KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04 - Career and Education | | | Page 1 KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04...

www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com | www.careerpower.in | www.ctetadda.com

KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04

Time Allowed: 2 ½ Hours Maximum Marks: 150

ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ’k INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. OMR mÙkj i= bl ijh{kk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk iqfLrdk

[kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i= fudky dj i`"B&1 ,oa i`"B&2 ij /;ku ls dsoy uhys ckWy isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA

1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue ball point pen only.

2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa ijh{kk esa 150 iz’u gSA dksbZ _.kkRed

vadu ugha gSA

2. The test is of 2½ house duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking

3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy,

dsoy uhys ckWy ikWbaV isu dk iz;ksx djsaA

3. Use Blue Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. ,l iqfLrdk dk ladsr gS A. ;g lqfuf’pr dj ysa dh bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr]

mÙkj i= ds i`"B-2 ij Nis ladsr ls feyrk gSA ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa dh

ijh{kk la[;k vkSj mÙkj i= la[;k feyrs gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks ijh{kkFkhZ

nwljh iz’u iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i= ysus ds fy, fujh{kd dks rqajr voxr

djk,aA

4. The OCDE for this Booklet is A, Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the answer sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that you test booklet no. and answer sheet no. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the test booklet and the answer sheet.

5. bl iqfLrdk esa ik¡p Hkkx 1, 2, 3, 4 vkSj 5 gSa] ftuesa 150 oLrqfu"B iz’u

gSa] tks izR;sd 1 vad dk gS%

5. This test booklet has five part 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, consisting of 150 objective type questions, each carrying 1 mark:

Hkkx-1 % vaxzsth ¼iz- 1 ls iz- 15½ Part – 1 : English (Q. 1 to Q. 15)

Hkkx-2 % fganh ¼iz- 16 ls iz- 30½ Part – 2 : Hindi (Q. 16 to Q. 30)

Hkkx-3 % djsZaV vQs;lZ ¼iz- 31 ls iz- 70½ Part – 3 : Current Affairs (Q. 31 to Q. 70)

Hkkx-4 % rdZ’kfä ifj{k.k ¼iz- 71 ls iz- 110½ Part – 4 : Reasoning (Q. 71 to Q. 110)

Hkkx-5 % f’k{k.k vfHk{kerk ¼iz- 111 ls iz- 150½ Part – 5 : Teaching Aptitude (Q. 111 to Q. 150)

;fn vuqokn esa fdlh Hkh izdkj dh dksbZ vLi"Vrk gks rks vaxszsth okys ikB

dks gh lgh ekuk tk;sxkA

6. In case of any ambiguity in translate, the English version will be deemed authentic.

,Q dk;Z ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij djsaA 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test booklet for the same.

lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i= ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd

vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA

8. The answer are to be recorded on the OMR answer sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answer.


GENERAL ENGLISH

Directions (1-5): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives. The Ages of Faith, which is praised by our neo-scholastics, were the times the clergy had all the things their own way. Daily life was full of miracles wrought by saints and wizardry, perpetrated by devils and necromancers. Many thousands of witches were burnt at the stake. The sins of men were punished by pestilence, famine, earthquake, flood and fire. And yet, strange to say, they were even more sinful than they are nowadays. Very little was known scientifically about the world. A few learned men remembered Greek proofs that the earth is round, but most people made fun of the notion that there are antipodes. To suppose that there are human beings at the antipodes was heresy. It was generally held, though modern Catholics took a milder view, that the immense majority of mankind was dammed. Dangers were held to lurk at every turn. 1. Many thousands of witches were

a) buried b) encouraged in their work c) burnt at the stake d) revered and respected

2. The sins of men were punished by a) sending them to the gallows b) beating them to death c) disease, death and despair d) pestilence, famine, earthquake, flood and fire

3. Scientifically, very little was known about a) mankind b) the plants c) the animals d) the world

4. A few learned men remembered that a) the earth is round b) the sun rises in the east c) the sun sets in the west d) human beings inhale oxygen

5. Most people, in those days, made fun of the notion that there are a) antipoles b) antipodes c) antibodies d) anti-Catholics

Directions (6–10): Choose the correct alternatives to fill in the blanks in the following sentences— 6. A …… soldier fights for the sake of money.

a) materialistic b) pioneer c) veteran d) mercenary

7. The road to Hell is …… with good intentions. a) decorated b) engraved c) paved d) crowded

8. Laws grind the …… and rich man rule the law. a) criminals b) poor c) innocents d) destitute

9. It is not possible for everyone to …… an elephant.

a) keep up b) keep up with c) keep in d) keep on

10. Our college building has a good ……. a) sight b) site c) cite d) side

11. ‘Compact’ means— a) Face powder for women b) Computer software c) Put together in a small space d) None of the above

12. Change the following simple sentence into a complex sentence— His senior colleagues have been transferred to Dehradun. a) His colleagues having a seniority over him have been transferred to Dehradun b) His Colleagues who are senior to him have been transferred to Dehradun c) Some of his colleagues are senior to him there or they have been transferred to Dehradun d) Being senior some of his colleagues have been transferred to Dehradun

13. Punctuate the following— Dont worry father said he Ill soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi. a) Dont worry father, “said he” Ill soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi b) Don’t worry father, said he “I’ll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.” c) “Don’t worry father,” said he, “I’ll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi.” d) “Don’t worry father said he” I’ll soon leave the village and find a job in Delhi

14. Find out the correct narration of the following direct speech— “I know this area because I used to live here,” he informed. a) He informed that he knew that area because he used to live there b) He informed that he knew that area because he had lived there c) He informed that he knew that area because he had been living there d) He informed that he knew that area because he lived there

15. Tick the correct one— a) Gita asked me where I lived. b) Gita asked to me where I lived. c) Gita asked me where did I live ? d) Gita asked me where do you live ?

HINDI LANGUAGE

निर्दशे (16-20): िीचे (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) और (G) में सात

वाक्य दर्दए गए हैं| A को पहला वाक्य रखते हुए बाकी छः वाक्यों को आस

प्रकार व्यवनथित कीनजए दक सातों वाक्यों का एक ऄिथपूर्थ पररच्छेर्द बि

जाए| दिर ईसके बार्द दर्दए गए प्रश्नों के ईत्तर र्दीनजए|


A. र्दरवाजे की घंटी बजी तो ऄमाि तजेी से ईठे, ईधर रनजया भी दकचि

से तुरंत बाहर निकल अइ।

B. कुररयर से नमले नलिािे पर ईन्होंिे एक िजर डाली।

C. वे कुररयर वाले का निपटािे में लग गए और रनजया दकया में घुस

गइ।

D. ‘‘अनसि ही होगा’’, कहते हुए ईन्होंिे र्दरवाजा खोला, पर सामि े

कुररयर को खडा र्देख ईिके सारे ईत्साह पर पािी दिर गया।

E. बैंक िे ईिका खाता-नववरर् भेजा िा।

F. तभी रनजया ईि खूबसूरत प्यालों में चाय लेकर अ गइ जा ईन्होंिे

नवर्दशे से खरीर्द ेिे।

G. ईसे नबिा खोले ही ईन्होंिे सोिे के पास रखी नतपाइ पर रख दर्दया

और दिर से ऄखबार पढ़िे लगे।

16. पररच्छेर्द का र्दसूरा वाक्य कौि-सा होगा? a)E b)C c)D d)B

17. पररच्छेर्द का तीसरा वाक्य कौि-सा होगा? a)B b)C c)D d)F

18. पररच्छेर्द का छठा वाक्य कौि-सा होगा? a)C b)D c)E d)G

19. पररच्छेर्द का चैिा वाक्य कौि-सा होगा? a)B b)F c)D d)C

20. पररच्छेर्द का पााँचवााँ वाक्य कौि-सा होगा? a)D b)C c)E d)B

निर्दशे (21-25): िीचे दर्दए गए प्रत्येक प्रश्नों में एक ररक्त थिाि छूटा हुअ

ह ैऔर ईसके पांच शब्र्द सुझाए गए हैं| आिमें से कोइ एक ईस ररक्त थिाि

पर रख र्दिेे से वह वाक्य एक ऄिथपूर्थ वाक्य वि जाता हैं| सही शब्र्द

ज्ञातकर ईसके क्रमांक को ईत्तर के रूप में ऄंदकत कीनजये, दर्दए गए शब्र्दों में

से सवाथनधक ईपयुक्त का चयि करिा है|

21. ि मैं दकसी की ईपेक्षा करता हाँ ि दकसी प्रकार की_____|

a) ईम्मीर्द b) आक्छा

c) ऄपेक्षा d)लालसा

22. नजसकी _____होती ह,ै ईसका नविाश निनित ह|ै

a)व्युत्पनत्त b)निष्पनत्त

c)संपनत d)ईत्पनत्त

23. ईत्कषथ और _____जीवि के ऄनिवायथ ऄंग है|

a)नवकषथ b)नवमशथ

c)संघषथ d)ऄपकषथ

24. ब्रह्म सत_____थवरूप है|

a)ज्ञाि b)अिंर्द

c)सुख d)नशव

25. कि और नपत्त_____के नबिा पंगु हैं|

a)बात b)शात

c)भात d)वात

निर्दशे (26-30): िीचे दर्दए गए प्रत्येक प्रश्न में एक ररक्त थिाि छूटा हुअ

ह ै और ईसके िीचे 5 शब्र्द सुझाए गए हैं। आिमें से कोइ एक ईस ररक्त

थिाि पर रख र्दिेे से वह वाक्य ऄिथपूर्थ वाक्य बि जाता ह।ै सही शब्र्द को

ज्ञात कर ईसको ईत्तर के रूप में ऄंदकत कीनजए। दर्दए गए शब्र्दों में स े

सवाथनधक ईपयुक्त शब्र्द का चयि करिा है।

26. नवज्ञाि और प्रौद्योनगकी के आस युग में भाषा नित िवीि शब्र्दों स े

______ हो रही है।

a) अबद्ध b) बलवाि

c) वृद्ध d) समृऺद्ध

27. हर वषथ 15 ऄगथत को र्दशे भर में थवतंत्रता दर्दवस धूमधामसे ______

हैं।

a) माित े b) करते

c) मिाते d) गुंजाते

28. अज भी बहुत से साहकार गांवों में गरीब दकसािों को ऄपिे ______

में िंसाते हैं।

a) खेल b) र्दांव

c) हाि d) चंगुल

29. कनवताओं के आस ______ में निराला की कनवताएं भी हैं।

a) अकलि b) पररकलि

c) नवकलि d) संकलि

30. ऄिुवार्द शानब्र्दक हो और ईसमें ईपयुक्त वाक्यांशों और मुहावरों का

______ प्रयोग ि हो तो भाषा बोनझल, ईबाउ और ऄरूनचकर प्रतीत

होिे लगती है।

a) क्वनचत b) सनचत

c) समुनचत d) कर्दानचत्

CURRENT AFFAIRS

31. Telecom Ministry is believed to have cleared how much

4G spectrum trading deal between service providers Bharti Airtel and Aircel recently? a) Rs 22,000 crore b) Rs 3,500 crore c) Rs 10,500 crore d) Rs 16,000 crore

32. The President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee conferred the 51st Jnanpith Award on the renowned writer _________ . a) Kiran Desai b) Chetan Bhagat c) Arundhati Roy d) Raghuveer Chaudhari

33. The fourth edition of the India International Coir Fair (IICF) 2016 is scheduled between July 15 and 18 at the Codissia Trade Fair Complex in which of the following cities? a) Chennai b) Madurai c) Coimbatore d) New Delhi

34. Bollywood superstars Shahrukh Khan and Akshay Kumar are among the world’s highest-paid celebrities of

2016, according to an annual list by Forbes.Which superstar has topped the list with an earning of $170 million? a) Lady Gaga b) Tom Cruise c) Brad Pitt d) Taylor Swift

35. Cairn Energy has sought $ 5.6 billion in compensation from the Indian government for raising a retrospective tax demand of Rs. 29,047 crore on 10-year old internal reorganisation of its India unit. Cairn Energy is based in which of the following countries? a) France b) USA c) Germany d) UK

36. In one of the most significant decisions in recent times, Indian Hockey Team named senior goalkeeper _________ as the captain of the national team for the Rio Olympics, removing long-time skipper Sardar Singh. a) Akashdeep Singh b) Harmanpreet Singh c) Nikkin Thimmaiah d) PR Sreejesh


37. Which State police has launched four mobile apps for

timely intervention into emergency situations. The four applications are Pratisaad Ask, Police Mitra, Vahanchoritakrar and Railway helpline? a) New Delhi b) West Bengal c) Kerala d) Maharashtra

38. Which of the following Private sector Bank has acquired 100 per cent stake in Tamil Nadu-based Grama Vidiyal Microfinance, a leading Micro Finance Institution (MFI) in the country, for an undisclosed sum? a) Bandhan Bank b) Kotak Mahindra Bank c) IDFC Bank d) ICICI Bank

39. India and which country have signed a landmark deal for the construction of a 1,320 megawatt coal fired power plant, the biggest project under bilateral cooperation that would mark the transition from electricity export to generation level? a) Bhutan b) Bangladesh c) Myanmar d) Nepal

40. Budget carrier GoAir has signed an initial pact with Airbus for buying 72 A320neo aircraft recently. Airbus is based in which country? a) France b) Japan c) Russia d) Italy

41. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the disinvestment of how much per cent paid-up equity in NBCC India Ltd out of Government’s 90 per cent shareholding recently? a) 12 per cent b) 25 per cent c) 20 per cent d) 15 per cent

42. Which of the following Private Sector Bank opened it's IFSC Banking Unit (IBU) at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) to meet the requirements of offshore banking operations from India? a) Axis Bank b) ICICI Bank c) HDFC Bank d) IndusInd Bank

43. Which of the following companies has launched a short-term corporate deposit scheme, which offers interest rates ranging from 7.55 per cent to 8.40 per cent, depending on the tenure? a) Reliance Home Finance b) Tata Consultancy Services Limited c) Dewan Housing Finance Corporation Ltd d) Wipro Limited

44. Which state government signed a MoU with Bangkok-based Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) to implement the Roadmap for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-30)? The move will help reduce disaster risk management in the state. a) Kerala b) Bihar c) West Bengal d) Assam

45. Name the prize-winning scholar who wove the stories of civilizations worldwide into the landmark “The Rise of the West” and helped pioneer the history of disease and epidemics in “Plagues and People,” has died at age 98 recently? a) William H McNeill b) Al Pacino c) Robert De Niro d) Sylvester Stallone

46. In a first, the Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay (IIT-B) signed an MoU with which of the following public sector banks to promote innovation by startups in the financial sector? a) State Bank of India b) Punjab National Bank c) Indian Overseas Bank d) Central Bank of India

47. Vice-President Mohammad Hamid Ansari leaves for which of the following countries to lead the Indian delegation at the 11th Asia Europe Meeting recently? a) Brazil b) Mongolia c) Portugal d) Argentina

48. The 41st All India Electricity Board Kabaddi tournament begins at which place? a) Patna, Bihar b) Ludhiana, Punjab c) Tiruchirapalli, Tamil Nadu d) Jodhpur, Rajasthan

49. The Indian Government has started which operation to evacuate it's citizens stranded in South Sudan's capital Juba recently? a) Mahaveer Hanuman b) Pawan Putra c) Kesri Nandan d) Sankat Mochan

50. The fourth tranche of the government’s sovereign gold bond scheme will open from July 18-22, 2016. The allotment date is set for August 5. The Bonds bear interest at the rate of ............. (fixed rate) per annum on the amount of initial investment? a) 2.00 per cent b) 2.25 per cent c) 3.75 per cent d) 2.75 per cent

51. Government has allocated how much capital to 13 public sector banks for the current fiscal recently? a) 41,513 crore b) 53,432 crore c) 27,100 crore d) 22,915 crore

52. India and which of the following countries have agreed to deepen the scope of cooperation in the maritime sector? a) UK b) Germany c) Mangolia d) USA

53. The famous hill shrine of Tirumala Tirupati Devasathanam has made it official that it is compulsorily to produce Aadhaar card as identity proof by the devotees who wish to perform ‘anga pradakshinam’ (rolling on the floor around the temple precincts) in fulfillment of their prayers. the temple is situated in which of the following states? a) Bihar b) Uttar Pradesh c) Andhra Pradesh d) Tamil Nadu

54. India's first e-court has been opened at High Court of ............ ? a) Bangaluru b) Hyderabad c) Chennai d) Patna

55. As per the survey conducted by Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) which of the following cities in India has been adjudged the most cleanest city? a) Alappuzha, Kerela b) Mysuru, Karnataka c) Panaji, Goa d) Bobbili, Andhra Pradesh

56. Which temple in India frequented by the rich and powerful among other devotees, has opened a demat account to help followers donate equity shares and other securities? a) Shree Siddhivinayak Ganapati Temple,Maharashtra b) Venkateswara Swamy Temple, Andhra Pradesh


c) Baidyanath Temple, Jharkhnad c) Konark Sun Temple, Odisha

57. Shri Kalraj Misra, Union Minister Of MSME inaugurated Incubation Cell at IIFT Delhi. The initiative is named as........? a) PRAGATI b) KITTES c) APY d) DBT

58. India and which of the following countries agreed to enhance cooperation on hydrocarbons recently? a) Germany b) Russia c) USA d) Japan

59. Name the person who is appointed as International remittance company Western Union as Regional Vice President, India and South Asia? a) Paul Romer b) Navjot Singh Sidhu c) AK Joti d) Sohini Rajola

60. Minister of Railways Shri Suresh Prabhakar Prabhu has dedicated the newly developed Coach to the nation in a simple programme held at New Delhi Railway Station recently. The coach is named as.......? a) Patel Coach b) Nehru Coach c) Gandhi Coach d) Deen Dayalu Coach

61. Government is making all efforts to boost the Housing Finance Sector to ensure the goal of affordable Housing for all by which year? a) 2019 b) 2022 c) 2020 d) 2030

62. Which of the following Indian organizations has called for restarting negotiations for India's Free Trade Agreements with UK and European Union (EU)? a) NABARD b) RBI c) SEBI d) FICCI

63. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has revised downward its global economic growth forecast for next year after the British people voted to leave the European Union. By how much percent will the world economy expand in 2017 as told by the Fund? a) 2.1 percent b) 1.3 percent c) 3.4 percent d) 5.8 percent

64. Name the noted Indian hockey player who passed away at the age of 56 due to multiple organ failure.

a) Mohammad Shahid b) Kishan Lal c) Lal Bokhari d) Charanjit Singh

65. India is all set to host the BRICS Policy Planning Dialogue on 26th July 2016 at......... a) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh b) Mumbai, Maharashtra c) Kolkata, West Bengal d) Patna, Bihar

66. Which of the following state governments will celebrate the bicentenary of the 1817 Paika revolt next year, which many historians claim to be the first war of India's Independence? a) Kerala b) Maharashtra c) Tamil Nadu d) Odisha

67. Which of the following Banks along with The Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) have signed the MoU to hammer out a detailed plan for promotion of rail ticketing activities including Internet ticketing and the unreserved ticketing system? a) State Bank of India b) IDBI Bank c) ICICI Bank d) Punjab National Bank

68. By which of the following state governments, the Central Water Commission has rejected Odisha’s objection against the construction of barrages on the Mahanadi upper catchment? a) Madhya Pradesh b) Andhra Pradesh c) Telangana d) Chhattisgarh

69. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, CCEA has approved construction of a new dry dock within which of the following Shipyards Limited at a cost of 1 thousand 7 hundred 99 crore rupees recently? a) Naval Dockyard b) Hindustan Shipyard Limited c) Cochin Shipyard Limited d) Goa Shipyard Limited

70. Global rating agency Standard & Poor’s (S&P) removed ratings on senior bonds issued by the Bahrain branch of which Bank from the negative watch list and also affirmed the BBB- rating on the instrument? a) ICICI Bank b) HDFC Bank c) Axis Bank d) SBI

REASONING ABILITY

Directions (71-80): In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives. 71. AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB

a) KF b) RX c) SH d) TS

72. AZ, CX, FU, ? a) IR b) IV c) JQ d) KP

73. AZ, BY, CX, ? a) EF b) GH c) IJ d) DW

74. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ? a) KGR b) LFQ

c) KFR d) LGQ 75. ?, SIY, OEU, KAQ, GWM, CSI

a) WNE b) WNB c) WNE d) WMC

76. CMW, HRB, ?, RBL, WGQ, BLV a) MWG b) LVF c) LWG d) WMX

77. BXJ, ETL, HPN, KLP, ? a) NHR b) MHQ c) MIP d) NIR

78. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ? a) XVZ b) ZYA c) YXW d) VWX

79. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ? a) WV b) WX


c) VW d) XW 80. AD, EH, IL, ?, QT

a) LM b) MN c) MP d) OM

Directions (81-87): Select the related words/letters/ numbers from the given alternatives. 81. Poles : Magnet :: ? : Battery

a) Energy b) Power c) Terminals d) Cells

82. Peace : Chaos :: Creation : ? a) Manufacture b) Destruction c) Build d) Construction

83. Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ? a) Museum b) Statue c) Chisel d) Stone

84. Horse : Mare :: a) Fox : Vixen b) Duck : Geese c) Dog : Puppy d) Donkey : Pony

85. Cricket : Pitch :: a) Ship : Dock b) Boat : Harbour c) Boxing : Ring d) Wrestling : Track

86. Oceans : Deserts : : Waves : ? a) Dust b) Sand Dunes c) Ripples d) Sea

87. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ? a) String b) Heap c) Collection d) Bundle

88. Cube is related to Square in the same way as Square is related to a) Plane b) Triangle c) Line d) Point

89. Bank is related to Money in the same way as Transport is related to a) Traffic b) Goods c) Speed d) Road

90. Fan is related to Wings in the same way as Wheel is related to a) Round b) Air c) Spokes d) Cars

91. Find the odd one out a) crusade b) expedition c) cruise d) campaign

92. Find the odd one out a) flourish b) renovate c) blossom d) thrive

93. Find the odd one out a) Vapour b) Mist c) Hailstone d) Fog

94. Find the odd one out a) Circle : Arc b) Chair : Leg c) Flower : Petal d) Cover : Page

95. Find the odd one out a) Ginger b) Garlic c) Chilli d) Potato

96. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of my grandfather." How is the woman related to the man in the photograph? a) Sister b) Aunt c) Grandmother d) Daughter

97. A told B,"The girl I met yesterday was the youngest daughter of the brother–in–law of my friend’s mother." How is the girl related to A's friend? a) Niece b) Cousin c) Friend d) Daughter

98. Based on the following statements, which is the correct conclusion drawn. Only gentlemen can become members of the club. Many of the members of the club are officers. Some of the officers have been invited for dinner. a) All the members of the club have been invited for dinner b) Some of the officers are not gentlemen c) All gentlemen are members of the club d) Only gentlemen have been invited for dinner

99. Artists are generally whimsical. Some of them are frustrated. Frustrated people are prone to be drug addicts. Based on these statements which of the following conclusions are true? a) All frustrated people are drug addicts b) Some artists may be drug addicts c) All drug addicts are artists d) Frustrated people are whimsical

100.If SYSTEM is written as SYSMET and NEARER is written as AENRER, then FRACTION will be coded as a) Carfnoit b) Carftion c) Noitfrac d) Fracnoit

101.The words in the first column are written in a secret code in the second column. However, the secret writings in the second column are not in the same order. What is the code assigned for the letter D ? BRAIN 13529 DRAIN 35293 RIVER 13754 DRIVE 83754 a) 3 b) 5 c) 1 d) 9

102.Statement : The cost of living has gone up in India. Assumptions: I. The price of essential commodities has gone up in recent times. II. Many luxury goods are available in plenty in the country. a) Both I and II are implicit b) Neither I nor II is implicit c) Only I is implicit d) Only II is implicit

103.Statement : In the present period of economic hardships, education and small family norm may lead the nation to progress. Assumptions : I. Education and small family norm are directly related to nation's progress. II. Big families find it difficult to bear the cost of education. a) Only I is implicit b) Only II is implicit c) Both I and II are implicit d) Neither I nor II is implicit

104.Statement : The marriage rate has been steadily decreasing because more and more people prefer to have their own identity. Assumptions : I. When one is married, he/ she loses his/ her own identity.


II. People who are married are not as content as those who are not married. a) Only I is implicit b) Only II is implicit c) Both I and II are implicit. d) Neither I nor II is implicit

105. If '+' means '–', '–' means '×', '×' means '÷' and '÷' means '+' then what is the value 9 – 7 + 85 × 17 ÷ 15 = ? a) 63 b) 73 c) 99 d) 58

106.If a 'truck' is called 'train', 'train' is called 'tractor', 'tractor' is called 'ship', 'ship' is called 'aeroplane', 'aeroplane' is called 'bulldozer' and ‘bulldozer' is called 'scooter' which of the following can fly? a) Ship b) Bulldozer c) Aeroplane d) Tractor

107.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) 65 b) 25 c) 95 d) 35

108.If REAL is coded as 3 and IMPLY as 4, then what is the code for JOURNALIST? a) 6 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10

Directions (109-110): Select the one which is different from the other three response 109.a) 34 – 43 b) 55 – 62

c) 62 – 71 d) 83 – 92 110.a) 246 b) 356

c) 527 d) (d)639

TEACHING APTITUDE

111. Assessments that are used to monitor and improve a

process while it is still going on are called __________ assessments. a)formative b)objective c)summative d)official

112. School districts maintain central record files on their students. These files include test scores, grades, and promotion and placement history. These files contain information related to which type of assessment? a)Sizing-up b)Official c)Planning instruction d)Delivering instruction

113. A teacher is planning a final exam. She/he should decide what types of items to include based on a)the intended difficulty of the test. b)whether the exam is to be diagnostic or for grading. c)how well the students did on topics during instruction. d)the tasks suggested by her objectives.

114. Which of the following objectives would be most appropriately assessed with an essay? a)Given a set of diagrams of atoms, identify which are inert gases. b)Given the necessary equipment, light a Bunsen burner. c)Given a set of lab notes, interpret the results of an experiment. d)Given an element's atomic weight, locate it on the periodic table.

115. A college wants to give training in use of Statistical Package for Social Sciences (SPSS) to researchers. For this the college should organise : a) Conference b) Seminar c) Workshop d) Lecture

116. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a research ? a) Research is systematic b) Research is not a process c) Research is problem oriented d) Research is not passive

117. Which of the following statement is correct ?

a) Discoveries are researches b) Researches lead to discovery c) Invention and Research are related d) None of the above

118. A test is best defined as a a)task requiring students to exhibit their best performance. b)set of questions about a specific content area. c)situation requiring students to solve problems. d)procedure for sampling the behavior of students.

119. Which of the following statement is correct ? a) In research, objectives can be worded in question form b) In research, objectives can be worded in statement form c) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the Thesis d) All the above

120. Match List A with List B and choose the correct answer from the code given below : List A List B (a) Historical Method (i) Past events (b) Survey Method (ii) Vision (c) Philosophical Method (iii) Present events (d) Experimental Method (iv) Exceptional cases

(v) Future action Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)

a) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) b) (i) (ii) (iv) (v) c) (i) (iv) (ii) (v) d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

121. Team teaching has the potential to develop : a) Competitive spirit b) Cooperation c) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other d) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching

122. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system ? a) Students become serious. b) It improves attendance in the classroom.


c) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students. d) It compels students to think.

123. Which of the following statement is correct ? a) Communicator should have fine senses b) Communicator should have tolerance power c) Communicator should be soft spoken d) Communicator should have good personality

124. An effective teacher is one who can : a) control the class b) give more information in less time c) motivate students to learn d) correct the assignments carefully

125. One of the following is not a quality of researcher : a) Unison with that of which he is in search b) He must be of alert mind c) Keenness in enquiry d) His assertion to outstrip the evidence

126. Which of the following statements is correct ? a) Syllabus is a part of curriculum. b) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum. c) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university. d) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.

127. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages the use of maximum senses ? a) Problem-solving method b) Laboratory method c) Self-study method d) Team teaching method

128. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding ? (I) Define noun. (II) Define noun in your own words. a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II

129. Research can be classified as : a) Basic, Applied and Action Research b) Quantitative and Qualitative Research c) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research d) All the above

130. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society ? (I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge. (II) to discover new things. (III) to write a critique on the earlier writings. (IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with objectivity. a) IV, II and I b) I, II and III c) I and III d) II, III and IV

131. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given below : List - I (Interviews) List - II (Meaning) (a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility

approach (b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the

questions to be answered (c) Focussed interviews (iii) individual life experience (d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question

(v) non-directive Code : (a) (b) (c) (d) a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) c) (v) (ii) (iv) (i) d) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) 132. What do you consider as the main aim of inter

disciplinary research ? a) To bring out holistic approach to research. b) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain. c) To over simplify the problem of research. d) To create a new trend in research methodology.

133. The depth of any research can be judged by : a) title of the research. b) objectives of the research. c) total expenditure on the research. d) duration of the research.

134. Which of the following statement is correct ? a) Reliability ensures validity b) Validity ensures reliability c) Reliability and validity are independent of each other d) Reliability does not depend on objectivity

135. Which of the following indicates evaluation ? a) Ram got 45 marks out of 200 b) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English c) Shyam got First Division in final examination d) All the above

136. Research can be conducted by a person who : a) has studied research methodology b) holds a postgraduate degree c) possesses thinking and reasoning ability d) is a hard worker

137. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to: a) improve data interpretation b) eliminate spurious relations c) confirm triangulation d) introduce new variables

138. Which of the following statements is correct ? a) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis b) Researcher must possess analytical ability c) Variability is the source of problem d) All the above

139. Which of the following is not the Method of Research ? a) Observation b) Historical c) Survey d) Philosophical

140. The first step of research is : a) Selecting a problem b) Searching a problem c) Finding a problem d) Identifying a problem

141. According to Bloom's taxonomy, "application level" questions require students to a) recall or recognize information. b) arrange and organize information mentally. c) use a rule, a classification system, directions, or the like in solving a problem. d) use creative thinking in solving problems for which there is no single right answer.


142. Which teacher reaction is used most often?

a)acceptance b)criticism c)remediation d)praise

143. Mary Budd Rowe's research on wait time indicates that to encourage greater student participation, teachers should a)decrease wait time 1 and wait time 2. b)decrease wait time 1 but increase wait time 2. c)increase wait time 1 but decrease wait time 2. d)increase wait time 1 and wait time 2.

144. When used effectively, corrective feedback is a)a focus on personal behavior, including personality traits b)not tied to specific performance, but uses a general statement about performance c)tied to specific performance, and not personal in nature d)both a and b

145. The role of the teacher in direct teaching is best described as a a)personal tutor who tracks individual students' progress and needs. b)strong leader who structures the classroom. c)project manager who can design hands-on learning activities. d)discussion leader who is well versed in the Socratic method.

146. Researcher Robert Slavin is most closely associated with which model of instruction? a)direct teaching b)cooperative learning c)problem-based learning d)mastery learning

147. Educator Larry Cuban found that over nearly a century, teaching a)has undergone remarkably little change. b)has progressed from teacher-centered to strikingly student-centered. c)has risen in status from a semi-profession to a full-fledged profession. d)has remained constant in its willingness to challenge the status quo.

148. In Ted Sizer's vision of effective instruction a)the emphasis is on preparing students for standardized tests. b)teachers work to broaden the curriculum. c)teachers use more remediation response and less praise or criticism. d)teachers emphasize problem solving and critical thinking.

149. The behaviors students are expected to perform on assessments of achievement should be related to a)higher-level thinking processes. b)the objectives and instruction provided. c)things all students have learned to do. d)skills all teachers could be expected to emphasize.

150. What characteristic makes an assessment one that is focused upon assessing achievement? a)It is constructed by the classroom teacher. b) Many different classroom teachers would agree upon the assessment procedures. c) The tasks are new to the students. d) The assessment gathers information about what was taught.

KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04 - Career and Education | | | Page 1 KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04...

Documents

Transcript of KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04 - Career and Education | | | Page 1 KVS (TGT/PRT) MOCK TEST - 04...