
:
(A) (A) , (R)
(B) (A) , (R)
(C) (A) (R) , (R),(A)
(D) (A) (R) (R),(A)
38.
?
(A)
(B) . .
(C)
(D)
39.
:(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
40.
?
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
41. (Opino
juris sive necessitatis) :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
42.
, ,
, :
(A) , (1939) . . . 256
(B) . .
., (1921)3 . . . 532
(C) , (1923)1
, . 369(D)
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Paper-III 14 J-58-12
43. Which of the following statements istrue ?
(A) Nationality is the evidence of
the link or relations of an
individual with the State
whereas domicile denotes defacto residence of an individual
in a State with an intention to
permanently settle there.
(B) Nationality is an evidence of
residence of an individual with
an intention to permanently
settle there.
(C) Domicile denotes the link or
relations of an individual with
the State.
(D) None of the above
44. The Charter of the Untied Nations
came into force on
(A) 26 June 1945
(B) 10 December 1945
(C) 24 October 1945
(D) 1 November 1945
45. A member of the United Nations
which has persistently violated the
principles contained in the Charter
may be expelled from the United
Nations by the
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly(C) General Assembly upon the
recommendation of the Security
Council
(D) Security Council upon the
recommendation of the General
Assembly
46. The Judges of the International Court
of Justice are elected by the
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) General Assembly upon
recommendation of the Security
Council
(D) General Assembly and the
Security Council independently
of one another
47. Under Section 6 of the Hindu
Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
the natural guardian of a minor child is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Both Mother and Father(D) Either Mother or Father
48. A Muslim wife can relinquish her
Mahr
(A) When she is minor
(B) When she has attained the age of
puberty
(C) When she is not less than 18
years of age
(D) When she is not less than 21
years of age.
49. In Islamic Law Faskh means
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Dissolution or rescission of the
contract of marriage by judicial
decree at the instance of the
husband.
(D) Dissolution on rescission of the
contract of marriage by judicial
decree at the instance of thewife.
50. Muta marriage is recognised by
(A) Hanafi School
(B) Maliki School
(C) Ithna Ashari School
(D) Hanbali School
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J-58-12 15 Paper-III
43. ?
(A)
(B)
,
(C)
(D)
44. ?
(A) 26 1945
(B) 10 1945
(C) 24 1945
(D) 1 1945
45. ,
,
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
?(A) (B)
(C) (D) ,
47. ,1956 6 :(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. ?(A) (B)
(C) 18
(D) 21
49. :(A) (B) (C)
(D)
50. ?(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Paper-III 16 J-58-12
51. The term Hindu denotes the person
(i) Professing Hindu Religion
(ii) Professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh
Religion
(iii) Who are not professing Muslim,
Christian, Parsi or Jew Religion.In respect of the aforesaid propositions
which is correct ?
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is
incorrect.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is
incorrect.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is
incorrect.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are all correct.
52. Match the List I with List II using
the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Void
Marriages
(i) Section 9
(b) Voidable
marriages
(ii) Section 11
(c) Divorce (iii) Section 13
(d) Restitution of
Conjugal Rights
(iv) Section 12
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
53. In which of the following case the
Court held that Section 9 of the Hindu
Marriage Act was Constitutionally
violative of right to Human dignity
and privacy ?
(A) Bipin Chandra vs. Prabhavati
(B) T. Sareetha vs. T. Venkatasubah
(C) Lachman vs. Meena
(D) None of the above
54. Match the List I with List II and
indicate the correct answer using the
codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Pre-Marriage
Pregnancy
(i) Divorce
(b) Marriage within
Prohibited
Degree
Relationship
(ii) Voidable
Marriage
(c) Cruelty (iii) Void
Marriage
(d) When any
spouse without
reasonable
excuse
withdraws from
the society of
the other
(iv) Restitution
of
Conjugal
Rights
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
55. International Womens Day is
celebrated every year on
(A) 2nd
March (B) 4th
March
(C) 6th
March (D) 8th
March
56. Which one of the following is correct
according to Art I of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 ?
(A) All human beings are born free
and equal in rights.(B) All human beings are born free,
equal and dignity
(C) All human beings are equal in
dignity and rights.
(D) All human beings are born free
and equal in rights and dignity.
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J-58-12 17 Paper-III
51.
(i)
(ii) ,
(iii) , ,
?
(A) (i) (ii) , (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) , (i)
(C) (i) (iii) , (ii)
(D) (i), (ii) (iii)
52. -I -II :
I II
(a) (i) -9
(b) (ii) -11
(c) (iii) -13
(d)
(iv) -12
:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
53. 9, ?
(A)
(B) . .
(C)
(D)
54. -I -II
I II(a)
(i)
(b)
(ii)
(c) (iii) (d)
( )
(iv)
:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
55.
?(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
56. , 1948 1 ?(A)
(B) ,
(C)
(D)
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57. Regional Human Rights Court doesnot exist in
(A) Africa (B) Europe
(C) America (D) Asia
58. Which protocol to the European
Convention on Human Rights hasabolished European Commission of
Human Rights ?
(A) Protocol 1 (B) Protocol 2
(C) Protocol 3 (D) Protocol 11
59. Which one of the followingconvention has neither interstate
communication procedure nor
individual communication procedure ?
(A) International Convention on
Civil and Political Rights
(B) International Convention on
Economic, Social and Cultural
Rights
(C) Convention on the Rights of
Child.
(D) Convention on the Rights of
persons with Disabilities.
60. The term of the office of the
Chairperson and Members of theNHRC under Protection of Human
Rights Act, 1993 is
(A) 5 years from the date on which
he enters the office or until he
attains the age of 70 years
whichever is earlier.
(B) 4 years from the date on which
he enters the office or until he
attains the age of 70 years
whichever is earlier.
(C) 3 years from the date on whichhe enters the office or until he
attains the age of 68 years
whichever is earlier.
(D) 5 years from the date on whichhe enters the office or until he
attains the age of 68 years
whichever is earlier.
61. The Chairperson of National
Commission on Minorities shall be
deemed member of
(A) Human Rights Council
(B) Law Commission of India
(C) National Human Rights
Commission
(D) International Law Commission
62. Which one of the following is an
actionable wrong ?
(A) Injuria sine damnum
(B) Damnum sine injuria
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
63. Which of the following is the gist of
tortious liability ?
(A) Legal damages
(B) Violation of legal right
(C) Availability of legal duty
(D) None of the above
64. The Rule of Absolute Liability is
subject to
(A) All the exceptions mentioned in
the rule ofRylands vs. Fletcher
(B) Half of the exceptions
mentioned in the rule ofRylands
vs. Fletcher
(C) None of the exceptions
mentioned in the rule ofRylands
vs. Fletcher
(D) All the exceptions mentioned in
rule ofM.C. Mehta vs. Union of
India
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J-58-12 19 Paper-III
57. :(A) (B) (C) (D)
58. () ?(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3(D) 11
59. : ?(A)
(B) ,
(C) (D)
60. , 1993 ?(A) 5
70
(B) 4
70 (C) 3
68
(D) 5 68
61.
?
(A)
(B) (C)
(D)
62. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
63.
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
64.
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) . .
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65. Assertion (A) : If a person speaks illof the business which X is doing,it amounts to defamation.
Reason (R) : Slander is actionableper se.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not the correct explanationof (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
66. In res Ipsa Loquitor:
(1) Presumption of negligence is
there.(2) Plaintiff has to bring direct
evidence.
(3) Plaintiff is discharged from the
duty of proving negligence on
the part of the defendant.
(4) Court does not give chance todefendant to avoid his liability.
Codes :
(A) (1) and (2) are correct.
(B) (1), (2) and (4) are correct.(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
(D) (1) and (3) are correct.
67. Which one of the following statements
is true ?
(A) Both public as well as private
nuisance are punishable under
criminal law.
(B) Only private nuisance is
punishable under criminal law,
while there is no punishment forgeneral nuisance.
(C) Public nuisance is punishable
under criminal law while private
nuisance is a moral wrong only.
(D) Public nuisance is punishableunder criminal law, while
private nuisance under civil law.
68. For constituting tort of nuisance, there
should be
(A) Unreasonable interference
(B) Interference should be with the
use of enjoyment of land.
(C) Damage
(D) All of the above
69. Partnership is based on
(A) Mutual trust
(B) Mutual benefit
(C) Mutual interest
(D) Mutual agency
70. Which statements are correct ?
(i) An undisclosed principal can
intervene against express terms.
(ii) An undisclosed principal cannot
intervene against express terms.
(iii) An undisclosed principal cannotintervene when he knows that
the other party would not have
dealt with him.
(iv) An undisclosed principal can
intervene when he knows that
the other party would not have
dealt with him.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
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65. (A) : X ,
(R) : :
:(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(B) (A) (R) , (R),
(A) (C) (A) , (R) (D) (A) , (R)
66. ,
(1) (2) (3)
(4)
:(A) (1) (2) (B) (1), (2) (4)
(C) (1), (2) (3) (D) (1) (3)
67. ?(A)
(B)
,
(C)
(D) ,
68.
(A)
(B) (C)
(D)
69. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
70. ?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:
(A) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (i)
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71. Read the following passage, and
match the column :
A negotiable instrumentcontains a contract and therefore mustbe supported by consideration. Inorder to be a holder in due course, the
holder must have obtained theinstrument before its maturity. Aninstrument payable on demand iscurrent at least as long as no demandfor payment is made. To make aholder in due course, the instrumentmust be complete and regular. A post-dated cheque may not be complete andregular.
Column P Column Q
(a) Negotiable
instrument
(i) Before
maturity(b) Holder in
due course(ii) Demand for
payment
(c) Currency ofinstrument
(iii) Post datedcheque
(d) Completeand regular
(iv) Consideration
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
72. Assertion (A) : Every public company
shall have at least three and every
private company at least two
Directors.
Reason (R) : Directors are trustees
for the company and not for
individual shareholders.
Codes :(A) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not an explanation for (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
an explanation for (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
73. Arrange the following concepts in asequence in which they appeared. Use
the code given below :
(i) Right of an unpaid seller to stop
goods in transit.
(ii) Agreement to sell goods.
(iii) Damages for breach of contractof sale of goods.
(iv) Conditions and warranties.
Codes :
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
74. Which statements are correct ?
(i) Partner has a duty of good faith.
(ii) Partner has duty not to compete.
(iii) Partner has duty of due
diligence.
(iv) Partner has duty to indemnify
for fraud.
Codes :(A) Only (i) is correct.(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
75. Match an item in List P with an item
in List Q :List P List Q(a) Removal of
Directors byCompany LawBoard
(i) Section318
(b) Duty of Directorsto discloseinterest
(ii) Sections299 300
(c) Compensation forloss of office ofDirector
(iii) Section402
(d) Director withunlimitedliability
(iv) Sections322 323
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
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71. : () , , ,
P Q(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c)
(iii)
(d)
(iv)
:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
72. (A) :
(R) : ()
:(A) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(B) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(C) (A) , (R) (D) (R) , (A)
73. :(i)
(ii)
(iii) (iv) :(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
74. ?(i) (ii) (iii)
(iv)
:(A) (i) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (i), (ii) (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)
75. P Q :
- P - Q(a)
(i) 318
(b)
(ii) 299 - 300
(c)
(iii) 402
(d)
(iv) 322 - 323
:(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
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Space For Rough Work