ITIL (ITIL Foundation) edition 2004 content PDF/EXIN - ITIL Foundation sample...sample examination...

sample examination exam ITIL Foundation

code ITILF.EN

number of pages 34

EXIN

Kantoor Janssoenborch, Hoog Catharijne

Godebaldkwartier 365, 3511 DT Utrecht

P.O. Box 19147, 3501 DC Utrecht

Telephone +31 (0) 30 234 48 11

ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management (ITIL Foundation) sample examination (3.0) edition 2004 content 2 introduction 3 examination 13 answer key

Fax +31 (0) 30 231 59 86

E-mail [email protected]

Internet http://www.exin-exams.com

Introduction This is the sample examination ITIL Foundation. This sample examination consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each multiple-choice question has a number of possible answers, of which only one is the correct answer. The maximum number of points that can be obtained for this examination is 40. Each correct answer is worth one point. If you obtain 26 points or more you have passed. The time allowed for this examination is 60 minutes. No rights may be derived from this information. Good luck!

© EXIN 2004, ITIL Foundation 2/34

Exam

1 of 40

Which ITIL process or function deals with errors and questions about use of services, raised by end users?

A. Availability Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Problem Management

D. Service Desk

2 of 40

What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?

A. The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Problem is not known

B. A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure, A Problem does not involve such an error.

C. A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with a Problem.

D. With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified. This is not the case with a Known Error.

3 of 40

Who determines the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?

A. Change Manager

B. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

C. Customer

D. IT Management

4 of 40

Who is authorised to establish an agreement with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT Services?

A. the Service Level Manager

B. the user

C. the ITIL process owner

D. the customer


5 of 40

In which document do you record requirements that influence capacity?

A. Capacity Plan

B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Quality Plan

D. Service Level Requirements

6 of 40

When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment, itcan affect other software packages. Which ITIL process monitors whether other software packages must be tested and installed again in such a situation?

A. Change Management

B. IT Service Continuity Management


D. Release Management

7 of 40

The Availability Manager wants to know the situation regarding the recovery of IT components. Who should he or she request the necessary information from?

A. Service Desk

B. Technical Management

C. Configuration Manager

D. Service Level Manager

8 of 40

Which of the following terms conveys the degree to which an incident leads to a departure from the normal service level?

A. Escalation

B. Impact

C. Priority

D. Urgency


9 of 40

Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem Control is to identify and record problems. What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?

A. analyse all existing incidents

B. classify and prioritise problems

C. solve problems

D. provide management information

10 of 40

Many reports are provided regarding implemented changes. Which of the following information does the Change Manager submit to the organization ?

A. Personnel costs

B. Number of incidents

C. Incorrectly registered CIs

D. Structure and composition of CIs

11 of 40

From which data collection tool can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the structure and composition of the IT infrastructure?

A. the Capacity Management Database (CMD)

B. the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. 4the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

12 of 40

What is another term for Uptime?

A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

B. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

C. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)

D. Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI


13 of 40

Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. advising end users of a system failure

B. documenting the fallback arrangements

C. reporting regarding availability

D. guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date.

14 of 40

What is the description of the term Confidentiality as part of the Security Management process?

A. protection of the data against unauthorised access and use

B. ability to access data at any moment

C. the capacity to verify that the data is correct

D. the correctness of the data

15 of 40

What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?

A. handling (standard) Requests For Change

B. handling complaints about the services of the IT organisation

C. tracing the underlying cause of incidents

D. providing information on products and services

16 of 40

Which of the following documents is part of a tactical process?

A. user manual in the area of an application

B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application

C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with the person who submitted the RFC

D. agreements on the availability percentage of an application


17 of 40

An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC. It also crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk. What is happening here?

A. an Incident

B. a Known Error

C. a Problem

D. a Request for Change

18 of 40

Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?

A. a complaint about the provision of services

B. an error report

C. a relocation of equipment request

D. a request for documentation

19 of 40

What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?

A. handling Requests for Change

B. performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems

C. following up on all incidents and disruptions

D. minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

20 of 40

Which ITIL process makes the most important and most frequent substantive contribution to keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date?


B. Configuration Management

C. Incident Management

D. Problem Management


21 of 40

Control is one of the activities of Configuration Management. What does this activity entail?

A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CI's) and their relationships in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

B. verifying that the CI's and their attributes are specified correctly in the CMDB

C. installing new CI's in the operating environment

D. taking inventory of the CI's

22 of 40

Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?

A. classifying Requests For Change

B. defining the impact code for incidents

C. identifying problems with the availability of IT Services

D. measuring the availability of IT Services

23 of 40

In which ITIL process are negotiations held with the customer about the rates for the IT Services?


B. Capacity Management

C. Financial Management for IT Services

D. Service Level Management

24 of 40

Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain which Configuration Items are undergoing maintenance at a particular moment in time?

A. purchase date

B. owner

C. location

D. status


25 of 40

Which of the following Changes must be authorized by Change Management?

A. data entry from users into a database

B. changing a password

C. adding a new user to the system

D. relocating of a printer from the second floor to the third floor

26 of 40

There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is overloaded due to its multiple connections. What kind of actions should the Availability Manager take in this instance?

A. He should ask the Capacity Manager to expand the capacity of the server.

B. He should ask the Problem Manager to look into the problem right away.

C. He should ask the Security Manager to check whether too many authorizations may have been issued.

D. He should ask the Service Level Manager to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLA).

27 of 40

Which ITIL process or which ITIL function has the matching of incidents with known (documented) solutions as one of its activities?


B. Incident Management


D. Service Desk

28 of 40

Which status does a Problem obtain when the cause of that problem is known?

A. the status 'Incident'

B. the status 'Known Error'

C. the status 'Solved'

D. the status 'Request for Change'


29 of 40

After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed. What is this evaluation called?

A. Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)

B. Post Implementation Review (PIR)

C. Service Improvement Programme (SIP)

D. Service Level Requirement (SLR)

30 of 40

Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a different manufacturer. For future reference, which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?




D. Problem Management

31 of 40

Where is the content of Releases maintained?

A. Capacity Database (CDB)

B. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. Definitive Software Library (DSL)

32 of 40

Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. arrangements about the services to be provided

B. availability statistics of a past period

C. an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process

D. detailed technical descriptions of the TCP-IP protocol


33 of 40

Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a malfunction?





34 of 40

Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level Management?

A. The availability of the IT services in a specific period.

B. The costs of the Financial Management system.

C. The total costs of network management.

D. How much has been spent on IT services per client.

35 of 40

What is the responsibility of the Security Manager in drawing up a new Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. Translating the Service Level Requirements for data security.

B. Determining the Security Baseline in the Service Catalog.

C. Substantiating the Security section of the SLA by means of an OLA.

D. Reporting on the technical availability of security components.

36 of 40

Which ITIL process coordinates the implementation of a new software release?



C. Release Management



37 of 40

Which ITIL process analyses threats and dependencies to IT Services as part of the decision regarding "countermeasures" to be implemented?





38 of 40

What is the name of the activity within the Capacity Management process whose purpose is to manage the demand for capacity?

A. Application Sizing

B. Demand Management

C. Modeling

D. Tuning

39 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?





40 of 40

What is IT Service Management?

A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services

B. organising the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL

C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organisation can provide the customer with IT products in a professional way

D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience


Answer key

1 of 40

Which ITIL process or function deals with errors and questions about use of services, raised by end users? A. Availability Management

B. Service Level Management


D. Service Desk A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with users. B. Incorrect. Service Level Management mainly concerns itself with the agreements with the customer for the IT Services, not on resolving malfunctions or answering users' questions. C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause. D. Correct. Dealing with questions about use or errors with services is the task of the Service Desk ITIL function.

2 of 40

What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem? A. The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Problem is not

known B. A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure, A Problem does not involve such an

error.

C. A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with a Problem.

D. With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified. This is not the case with a Known Error.

A. Correct. An underlying cause will be defined when a Problem is being investigated. This results in a Known Error. B. Incorrect. The cause of both a Known Error and a Problem can be located in the IT infrastructure,but this cause will be known in the case of a Known Error. C. Incorrect. A Problem should always have been defined from the registration of one or more Incidents. D. Incorrect. In the description of a Problem, the Configuration Items involved are not yet known. The Problem must still be investigated, after which it becomes a Known Error.


3 of 40

Who determines the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)? A. Change Manager

B. Change Advisory Board (CAB)

C. Customer

D. IT Management A. Correct. The Change Manager is the only person who can assume ultimate responsibility for the FSC. B. Incorrect. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is an advisory body and can give recommendations,but the Change Manager has ultimate responsibility. C. Incorrect. The seriousness of the Change for the customer is taken into consideration when planning, but the Change manager ultimately determines the FSC. D. Incorrect. The Change Manager is empowered with authority on behalf of the IT Management; The Change Manager can, however, obtain a commitment from IT Management.

4 of 40

Who is authorised to establish an agreement with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT Services? A. the Service Level Manager

B. the user

C. the ITIL process owner

D. the customer A. Incorrect. The Service Level Manager is part of the IT organisation and as such cannot establish any agreements. B. Incorrect. The user is the person who uses the IT resources for his or her daily tasks, but has no authorisation to establish agreements. C. Incorrect. The ITIL process owner is part of the IT organisation and as such cannot establish any agreements. D. Correct. The customer is the authorised person to establish an agreement with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT Services.


5 of 40

In which document do you record requirements that influence capacity? A. Capacity Plan

B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Quality Plan

D. Service Level Requirements A. Incorrect. The Capacity Plan gives a picture of the existing capacity and the expected developments in the demand for services. It also gives an overview of expected costs. B. Incorrect. Actions, phases and delivery dates are documented in the Service Improvement Program, the goal of which is to improve an IT service. C. Incorrect. The Service Quality Plan contains process parameters for purposes of management information. D. Correct. Requirements are laid down in the Service Level Requirements, which form the basis for designing, developing and constructing the service to ultimately be able to safeguard the SLA.

6 of 40

When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment, itcan affect other software packages. Which ITIL process monitors whether other software packages must be tested and installed again in such a situation? A. Change Management



D. Release Management A. Correct. Change Management ensures that the risks associated with a Change are kept to the minimum. B. Incorrect. IT Service Continuity Management May be involved indirectly in this matter if there is a serious problem as a result of the Change and the IT Service Continuity Plan must be put into effect as a result. However, this is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management. C. Incorrect. This is not the task of Problem Management. D. Incorrect. The actual activities (reinstalling and retesting other packages) may be the task of Release Management, but Change Management is responsible for monitoring these activities.


7 of 40

The Availability Manager wants to know the situation regarding the recovery of IT components. Who should he or she request the necessary information from? A. Service Desk

B. Technical Management

C. Configuration Manager

D. Service Level Manager A. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the Service Desk. The incident management process would provide this information by linking incident records to CI. B. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of Technical Management. C. Correct. Data pertaining to the failure rate, duration, etc. can be retrieved from the CMDB as incidents can be linked to CI records. D. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the Service Level Manager.

8 of 40

Which of the following terms conveys the degree to which an incident leads to a departure from the normal service level? A. Escalation

B. Impact

C. Priority

D. Urgency A. Incorrect. This situation involves an incident, not (yet) an escalation. B. Correct. The impact is the degree to which the incident leads to a departure from the normal service level. C. Incorrect. The priority is determined by impact and urgency; both therefore determine the priority. D. Incorrect. Urgency pertains to the rate at which the incident should be remedied.


9 of 40

Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem Control is to identify and record problems. What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem? A. analyse all existing incidents

B. classify and prioritise problems

C. solve problems

D. provide management information A. Correct. Analysis of all existing incidents is the first activity of Problem Management in the Problem Control subprocess. B. Incorrect. This is not one of the first steps. C. Incorrect. This will certainly not be the first step. In order to solve a Problem, Problem Management must first investigate what the Problem is. D. Incorrect. Problem Management can only report on the Problem when information in known about the Problem. This is the last step.

10 of 40

Many reports are provided regarding implemented changes. Which of the following information does the Change Manager submit to the organization ? A. Personnel costs

B. Number of incidents

C. Incorrectly registered CIs

D. Structure and composition of CIs A. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Financial Management. B. Correct. The Change Manager submits this report in order to demonstrate the effectiveness of the Change Management process. C. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management. D. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management.


11 of 40

From which data collection tool can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the structure and composition of the IT infrastructure? A. the Capacity Management Database (CMD)

B. the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. 4the Definitive Software Library (DSL) A. Incorrect. The Capacity Management Database (CMD) contains only capacity and performance data on the IT infrastructure. B. Correct. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) contains a record of the entire IT infrastructure and its interrelationships. C. Incorrect. The Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) is the storage location for hardware stocks of standardised basic configurations. D. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) contains all source software and documentation for the operational software.

12 of 40

What is another term for Uptime? A. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

B. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

C. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)

D. Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI A. Correct. B. Incorrect. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the average time required to resolve an incident (Downtime). C. Incorrect. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) is the average time between the occurrence of two successive incidents. This also includes the MTTR, therefore. D. Incorrect. A relationship between two different time indicators produces a factor or percentage as a result. This has nothing to do with Uptime.


13 of 40

Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management? A. advising end users of a system failure

B. documenting the fallback arrangements

C. reporting regarding availability

D. guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date. A. Incorrect. Advising users of system failure is a Service Desk activity. B. Correct. C. Incorrect. Providing reports on availability is an activity of Availability Management. D. Incorrect. Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date is an activity of Configuration Management.

14 of 40

What is the description of the term Confidentiality as part of the Security Management process? A. protection of the data against unauthorised access and use

B. ability to access data at any moment

C. the capacity to verify that the data is correct

D. the correctness of the data A. Correct. Protection of the data against unauthorised access and use is the description of Confidentiality as used in the Security Management process. B. Incorrect. Ability to access data at any moment is a description of Availability as used in the Security Management process. C. Incorrect. The capacity to verify that the data is correct is part of the description of Integrity as used in the Security Management process. D. Incorrect. The correctness of the data is part of the description of Integrity as used in the Security Management process.


15 of 40

What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk? A. handling (standard) Requests For Change

B. handling complaints about the services of the IT organisation

C. tracing the underlying cause of incidents

D. providing information on products and services A. Incorrect. The handling of (standard) Requests For Change is an activity within Change Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity. B. Incorrect. The handling of complaints about the services of the IT organisation is an activity within Service Level Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity. C. Correct. Tracing the underlying cause of incidents is an activity of Problem Management. D. Incorrect. Providing information on products and services can be an activity of the Service Desk.

16 of 40

Which of the following documents is part of a tactical process? A. user manual in the area of an application

B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application

C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with the person who submitted the RFC

D. agreements on the availability percentage of an application A. Incorrect. User support in the area of applications is part of the Incident Management process, an operational process. B. Incorrect. A newsletter from the Service Desk about an application is a form of communication from the Service Desk, an operational department. C. Incorrect. A discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for the expansion of an application with the person who submitted this RFC is a form of communication in the Change Management process, an operational process. D. Correct. Agreements on the availability percentage needed of a purchasing application are made in the Service Level Management process, a tactical process.


17 of 40

An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC. It also crashed three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk. What is happening here? A. an Incident

B. a Known Error

C. a Problem

D. a Request for Change A. Correct. This is an Incident. It is a long time ago that the previous Incident occurred. This Incident cannot be related directly to the previous Incident. B. Incorrect. This involves an Incident, and not a Known Error. Moreover, the fact that this is a recurring malfunction still does not make it a Known Error. C. Incorrect. This report does not involve a Problem. Moreover, the fact that this is a recurring malfunction still does not make it a Problem. D. Incorrect. This is an Incident and not a Request for Change.

18 of 40

Which of the following is an example of a Service Request? A. a complaint about the provision of services

B. an error report

C. a relocation of equipment request

D. a request for documentation A. Incorrect. A complaint about the provision of services is possibly an Incident, but it is not a Service Request that can be solved by the Service Desk according to a straightforward standard procedure. B. Incorrect. A error report is not a Service Request, but it requires Incident Management procedures to ensure the rapid recovery of services. C. Incorrect. The relocation of equipment is a Change request. D. Correct. A request from a user for information, advice, documentation or a new password, for example, is a Service Request.


19 of 40

What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management? A. handling Requests for Change

B. performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems

C. following up on all incidents and disruptions

D. minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment A. Incorrect. Handling Requests for Change is the task of Change Management. B. Correct. Proactive Problem Management concerns itself with trend analysis and identifying potential incidents and problems. C. Incorrect. Following up on all incidents and disruptions is the task of Incident Management. D. Incorrect. Minimizing the impact of changes is not the task of Proactive Problem Management but of Change Management.

20 of 40

Which ITIL process makes the most important and most frequent substantive contribution to keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date? A. Change Management



D. Problem Management A. Correct. Change Management continuously implements changes in the IT infrastructure and is responsible for directing changes in the CI registration. B. Incorrect. Configuration Management contributes by carrying out audits periodically, which are similar to random checks. C. Incorrect. Incident Management consults the CMDB, but does not provide input for keeping it upto date. D. Incorrect. Problem Management consults the CMDB and links problems and known errors to CIs.


21 of 40

Control is one of the activities of Configuration Management. What does this activity entail? A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CI's) and their relationships in the Configuration

Management Database (CMDB) B. verifying that the CI's and their attributes are specified correctly in the CMDB

C. installing new CI's in the operating environment

D. taking inventory of the CI's A. Correct. B. Incorrect. Verifying that the CI's and their attributes are specified correctly in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is a description of Verification and not the Control activity. C. Incorrect. Installing new CI's in the operating environment does not describe the Control activity. It is an activity that is usually executed by Release Management under the responsibility of Change Management. D. Incorrect. Taking inventory of the Configuration Items (CI's) is a description of Identification andRegistration and not the Control activity.

22 of 40

Which activity is part of the Availability Management process? A. classifying Requests For Change

B. defining the impact code for incidents

C. identifying problems with the availability of IT Services

D. measuring the availability of IT Services A. Incorrect. Classifying Requests for Change is a Change Management activity. B. Incorrect. Defining the impact code for incidents is an Incident Management activity. C. Incorrect. Identifying problems with the availability of IT Services is a Problem Management activity. D. Correct. In addition to reporting, measurement is the most important activity in the Availability Management process. The measurement and reporting activities create the basis for verifying service agreements, removing problem situations and formulating improvement proposals.


23 of 40

In which ITIL process are negotiations held with the customer about the rates for the IT Services? A. Availability Management



D. Service Level Management A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with the customer. B. Incorrect. Capacity Management has no direct contact with the customer. C. Incorrect. Financial Management for IT Services determines the cost price and sales price on the basis of the financial policy or negotiations with the customer, but is not directly involved in negotiations. D. Correct. One of the activities of Service Level Management is 'drawing up the contract'. Part of this activity involves negotiating on the desired provision of services in relation to the costs. Pricing information is recorded in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

24 of 40

Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain which Configuration Items are undergoing maintenance at a particular moment in time? A. purchase date

B. owner

C. location

D. status A. Incorrect. The purchase date of a Configuration Item (CI) has nothing to do with the maintenance being carried out on that CI. B. Incorrect. The owner does not change if a CI is undergoing maintenance. C. Incorrect. While the location of a CI may change when under maintenance - this attribute would not be a useful way to show all CI's currently under maintenance (there could be multiple maintenance locations). D. Correct. Reporting on the status flag will show us all CI's that are currently 'flagged' as being in a maintenance state.


25 of 40

Which of the following Changes must be authorized by Change Management? A. data entry from users into a database

B. changing a password

C. adding a new user to the system

D. relocating of a printer from the second floor to the third floor A. Incorrect. In that case, for example, every time an order is entered or a document is stored, permission would have to be received from Change Management. B. Incorrect. Changing a password is not a Change but a Service Request. If it was a Change, the Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For Change that generally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure. C. Incorrect. Adding a new user to the system is not a Change, but a Service Request. If it was a Change, the Change Management process would be overloaded with Requests For Change that generally have little impact have on the rest of the IT infrastructure. D. Correct. This is a change in the IT infrastructure and can have a certain impact on the way the IT infrastructure functions.

26 of 40

There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is overloaded due to its multiple connections. What kind of actions should the Availability Manager take in this instance? A. He should ask the Capacity Manager to expand the capacity of the server.

B. He should ask the Problem Manager to look into the problem right away.

C. He should ask the Security Manager to check whether too many authorizations may have been issued.

D. He should ask the Service Level Manager to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLA). A. Incorrect. An inquiry should take place before any expansion to the server is carried out. B. Correct. The first step is to find out the real cause of the incidents. It is the responsibility of the Problem Manager to initiate and monitor this. Only once it is clear that the capacity is the culprit can several options be considered. C. Incorrect. When the server was put into operation, the number of persons who could log in to the server was known. The Problem Manager should first carry out an inquiry into the underlying cause. D. Incorrect. The agreements cannot be revised without reason; after all, these were established together with the other processes.


27 of 40

Which ITIL process or which ITIL function has the matching of incidents with known (documented) solutions as one of its activities? A. Change Management



D. Service Desk A. Incorrect. Change Management concerns itself with submitted Requests for Change and with dealing with those requests. B. Correct. Matching is an activity that is part of the Incident Management ITIL process. C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause of one or more incidents. D. Incorrect. The Service Desk concerns itself with providing users with support.

28 of 40

Which status does a Problem obtain when the cause of that problem is known? A. the status 'Incident'

B. the status 'Known Error'

C. the status 'Solved'

D. the status 'Request for Change' A. Incorrect. The status 'Incident' does not exist. Several incidents together make up a Problem. B. Correct. If the cause of the Problem is known, it obtains the status Known Error. C. Incorrect. The status 'Solved' is not a correct term in the ITIL descriptions. The Problem must still be solved after its cause is known. D. Incorrect. A Request for Change (RFC) is the logical consequence of a Known Error. The Known Error can be solved by applying for and implementing an RFC.


29 of 40

After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed. What is this evaluation called? A. Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)

B. Post Implementation Review (PIR)

C. Service Improvement Programme (SIP)

D. Service Level Requirement (SLR) A. Incorrect. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is not an evaluation, but a calendar with a schedule of the coming changes. B. Correct. C. Incorrect. A Service Improvement Programme (SIP) is not an evaluation. A SIP can, however, be the consequence of an evaluation (from Service Level Management). D. Incorrect. Service Level Requirements (SLR's) are the expectations of the customer for a (new) service. There do not involve an evaluation.

30 of 40

Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a different manufacturer. For future reference, which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card? A. Change Management



D. Problem Management A. Incorrect. Change Management is indeed responsible for the Change, but not for registering that Change. B. Correct. Configuration Management registers new Configuration Items (CI's) in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). C. Incorrect. Incident Management registers the Incident and its development, but does not register the Change in the CMDB. D. Incorrect. Problem Management may have concluded that the sound card had to be replaced, but it is not responsible for registering the Change.


31 of 40

Where is the content of Releases maintained? A. Capacity Database (CDB)

B. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)

D. Definitive Software Library (DSL) A. Incorrect. De Capacity Database (CDB) consists of technical data, business data and all other data that is important for Capacity Management. B. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) can be part of the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). C. Incorrect. Hardware quantities are stored in the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS), particularly with regard to standardized basic configurations. D. Correct. The content of releases is maintained in the DSL.

32 of 40

Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. arrangements about the services to be provided

B. availability statistics of a past period

C. an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process

D. detailed technical descriptions of the TCP-IP protocol A. Correct. B. Incorrect. The availability statistics are described in reports. C. Incorrect. The agreement to establish and/or execute the action plan can be included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA), but not the plan itself. D. Incorrect. Detailed technical descriptions of services are not included in a good SLA (customer language), let alone a technical description of the TCP-IP protocol.


33 of 40

Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a malfunction? A. Change Management



D. Service Level Management A. Incorrect. Change Management can sometimes be involved in the solution procedure. B. Correct. Malfunctions (Incidents) are reported through Incident Management. Incident Management tries to resolve the malfunctions as soon as possible. C. Incorrect. It is only after it has become clear that one or more malfunctions have a structural cause - that is, there is a Problem involved - that Problem Management tries to resolve the Problem. D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not resolve malfunctions. This process records the arrangements made about service levels in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

34 of 40

Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level Management? A. The availability of the IT services in a specific period.

B. The costs of the Financial Management system.

C. The total costs of network management.

D. How much has been spent on IT services per client. A. Incorrect. This information is reported from Availability Management. B. Incorrect. This information is reported from IT management. C. Incorrect. These costs are not client-related and therefore not useful to SLM. D. Correct. This is one of the four cost-related items that are reported to SLM.


35 of 40

What is the responsibility of the Security Manager in drawing up a new Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. Translating the Service Level Requirements for data security.

B. Determining the Security Baseline in the Service Catalog.

C. Substantiating the Security section of the SLA by means of an OLA.

D. Reporting on the technical availability of security components. A. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager, who does, however, obtain input on this from the Security Manager. B. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager, who does, however, obtain input on this from the Security Manager. C. Correct. The actual execution of this is the responsibility of Security Management. D. Incorrect. Reporting on availability is the responsibility of Availability Management.

36 of 40

Which ITIL process coordinates the implementation of a new software release? A. Change Management


C. Release Management

D. Service Level Management A. Correct. Control and management of the distribution of releases are the responsibility of Change Management. B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not manage the distribution of releases. It is, however, involved in providing Configuration Item information and in modifying that information as a result of the distribution. C. Incorrect. Release Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does provide content-related information about releases and the schedule. D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does provide the user with reports on releases.


37 of 40

Which ITIL process analyses threats and dependencies to IT Services as part of the decision regarding "countermeasures" to be implemented? A. Availability Management



D. Service Level Management A. Incorrect. Availability Management provides data about the requisite availability of components in the IT infrastructure and their mutual dependency. This data is used for the analysis of threats and dependencies in the IT Service Continuity Management process. B. Correct. IT Service Continuity Management analyses the threats and dependencies and determines the relevant countermeasures. C. Incorrect. Problem Management investigates the IT infrastructure in order to detect the causes of (potential) malfunctions in the provision of services. However, external threats are not considered to be malfunctions or errors in the IT infrastructure. D. Incorrect. Service Level Management is responsible for the transparency of the obligations assumed for the IT Services.

38 of 40

What is the name of the activity within the Capacity Management process whose purpose is to manage the demand for capacity? A. Application Sizing

B. Demand Management

C. Modeling

D. Tuning A. Incorrect. Application Sizing is the discipline that predicts the hardware necessary for running new or adapted applications. B. Correct. Demand Management is the management of capacity demands. C. Incorrect. Modeling is used to make predictions of infrastructure "behavior". D. Incorrect. Tuning is the optimal adjustment of systems to the actual or expected workload based on the data that has been measured, analyzed and interpreted.


39 of 40

Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system? A. Availability Management



D. Service Level Management A. Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the IT Services. B. Incorrect. The task of Capacity Management is to plan the expected purchase of the IT Services. C. Correct. D. Incorrect. The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT Services.

40 of 40

What is IT Service Management? A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services

B. organising the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL

C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organisation can provide the customer with IT products in a professional way

D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience A. Correct. B. Incorrect. IT Service Management is much broader than the ITIL method. C. Incorrect. IT Service Management focuses on IT services rather than on IT products. D. Incorrect. IT Service Management restricts itself to people who are working or are involved in the specialised field.


The evaluation Examination results A maximum of 40 points can be earned on an ITIL Foundation examination. A score of 26 points or higher is considered a passing grade. The following table relates the number of points earned to a grade. failed

number of passed

number of

points earned grade points earned grade

0 – 11 1 26 – 29 6

12 – 15 2 30 – 32 7

16 – 18 3 33 – 36 8

19 – 22 4 37 – 39 9

23 – 25 5 40 10


Sample examination The table below shows the correct answers to the questions in this sample examination. number answer points number answer points

1 D 1 21 A 1

2 A 1 22 D 1

3 A 1 23 D 1

4 D 1 24 D 1

5 D 1 25 D 1

6 A 1 26 B 1

7 C 1 27 B 1

8 B 1 28 B 1

9 A 1 29 B 1

10 B 1 30 B 1

11 B 1 31 D 1

12 A 1 32 A 1

13 B 1 33 B 1

14 A 1 34 D 1

15 C 1 35 C 1

16 D 1 36 A 1

17 A 1 37 B 1

18 D 1 38 B 1

19 B 1 39 C 1

20 A 1 40 A 1


ITIL (ITIL Foundation) edition 2004 content PDF/EXIN - ITIL Foundation sample...sample examination...

Documents

Transcript of ITIL (ITIL Foundation) edition 2004 content PDF/EXIN - ITIL Foundation sample...sample examination...