Introduction to General Organic & Biochemistrey - 2nd Edition- Test Bank

Chapter 1 Measurements1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) 5.21 cm is the same distance asA) 0.0521 m.B) 52.1 dm.C) 5.21 mm.D) 0.00521 km.E) 5210 m.

Answer: A

2) How many centimeters are there in 57.0 in.?A) 22 cmB) 0.0445 cmC) 145 cmD) 22.4 cmE) 140 cm

Answer: C

3) The amount of space occupied by a substance is itsA) mass.B) density.C) weight.D) length.E) volume.

Answer: E

4) Which of the following is a measurement of mass in the metric system?A) milliliterB) centimeterC) kilogramD) CelsiusE) meter

Answer: C

5) A value of 25°C is a measurement ofA) distance.B) volume.C) temperature.D) mass.E) density.

Answer: C

6) The measurement of the gravitational pull on an object is itsA) volume.B) weight.C) mass.D) length.E) size.

Answer: B

7) Which of the following is the basic unit of volume in the metric system?A) literB) kilogramC) meterD) centimeterE) gram

Answer: A

8) The measurement 0.000 0043 m, expressed correctly using scientific notation, isA) 4.3 x 10-7 m.B) 4.3 x 10-6 m.C) 4.3 x 106 m.D) 0.43 x 10-5 m.E) 4.3 m.

Answer: B

9) The number 680 000 000 expressed correctly using scientific notation isA) 6.8.B) 0.68 x 106 .C) 6.8 x 108.D) 68 x 107 .E) 680 x 106.

Answer: C

10) Which of the following numbers is the smallest?A) 4.0 x 10-6

B) 4.0 x 10-8

C) 4.0 x 10-2

D) 4.0 x 1015

E) 4.0 x 10-12

Answer: E

11) Which of the following numbers is the largest?A) 2.05 x 103

B) 2.05 x 10-12

C) 2.05 x 105

D) 2.05 x 108E) 2.05

Answer: D

12) Which of the following conversion factors is a measured number?A) 10 cm/dmB) 12 in/ftC) 16 oz/lbD) 25 miles/gallonE) 12 eggs/dozen

Answer: D

13) Significant figures are important because they indicateA) the accuracy of a measurement.B) the number of digits on a calculator.C) the number of measurements.D) the precision of a measurement.E) the accuracy of the conversion factor.

Answer: D

14) Which of the following measurements has three significant figures?A) 0.005 mB) 510 mC) 0.510 mD) 0.051 mE) 5100 m

Answer: C

15) Which of the following numbers contains the designated CORRECT number of significant figures?A) 0.04300 5 significant figuresB) 0.00302 2 significant figuresC) 156 000 3 significant figuresD) 1.04 2 significant figuresE) 3.0650 4 significant figures

Answer: C

16) The number of significant figures in the measurement of 45.030 mm isA) none.B) three.C) four.D) five.E) six.

Answer: D

17) How many significant figures are in the number 0.00208?A) sixB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: C

18) Which of the following examples illustrates a number that is correctly rounded to three significant figures?A) 4.05438 grams to 4.054 gramsB) 0.03954 grams to 0.040 gramsC) 103.692 grams to 103.7 gramsD) 109,526 grams to 109 500 gramsE) 20.0332 grams to 20.0 grams

Answer: E

19) A calculator answer of 423.6059 must be rounded off to three significant figures. What answer is reported?A) 423B) 424C) 420D) 423.6E) 423.7

Answer: B

20) Which of the answers for the following conversions contains the correct number of significant figures?

A) 2.543 m × 39.4 in1 m

= 100.1942 in

B) 2 L × 1.06 qt1 L

= 2.12 qt

C) 24.95 min × 1 hr60 min

= 0.4158 hr

D) 12.0 ft × 12 in.1 ft

x 2.54 cm1 in

= 370 cm

E) 24.0 kg × 1 lb2.20 kg

= 11 lb

Answer: C

21) What is the correct answer for the calculation of a volume (in mL) with measured numbers 28.5816 × 8.02

?

A) 0.22 mLB) 0.223 mLC) 57 mLD) 14 mLE) 14.3 mL

Answer: A

22) A researcher needed three samples of sodium chloride solution, each with a volume of 0.03510 mL. The totalvolume needed should be reported as

A) 0.105 mL.B) 0.0105 mL.C) 0.10 mL.D) 0.1053 mL.E) 0.1100 mL.

Answer: D

23) What is the answer, with the correct number of significant figures, for this problem?

4.392 g + 102.40 g + 2.51 g =

A) 109.302 gB) 109 gC) 109.3 gD) 109.30 gE) 110 g

Answer: D

24) The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g isA) 13.071 g.B) 13 g.C) 13.0 g.D) 10 g.E) 13.1 g.

Answer: B

25) Which of the following measurements are NOT equivalent?A) 25 mg = 0.025 gB) 183 L = 0.183 kLC) 150 msec = 0.150 secD) 84 cm = 8.4 mmE) 24 dL = 2.4 L

Answer: D

26) In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation?A) microgram / mgB) milliliter / mLC) centimeter / kmD) kilogram / cgE) gram / gm

Answer: B

27) Which of the following is the largest unit?A) millimeterB) micrometerC) meterD) decimeterE) kilometer

Answer: E

28) What is the metric relationship between grams and micrograms?A) 1 g = 100 μgB) 1 g = 1 000 000 μgC) 1 g = 0.000 001 μgD) 1 g = 1000 μgE) 1 g = 0.001 μg

Answer: B

29) What is the conversion factor for the relationship between millimeters and centimeters?A) 1 mm/1 cmB) 10 mm/1 cmC) 1 cm/1 mmD) 100 mm/1 cmE) 10 cm/1 mm

Answer: B

30) Which of the following is the smallest unit?A) gramB) milligramC) kilogramD) decigramE) microgram

Answer: E

31) The cubic centimeter (cm3 or cc) has the same volume as aA) cubic inch.B) cubic liter.C) milliliter.D) centimeter.E) cubic decimeter.

Answer: C

32) 9.31 g is the same mass asA) 931 μg.B) 931 kg.C) 93.1 cg.D) 9310 mg.E) 0.0931 dg.

Answer: D

33) According to the United States Food and Drug Administration, the recommended daily requirement of proteinis 44 g. This is ________ of protein.

A) 1248.5 ozB) 320 000 ozC) 1.6 ozD) 0.0605 ozE) 150 000 oz

Answer: C

34) Which of the following setups would convert centimeters to feet?

A) cm × 2.54 in.1 cm

× 1 ft12 in.

B) cm × 2.54 cm1 in.

× 12 in.1 ft

C) cm × 1 in.2.54 cm

× 1 ft12 in.

D) cm × 1 in.2.54 cm

× 12 in.1 ft

E) cm × 2.54 cm1 in.

× 1 ft12 in.

Answer: C

35) A conversion factor set up correctly to convert 15 inches to centimeters isA) 100 cm/1 m.B) 1 inch/2.54 cm.C) 1 cm/10 mm.D) 2.54 cm/1 inch.E) 10 cm/1 inch.

Answer: D

36) How many pounds are in 3.5 kg?A) 7.7 lbB) 1.59 lbC) 0.629 lbD) 1.6 lbE) 7.70 lb

Answer: A

37) How many liters of soft drink are there in 5.25 qt?A) 4950 LB) 55.7 LC) 4.95 LD) 5.57 LE) 5.0 L

Answer: C

38) What is 6.5 m converted to inches?A) 1700 inB) 1651 inC) 39 inD) 260 inE) 255.9 in

Answer: D

39) Carrots are $0.79 per pound. What is the cost of 1.2 kg of carrots?A) $2.10B) $0.43C) $1.45D) $0.79E) $0.95

Answer: A

40) How many kilograms are in 30.4 lb?A) 13.8 kgB) 14 kgC) 67 kgD) 66.88 kgE) 66.9 kg

Answer: A

41) A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0mL. What is the density of the gold?

A) 10.4 g/mLB) 6.77 g/mLC) 1.00 g/mLD) 0.0518 g/mLE) 19.3 g/mL

Answer: E

42) A dose of aspirin of 5.0 mg per kilogram of body weight has been prescribed to reduce the fever of an infantweighing 8.5 pounds. The number of milligrams of aspirin that should be administered is

A) 19 mg.B) 53 mg.C) 1.6 mg.D) 5.0 mg.E) 0.59 mg.

Answer: A

43) A doctorʹs order is 0.125 g of ampicillin. The liquid suspension on hand contains 250 mg/5.0 mL. How manymilliliters of the suspension are required?

A) 0.0025 mLB) 3.0 mLC) 2.5 mLD) 6.3 mLE) 0.0063 mL

Answer: C

44) Which one of the following substances will float in gasoline, which has a density of 0.66 g/mL?A) table salt (density = 2.16 g/mL)B) balsa wood (density = 0.16 g/mL)C) sugar (density = 1.59 g/mL)D) aluminum (density = 2.70 g/mL)E) mercury (density = 13.6 g/mL)

Answer: B

45) What is the mass of 2.00 L of an intravenous glucose solution with a density of 1.15 g/mL?A) 0.023 kgB) 2.30 kgC) 1.15 kgD) 0.015 kgE) 0.58 kg

Answer: B

46) Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.6. How many milliliters of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg?A) 0.0257 mLB) 0.026 mLC) 25.7 mLD) 26 mLE) 4760 mL

Answer: D

47) What is the density of a substance with a mass of 45.00 g and a volume of 26.4 mL?A) 1.70 g/mLB) 1.7 g/mLC) 0.59 g/mLD) 0.587 g/mLE) 45.0 g/mL

Answer: A

48) What is the mass of 53 mL of ethanol, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL?A) 67.1 gB) 41.9 gC) 42 gD) 67 gE) 53 g

Answer: C

49) The density of a solution is 1.18 g/mL. Its specific gravity isA) 11.8.B) 0.118.C) 0.847.D) 1.18.E) 1.2.

Answer: D

50) Diamond has a density of 3.52 g/mL. What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a diamond with a mass of 15.1g?

A) 4.3 cm3

B) 4.29 cm3

C) 0.233 cm3

D) 53 cm3

E) 53.2 cm3

Answer: B

51) The ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume is itsA) specific gravity.B) density.C) buoyancy.D) weight.E) conversion factor.

Answer: B

52) Which of the following is often used to determine an individualʹs percentage of body fat?A) temperatureB) heightC) weight lossD) weight gainE) density

Answer: E

53) A 50.0 mL urine sample has a mass of 50.7 g. The specific gravity of the urine isA) 1.014 g/mL.B) 0.986 g/L.C) 1.01.D) 0.986.E) 50.7.

Answer: C

54) A temperature of 41°F is the same asA) 5°C.B) 310°C.C) -9°C.D) 16°C.E) 42°C.

Answer: A

55) If the temperature is 20.°C, what is the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?A) -22°FB) 68°FC) 43°FD) 239°FE) 94°F

Answer: B

56) A patient has a temperature of 38.5°C. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?A) 70.5°FB) 311°FC) 126.95°FD) 101.3°FE) 11.7°F

Answer: D

57) The temperature of liquid nitrogen is -196°C. What is the corresponding reading on the Kelvin scale?A) 77 KB) -127 KC) -91 KD) 48 KE) 146 K

Answer: A

58) On a hot day, the thermometer read 95°F. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?A) 77°CB) 113°CC) 35°CD) 63°CE) 178°C

Answer: C

59) Absolute zero isA) the freezing point of water using the Celsius scale.B) the boiling point of liquid nitrogen.C) the temperature on the Kelvin scale corresponding to 32°F.D) the coldest temperature possible.E) the freezing point of liquid nitrogen.

Answer: D

1.2 Short Answer QuestionsRound off each of the following to three significant figures.

1) 504.85Answer: 505

2) 8.3158Answer: 8.32

3) 25,225Answer: 25,200

4) 58.5422Answer: 58.5

5) 0.0034088Answer: 0.00341

Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.

6) 351 000 000 000

Answer: 3.51 x 1011

7) 0.000 860

Answer: 8.60 x 10-4

8) 5 207 000

Answer: 5.207 x 106

9) 0.000 000 050

Answer: 5.0 x 10-8

State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.

10) 0.705 mAnswer: 3

11) 680 000 kmAnswer: 2

12) 28.050 kmAnswer: 5

13) 0.0005 LAnswer: 1

14) 75.00 mAnswer: 4

15) 2.043 x 104 mmAnswer: 4

16) 6.1 x 10-5 mLAnswer: 2

17) 9.00 x 106 gAnswer: 3

18) A test performed to determine if a hypothesis is valid is called a(n) ________.Answer: experiment

19) A hypothesis can be tested by performing a(n) ________.Answer: experiment

20) An observation takes place when a(n) ________ is noted.Answer: natural phenomenon

21) Name the steps in the scientific method.Answer: observation, hypothesis, experiment, theory

22) When natural phenomena are examined, an explanation supported by experiments is termed a ________.Answer: theory

1.3 Matching QuestionsAre the numbers in each of the following statements measured or exact?

1) Column 1: In the U.S. system there are5280 feet in one mile.

Column 2: exactAnswer: exact

2) Column 1: The patientʹs blood sugar levelis 350 mg/dL.

Column 2: measuredAnswer: measured

3) Column 1: There are 452 pages in a book.


4) Column 1: The rabbit weighs 2.5 pounds.


5) Column 1: There are 100 capsules in thebottle.


6) Column 1: The patientʹs temperature is100.1° F.


Match the type of measurement to the unit given below.

7) Column 1: milliliter

Column 2: volume

Foil: densityAnswer: volume

8) Column 1: mm

Column 2: distanceAnswer: distance

9) Column 1: gram

Column 2: massAnswer: mass

10) Column 1: 125 K

Column 2: temperatureAnswer: temperature

11) Column 1: kilometer

Column 2: distanceAnswer: distance

Select the correct prefix to complete the equality.

12) Column 1: 1 g = ________ kg

Column 2: 0.001Answer: 0.001

13) Column 1: 1 m = ________ mm

Column 2: 1000Answer: 1000

14) Column 1: 1 cm = ________ mm


15) Column 1: 1 dL = ________ mL


16) Column 1: 1 mL = ________ cc


Identify each activity in the scientific method.

17) Column 1: You see that students whostudy in groups get bettergrades in chemistry.

Column 2: observation

Foil: theoryAnswer: observation

18) Column 1: You form a chemistry studygroup.

Column 2: experimentAnswer: experiment

19) Column 1: You find that your grade hasimproved after working withthe group.

Column 2: observation

Foil: theoryAnswer: observation

20) Column 1: You think that studying with agroup would improve yourgrade.

Column 2: hypothesisAnswer: hypothesis

Chapter 2 Atoms and Elements2.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) The primary substances of which all other things are composed areA) molecules.B) compounds.C) elements.D) electrons.E) protons.

Answer: C

2) Au is the symbol forA) gold.B) silver.C) argon.D) aluminum.E) sodium.

Answer: A

Select the correct symbol for the element.

3) aluminum.A) AlB) AmC) AuD) SnE) Ag

Answer: A

4) iron.A) IrB) FsC) FeD) InE) FE

Answer: C

5) sodium.A) SoB) NaC) NoD) SmE) Au

Answer: B

6) potassium.A) PB) PoC) PtD) KE) Ko

Answer: D

7) silver.A) SB) SiC) AgD) AuE) AG

Answer: C

8) Ca is the symbol forA) calcium.B) carbon.C) cobalt.D) copper.E) cadmium.

Answer: A

9) What elements are in hydroxyapatite, Ca5(PO4)3OH , a major compound in human bones and teeth?A) carbon, potassium, oxygen, hydrogenB) calcium, phosphorous, oxygen, hydrogenC) carbon, phosphorous, oxygen, heliumD) calcium, phosphorous, oxygen, heliumE) carbon, potassium, oxygen, helium

Answer: B

10) Which of the following is a characteristic of the modern periodic table?A) A group is a horizontal row on the periodic table.B) A period is a column on the periodic table.C) The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.D) The B groups contain the representative elements.E) The A groups contain the transition elements.

Answer: C

11) Which of the following properties is NOT a characteristic of the Group 1A elements (alkali metals)?A) They are shiny.B) They are good conductors of heat.C) They react vigorously with water.D) Most of them are liquids at room temperature.E) They are good conductors of electricity.

Answer: D

12) The Group 8A elementsA) are unreactive and are rarely found in combination with other elements.B) are good conductors of electricity.C) melt at high temperatures.D) are liquids at room temperature.E) react vigorously with water.

Answer: A

13) Which of the following elements is a metal?A) nitrogenB) fluorineC) argonD) strontiumE) phosphorus

Answer: D

14) Which of the following is a characteristic of nonmetals?A) shinyB) malleableC) good conductors of heatD) low melting pointsE) good conductors of electricity

Answer: D

15) Which of the following elements is a noble gas?A) oxygenB) chlorineC) bromineD) argonE) nitrogen

Answer: D

16) The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element is a(n)A) electron.B) neutron.C) proton.D) atom.E) nucleus.

Answer: D

17) According to the Atomic Theory,A) all atoms are different.B) atoms are neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction.C) atoms of the same element combine to form compounds.D) all matter is made up of tiny particles called electrons.E) a compound can contain different numbers of atoms as long as it has the same kinds of atoms.

Answer: B

18) Which of the following descriptions of a subatomic particle is correct?A) A proton has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.B) An electron has a negative charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.C) A neutron has no charge and its mass is negligible.D) A proton has a positive charge and a negligible mass.E) A neutron has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

Answer: A

19) In an atom, the nucleus containsA) an equal number of protons and electrons.B) all the protons and neutrons.C) all the protons and electrons.D) only neutrons.E) only protons.

Answer: B

20) The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number ofA) nuclei.B) neutrons.C) neutrons plus protons.D) electrons plus protons.E) protons.

Answer: E

21) The number of neutrons in an atom is equal toA) the atomic number.B) the mass number.C) the mass number + the atomic number.D) the mass number - the atomic number.E) the number of protons.

Answer: D

22) The mass number of an atom can be calculated fromA) the number of electrons.B) the number of protons plus neutrons.C) the number of protons.D) the number of electrons plus protons.E) the number of neutrons.

Answer: B

23) What is the mass number of an atom of potassium that has 20 neutrons?A) 15B) 19C) 35D) 39E) 59

Answer: D

24) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The atomic number of the element isA) 30.B) 32.C) 34.D) 64.E) 94.

Answer: A

25) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The mass number for this atom isA) 30.B) 32.C) 34.D) 64.E) 94.

Answer: D

26) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom isA) 30.B) 32.C) 34.D) 64.E) 94.

Answer: A

27) How many protons are in an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25?A) 11B) 14C) 15D) 25E) 32

Answer: A

28) Consider an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25. The number of neutrons in this isotope of sodium isA) 11.B) 14.C) 16.D) 25.E) 32.

Answer: B

29) Which of the following gives the correct numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a neutral atom of11850

Sn?

A) 118 protons, 50 neutrons, 118 electronsB) 118 protons, 118 neutrons, 50 electronsC) 50 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electronsD) 68 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electronsE) 50 protons, 50 neutrons, 50 electrons

Answer: C

30) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that haveA) different atomic numbers.B) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of protons.C) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of electrons.D) the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons.E) the same atomic mass but different numbers of protons.

Answer: D

31) The correct symbol for the isotope of potassium with 22 neutrons is

A) 4119

K.

B) 1941

K.

C) 3715

P.

D) 1537

P.

E) 2219

K.

Answer: A

32) The atomic mass of an element is equal toA) its mass number.B) its atomic number.C) one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.D) a weighted average mass of all of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element.E) the average mass of all of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element.

Answer: D

33) A sample of chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes. The isotope Cl-35 (mass 35.0 amu) makes up 75.8%of the sample, and the isotope Cl-37 (mass = 37.0 amu) makes up 24.3% of the sample. What is the averageatomic mass for chlorine?

A) 36.0 amuB) 35 amuC) 36.6 amuD) 35.5 amuE) 35.521 amu

Answer: D

34) Which of the following is NOT true for the atoms 13N, 14N, and 15N?A) They all have the same mass number.B) They are isotopes.C) They all have the same atomic number.D) They all have 7 protons.E) They all have 7 electrons.

Answer: A

35) The elements lithium, sodium, and potassiumA) are isotopes of each other.B) are in the same period of elements.C) have the same number of neutrons.D) are in the same group.E) have the same mass number.

Answer: D

36) The electron arrangement of any particular atom showsA) the number of isotopes possible.B) a description of the shape of each electron shell.C) the number of electrons in each shell.D) a diagram of an atomic nucleus.E) the maximum number of electrons each shell can hold.

Answer: C

37) The maximum number of electrons that may occupy the third energy level isA) 2.B) 8.C) 10.D) 18.E) 32.

Answer: D

38) What is the element with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p5?A) BeB) ClC) FD) SE) Ar

Answer: B

39) What is the electron configuration for aluminum?A) 1s22s22p63s23p1

B) 1s22s22p63s23p3

C) 1s22s22p63s23p5

D) 1s22s22p63s23p6

E) 1s22s22p63s23p8

Answer: A

40) What is the electron configuration for potassium (atomic number 19) ?A) 1s22s22p63s23p7

B) 1s22s22p63s23p53d2

C) 1s22s22p83s23p5

D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

E) 1s22s22p63s23p54s1

Answer: D

41) What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p2?A) carbonB) oxygenC) sulfurD) ironE) silicon

Answer: E

42) The number of electrons in the outer energy level of a neutral atom of boron (atomic number 5) isA) 2.B) 3.C) 5.D) 8.E) 10.

Answer: B

43) Which element would have physical and chemical properties similar to chlorine?A) ArB) BrC) SD) OE) P

Answer: B

44) What is the symbol of the element in Period 4 and Group 2?A) BeB) MgC) CaD) CE) Si

Answer: C

45) What is the correct electron configuration for the lithium atom?A) 1s3

B) 2s1

C) 1s12s2

D) 1s22s1

E) 1s22s5

Answer: D

46) The number of electron levels in a magnesium atom isA) 1.B) 2.C) 3.D) 4.E) 5.

Answer: C

47) The element in this list with chemical properties similar to magnesium isA) sodium.B) boron.C) carbon.D) strontium.E) chlorine.

Answer: D

48) Identify the noble gas in the following list.A) heliumB) nitrogenC) oxygenD) goldE) chlorine

Answer: A

49) Identify the metalloid in the following list.A) sulfurB) fluorineC) silverD) copperE) germanium

Answer: E

50) Semiconductors are located in the periodic table on (or in) theA) left side of the table.B) right side of the table.C) line dividing metals from nonmetals in the table.D) first period of the table.E) last period of the table.

Answer: C

51) What is the abbreviated electron configuration for nickel (atomic number 28)?A) [He]2s22p3

B) [Ar]4s23d8

C) [Kr]4s23d8

D) [Ar]4s24p4

E) [Ar]3d8

Answer: B

52) What is the element with the abbreviated electron configuration [Kr]5s24d8?A) NiB) PdC) PtD) KrE) Xe

Answer: B

2.2 Short Answer QuestionsWrite in the electronic configuration for the atom shown.

1) Sodium

Answer: 1s22s22p63s1

2) Chlorine

Answer: 1s22s22p63s23p5

3) Argon


4) Sulfur


5) Magnesium

Answer: 1s22s22p63s2

6) Phosphorus


2.3 True/False Questions1) Sulfur is a non-metal.

Answer: TRUE

2) Iodine is a metal.Answer: FALSE

3) Chromuim is a metal.Answer: TRUE

4) Radon is a metal.Answer: FALSE

5) Mercury is a metal.Answer: TRUE

6) A lithium atom is larger than a potassium atom.Answer: FALSE

7) A sodium atom is larger than a silicon atom.Answer: TRUE

8) Chlorine has a higher ionization energy than aluminum.Answer: TRUE

9) Chlorine has a higher ionization energy than fluorine.Answer: FALSE

2.4 Matching QuestionsDo the following represent elements in a group, a period, or neither?

1) Column 1: Li, Na, K

Column 2: groupAnswer: group

2) Column 1: Li, C, F

Column 2: periodAnswer: period

3) Column 1: F, S, P

Column 2: neitherAnswer: neither

4) Column 1: O, S, Se

Column 2: groupAnswer: group

5) Column 1: He, H, I


Match the correct symbols with the names of elements.

6) Column 1: calcium

Column 2: CaAnswer: Ca

7) Column 1: copper

Column 2: CuAnswer: Cu

8) Column 1: carbon

Column 2: CAnswer: C

9) Column 1: chlorine

Column 2: ClAnswer: Cl

10) Column 1: cobalt

Column 2: CoAnswer: Co

Give the correct number of electrons.

11) Column 1: in the outer energy level ofnitrogen

Column 2: fiveAnswer: five

12) Column 1: in the second energy level ofmagnesium

Column 2: eightAnswer: eight

13) Column 1: in the highest occupied energylevel of chlorine

Column 2: sevenAnswer: seven

14) Column 1: in the first energy level ofchlorine

Column 2: twoAnswer: two

15) Column 1: in the third energy level ofsodium

Column 2: oneAnswer: one

Classify the following elements.

16) Column 1: sodium

Column 2: alkali metalAnswer: alkali metal

17) Column 1: argon

Column 2: noble gasAnswer: noble gas

18) Column 1: bromine

Column 2: halogenAnswer: halogen

19) Column 1: copper

Column 2: transition elementAnswer: transition element

20) Column 1: magnesium

Column 2: alkaline earth metalAnswer: alkaline earth metal

Classify the following elements as metals, nonmetals or metalloids.

21) Column 1: phosphorus

Column 2: nonmetalAnswer: nonmetal

22) Column 1: chlorine


23) Column 1: cobalt

Column 2: metalAnswer: metal

24) Column 1: sulfur


25) Column 1: silicon

Column 2: metalloidAnswer: metalloid

26) Column 1: nickel

Column 2: metalAnswer: metal

Chapter 3 Nuclear Radiation3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) What is the nuclear symbol for a radioactive isotope of copper with a mass number of 60?

A) 6029

Cu

B) 2960

Cu

C) 29Cu

D) 6031

Cu

E) 3129

Cu

Answer: A

2) The product from the alpha decay of 23592

U is

A) 23593

Np.

B) 23994

Pu.

C) 23190

Th.

D) 23380

Ra.

E) 23692

U.

Answer: C

3) The nuclear symbol of helium, 42He, is also the symbol for designating a(n)

A) proton.B) neutron.C) gamma ray.D) beta particle.E) alpha particle.

Answer: E

4) The symbol 0-1e is a symbol used for a(n)

A) proton.B) neutron.C) gamma ray.D) beta particle.E) alpha particle.

Answer: D

5) The symbol 0+1e is a symbol used for a(n)

A) proton.B) positron.C) gamma ray.D) beta particle.E) alpha particle.

Answer: B

6) Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy?A) α-particlesB) β-particlesC) γ-raysD) visible lightE) All of these have the same energy.

Answer: C

7) The damaging effects of radiation on the body are a result ofA) the formation of unstable ions or radicals.B) the formation of radioactive atoms in the body.C) transmutation reactions in the body.D) extensive damage to nerve cells.E) the production of radioactive sodium ions in the body.

Answer: A

8) Which of the following is suitable as a minimum shielding for beta particles?A) airB) 1 m of waterC) glovesD) 1 m of concreteE) 1 cm of lead

Answer: C

9) For 8538

Sr, there are

A) 85 protons and 38 neutrons.B) 47 protons and 38 neutrons.C) 38 protons and 47 neutrons.D) 38 protons and 85 neutrons.E) 85 protons and 47 neutrons.

Answer: C

10) Which is NOT a way to minimize your exposure to radiation?A) wearing a lead apronB) keeping a good distanceC) standing behind a thick concrete wallD) wearing lead-lined glovesE) staying a longer time

Answer: E

11) The process in which a nucleus spontaneously breaks down by emitting radiation is known asA) transmutation.B) transformation.C) fusion.D) a chain reaction.E) radioactive decay.

Answer: E

12) A nuclear equation is balanced whenA) the same elements are found on both sides of the equation.B) the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same

on both sides of the equation.C) the same particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation.D) different particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation.E) the charges of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation.

Answer: B

13) The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of process?

22490

Th → 22088

Rn + 42He

A) fusionB) fissionC) translationD) alpha emissionE) beta emission

Answer: D

14) In the nuclear equation of a beta emitter,A) the new nucleus contains 2 fewer protons.B) the new nucleus contains 2 more protons.C) the mass number of the new nucleus is 4 less than that of the original nucleus.D) the new nucleus contains 1 more proton.E) the new nucleus contains 1 less proton.

Answer: D

15) Nitrogen-17 is a beta emitter. What is the isotope produced in the radioactive decay?

A) 186C

B) 135B

C) 187N

D) 139F

E) 178O

Answer: E

16) The nuclear reaction

12650

Sn → 12651

Sb + ?

is an example ofA) fusion.B) fission.C) translation.D) alpha emission.E) beta emission.

Answer: E

17) What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?

9038

Sr → 9039

Y + ?

A) alpha particleB) beta particleC) gamma rayD) protonE) neutron

Answer: B

18) What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?

15974

W → 15572

Hf + ?


Answer: A

19) What is missing in the nuclear reaction shown below?

105B + 4

2He → 13

7N + ____

A) gamma radiationB) a positronC) a neutronD) an alpha particleE) a beta particle

Answer: C

20) What is the radiation particle used in the bombardment of nitrogen-14?

147N + ? → 14

6C + 1

1H


Answer: E

21) When aluminum-27 is bombarded with a neutron, a gamma ray is emitted. What radioactive isotope isproduced?

A) silicon-27B) silicon-28C) aluminum-28D) magnesium-27E) magnesium-28

Answer: C

22) The unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by a gram of material is called theA) rad.B) RBE.C) curie.D) rem.E) MPD.

Answer: A

23) A patient receives 4.2 x 103 mrads of iodine-131, which emits β-particles. If the factor that adjusts forbiological damage is 1 for β-particles, how many rems did the patient receive?

A) 4B) 0.4C) 0.3D) 2E) 40

Answer: A

24) A patient receives 10 mrads of gamma radiation. If the factor that adjusts for biological damage for for gammaradiation is 1, how many mrems did the patient receive?

A) 2 mremB) 5 mremC) 10 mremD) 20 mremE) 200 mrem

Answer: C

25) A sample of technetium-99m has an activity of 1.5 Ci. How many disintegrations occur in the technetium -99msample in 5.0 sec?

A) 5.6 x 1010

B) 2.8 x 1011

C) 1.1 x 1010D) 7.5E) 2.0 x 10-10

Answer: B

26) Why is it important that radioisotopes used in diagnostic tests have short half-lives?A) These radioisotopes have a greater activity so they are easier to monitor.B) This minimizes the harmful side effects of the radiation.C) This is necessary so the radioisotopes will have high energy.D) These radioisotopes are less expensive.E) These radioisotopes are more abundant in nature.

Answer: B

27) A person begins to suffer radiation sickness at an exposure level ofA) 25 rem.B) 5 rem.C) 500 rem.D) 100 rem.E) 600 rem.

Answer: D

28) The maximum permissible dose of radiation for occupational exposure isA) 1 rem per year.B) 5 rem per year.C) 25 rem per year.D) 100 rem per year.E) 500 rem per year.

Answer: B

29) A positron is a particle emitted from the nucleus that has the same mass as a(n)A) electron but has a positive charge.B) neutron but has a positive charge.C) alpha particle.D) beta particle.E) proton emitted from the nucleus.

Answer: A

30) An imaging technique in which a computer monitors the degree of absorption of X-ray beams is known asA) positron emission tomography (PET).B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).C) computerized tomography (CT).D) radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU).E) a scan.

Answer: C

31) An imaging technique that detects the energy emitted by hydrogen atoms in a magnetic field is known asA) positron emission tomography (PET).B) computerized tomography (CT).C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).D) radioactive tracer study.E) supermagnetic tomography (SMT).

Answer: C

32) The dosage of technetium-99m for myocardial imaging is 280 μCi/kg of body weight. How many mCi shouldbe given to a patient weighing 65 kg?

A) 0.0043 mCiB) 4.3 mCiC) 18 mCiD) 230 mCiE) 1.8 x 104 mCi

Answer: C

33) A patient receives 3.0 mL of a solution containing technetium-99m for a breast image. If the activity of thetechnetium-99m is 9.5 mCi/mL, what is the dose received by the patient?

A) 3.2 mCiB) 29 mCiC) 320 μCiD) 9.5 mCiE) 28.5 mCi

Answer: B

34) Sodium-24 has a half-life of 15 hours. How many hours is three half-lives?A) 60 hoursB) 45 hoursC) 30 hoursD) 15 hoursE) 7.5 hours

Answer: B

35) The half-life of a radioisotope isA) one-half of the time it takes for the radioisotope to completely decay to a nonradioactive isotope.B) the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half of the atomic weight of the

original radioisotope.C) the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half the atomic number of the

original radioisotope.D) the time it takes for the radioisotope to lose one-half of its neutrons.E) the time it takes for one-half of the sample to decay.

Answer: E

36) Iodine-123, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 hours. If 50.0 mg of I-123were prepared at 8:00 A.M. on Monday, how many mg remain at 10:00 A.M. on the following day?

A) 50.0 mgB) 25.0 mgC) 12.5 mgD) 6.25 mgE) 3.13 mg

Answer: C

37) A wooden object from a prehistoric site has a carbon-14 activity of 10 counts per minute (cpm) compared to 40cpm for new wood. If carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years, what is the age of the wood?

A) 1430 yrB) 5730 yrC) 11,500 yrD) 17,200 yrE) 22,900 yr

Answer: C

38) Krypton-79 has a half-life of 35 hours. How many half-lives have passed after 105 hours?A) 1 half-lifeB) 2 half-livesC) 3 half-livesD) 4 half-livesE) 5 half-lives

Answer: C

39) The half-life of bromine-74 is 25 min. How much of a 4.0 mg sample is still active after 75 min?A) 0.50 mgB) 1.0 mgC) 2.0 mgD) 0.25 mgE) 4.0 mg

Answer: A

40) When an atom of uranium-235 is bombarded with neutrons, it splits into smaller nuclei and produces a greatamount of energy. This nuclear process is called

A) fission.B) fusion.C) decomposition.D) chain reaction.E) ionization.

Answer: A

41) In the sun, nuclei of hydrogen combine to form a larger nucleus and release a great amount of energy. Theprocess is known as

A) fission.B) fusion.C) metathesis.D) chain reaction.E) ionization.

Answer: B

42) When a positron is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, the nuclear massA) increases by two units.B) decreases by one unit.C) increases by one unit.D) decreases by two units.E) remains the same.

Answer: E

43) Gamma rays require the heaviest shielding of all the common types of nuclear radiation because gamma rayshave the

A) highest energy.B) most intense color.C) lowest energy.D) largest particles.E) heaviest particles.

Answer: A

44) If absorbed internally, alpha particle emitters are the most damaging because alpha particlesA) have the largest charge.B) have the greatest energy.C) have the greatest mass.D) consist of high energy electrons.E) consist of pure energy.

Answer: C

45) Radium-226 decays by alpha emission toA) barium-131.B) cobalt-60.C) carbon-14.D) polonium-218.E) radon-222.

Answer: E

46) Iodine-131 decays by beta emission toA) iodine-132.B) tellurium-131.C) iodine-130D) bromine-131E) xenon-131.

Answer: E

47) A sample of cerium-141 for a diagnostic test was dissolved in saline solution to an activity of 4.5millicuries/mL. If the patient undergoing the test needs a dose of 10 millicuries, how much of the solutionshould be injected into the patient?

A) 45 mLB) .45 mLC) 2.2 mLD) 22 mLE) 4.5 mL

Answer: C

48) The most widely used medical isotope in nuclear medicine isA) Tc-99m.B) I-131.C) P-32.D) I-125.E) Co-60.

Answer: A

49) The recommended dosage of I-131 for a test is 4.2 microcuries per kg of body weight. How many millicuriesshould be given to a 55 kg patient? (1 mCi = 1000 μCi)

A) 230 millicuriesB) 0.23 millicuriesC) 0.076 millicuriesD) 760 millicuriesE) 13.8 millicuries

Answer: B

50) One symptom of mild radiation sickness isA) a lowered white cell count.B) a raised white cell count.C) a lowered red blood cell count.D) a raised red blood cell count.E) a white cell count of zero.

Answer: A

3.2 Short Answer Questions1) One symbol for the β particle is 0

-1β. Another symbol for the same particle is ________.

Answer: 0-1

e

2) A sample of phosphorus-32 with an activity of 2.0 mCi produces ________ disintegrations per second.(1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations/sec).

Answer: 7.4 x 1010

3) The common unit of radioactivity which is used to measure the biological damage is the ________.Answer: rem

4) The radioisotope used as a diagnostic tool to measure thyroid function is ________.Answer: I-131

5) The diagnostic imaging technique that depends on magnetic fields and radio waves, not radioactivity, is called________.Answer: mri or magnetic resonance imaging

6) The time needed for a radioactive sample to decay to one-half of its original activity is called the ________.Answer: half-life

7) 23592

U + 10n → ________ + 91

36Kr + 3 1

0n + energy

Answer: 14256

Ba

8) The radiation dose required to produce death in one-half of the exposed subject animals is termed the________.Answer: LD50

9) 99m43

Tc → 9943

Tc + ________

Answer: γ

3.3 True/False Questions1) Exposure to radiation is unavoidable because some radioactive elements occur naturally.

Answer: TRUE

2) One symptom of radiation sickness is an increased production of red blood cells.Answer: FALSE

3) If the half-life of hydrogen-3 is 11.8 years, after two half-lives the radioactivity of a sample will be reduced toone-half of the original amount.Answer: FALSE

4) The correct symbol for hydrogen-3 is 32He.

Answer: FALSE

5) One mCi of a radioactive substance emits more radiation than one μCi of the same substance.Answer: TRUE

6) One type of radiation that is not usually used for medical procedures is the cosmic ray.Answer: TRUE

7) X rays are generated by the nucleus during radioactive decay.Answer: FALSE

8) Irradiation of food for sterilization is usually carried out using gamma irradiation.Answer: TRUE

9) Nuclear fission as used in nuclear power plants produces radioactive waste with long half-lives.Answer: TRUE

10) The production of nitrogen-13 and a neutron from boron-10 by bombardment with a helium-4 nucleus is anexample of radioactive decay.Answer: FALSE

3.4 Matching QuestionsIndicate whether each of the following is characteristic of the fission or fusion process.

1) Column 1: A large nucleus is split intosmaller nuclei.

Column 2: fissionAnswer: fission

2) Column 1: Very high temperatures mustbe achieved to initiate thereaction.

Column 2: fusionAnswer: fusion

3) Column 1: This nuclear process providesthe energy of the sun.


4) Column 1: This process producesradioactive by-products.

Column 2: fissionAnswer: fission

5) Column 1: Large amounts of energy arereleased.

Column 2: both fission and fusionAnswer: both fission and fusion

6) Column 1: Two small nuclei combine toform a larger nucleus.


Choose the type of radiation from Column 2 that best matches each item in Column 1.

7) Column 1: α

Column 2: alpha particleAnswer: alpha particle

8) Column 1: β

Column 2: beta particleAnswer: beta particle

9) Column 1: γ

Column 2: gamma rayAnswer: gamma ray

10) Column 1: 11H

Column 2: protonAnswer: proton

11) Column 1: 10n

Column 2: neutronAnswer: neutron

Chapter 4 Compounds and Their Bonds4.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) The number of valence electrons found in an atom of a Group A element is equal toA) its atomic number.B) its mass number.C) its group number.D) eight.E) eight minus the group number.

Answer: C

2) Valence electrons are electrons locatedA) in the outermost energy level of an atom.B) in the nucleus of an atom.C) in the innermost energy level of an atom.D) throughout the atom.E) in the first three shells of an atom.

Answer: A

3) In an electron-dot structure of an element, the dots are used to representA) all of the electrons in the atom.B) the valence electrons.C) the electron arrangement.D) only the electrons that will participate in bond formation.E) the electrons that the element will gain when it forms a compound.

Answer: B

4) How many valence electrons are in the electron-dot structures for the elements in group 3A(13)?A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 6

Answer: C

5) The number of electrons in the higher energy level of nitrogen isA) one.B) two.C) three.D) four.E) five.

Answer: E

6) The number of electrons in the higher energy level of carbon isA) one.B) two.C) three.D) four.E) five.

Answer: D

7) Which of the following is the correct electron-dot structure for carbon?A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: C

8) The octet rule indicates thatA) all of the noble gases have eight total electrons.B) all of the shells in an atom hold a maximum of 8 electrons.C) all of the Group A elements have 8 valence electrons.D) atoms lose, gain, or share valence electrons to have 8 valence electrons.E) the noble gases react with other compounds to get 8 valence electrons.

Answer: D

9) In ionic compounds, ________ lose their valence electrons to form positively charged ________.A) metals; anionsB) nonmetals; cationsC) metals; polyatomic ionsD) nonmetals; anionsE) metals; cations

Answer: E

10) How many electrons will aluminum gain or lose when it forms an ion?A) lose 1B) gain 5C) lose 2D) lose 3E) gain 1

Answer: D

11) What is the symbol for the ion with 19 protons and 18 electrons?A) F+

B) F-

C) Ar+

D) K-

E) K+

Answer: E

12) To form an ion, a sodium atomA) gains one electron.B) gains two electrons.C) loses seven electrons.D) loses one electron.E) loses two electrons.

Answer: D

13) An anion alwaysA) has a positive charge.B) contains a group of two or more atoms with a positive charge.C) contains a metal and a nonmetal.D) forms covalent bonds.E) has a negative charge.

Answer: E

14) What is the ionic charge of an ion with 18 protons and 15 electrons?A) 1+

B) 2+

C) 3+

D) 2-

E) 3-

Answer: C

15) The number of electrons in an ion with 20 protons and an ionic charge of 2- isA) 24.B) 22.C) 20.D) 18.E) 16.

Answer: B

16) Elements in group 2A(2) of the periodic table form ions with a charge ofA) 1+ .B) 1- .C) 2+ .D) 3+.E) 0.

Answer: C

17) The ion of aluminum isA) Al+.B) Al2+.C) Al3+.D) Al3-.E) Al2-.

Answer: C

18) How many electrons will chlorine gain or lose when it forms an ion?A) lose 1B) gain 1C) lose 7D) gain 2E) lose 3

Answer: B

19) An ionic compoundA) has a net positive charge.B) has a net negative charge.C) contains only cations.D) contains only anions.E) has a net charge of zero.

Answer: E

20) The correct formula for a compound formed from the elements Al and O isA) AlO.B) Al2O .C) Al3O2 .D) AlO3 .E) Al2O3 .

Answer: E

21) The correct formula for the compound formed from Mg and S isA) MgS.B) MgS2.C) Mg2S.D) Mg2S2.E) Mg2S3.

Answer: A

22) Which one of the following compounds contains an ion with a 3+ charge?A) KClB) Na2OC) FeCl3D) CuClE) MgCl2

Answer: C

23) What is the correct formula for the oxide ion?A) O2-

B) OC) O+

D) O2+

E) O3+

Answer: A

24) The compound MgCl2 is namedA) magnesium chlorine.B) magnesium dichloride.C) magnesium (II) chloride.D) magnesium chloride.E) dimagnesium chloride.

Answer: D

25) Which one of the following elements forms two or more ions with different ionic charges?A) KB) FC) CaD) OE) Fe

Answer: E

26) What is the correct formula for the iron (II) ion?A) Fe+

B) Fe2+

C) Fe3+

D) Fe2-

E) Fe3-

Answer: B

27) The name of the Cu+ ion isA) copper (II).B) copper (I).C) cobalt.D) copper.E) cuprum.

Answer: B

28) What is the correct formula for iron (III) sulfide?A) Fe2S2B) Fe2SC) FeSD) FeS2E) Fe2S3

Answer: E

29) A(n) ________ is the smallest neutral unit of two or more atoms held together by a covalent bond.A) ionic compoundB) nucleusC) moleculeD) formulaE) unit

Answer: C

30) In a molecule with covalent bonding,A) oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrical attractions.B) atoms of metals form bonds to atoms of nonmetals.C) atoms of different metals form bonds.D) atoms are held together by sharing electrons.E) atoms of noble gases are held together by attractions between oppositely charged ions.

Answer: D

31) Which of the following elements does NOT exist as a diatomic molecule?A) hydrogenB) nitrogenC) chlorineD) oxygenE) carbon

Answer: E

32) In a covalently bonded molecule, the number of electrons that an atom shares with others is usually equal tothe number of electrons

A) in the atom.B) in its nucleus.C) in all the atoms.D) in its ion.E) needed to give it a noble gas arrangement.

Answer: E

33) Double and triple bonds form becauseA) the atoms involved have high electronegativities.B) single covalent bonds do not give all of the atoms in the molecule eight valence electrons.C) one of the atoms in the molecule has more than eight valence electrons.D) the ions involved have charges larger than one.E) there is at least one hydrogen atom involved in the bond.

Answer: B

34) The formula for a molecule formed from N and Cl would beA) NCl.B) NCl2.C) NCl3.D) N3Cl.E) NCl5.

Answer: C

35) The types of compound that use prefixes in their names areA) ionic compounds.B) ionic compounds involving transition metals.C) polyatomic ions.D) covalent compounds.E) compounds that contain polyatomic ions.

Answer: D

36) The correct name for the compound N2O3 isA) nitrogen oxide.B) nitrogen trioxide.C) dinitride trioxide.D) dinitrogen oxide.E) dinitrogen trioxide.

Answer: E

37) What is the formula of carbon tetraiodide?A) CIB) CI4C) C4ID) CI3E) C2I4

Answer: B

38) The name of Al2(SO4)3 isA) aluminum(III) sulfate.B) dialuminum trisulfate.C) dialuminum sulfate.D) dialuminum trisulfide.E) aluminum sulfate.

Answer: E

39) The ability of an atom to attract the shared electrons in a covalent bond is itsA) electronegativity.B) bonding ability.C) polarity.D) ionic character.E) nonpolarity.

Answer: A

40) Which of the following substances contains a nonpolar covalent bond?A) H2OB) NaClC) NH3D) MgF2E) N2

Answer: E

41) Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?A) LiB) CC) ND) OE) F

Answer: A

42) Which of the following compounds contains a polar covalent bond?A) NaFB) HClC) Br2D) MgOE) O2

Answer: B

43) Which of the following compounds contains an ionic bond?A) NH3B) H2OC) CaOD) H2E) CH4

Answer: C

44) If the electronegativity difference between elements X and Y is 2.1, the bond between the elements X-Y isA) ionic.B) nonpolar ionic.C) nonpolar covalent.D) polar covalent.E) impossible.

Answer: A

45) Ionic bonding is expected in which of these compounds?A) Cl2B) KFC) OF2D) HFE) H2

Answer: B

46) A polar covalent bond is found in which of these compounds?A) H2OB) F2C) NaClD) H2E) N2

Answer: A

47) The bond in Cl2 is a(n)A) ionic bond.B) nonpolar covalent bond.C) metallic bond.D) polar ionic bond.E) no bond.

Answer: B

48) A group of covalently bonded atoms that has an overall electrical charge is called a(n)A) ionic compound.B) anion.C) polyatomic ion.D) cation.E) molecule.

Answer: C

49) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a positive charge?A) hydroxideB) sulfateC) hydrogen carbonateD) ammoniumE) nitrate

Answer: D

50) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a 3- ionic charge?A) hydroxideB) nitrateC) sulfateD) phosphateE) bicarbonate

Answer: D

51) What is the formula of the nitride ion?A) N3-

B) NO2-

C) NO33-

D) NO32-

E) NO3-

Answer: A

52) The name of the HSO4- ion isA) sulfate.B) hydrogen sulfate.C) sulfite.D) hydrogen sulfite.E) sulfide.

Answer: B

53) What is the formula of a compound that contains Na+ and PO43- ions?A) Na3PO4B) NaPO4C) Na2PO3D) Na3PO3E) Na3P

Answer: A

54) Fe2(SO4)3 is calledA) iron sulfate.B) iron (II) sulfate.C) iron (III) sulfate.D) diiron trisulfate.E) iron trisulfate.

Answer: C

55) What is the formula for aluminum nitrite?A) Al2NO2B) AlNO3C) Al(NO2)3D) Al2(NO3)3E) Al2(NO2)2

Answer: C

56) The VSEPR theory allows us to determine the most favorableA) shape of a molecule.B) charge on an ion.C) color of a compound.D) bond type for a molecule.E) formula for a compound.

Answer: A

57) The shape of the ammonia molecule isA) linear.B) square.C) pyramidal.D) hexagonal.E) octagonal.

Answer: C

58) The water molecule has a dipole with the negative portionA) localized between the hydrogen atoms.B) pointing toward the oxygen atom.C) localized on one of the hydrogens.D) pointing from the oxygen through the hydrogen atoms.E) surrounding the molecule.

Answer: B

59) The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCl4, has the shape of aA) tetrahedron.B) square.C) cube.D) circle.E) sphere.

Answer: A

60) Hydrogen sulfide, H2S, has a shape similar toA) carbon dioxide.B) carbon monoxide.C) hydrogen chloride.D) water.E) carbon tetrachloride.

Answer: D

4.2 Short Answer QuestionsIdentify each of the following compounds as polar or nonpolar.

1) carbon tetrachlorideAnswer: nonpolar

2) waterAnswer: polar

3) carbon dioxideAnswer: nonpolar

4) hydrogen sulfideAnswer: polar

5) hydrogen fluorideAnswer: polar

4.3 Matching QuestionsMatch the correct name of the polyatomic ions with the formulas given.

1) Column 1: NO3-

Column 2: nitrateAnswer: nitrate

2) Column 1: CO32-

Column 2: carbonate

Foil: carboniteAnswer: carbonate

3) Column 1: SO42-

Column 2: sulfateAnswer: sulfate

4) Column 1: SO32-

Column 2: sulfiteAnswer: sulfite

5) Column 1: PO43-

Column 2: phosphate

Foil: phosphiteAnswer: phosphate

6) Column 1: NO2-

Column 2: nitriteAnswer: nitrite

7) Column 1: HCO3-

Column 2: bicarbonateAnswer: bicarbonate

8) Column 1: HSO4-

Column 2: bisulfate

Foil: bisulfiteAnswer: bisulfate

9) Column 1: OH-

Column 2: hydroxide

Foil: oxideAnswer: hydroxide

Give the correct charge for ions of the following elements.

10) Column 1: Ca

Column 2: 2+

Answer: 2+

11) Column 1: Cl

Column 2: 1-

Answer: 1-

12) Column 1: O

Column 2: 2-

Answer: 2-

13) Column 1: Al

Column 2: 3+

Answer: 3+

14) Column 1: K

Column 2: 1+

Foil: 0

Answer: 1+

Indicate the type of bonding you would expect between the following elements.

15) Column 1: Na and F

Column 2: ionicAnswer: ionic

16) Column 1: N and F

Column 2: polar covalentAnswer: polar covalent

17) Column 1: F and F

Column 2: nonpolar covalentAnswer: nonpolar covalent

18) Column 1: He and F

Column 2: noneAnswer: none

19) Column 1: H and F

Column 2: polar covalentAnswer: polar covalent

Match the chemical name with the correct formula.

20) Column 1: magnesium sulfate

Column 2: MgSO4Answer: MgSO4

21) Column 1: magnesium hydrogen sulfate

Column 2: Mg(HSO4)2Answer: Mg(HSO4)2

22) Column 1: magnesium sulfide

Column 2: MgSAnswer: MgS

23) Column 1: magnesium sulfite

Column 2: MgSO3Answer: MgSO3

24) Column 1: magnesium hydrogen sulfite

Column 2: Mg(HSO3)2Answer: Mg(HSO3)2

Chapter 5 Chemical Reactions and Quantities5.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?A) grinding coffee beansB) baking a cakeC) converting water to hydrogen and oxygenD) digesting a cheeseburgerE) burning coal

Answer: A

2) Which of the following would NOT be a physical change?A) freezing water to make ice cubesB) tearing a piece of aluminum foilC) boiling water for soupD) burning gasoline in a lawnmowerE) melting gold to make jewelry

Answer: D

3) Which of the following is a chemical change?A) cutting a ropeB) bending a steel rodC) making a snowmanD) burning sugarE) melting gold

Answer: D

4) Which of the following is a physical change?A) baking a cakeB) dry ice sublimingC) fermenting grapes to produce wineD) digesting a mealE) a tomato ripening

Answer: B

5) A chemical equation is balanced whenA) the total number of molecules is the same in reactants and products.B) the total number of ions is the same in reactants and products.C) the sum of the coefficients of the reactants is equal to the sum of the coefficients of the products.D) the number of atoms of each element is the same in reactants and products.E) the charge on each atom is the same in reactants and products.

Answer: D

6) Which of the following gives the balanced equation for this reaction?

K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + KNO3

A) KPO4 + CaNO3 + KNO3B) K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 3KNO3C) 2 K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6KNO3D) 2K3PO4 + 3Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6KNO3E) K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + KNO3

Answer: D

7) Which of the following correctly gives the best coefficients for the reaction below?

N2H4 + H2O2 → N2 + H2O

A) 1, 1, 1 ,1B) 1, 2, 1, 4C) 2, 4, 2, 8D) 1, 4, 1, 4E) 2, 4, 2, 4

Answer: B

8) What coefficient is placed in front of O2 to complete the balancing of the following equation?

C5H8 + ? O2 → 5CO2 + 4H2O

A) 1B) 3C) 5D) 7E) 9

Answer: D

9) What is the coefficient of hydrogen, H2, when the following equation is balanced?

Al + H2SO4 → Al2(SO4) 3 + ? H2

A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: C

Pentane (C5H12) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) according to the following reaction. Answerthe question(s) that follow about this reaction.

C5H12 + ? O2 → ? CO2 + ? H2O

10) What is the coefficient for oxygen in the balanced equation?A) 2B) 4C) 5D) 6E) 8

Answer: E

11) What is the coefficient for carbon dioxide in the balanced equation?A) 2B) 4C) 5D) 6E) 8

Answer: C

12) What is the coefficient for water in the balanced equation?A) 2B) 4C) 5D) 6E) 8

Answer: D

13) In a ________ reaction, two or more elements or compounds form one product.A) decompositionB) single replacementC) dehydrationD) double replacementE) combination

Answer: E

14) The following reaction takes place when an electric current is passed through water. It is an example of a________ reaction.

2H2O → 2H2 + O2

A) combinationB) single replacementC) dehydrationD) decompositionE) double replacement

Answer: D

15) Which of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction?A) CaCl2 + Na2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2NaClB) KOH + HNO3 → H2O + KNO3C) N2 + O2 → 2NOD) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3E) Al2(SO4)3 + 6KOH → 2Al(OH)3 + 3K2SO4

Answer: C

16) What is oxidized and what is reduced in the following reaction?

2Al(s) + 3Br2(g) → 2AlBr3(s)

A) Al is oxidized and Br2 is reduced.B) AlBr3 is reduced and Br2 is oxidized.C) Al is reduced and Br2 is oxidized.D) AlBr3 is reduced and Al is oxidized.E) AlBr3 is oxidized and Al is reduced.

Answer: A

17) Which of the following describes an oxidation?A) loss of electrons or loss of oxygenB) loss of electrons or gain of oxygenC) loss of electrons or gain of hydrogenD) gain of electrons or gain of oxygenE) gain of electrons or loss of H

Answer: B

18) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance oxidized alwaysA) takes on oxygen atoms.B) shows a loss of electrons.C) gives up hydrogen atoms.D) shows a gain of electrons.E) becomes a charged species.

Answer: B

19) In this reaction, what is the substance oxidized?

Zn(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

A) chlorineB) zinc chlorideC) hydrogenD) ZnE) oxygen

Answer: D

20) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance reduced alwaysA) takes on oxygen atoms.B) shows a loss of electrons.C) gives up hydrogen atoms.D) shows a gain of electrons.E) becomes a charged species.

Answer: D

21) In this reaction, what is the coefficient for calcium oxide?

CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)

A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: A

22) In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for sodium chloride?

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + NaCl(aq) → PbCl2 (s)+ NaNO3(aq)

A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: B

23) In the following reaction, what is the correct coefficient for aluminum chloride?

Al(s) + Cl2(g) → AlCl3(s)

A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: B

24) What is the classification for this reaction?

SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4(l)

A) decompositionB) combinationC) replacementD) double replacementE) oxidation reduction

Answer: B

25) The reaction of carbon with oxygen to produce carbon monoxide is an example of which class of reaction?

2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)

A) single replacementB) double replacementC) combinationD) catalyticE) endothermic

Answer: C

26) For the following reaction, what is the correct coefficient for the H2?

Fe(s) + HCl(aq) → FeCl3(aq) + H2(g)

A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: C

27) What is the classification for this unbalanced reaction?

Fe + HCl → FeCl3 + H2

A) dehydrationB) combinationC) decompositionD) single replacementE) double replacement

Answer: D

28) In any balanced chemical equation, the number of each type of atom on both sides of the equation isA) doubled.B) the same.C) decreased by one.D) increased by one.E) dependent on the temperature.

Answer: B

29) How many moles of water, H2O, are present in 75.0 g H2O?A) 4.41 molesB) 4.17 molesC) 75.0 molesD) 7.50 molesE) 1.35 x 103 moles

Answer: B

30) One mole of particles of any substance contains how many particles?A) 106

B) 3 x 10-10

C) 3 x 1010

D) 6.02 x 1023

E) 6.02 x 10-23

Answer: D

31) Avogadroʹs number is the number ofA) particles in 1 mole of a substance.B) amu in 1 mole of a substance.C) grams in 1 mole of a substance.D) moles in 6.02 x 1023 grams of an element.E) moles in 6.02 x 1023 amu of an element.

Answer: A

32) The molar mass of potassium isA) 19 g.B) 31.0 g.C) 6.02 x 1023 grams.D) 39.1 g.E) 15g.

Answer: D

33) One mole of helium gas weighsA) 1.00 g.B) 2.00 g.C) 3.00 g.D) 4.00 g.E) 8.00 g.

Answer: D

34) 0.100 mole of lithium weighsA) 3.00 g.B) 0.300 g.C) 6.94 g.D) 0.694 g.E) 0.700 g.

Answer: D

35) Calculate the molar mass of potassium chloride, KCl.A) 74.6 gB) 54.5 gC) 6.74 gD) 67.4 gE) 19.0 g

Answer: A

36) What is the molar mass of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4?A) 16.0 gB) 63.6 gC) 111.6 gD) 159.6 gE) 319.2 g

Answer: D

37) Calculate the molar mass of magnesium chloride, MgCl2.A) 24.3 gB) 95.2 gC) 125.9 gD) 59.8 gE) 70.0 g

Answer: B

38) What is the molar mass of sodium phosphate, Na3PO4?A) 119.0 gB) 308.0 gC) 164.0 gD) 226.0 gE) 354.0 g

Answer: C

39) How many moles of carbon atoms are there in 0.500 mole of C2H6?A) 0.500 molesB) 1.00 molesC) 3.00 molesD) 6.02 x 1023 molesE) 4.00 moles

Answer: B

40) What is the molar mass of sucrose (C12H22O11) ?A) 29.0 gB) 50.2 gC) 210 gD) 342 gE) 182 g

Answer: D

41) One mole of neon atoms has a mass ofA) 6.02 x 1023 grams.B) 14.0 g.C) 10.0 g.D) 20.2 g.E) 30.2 g.

Answer: D

42) The molar mass of C3H8O2 isA) 76.0 g.B) 60.0 g.C) 29.0 g.D) 69.0 g.E) 52.0 g.

Answer: A

43) The molar mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, isA) 58.1 g.B) 57.1 g.C) 74.1 g.D) 114.2 g.E) 38.0 g.

Answer: C

44) What is the molar mass of Mg3(PO4)2, a substance formerly used in medicine as an antacid?A) 71.3 gB) 118.3 gC) 150.3 gD) 214.3 gE) 262.9 g

Answer: E

45) 4.00 moles of sodium have a mass ofA) 4.60 g.B) 11.0 g.C) 23.0 g.D) 44.0 g.E) 92.0 g.

Answer: E

46) How many moles of K2SO4 are in 15.0 g of K2SO4?A) 0.172 molesB) 2.61 x 103 molesC) 0.111 molesD) 0.0861 molesE) 0.119 moles

Answer: D

47) 3.00 moles of NO2 have a mass ofA) 138 g.B) 46.0 g.C) 30.0 g.D) 90.0 g.E) 45.0 g.

Answer: A

48) How many grams of Fe2O3 are there in 0.500 mole of Fe2O3 ?A) 79.8 gB) 35.9 gC) 63.8 gD) 51.9 gE) 160. g

Answer: A

49) How many grams of glucose (C6H12O6) are in 3.55 moles of glucose?A) 180. gB) 639 gC) 103 gD) 426 gE) 50.7 g

Answer: B

50) Given the following equation, what is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the numberof moles of O2 to the number of moles of Fe2O3 produced?

4Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3(s)

A) 4 moles Fe3 moles O2

B) 4 moles Fe2 moles Fe2O3

C) 3 moles O2

2 moles Fe2O3

D) 2 moles Fe2O34 moles Fe

E) 2 moles Fe2O33 moles O2

Answer: E

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following equation.

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

51) The number of moles of oxygen gas needed to react with 4.0 moles of Mg isA) 1.0 mole.B) 2.0 moles.C) 3.0 moles.D) 4.0 moles.E) 6.0 moles.

Answer: B

52) The number of moles of MgO produced when 0.20 mole of O2 reacts completely isA) 0.10 mole.B) 0.20 mole.C) 0.40 mole.D) 0.60 mole.E) 0.80 mole.

Answer: C

53) How many moles of magnesium are needed to react with 16 g of O2?A) 0.50 moleB) 1.0 molesC) 2.0 molesD) 3.0 molesE) 4.0 moles

Answer: B

54) How many grams of MgO are produced when 40.0 grams of O2 react completely with Mg?A) 30.4 gB) 50.4 gC) 60.8 gD) 101 gE) 201 g

Answer: D

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following balanced equation.

Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(l) → 3Mg(OH)2(s) + 2NH3(g)

55) What is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of H2O to the numberof moles of NH3 produced?

A) 2 moles NH36 moles H2O

B) 6 moles H2O2 moles NH3

C) 1 mole Mg3N26 moles H2O

D) 18 g H2O

1 mole H2O

E) 18 g H2O17 g NH3

Answer: A

56) When 2 moles of Mg3N2 are allowed to react, how many moles of H2O also react?A) 1 moleB) 4 molesC) 6 molesD) 8 molesE) 12 moles

Answer: E

57) When 4 moles of aluminum are allowed to react with an excess of chlorine gas, Cl2, how many moles ofaluminum chloride are produced?

A) 1 moleB) 2 molesC) 3 molesD) 4 molesE) 5 moles

Answer: D

58) In the reaction of nitrogen gas, N2, with hydrogen gas, H2, to form ammonia gas, NH3 , how many moles ofhydrogen are needed to react with two moles of nitrogen?

A) 2 molesB) 4 molesC) 6 molesD) 8 molesE) 10 moles

Answer: C

59) How many grams of hydrogen are needed to produce 1.80 g of water according to this equation?

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

A) 0.100 gB) 0.180gC) 0.200 gD) 2.00 gE) 4.00 g

Answer: C

60) In the reaction of silver nitrate with sodium chloride, how many grams of silver chloride will be produced from100. g of silver nitrate when it is mixed with an excess of sodium chloride? The equation for the reaction isbelow.

AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)

A) 107.9 gB) 169.9 gC) 84.4 gD) 0.589 gE) 58.9 g

Answer: C

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following balanced equation.

Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(l) → 3Mg(OH)2(s) + 2NH3(g)

61) When 2.00 moles of H2O react, how many grams of NH3 are produced?A) 34.0 gB) 10.0 gC) 5.67 gD) 11.3 gE) 102 g

Answer: D

62) How many grams of H2O are needed to produce 150 g of Mg(OH)2 ?A) 46 gB) 18 gC) 130 gD) 93 gE) 23 g

Answer: D

63) Find the mass of AlCl3 that is produced when 25.0 grams of Al2O3 react with HCl according to the followingequation.

Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O(l)

A) 155 gB) 72.9 gC) 65.4 gD) 32.6 gE) 16.3 g

Answer: C

64) How many grams of NO are required to produce 145 g of N2 in the following reaction?

4NH3(g) + 6NO(g) → 5N2(g) + 6H2O(l)

A) 186 gB) 155 gC) 125 gD) 129 gE) 145 g

Answer: A

65) Find the mass of AlCl3 that is produced when 10.0 grams of Al2O3 react with 10.0 g of HCl according to thefollowing equation.

Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O(aq)

A) 16.2 gB) 20.0 gC) 12.2 gD) 10.0 gE) 6.10 g

Answer: C

66) When 10.0 g of NH3 reacts, the actual yield of N2 is 8.50 g. What is the percent yield?

4NH3(g) + 6NO(g) → 5N2(g) + 6H2O(l)

A) 85.0%B) 51.5%C) 20.6%D) 41.3%E) 8.5%

Answer: D

5.2 Bimodal Questions1) In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for hydrogen gas?

? H2 + ? O2 → ? H2O

A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: B

Barium chloride and sodium sulfate react according to the following equation.

BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl

Answer the question(s) that follow about this reaction.

2) How many moles of barium sulfate are produced from 0.100 mole of barium chloride?A) 0.0100 moleB) 0.100 moleC) 0.200 moleD) 1.00 moleE) 2.00 moles

Answer: B

3) How many grams of barium sulfate can be produced from 0.100 mole of barium chloride?A) 1.37 gB) 2.33 gC) 23.3 gD) 137 gE) 233 g

Answer: C

4) How many grams of barium chloride are needed to make 100. grams of barium sulfate?A) 44.9 gB) 89.3 gC) 208.3 gD) 233.3 gE) 46.6 g

Answer: B

Answer the question(s) that follow about the following reaction.

2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2

5) How many moles of oxygen gas can 30. g of hydrogen peroxide ( H2O2) produce, if decomposition iscomplete?

A) 0.50 moleB) 0.88 moleC) 1.0 moleD) 2.0 moleE) 0.44 mole

Answer: E

6) How many grams of water will 100. grams of hydrogen peroxide ( H2O2 → H2 + O2) produce?A) 3600 gB) 360. gC) 5.88 gD) 52.9 gE) 106 g

Answer: D

7) How many grams of hydrogen peroxide ( H2O2) are needed to produce 5.0 moles of water?A) 90. gB) 180 gC) 3060 gD) 306 gE) 170 g

Answer: E

5.3 Short Answer Questions1) The number of particles in 1 mole of hydrogen gas is ________.

Answer: 6.02 x 1023

2) The molar mass of copper(II) nitrate, Cu(NO3)2 is ________.

Answer: 187.6 g

3) What is the mass of 1 mole of helium gas?Answer: 4.00 g

4) Acetylene gas, C2H2, reacts with oxygen according to the following equation. If 2.00 moles of acetylene reactcompletely with sufficient oxygen, how many grams of carbon dioxide are produced?

2C2H2 + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O

Answer: 176 g

5.4 True/False Questions1) The molar mass of silver is 47 g.

Answer: FALSE

2) The molar mass of magnesium is 24.3 g.Answer: TRUE

3) The mass of one mole of water is 18.0 g.Answer: TRUE

4) The molar mass of chlorine gas is 35.5 g.Answer: FALSE

5) The molar mass of copper(II) chloride is 134.6 g.Answer: TRUE

6) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, 1 mole of oxygen gas can produce 2 molesof water, given sufficient hydrogen available.Answer: TRUE

5.5 Matching QuestionsIdentify each of the following transformations as a chemical or physical change.

1) Column 1: water evaporating

Column 2: physicalAnswer: physical

2) Column 1: a button falling off of a shirt


3) Column 1: silver tarnishing

Column 2: chemicalAnswer: chemical

4) Column 1: cutting the grass


5) Column 1: a nail rusting


6) Column 1: baking a cake


7) Column 1: placing photographs in ascrapbook


8) Column 1: formation of green leaves on aplant


Chapter 6 Energy and Matter6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) An example of kinetic energy isA) a coiled spring.B) running water.C) a tree.D) natural gas.E) chemical energy.

Answer: B

2) The energy associated with the motion of particles in a substance is calledA) temperature.B) electrical energy.C) heat.D) chemical energy.E) potential energy.

Answer: C

3) Which of the following is an example of potential energy?A) chewing foodB) water stored in a reservoirC) burning woodD) a fan blade turningE) riding an exercise bike

Answer: B

4) The phrase ʺability to do workʺ is a definition ofA) specific heat.B) energy.C) calorie.D) heating.E) cooling.

Answer: B

5) The energy stored in the chemical bonds of a carbohydrate molecule isA) specific heat.B) kinetic energy.C) potential energy.D) work.E) a calorie.

Answer: C

6) The energy of motion is referred to asA) work.B) freezing.C) specific heat.D) potential energy.E) kinetic energy.

Answer: E

7) Global warming is believed to result from all of the following exceptA) burning of fossil fuels.B) increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.C) deforestation.D) movement of the earth closer to the sun.E) carbon dioxide trapping the heat produced by the sun.

Answer: D

8) In which of the following would the particles move most rapidly?A) ice at -20°CB) water at 20°CC) steam at 110°CD) boiling waterE) ice at 0°C

Answer: C

9) How many calories are required to convert 17 g of ice at 0.0°C to liquid water at 32.0°C? The heat of fusion ofwater is 80. cal/g.

A) 43 000 calB) 540 calC) 1900 calD) 1400 calE) 80. cal

Answer: C

10) The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat needed toA) change 1 g of the substance from the solid to the liquid state.B) raise the temperature of 1 g of the substance by 1°C.C) change 1 g of the substance from the liquid to the solid state.D) convert 1 g of a liquid to gas.E) convert 1 g of a solid to a gas.

Answer: B

11) A kilocalorie of heat is required to raise the temperature ofA) 1 g of water from 14°C to 15°C.B) 1 g of water by 10°C.C) 10 g of water by 10°C.D) 100 g of water by 10°C.E) 100 g of water by 100°C.

Answer: D

12) How many calories are required to raise the temperature of a 35.0 g sample of iron from 25 °C to 35°C? Iron hasa specific heat of 0.106 cal/g °C.

A) 37 calB) 1.1 calC) 3.7 calD) 93 calE) 130 cal

Answer: A

13) How many calories are required to increase the temperature of 13 g of alcohol from 11°C to 23°C ? The specificheat of alcohol is 0.58 cal/g °C.

A) 83 calB) 0.63 calC) 90. calD) 0.54 calE) 170 cal

Answer: C

14) Which of the following quantities is NOT required to calculate the amount of heat energy required to heatwater from 25°C to 55°C?

A) the mass of the water sampleB) the initial temperatureC) the final temperatureD) the specific heat of waterE) the heat of vaporization for water

Answer: E

15) Raising the temperature of 10.0 g of water from 10.0°C to 20.0°C requires 100.0 cal of energy, while raising thetemperature of 10.0 g of aluminum from 10.0°C to 20.0°C requires 22 cal. More calories are required to heat thewater because

A) water is a liquid and aluminum is a solid at 10.0°C.B) ten grams of water occupies a larger volume than 10.0 g of aluminum.C) water has a greater potential energy than aluminum.D) water has a larger specific heat than aluminum.E) 10.0°C is closer to the melting point of water than to the melting point of aluminum.

Answer: D

16) The number of calories needed to raise the temperature of 32 g of water from 12 °C to 54°C isA) 384 cal.B) 1.3 cal.C) 1300 cal.D) 1700 cal.E) 0.76 cal.

Answer: C

17) A 2.5 g sample of french fries is placed in a calorimeter with 500.0 g of water at an initial temperature of 21 °C.After combustion of the french fries the water has a temperature of 48°C. What is the caloric value (kcal/g) ofthe french fries?

A) 14 kcal/gB) 11 kcal/gC) 0.14 kcal/gD) 4.2 kcal/gE) 5.4 kcal/g

Answer: E

18) A potato contains 20 g of carbohydrate. If carbohydrate has a caloric value of 4 kcal/g, how many kcal areobtained from the carbohydrate in the potato?

A) 5 kcalB) 20 kcalC) 40 kcalD) 60 kcalE) 80 kcal

Answer: E

19) A cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant contains 19 g of fat, 20 g of carbohydrate, and 28 g of protein. Howmany kcal of energy does the cheeseburger contain? (The accepted caloric values for foods are 4.0 kcal/g forcarbohydrate, 9 kcal/g for fat, and 4 kcal/g for protein.) Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

A) 70. kcalB) 360 kcalC) 17 kcalD) 630 kcalE) 280 kcal

Answer: B

20) A serving of fish contains 50 g protein and 4 g of fat. If protein has a caloric value of 4.0 kcal/g and fat has 9.1kcal/g, how many kcal are in the serving?

A) 240 kcalB) 54.0 kcalC) 470 kcalD) 220 kcalE) 486 kcal

Answer: A

21) A diet has a total caloric intake of 1400 kcal. The diet consists of 50% carbohydrate, 35% protein, and 15% fat.The number of kcal of protein in the diet is

A) 700 kcal.B) 490 kcal.C) 210 kcal.D) 460 kcal.E) 1200 kcal.

Answer: B

22) Which of the following is a property of a solid?A) It takes the shape of the container.B) It fills the volume of the container.C) The particles move at a rapid rate.D) The interactions between its particles are very weak.E) The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

Answer: E

23) Which of the following is a physical property of both liquids and gases?A) has its own shapeB) has a definite volumeC) has strong interactions between its particlesD) has randomly arranged particlesE) has large spaces between molecules

Answer: D

24) Which one of the following properties describes a liquid?A) has its own shapeB) particles are close together and move randomlyC) particles move very rapidlyD) fills the entire volume of the containerE) There is essentially no interaction between the particles.

Answer: B

25) The physical state(s) present when a substance is melting is (are)A) solid.B) liquid.C) gas.D) solid + liquid.E) liquid + gas.

Answer: D

26) If the heat of fusion for water is 80. cal/g, how many calories are needed to melt 45.0 g of ice at 0 °C?A) 3.6 calB) 3.6 x 103 calC) 1.8 calD) 80. calE) 0.56 cal

Answer: B

27) The formation of a gas resulting from the escape of high-energy particles from the surface of a liquid is knownas

A) evaporation.B) deposition.C) boiling.D) melting.E) sublimation.

Answer: A

28) When a solid is converted directly to a gas, the change of state is calledA) freezing.B) melting.C) boiling.D) condensation.E) sublimation.

Answer: E

29) A burn from steam at 100°C is expected to be more severe than a burn from boiling water at 100°C becauseA) the steam is hotter than the boiling water.B) there is more steam than water.C) the steam will give off a large amount of heat as it condenses.D) you are more likely to come into contact with the steam than with the boiling water.E) All of these answers are correct.

Answer: C

30) The heat of fusion for water is 80. cal/g. How many calories of heat are released when 20.0 g of water at 30. °Cis cooled to 0°C and frozen to ice at 0°C?

A) 600 calB) 1600 calC) 2000 calD) 2200 calE) 11,400 cal

Answer: D

31) If the heat of vaporization for water is 540 cal/g, how many kilocalories are released when 5.00 g of steam isconverted to liquid at 100°C?

A) 540 kcalB) 5.0 kcalC) 110 kcalD) 2.7 kcalE) 5.4 kcal

Answer: D

32) How many calories are required to warm 15.0 g of water from 75°C to 100.0°C and convert it to steam at100.0°C? The heat of vaporization of water is 540 cal/g.

A) 375 calB) 8500 calC) 8100 calD) 410 calE) 540 cal

Answer: B

33) In order to calculate the total number of calories needed to melt 1 g of a solid and then convert it to a gas, youmust know

A) the specific heat of the substance.B) the heat of fusion of the substance.C) the heat of fusion and the specific heat of the substance.D) the specific heat and the heat of vaporization of the substance.E) the heat of fusion, the specific heat, and the heat of vaporization of the substance.

Answer: E

34) The heat of fusion for water is 80. cal/g, and the heat of vaporization of water is 540 cal/g. How many caloriesare required to convert 10.0 g of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C?

A) 620 calB) 6,200 calC) 720 calD) 7,200 calE) 5,400 cal

Answer: D

35) Which of the following does NOT involve a change of state?A) melting iceB) freezing waterC) vaporization of alcoholD) sublimation of dry iceE) pouring water into a vacuum-insulated bottle

Answer: E

36) A heating curve illustratesA) what a substance looks like as it is heated.B) what happens to the particles of a substance as it is heated.C) what happens to the heat applied as the temperature is increased.D) the changes in the temperature and physical state of a substance as it is heated.E) the chemical changes that occur as the substance is heated.

Answer: D

37) Which of the following does NOT represent a step on the heating curve of water?A) The temperature of steam cannot exceed 100°C.B) The temperature of ice remains at 0°C as it melts.C) The temperature of liquid water increases linearly as it is heated.D) The temperature of liquid water remains at 100°C as it boils.E) Both liquid water and ice are present at 0°C.

Answer: A

38) In water, the melting point is unusually high because ofA) covalent bonds in the individual molecules.B) ionic bonds in the individual molecules.C) hydrogen bonding between the molecules.D) dispersion forces between the molecules.E) the heat content of the hydrogen-oxygen bonds.

Answer: C

39) One cup of kidney beans contains 15 g of protein, 1 g of fat, and 42 g of carbohydrate. How many kilocalories,to two significant figures, does this sample contain?

A) 60 kcalB) 88 kcalC) 230 kcalD) 240 kcalE) 520 kcal

Answer: D

40) In a liquid, the strength of the intermolecular interactions is consideredA) very weak.B) weak.C) moderate.D) strong.E) very strong.

Answer: D

41) In a gas, the distance between the particles isA) very close relative to the size of the molecules.B) close relative to the size of the molecules.C) fixed relative to the size of the molecules.D) small relative to the size of the molecules.E) very large relative to the size of the molecules.

Answer: E

42) The main interactions between molecules of hydrogen chloride are examples ofA) ionic bonds.B) covalent bonds.C) hydrogen bonds.D) dipole-dipole interactions.E) dispersion forces.

Answer: D

43) The main interactions between molecules of hydrogen H2 are examples ofA) ionic bonds.B) covalent bonds.C) hydrogen bonds.D) dipole-dipole interactions.E) dispersion forces.

Answer: E

44) Hydrogen bonds are a major factor in the structure ofA) DNA.B) hydrogen chloride.C) dry ice.D) air.E) table salt.

Answer: A

45) The specific heat of copper is 0.093cal/g °C, and the specific heat of silver is 0.057 cal/g °C. If 100 cal of heat isadded to one g of each metal at 25 °C, what is the expected result?

A) The copper will reach a higher temperature.B) The silver will reach a higher temperature.C) The two samples will reach the same temperature.D) The copper will reach a temperature lower than 25 °C.E) The silver will soften.

Answer: B

46) Water has a boiling point of 100°C, and alcohol has a boiling point of 78°C, even though water is a smallermolecule. This large difference in boiling point is due to

A) weak dispersion forces in the alcohol molecules.B) ionic bonds between the water molecules.C) covalent bonds in the ethanol molecules.D) stronger hydrogen bonds between the water molecules.E) stronger hydrogen bonds between the alcohol molecules.

Answer: D

47) The dietary calorie (Cal) is equal toA) 1000 kilocalories.B) 1000 calories.C) 100 calories.D) 10 calories.E) 1 calorie.

Answer: B

48) In an endothermic reaction,A) heat flows out of the system.B) energy is absorbed by the system.C) the temperature of the system increases.D) the products have less energy that the reactants.E) the products have the same energy that the reactants.

Answer: B

49) For the reaction: 2H2O(l) + 137 kcal → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)how many kcal are needed to form 2.00 moles O2 (g)?

A) 68.5 kcalB) 137 kcalC) 274 kcalD) 190. kcalE) 548 kcal

Answer: C

50) For the reaction: 2H2O(l) + 137 kcal → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)how many kcal are needed to react 50.0 g H2O(l)?

A) 380. kcalB) 137 kcalC) 274 kcalD) 190. kcalE) 760. kcal

Answer: D

6.2 Short Answer Questions1) The change of state from solid to gas is termed ________.

Answer: sublimation

2) A reaction in which heat is given off is termed ________.Answer: exothermic

3) The heat of fusion is the amount of heat necessary to change one gram of a substance from the solid to the________ state.Answer: liquid

4) The weakest type of force between particles of a substance is termed ________.Answer: dispersion forces

5) Are hydrogen bonds stronger or weaker than covalent bonds?Answer: weaker

6) Are dipole-dipole interactions weak or strong compared to ionic bonds?Answer: weak

7) The amount of heat necessary for one gram of a substance to change from the solid state to the liquid state isthe ________.Answer: heat of fusion

8) Will the caloric value of a 100. g hamburger be higher or lower than the caloric value of 100. g of sugar?Answer: higher.

9) When a liquid boils, the process by which the molecules leave its surface is called ________.Answer: evaporation

10) Will the caloric value of a 100.g hamburger be higher or lower than the caloric value of 100. g of cooking oil?Answer: lower

Bromine (Br2) has a freezing point of -7°C, and a boiling point of 60°C.Indicate the state or change of state occurring at each temperature.

11) 30°CAnswer: liquid

12) 60°CAnswer: boiling

13) -7°CAnswer: melting

14) -15°CAnswer: solid

15) 70°CAnswer: gas

6.3 True/False Questions1) As heat is removed from a solid, its temperature decreases.

Answer: TRUE

2) A reaction in which heat is given off is endothermic.Answer: FALSE

3) Water vapor is a gas.Answer: TRUE

4) When a liquid is boiling, its temperature does not change.Answer: TRUE

5) As a solid melts, its temperature does not change.Answer: TRUE

6) Steam at 100°C holds the same amount of heat as water at 100 °C.Answer: FALSE

7) Carbohydrates and proteins have the same caloric value per gram.Answer: TRUE

8) Condensation occurs when a liquid is converted to a solid.Answer: FALSE

6.4 Matching QuestionsIdentify the physical state(s) corresponding to labeled regions on the cooling curve of water shown below.

1) Column 1: A

Column 2: gasAnswer: gas

2) Column 1: B

Column 2: liquid and gas

Foil: solid and gasAnswer: liquid and gas

3) Column 1: C

Column 2: liquidAnswer: liquid

4) Column 1: D

Column 2: liquid and solidAnswer: liquid and solid

5) Column 1: E

Column 2: solidAnswer: solid

Match the state of matter with each of the following descriptions of a substance.

6) Column 1: Particles are held closetogether in a random pattern.

Column 2: liquidAnswer: liquid

7) Column 1: Great distances exist betweenthe particles.

Column 2: gasAnswer: gas

8) Column 1: This substance is boiling.

Column 2: liquid + gasAnswer: liquid + gas

9) Column 1: This material has a definitevolume, and a definite shape.

Column 2: solidAnswer: solid

10) Column 1: This substance is melting.

Column 2: solid + liquidAnswer: solid + liquid

Identify the energy associated with each of the labeled parts of the following diagram.

11) Column 1: Region A

Column 2: energy of reactantsAnswer: energy of reactants

12) Column 1: Region B

Column 2: activation energyAnswer: activation energy

13) Column 1: Region C

Column 2: heat of reactionAnswer: heat of reaction

14) Column 1: Region D

Column 2: energy of productsAnswer: energy of products

Identify the letter of the diagram corresponding to the given type of reaction.

A

B

15) Column 1: endothermic reaction

Column 2: Diagram BAnswer: Diagram B

16) Column 1: exothermic reaction

Column 2: Diagram AAnswer: Diagram A

Chapter 7 Gases7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is NOT part of the kinetic theory of gases?A) A gas is composed of very small particles.B) There is very little empty space in a gas.C) Gas particles move rapidly.D) Gas particles do not attract or repel one another.E) Gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

Answer: B

2) According to the kinetic theory of gases, a gas can be compressed much more than a liquid or solid becauseA) a gas is composed of very small particles.B) the particles of a gas are very far apart.C) gas particles move rapidly.D) gas particles do not attract or repel one another.E) gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

Answer: B

3) According to the kinetic theory of gases, particles of a gasA) are very large.B) are very far apart.C) lose their valence electrons.D) move slowly.E) decrease kinetic energy as temperature increases.

Answer: B

4) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, particles of a gas tend to move ________ and collisions betweenthem are ________.

A) rapidly; rareB) slowly; rareC) rapidly; elasticD) slowly; elasticE) slowly; unusual

Answer: C

5) The force of gas particles against the walls of a container is calledA) pressure.B) volume.C) temperature.D) quantity of gas.E) density.

Answer: A

6) Which measurement describes the pressure of a gas?A) 315 KB) 1.2 g/LC) 2.5 LD) 725 mm HgE) 0.45 moles

Answer: D

7) The unit of 1 atmosphere used to describe the pressure of a gas is equal toA) 1 mm Hg .B) 100 mm Hg.C) 200 mm Hg.D) 600 mm Hg.E) 760 mm Hg.

Answer: E

8) A 5.00-L tank contains helium gas at 1.50 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in mm Hg?A) 1.50 mm HgB) 507 mm HgC) 760 mm HgD) 1140 mm HgE) 7.5 mm Hg

Answer: D

9) The boiling point of water at sea level is 100°C. At higher altitudes, the boiling point of water will beA) lower, because temperatures are lower.B) lower, because the atmospheric pressure is lower.C) higher, because the altitude is greater.D) higher, because there are fewer water molecules in the air.E) the same, because water always boils at 100°C.

Answer: B

10) Vapor pressure can be described asA) the temperature at which bubbles of vapor appear in a liquid.B) the pressure exerted on the earth by the particles in the air.C) the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure.D) the pressure exerted by a gas above the surface of its liquid.E) the pressure within the lungs during inhalation.

Answer: D

11) An autoclave is used to sterilize surgical equipment becauseA) it allows water to boil at temperatures less than 100°C.B) it allows water to boil at 100°C at pressures less than 1 atm.C) it allows water to boil at 100°C at pressures greater than 1 atm.D) it allows water to boil at temperatures above 100°C.E) it provides very high temperatures and very low pressures.

Answer: D

12) According to Boyleʹs law, the pressure of a gas increases as the volume decreases becauseA) the gas particles get bigger.B) the kinetic energy of the gas particles increases.C) the temperature of the gas increases.D) the gas particles strike the walls of the container with more force.E) the gas particles strike the walls of the container more often.

Answer: E

13) Which of the following correctly describes the process of inspiration (air entering the lungs)?A) The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to decrease.B) The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to increase.C) The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to decrease.D) The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to increase.E) There is no change in the internal pressure in the lungs.

Answer: A

14) The volume of a gas with a pressure of 1.2 atm increases from 1.0 L to 4.0 L. What is the final pressure of thegas, assuming constant temperature?

A) 1.2 atmB) 0.30 atmC) 3.3 atmD) 4.8 atmE) 1.0 atm

Answer: B

15) The pressure of 5.0 L of gas increases from 1.50 atm to 1240 mm Hg. What is the final volume of the gas,assuming constant temperature?

A) 4100 LB) 5.0 LC) 0.0060 LD) 5.4 LE) 4.6 L

Answer: E

A balloon is filled with helium gas. For the question(s) that follow, select the letter of the balloon diagram that corresponds to the givenchange in conditions.

16) The balloon is put into a chamber whose pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure and at atmospherictemperature.

A) AB) BC) CD) A and BE) B and C

Answer: C

17) The temperature is changed from 50°C to -150°C at constant pressure.A) AB) BC) CD) A and BE) B and C

Answer: A

18) Complete the following statement: In Charlesʹ law, the volume of a gas ________ when the ________ decreases.A) increases; temperatureB) increases; quantity of gasC) increases; pressureD) decreases; temperatureE) decreases; pressure

Answer: D

19) What unit of temperature is used in gas law calculations?A) FahrenheitB) CelsiusC) KelvinD) either Celsius or FahrenheitE) either Celsius or Kelvin

Answer: C

20) The temperature of a 500. mL sample of gas increases from 150. K to 350. K. What is the final volume of thesample of gas, if the pressure in the container is kept constant?

A) 210. mLB) 1170 mLC) 0.0095 mLD) 0.0470 mLE) 110. mL

Answer: B

21) In Gay-Lussacʹs law, the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature becauseA) the molecules strike the walls of the container less often.B) the molecules strike the walls of the container more often.C) the molecules get bigger.D) there is a decrease in the volume of the container.E) there is an increase in the number of gas particles.

Answer: B

22) A gas contained in a steel tank has a pressure of 1.5 atm at a temperature of 320 K. What will be the gaspressure when the temperature changes to 450 K?


Answer: D

23) When the combined gas law is rearranged to solve for V2, the following is the correct expression: V2 =

A) T2T1V1/P2P1B) P1V1T2/P2T1C) P1V1T1/P2T2D) P2T2/P1V1T1E) P1V1/T1 - P2/T2

Answer: B

24) At 570. mm Hg and 25°C, a gas sample has a volume of 2270 mL. What is the final pressure (in mm Hg) at avolume of 1250 mL and a temperature of 175°C?

A) 1560 mm HgB) 210. mm HgC) 700. mm HgD) 690. mm HgE) 470. mm Hg

Answer: A

25) According to Avogradoʹs law,A) the volume of a gas is inversely related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure.B) the volume of a gas is inversely related to the number of moles at standard temperature and pressure.C) the volume of a gas depends only on the temperature and pressure.D) the volume of a gas depends only on the number of moles in the sample.E) the volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure.

Answer: E

26) At STP, temperature and pressure have the values ofA) 0 K and 1 atm.B) 273 K and 1 mm Hg.C) 273 K and 760 mm Hg.D) 0 K and 760 mm Hg.E) 760 K and 273 atm.

Answer: C

27) A gas sample contains 4.0 g of CH4 and 2.0 g of He. What is the volume of the sample at STP?A) 130 LB) 11 LC) 17 LD) 30. LE) 5.6 L

Answer: C

28) A diver exhales a bubble with a volume of 250 mL at a pressure of 2.4 atm and a temperature of 15 °C. What isthe volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface where the pressure is 1.0 atm and the temperature is27°C?

A) 580 mLB) 630 mLC) 100 mLD) 110 mLE) 1100 mL

Answer: B

29) How many moles of neon occupy a volume of 14.3 L at STP?A) 36.7 molesB) 32.0 molesC) 6.45 molesD) 0.638 molesE) 1.57 moles

Answer: D

30) 1 mole of a gas occupies 22.4 L atA) 0°C and 0.50 atm.B) 0°C and 760 mm Hg.C) 100°C and 1 atm.D) 100°C and 10 atm.E) 0 K and 1 atm.

Answer: B

31) At STP conditions, 11 g of SO2 have a volume ofA) 250 L.B) 3.8 L.C) 22 L.D) 0.0076 L.E) 130 L.

Answer: B

32) The total pressure in a mixture of gases is equal to the partial pressure(s) ofA) the gas with the greatest number of moles.B) the gas with the smallest number of moles.C) the gas with the highest molecular weight.D) the gas that occupies the largest volume.E) all the gases added together.

Answer: E

33) A cyclopropane-oxygen mixture is used as an anesthetic. If the partial pressure of cyclopropane in the mixtureis 330 mm Hg and the partial pressure of the oxygen is 1.0 atm, what is the total pressure of the mixture in torr?

A) 330 torrB) 430 torrC) 760 torrD) 1.4 torrE) 1100 torr

Answer: E

34) A tank contains helium gas at 490 mm Hg, nitrogen gas at 0.75 atm, and neon at 520 torr. What is the totalpressure in atm?

A) 2.1 atmB) 0.55 atmC) 1.0 x 103 atmD) 1.5 atmE) 1600 atm

Answer: A

35) Which of the following correctly describes the partial pressures of gases in the body?A) high O2, low CO2, oxygenated bloodB) high O2, low CO2, deoxygenated bloodC) high O2, high CO2, oxygenated bloodD) high O2, high CO2, tissueE) low O2, low CO2, deoxygenated blood

Answer: A

36) Which of the following is NOT a potential use for a hyperbaric chamber?A) treatment for burns and infectionsB) counteracting carbon monoxide poisoningC) increasing the rate at which a broken bone healsD) treating a diver with the bendsE) treating some cancers

Answer: C

37) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the assumption is made that gas moleculesA) move rapidly in random directions.B) are attracted to each other by strong forces.C) are close together in their container.D) move with a kinetic energy equal to their centigrade temperature.E) occasionally come to rest.

Answer: A

38) The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is directly proportional toA) the volume of the container.B) the mass of the individual gas molecules.C) the centigrade temperature of the gas.D) the number of molecules of gas in the sample.E) the Fahrenheit temperature of the gas.

Answer: D

39) As you rise higher in Earthʹs atmosphere, the atmospheric pressureA) increases.B) decreases.C) remains the same.

Answer: B

40) The air pressure on a rainy day is usually ________ air pressure on a sunny day.A) higher thanB) lower thanC) the same as

Answer: B

41) At constant temperature, a sample of helium at 760. torr in a closed container was compressed from 5.00 L to3.00 L. What was the new pressure exerted by the helium on its container?

A) 800. torrB) 2280 torrC) 15.0 torrD) 3800 torrE) 1270 torr

Answer: E

42) A gas sample in a closed, expandable container of initial volume 5.00 L was allowed to warm from 25 °C to35°C. What was its new volume?

A) 4.84 LB) 5.17 LC) 7.00 LD) 3.57 LE) 4380 L

Answer: B

43) A gas at 5.00 atm pressure was stored in a tank during the winter at 5.0 °C. During the summer, thetemperature in the storage area reached 40.0°C. What was the pressure in the gas tank then?


Answer: C

44) A sample of nitrogen gas had a volume of 500. mL, a pressure in its closed container of 740 torr, and atemperature of 25°C. What was the new volume of the gas when the temperature was changed to 50 °C and thenew pressure was 760 torr?

A) 530 mLB) 450 mLC) 970 mLD) 240 mLE) 400 mL

Answer: A

45) At STP, what is the volume of 4.50 moles of nitrogen gas?A) 167 LB) 3420 LC) 101 LD) 60.7 LE) 1230 L

Answer: C

46) At STP, how many moles of helium would occupy 1.00 L?A) 2.24 molesB) 224 molesC) 22.4 molesD) 0.446 molesE) 0.0446 moles

Answer: E

47) If atmospheric pressure on a certain day is 749 mm Hg, what is the partial pressure of nitrogen, given thatnitrogen is about 78% of the atmosphere?

A) 165 mm HgB) 584 mm HgC) 600 mm HgD) 749 mm HgE) 760 mm Hg

Answer: B

48) The mathematical expression of the ideal gas law isA) P1V1 = P2V2

B)P1T1 =

P2T2

C)P1V1 =

P2V2

D) PV = nRTE) PT = P1 + P2 + P3

Answer: D

49) A sample of argon at 300.°C and 50.0 atm pressure is cooled in the same container to a temperature of 0.00°C.What is the new pressure?

A) 105 atmB) 45.5 atmC) 54.9 atmD) 23.8 atmE) 42.7 atm

Answer: D

50) At STP, what is the volume of 1.00 mole of carbon dioxide?A) 1.00 LB) 44.0 LC) 273 LD) 22.4 LE) 12.2 L

Answer: D

7.2 Bimodal Questions1) The pressure exerted by the particles of vapor above a liquid is called the ________.

A) vapor pressureB) barometric pressureC) standard pressureD) molar pressureE) atmospheric pressure

Answer: A

2) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the distance between gas molecules is assumed to be ________the diameter of the gas molecules.

A) 22.4 timesB) small relative toC) dependent onD) approximately the same asE) large relative to

Answer: E

3) A barometer is a device for measuring ________.A) atmospheric pressureB) blood pressureC) gas pressure in a containerD) gas pressure in the lungE) vapor pressure

Answer: A

7.3 Short Answer Questions1) The use of high-pressure chambers to control disease processes is known as ________.

Answer: hyperbaric medicine

2) Nitrogen makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.Answer: 78

3) A barometer is usually filled with ________.Answer: mercury

4) One atmosphere is the same as ________ mm Hg.Answer: 760

5) The pressure unit 1 mm Hg is the same pressure unit as the pressure unit ________.Answer: 1 torr

7.4 True/False Questions1) STP stands for 0°C and 760 mm Hg.

Answer: TRUE

2) The volume of 1 mole of any gas at STP is 22.4 L.Answer: TRUE

3) The air we breathe is about 21% oxygen.Answer: TRUE

4) Carbon dioxide and water vapor together account for about 5% of the air we breathe.Answer: FALSE

5) During inspiration, we actually make use of 100% of the oxygen in the air we breathe.Answer: FALSE

6) In deoxygenated blood, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greater than the partial pressure of oxygen left.Answer: TRUE

7) Gas law calculations normally require the use of the Kelvin temperature scale.Answer: TRUE

8) At 0 K, all motion stops.Answer: TRUE

9) The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is inversely related to its Kelvin temperature.Answer: FALSE

10) The kinetic energy of a gas sample is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas.Answer: TRUE

7.5 Matching QuestionsIndicate the effect on the pressure of the following change.

1) Column 1: decrease in volume(n, T constant)

Column 2: increasesAnswer: increases

2) Column 1: removing some molecules ofgas

Column 2: decreasesAnswer: decreases

3) Column 1: The temperature is doubled.


4) Column 1: The volume and the Kelvintemperature are reduced byone-half.

Column 2: no changeAnswer: no change

5) Column 1: A leak occurs and gas escapes.


Match the correct formula with the gas law name given.

6) Column 1: Boyleʹs law

Column 2: P1V1 = P2V2

Foil: mass/volumeAnswer: P1V1 = P2V2

7) Column 1: Combined gas law

Column 2:P1V1T1

= P2V2T2

Answer:P1V1T1

= P2V2T2

8) Column 1: Charlesʹ law

Column 2:V1T1 =

V2T2

Answer:V1T1 =

V2T2

9) Column 1: ideal gas law

Column 2: PV = nRTAnswer: PV = nRT

10) Column 1: Avogadroʹs law

Column 2:V1n1 =

V2n2

Answer:V1n1 =

V2n2

11) Column 1: Gay-Lussacʹs law

Column 2:P1T1 =

P2T2

Answer:P1T1 =

P2T2

12) Column 1: Daltonʹs law

Column 2: PT = P1 + P2 + P3 ...

Answer: PT = P1 + P2 + P3 ...

Chapter 8 Solutions8.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) The O-H bond in water is polar becauseA) it is an ionic bond.B) oxygen is much more electronegative than hydrogen.C) oxygen occupies more space than hydrogen.D) hydrogen is much more electronegative than oxygen.E) it is a hydrogen bond.

Answer: B

2) A hydrogen bond isA) an attraction between a hydrogen atom attached to N, O, or F and an N, O, or F atom.B) a covalent bond between H and O.C) an ionic bond between H and another atom.D) a bond that is stronger than a covalent bond.E) the polar O-H bond in water.

Answer: A

3) In a solution, the solventA) is a liquid.B) can be a liquid or gas.C) can be a solid, liquid, or gas.D) is never a solid.E) is the substance present in the smallest concentration.

Answer: C

4) Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds?A) CH4B) NaHC) NH3D) BH3E) HI

Answer: C

5) A solution is prepared by dissolving 2 g of KCl in 100 g of H2O. In this solution, H2O is theA) solute.B) solvent.C) solution.D) solid.E) ionic compound.

Answer: B

6) Oil does not dissolve in water becauseA) oil is polar.B) oil is nonpolar.C) water is nonpolar.D) water is saturated.E) oil is hydrated.

Answer: B

7) When KCl dissolves in waterA) the Cl- ions are attracted to dissolved K+ ions.B) the Cl- ions are attracted to the partially negative oxygen atoms of the water molecule.C) the K+ ions are attracted to Cl- ions on the KCl crystal.D) the K+ ions are attracted to the partially negative oxygen atoms of the water molecule.E) the K+ ions are attracted to the partially positive hydrogen atoms of the water molecule.

Answer: D

8) Water is a polar solvent and hexane (C6H14) is a nonpolar solvent. Which of the following correctly describesthe solubility of the solute?

A) mineral oil, soluble in waterB) CaCl2, soluble in hexaneC) NaHCO3, soluble in waterD) CCl4 , soluble in waterE) octane, soluble in water

Answer: C

9) In water, a substance that ionizes completely in solution is called aA) weak electrolyte.B) nonelectrolyte.C) semiconductor.D) nonconductor.E) strong electrolyte.

Answer: E

10) An equivalent isA) the amount of ion that has a 1+ charge.B) the amount of ion that has a 1- charge.C) the amount of ion that carries 1 mole of electrical charge.D) 1 mole of any ion.E) 1 mole of an ionic compound.

Answer: C

11) How many equivalents are present in 5.0 g of Al3+?A) 15 EqB) 0.56 EqC) 0.19 EqD) 0.37 EqE) 3 Eq

Answer: B

12) An intravenous replacement solution contains 4.0 mEq/L of Ca2+ ions. How many grams of Ca2+ are in 3.0 Lof the solution?

A) 0.24 gB) 0.80 gC) 0.40 gD) 240 gE) 4.0 g

Answer: A

13) When some of the sugar added to iced tea remains undissolved at the bottom of the glass, the solution isA) dilute.B) polar.C) nonpolar.D) saturated.E) unsaturated.

Answer: D

14) The solubility of KI is 50 g in 100 g of H2O at 20°C. If 110 grams of KI are added to 200 grams of H2O,A) all of the KI will dissolve.B) the solution will freeze.C) the solution will start boiling.D) a saturated solution will form.E) the solution will be unsaturated.

Answer: D

15) An increase in the temperature of a solution usuallyA) increases the boiling point.B) increases the solubility of a gas in the solution.C) increases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution.D) decreases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution.E) decreases the solubility of a liquid solute in the solution.

Answer: C

16) Which one of the following compounds will NOT be soluble in water?A) NaOHB) PbSC) K2SO4D) LiNO3E) MgCl2

Answer: B

17) Which one of the following compounds will be soluble in water?A) AgClB) Cu(OH)2C) LiClD) CaSO4E) PbCO3

Answer: C

18) When solutions of KCl and Pb(NO3) 2 are mixed, a precipitate forms. Which of the following is the balancedequation for the double replacement reaction that occurs?

A) KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq) → KNO3(aq) + PbCl2(s)B) KNO3(aq) + PbCl2(s) → KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq)

C) K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → KNO3(aq)D) 2KCl (aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq) → 2 KNO3(aq) + PbCl2 (s)E) KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq) → KNO3(aq) + PbCl(s)

Answer: D

19) The mass/mass percent concentration refers toA) grams of solute in 1 kg of solvent.B) grams of solute in 1 kg of solution.C) grams of solute in 100 g of solvent.D) grams of solute in 100 g of solution.E) grams of solvent in 100 g of solution.

Answer: D

20) What is the concentration, in m/m%, of a solution prepared from 50.0 g NaCl and 150.0 g of water?A) 0.250%B) 33.3%C) 40.0%D) 25.0%E) 3.00%

Answer: D

21) Rubbing alcohol is 70.% isopropyl alcohol by volume. How many mL of isopropyl alcohol are in a 1 pint (473mL) container?

A) 70. mLB) 0.15 mLC) 680 mLD) 470 mLE) 330 mL

Answer: E

22) What is the concentration, in m/v%, of a solution prepared from 50. g NaCl and 2.5 L of water?A) 5.0%B) 2.0%C) 0.020%D) 0.050%E) 20.%

Answer: B

23) How many grams of glucose are needed to prepare 400. mL of a 2.0%(m/v) glucose solution?A) 800. gB) 0.0050 gC) 8.0 gD) 2.0 gE) 200. g

Answer: C

24) What volume (mL) of a 15% (m/v) NaOH solution contains 120 g NaOH?A) 18 mLB) 0.13 mLC) 13 mLD) 120 mLE) 8.0 x 102 mL

Answer: E

25) How many milliliters of a 25% (m/v) NaOH solution would contain 75 g of NaOH?A) 25 mLB) 75 mLC) 33 mLD) 19 mLE) 3.0 x 102 mL

Answer: E

26) A(n) ________ is a type of colloid in which a liquid is dispersed in another liquid or a solid.A) suspensionB) aerosolC) foamD) solE) emulsion

Answer: E

27) A homogeneous mixture that does not settle out upon standing isA) an element.B) a colloid.C) a suspension.D) homogeneous.E) hydrated.

Answer: B

28) In the process known as osmosis, ________ moves through a semipermeable membrane into an area of________ concentration.

A) solute; lower soluteB) solute; higher soluteC) solvent; lower soluteD) solvent; lower solventE) solvent; higher solvent

Answer: D

For the question(s) that follow, consider a 4% starch solution and a 10% starch solution separated by a semipermeable membrane.

29) Which starch solution will decrease in volume as osmosis occurs?A) 4%B) 10%C) Neither exerts osmotic pressure.D) They exert equal osmotic pressures.E) They exert opposite osmotic pressures.

Answer: A

30) The process that occurs in this system isA) filtration.B) hydration.C) neutralization.D) dialysis.E) osmosis.

Answer: E

31) Which of the following also occurs in this system?A) Water flows equally in both directions.B) There is a net flow of water from the 4% starch solution into the 10% starch solution.C) There is a net flow of water from the 10% starch solution into the 4% starch solution.D) Water does not cross the membrane at all.E) Starch moves out of the 10% starch solution into the 4% starch solution.

Answer: B

32) A solution with the same osmotic pressure as the blood isA) isotonic to the blood.B) hypotonic to the blood.C) hypertonic to the blood.D) nontonic to the blood.E) molar to the blood.

Answer: A

33) A solution that has an osmotic pressure less than that of red blood cells is calledA) saturated.B) hypertonic.C) isotonic.D) hypotonic.E) unsaturated.

Answer: D

34) A red blood cell will undergo crenation inA) water.B) 0.5% NaCl.C) 3% glucose.D) 5% glucose.E) 7% NaCl.

Answer: E

35) Which solution is isotonic to a red blood cell?A) waterB) 0.5% NaClC) 2% glucoseD) 0.9% NaClE) 10% glucose

Answer: D

36) A red blood cell will undergo hemolysis inA) water.B) 0.9% NaCl.C) 5% glucose.D) 5% NaCl.E) 10% glucose.

Answer: A

37) The process by which a semipermeable membrane allows water molecules, small molecules, and ions to passthrough while retaining large particles is called

A) osmotic pressure.B) dialysis.C) solvation.D) dilution.E) hydration.

Answer: B

38) An aqueous mixture containing starch (a colloid), NaCl, glucose, and albumin (a colloid) is placed in adialyzing bag and immersed in distilled water. Which of the following correctly describes the location of theindicated substance after dialysis?

A) albumin, insideB) starch outsideC) albumin inside and outsideD) water inside onlyE) starch inside and outside

Answer: A

39) What is the molarity of a solution that contains 17 g of NH3 in 0.50 L of solution?A) 34 MB) 2.0 MC) 0.50 MD) 0.029 ME) 1.0 M

Answer: B

40) When 200. mL of water are added to 100. mL of 12 % KCl solution the final concentration of KCl is (Assume thevolumes add)

A) 12 %.B) 4.0 %.C) 36 %.D) 6.0 %.E) 8.0 %.

Answer: B

41) The molarity (M) of a solution refers toA) moles of solute/L of solution.B) moles of solute/ L of solvent.C) moles of solute/100 mL of solution.D) grams of solute/100 mL of solution.E) grams of solute/L of solution.

Answer: A

42) What is the molarity of a solution containing 5.0 moles of KCl in 2.0 L of solution?A) 2.5 MB) 1.0 MC) 5.0 MD) 10. ME) 2.0 M

Answer: A

43) What is the molarity of a solution which contains 58.5 g of sodium chloride dissolved in 0.500 L of solution?A) 0.500 MB) 1.00 MC) 1.50 MD) 2.00 ME) 4.00 M

Answer: D

44) How many moles of CaCl2 are in 250 mL of a 3.0 M of CaCl2 solution?A) 750 molesB) 1.3 molesC) 83 molesD) 0.75 moleE) 3.0 moles

Answer: D

45) What volume of a 1.5 M KOH solution is needed to provide 3.0 moles of KOH?A) 3.0 LB) 0.50 LC) 2.0 LD) 4.5 LE) 0.22 L

Answer: C

46) During the process of diluting a solution,A) the amount of solute does not change.B) the amount of solvent does not change.C) there is more solute in the concentrated solution.D) the volume of the solution does not change.E) water is removed from the concentrated solution.

Answer: A

47) According to Henryʹs law, the solubility of a gas in a liquidA) decreases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases.B) increases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases.C) remains the same as the temperature increases.D) depends on the liquid polarity.E) depends on the liquid density.

Answer: B

48) Use the reaction: 2AgNO3(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Ag2SO4(s) + 2H2O(l)What volume of 0.123 M AgNO3(aq) is needed to form 0.657 g of Ag2SO4(s)?

A) 34.2 LB) 17.1 mLC) 34.2 mLD) 10.7 mLE) 53.4 mL

Answer: C

8.2 Bimodal Questions1) Acetic acid can be classified as a ________.

A) gasB) solidC) weak electrolyteD) strong electrolyteE) ionic compound

Answer: C

2) Using a kidney machine to remove waste products from the blood is known as ________.A) osmosisB) osmolysisC) autolysisD) hemolysisE) hemodialysis

Answer: E

3) A mixture in which one component settles is called a(n) ________.A) solutionB) colloidC) suspensionD) electrolyteE) nonelectrolyte

Answer: C

4) The molarity of a solution of 5.0 g of KCl in 100. mL of solution is ________.A) 0.038 MB) 0.067 MC) 0.67 MD) 0.13 ME) 1.3 M

Answer: C

5) If 100. mL of water is added to 25 mL of 5.0 M NaCl, the final concentration is ________.A) 25 MB) 1.0 MC) 5.0 MD) 2.0 ME) 1.3 M

Answer: B

8.3 Short Answer Questions1) Is barium sulfate, BaSO4, soluble or insoluble in water?

Answer: insoluble

2) In the following equation, ________ will precipitate out of water solution.

NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3

Answer: AgCl

3) In the following equation, ________ will precipitate from solution.

BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

Answer: BaSO4

4) The number of moles of a compound dissolved in one liter of a solution is called the ________.Answer: molarity

5) A substance that carries an electric current when dissolved in water is called a(n) ________.Answer: electrolyte

6) A substance that produces only a small number of ions in solution is known as a ________ electrolyte.Answer: weak

7) A solution of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, that has a molarity of 0.0100 M contains ________ equivalents ofcarbonate per liter of the solution.Answer: 0.0200

8) Substances whose particles in solution scatter light and pass through filters but cannot pass throughsemipermeable membranes are called ________.Answer: colloids

8.4 Matching QuestionsIdentify the term defined in each description.

1) Column 1: a solution that contains thehighest amount of solute thatdissolves at a giventemperature

Column 2: saturatedAnswer: saturated

2) Column 1: the major attraction betweenwater molecules

Column 2: hydrogen bondingAnswer: hydrogen bonding

3) Column 1: the association of severalwater molecules with ionsproduced in a solution

Column 2: hydrationAnswer: hydration

4) Column 1: a solution in which moresolute can be dissolved

Column 2: unsaturatedAnswer: unsaturated

5) Column 1: a solution that has a higherosmotic pressure than the redblood cells of the body

Column 2: hypertonic

Foil: hypotonicAnswer: hypertonic

Match the type of mixture with the appropriate characteristics.

6) Column 1: a mixture of sodium chloridein water

Column 2: solutionAnswer: solution

7) Column 1: a mixture whose particlessettle on standing

Column 2: suspensionAnswer: suspension

8) Column 1: a homogeneous mixture inwhich suspended particlescannot pass through asemipermeable membrane

Column 2: colloidAnswer: colloid

9) Column 1: a mixture whose particlescannot be separated by filtersor semipermeable membranes

Column 2: solutionAnswer: solution

10) Column 1: a mixture whose particles canbe separated by filters

Column 2: suspensionAnswer: suspension

Compare the osmotic pressure of these solutions to the osmotic pressure of red blood cells.

11) Column 1: water

Column 2: hypotonicAnswer: hypotonic

12) Column 1: 0.5% NaCl

Column 2: hypotonicAnswer: hypotonic

13) Column 1: 7% glucose

Column 2: hypertonicAnswer: hypertonic

14) Column 1: 5% glucose

Column 2: isotonicAnswer: isotonic

15) Column 1: 0.9% NaCl

Column 2: isotonicAnswer: isotonic

Indicate whether each of the following compounds dissolves in water to give ions, molecules, or both.

16) Column 1: NaCl, a strong electrolyte

Column 2: ionsAnswer: ions

17) Column 1: HI, a weak electrolyte

Column 2: bothAnswer: both

18) Column 1: CH3CH2OH, a nonelectrolyte

Column 2: moleculesAnswer: molecules

19) Column 1: KNO3, a strong electrolyte

Column 2: ionsAnswer: ions

20) Column 1: glucose, a nonelectrolyte

Column 2: moleculesAnswer: molecules

21) Column 1: H2CO3, a weak electrolyte

Column 2: bothAnswer: both

Chapter 9 Equilibrium9.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) A catalyst isA) a reactant in a chemical reaction.B) a product in a chemical reaction.C) a substance that speeds up a reaction without being consumed in the reaction.D) a substance that increases the energy of the products.E) a substance that decreases the energy of the products.

Answer: C

2) When a reaction is at equilibrium,A) all reaction stops.B) no more reactants are converted to products.C) the reaction is no longer reversible.D) the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate.E) the products and reactants have the same energy content.

Answer: D

3) For the following equilibrium reaction, which cause and effect are correctly matched?

CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) + heat

A) add heat, shift rightB) add CO, shift leftC) remove CH3OH, shift leftD) remove heat, no changeE) remove H2, shift left

Answer: E

4) The activation energy of a chemical reaction is the energy thatA) must be removed from the mixture.B) must be released from the mixture.C) initiates the reaction.D) activates the catalyst.E) is the difference in the energies of the starting materials and products.

Answer: C

5) A chemical reaction has reached equilibrium whenA) the concentrations of reactants and products are equal.B) all reactants have been converted to products.C) all products have been removed from the reaction mixture.D) the catalyst has been used up.E) the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

Answer: E

6) In a catalyzed chemical reaction, one function of a catalyst is toA) increase the number of successful reactant collisions.B) decrease the concentration of reactants.C) change the equilibrium concentrations of the products and reactants.D) increase the energy given off during the reaction.E) increase the temperature at which the reaction is carried out.

Answer: A

7) In the following reaction, what is the effect of adding more NO2 to the starting reaction mixture?

2NO2 ⇌ N2O4

A) It would make the reaction more endothermic.B) It would make the reaction more exothermic.C) It would slow the reaction down.D) It would decrease the final quantity of products.E) It would increase the final quantity of products.

Answer: E

8) The physiological equilibrium system that keeps the temperature of the body constant is called ________.A) stimulationB) regulationC) metabolismD) homeostasisE) catalysis

Answer: D

9) When you open a bottle of a soft drink and leave it open, the drink eventually goes flat. This happens becausethe equilibrium between carbonic acid and carbon dioxide shifts to produce

A) more carbonic acid.B) more water.C) more oxygen.D) more carbon dioxide.E) more hydrogen ions.

Answer: D

10) Iron metal reacts with oxygen gas to produce iron(III) oxide. What will be the effect of increasing the pressureof oxygen gas in a closed reaction vessel?

A) Less reaction will take place.B) More iron oxide will be produced.C) The reaction mixture will catch fire.D) There is no effect; a catalyst is needed.E) The rate of production of iron oxide will slow down.

Answer: B

11) In the following reaction, what is the effect on the direction of the reaction if more SO3 is added to the reactionmixture?

2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3

A) The equilibrium shifts to produce more products.B) The position of the equilibrium remains unchanged.C) The rate of formation of products is increased.D) The equilibrium shifts to produce more reactants.E) The catalyst for the reaction is used up.

Answer: D

12) In the following reaction, Kc is much less than 1. At equilibrium, which of the following statements is true?

COCl2 ⇌ CO + Cl2

A) The concentration of reactant is much greater than the concentration of products.B) The concentration of products is much greater than the concentration of reactants.C) The concentrations of products and reactants are approximately equal.D) A catalyst will increase the concentration of products formed.E) At equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products are equal.

Answer: A

13) In the reaction of nitrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce nitrogen oxide, what is the effect of adding moreoxygen gas to the initial reaction mixture? The reaction is shown below.

N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

A) The equilibrium shifts to produce more N2.B) The equilibrium shifts to produce more NO.C) The equilibrium is not affected.D) Extra catalyst is required to reach equilibrium.E) The temperature of the reaction mixture is raised.

Answer: B

14) The equilibrium constant for the production of carbon dioxide from carbon monoxide and oxygen isKc = 2 × 1011. This means that the reaction mixture at equilibrium is likely to consist of

A) mostly starting materials.B) an equal mixture of products and reactants.C) twice as much starting material as product.D) twice as much product as starting material.E) mostly products.

Answer: E

15) Which of the following equilibrium constants indicates the reaction that gives the smallest amount of product?A) Kc = 5 × 10-10

B) Kc = 5 × 10-1

C) Kc = 5 × 100

D) Kc = 5 × 101

E) Kc = 5 × 1010

Answer: A

16) The reaction of hemoglobin with oxygen can be written as follows.

Hb + O2 ⇌ HbO2

If the amount of oxygen available to the blood decreases significantly, what happens to the individualinvolved?

A) Hypoxia results.B) Anemia results.C) Nitrogen narcosis results.D) Oxygen poisoning results.E) Acclimatization results.

Answer: A

17) What is the correct form for the equilibrium constant for this reaction?

H2(g) + F2(g) ⇌ 2 HF(g)

A) HFH2 F2

B) HF 2H2 F2

C)H2 F2HF

D)H2 F2HF 2

E)H2 F22 HF

Answer: B

18) The rate of any chemical reaction can be determined by observingA) the amount of product formed in a unit of time.B) the ratio of product concentration to reactant concentration.C) the percent composition of the final product.D) the theoretical yield of the reaction.E) the number of chemical bonds broken and remade.

Answer: A

19) In any chemical reaction, the rate of the reaction can be increased byA) decreasing the temperature.B) changing the size of the container.C) adding water to the reaction.D) adding product molecules to the reaction mixture.E) increasing the concentrations of the reactants.

Answer: E

20) Refrigerating perishable foods affects biochemical reactions byA) increasing concentrations of antioxidants.B) removing bacteria.C) decreasing the rate of reactions affecting spoilage.D) catalyzing the removal of harmful chemicals from the foods.E) improving the appearance of the foods.

Answer: C

21) In a catalytic converter in an automobile, the reaction of carbon monoxide with oxygen produces ________.A) carbon dioxideB) carbon and more oxygenC) waterD) methaneE) nitrogen oxide

Answer: A

22) One metal that is used as a catalyst in a catalytic converter in an automobile is ________.A) carbonB) ironC) copperD) platinumE) plutonium

Answer: D

23) A reaction that can proceed in either the forward or the reverse direction as written is called a ________reaction.

A) reversibleB) minisculeC) microscopicD) solid phaseE) favored

Answer: A

24) For the equilibrium reaction of carbon dioxide with water, what is the appropriate equation?A) H2O + CO ⇌ H2CO3B) H2O + 2CO2 ⇌ H2CO3C) H2O + CO2 ⇌ H2CO3D) H2O + CO2 ⇌ HCO3E) H2O + CO2 ⇌ H2CO2

Answer: C

25) What is the correct form of the equilibrium constant for the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen to form water?The equation is:

2H2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ H2O(g)

A) Kc = [H2O]

[O2] [H2]2

B) Kc = [H2O]

[O2] [H2]

C) Kc = [H2O]

[O2] [H22]

D) Kc = [H2O]

[O2] [2H2]

E) Kc = [H2O]2

[O2] [H22]

Answer: A

26) The equilibrium constant for the formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is 1.6 × 102. What is theform of the equilibrium constant?

A) [NH3]2

[N2] [H2]3

B) [NH3]

[N2] [H2]3

C) [NH3]2

[N2] [H2]

D) [NH3]2

[N2] [3H2]3

E) [2NH3]2

[N2] [H2]3

Answer: A

27) The reaction for the decomposition of PCl5 to chlorine and PCl3 is shown below.

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

If the equilibrium concentrations are [PCl5] = 1.0 M, [PCl3] = 0.10 M, [Cl2] = 0.10 M, what is the value of theequilibrium constant?

A) 1.0 × 10-2

B) 1.0 × 10-4

C) 10 × 10-2

D) 1.0 × 102

E) 2.0 × 10-2

Answer: A

28) The equilibrium for the reaction for the decomposition of PCl5 to chlorine and PCl3 is 0.042.

PCl5(g)⇌ PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g)

If the equilibrium concentrations are [PCl3] = 0.010 M, [Cl2] = 0.10 M, what is the value of [PCl5]?A) 0.010MB) 0.0020MC) 0.042MD) 0.024ME) 0.0010M

Answer: D

29) PCl5 (g)⇌ PCl3 (g)+ Cl2 (g)

For the reaction at equilibrium, if the volume of the container is increased, the amount of PCl5 present willA) decrease.B) increase.C) double.D) stay the same.E) triple.

Answer: A

30) The value of the equilibrium constant for the combination of nitrogen and oxygen to make NO is 2 × 10-9.What does this tell you about the concentrations of materials in the equilibrium mixture?

A) The concentration of products exceeds the concentration of reactants.B) The concentrations of reactants and products are equal.C) The reactants are solids.D) The concentration of reactants exceeds the concentration of products.E) The products are solids.

Answer: D

31) Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin 140 times more strongly than oxygen does. What does this tell youabout the equilibrium constants for the two reactions of hemoglobin with carbon monoxide and oxygen?

A) The equilibrium constant for the binding of CO is greater.B) The equilibrium constant for the binding of oxygen is greater.C) The concentration of carbon monoxide at equilibrium is twice that of oxygen.D) Oxygen and carbon monoxide have the same formula mass.E) Oxygen and carbon monoxide react with hemoglobin in different fashions.

Answer: A

32) Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning can be accomplished by the use of pure oxygen for breathing. This isan example of the use of ________ in a clinical setting.

A) the ideal gas lawB) Le Chatelierʹs principleC) Henryʹs lawD) conservation of massE) a precipitation reaction

Answer: B

33) In the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to give ammonia, all the reactants and products are ________.A) gasesB) liquidsC) solidsD) boilingE) frozen

Answer: A

34) In the reaction of carbon dioxide with water to give carbonic acid, the only gaseous component is the carbondioxide. What will happen to the equilibrium concentration of carbonic acid if the pressure of carbon dioxide isincreased in the container?

A) The concentration of carbonic acid will increase.B) The carbonic acid concentration will decrease.C) The carbonic acid concentration will stay the same.D) There will be twice as much carbonic acid as carbon dioxide.E) There will be more water available for the reaction.

Answer: A

35) In an exothermic reaction, heat can be considered a ________.A) reactantB) productC) rateD) catalystE) determinant

Answer: B

36) An equilibrium in which all the components are gases is a ________ equilibrium.A) heterogeneousB) liquidC) catalyticD) homogeneousE) reversible

Answer: D

37) For the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide to make carbon monoxide, the reaction is as follows.

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

This is an example of a ________ equilibrium.A) heterogeneousB) homogeneousC) gasD) catalyticE) irreversible

Answer: A

38) For the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide to make carbon monoxide, the reaction is as follows. Write theform of the Kc.

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

A) Kc = [CO][CO2]

B) Kc = [2CO]2[CO2]

C) Kc = [CO]2[CO2]

D) Kc = [CO]2

[C] [CO2]

E) Kc = [2CO][CO2]

Answer: C

39) For the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide to make carbon monoxide, one set of conditions produced a Kc =

1.2 × 10-1. At equilibrium at a certain temperature, the concentration of product was 0.60 M. What was theconcentration of carbon dioxide at that temperature?

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

A) 3.0 MB) 0.60 MC) 0.36 MD) 3.33 ME) 5.0 M

Answer: A

40) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. If the concentration ofboth products is 0.10 M at equilibrium, what is the concentration of the starting material, NOBr?

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g)

A) 5 × 10-4 MB) 2.2 × 10-4 MC) 5 × 10-2 MD) 2.2 × 10-2 ME) 2.2 M

Answer: D

41) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. The reaction isendothermic. What do you expect to happen to the concentration of NO if the temperature is doubled?


A) The concentration of NO will increase.B) The concentration of NO will decrease.C) There will be no change in [NO].D) A catalyst will be needed to make a change in concentration.E) The change in concentration of [NO] will depend on the size of the vessel.

Answer: A

42) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. Bromine can be liquefiedeasily and removed from the reaction vessel as it is formed. If this is done, how will it affect the equilibriumreaction?


A) More products will be made as Br2 is removed.B) There will be a larger proportion NOBr in the vessel when equilibrium is reached.C) Less NO will be made.D) The pressure in the vessel will increase.E) The equilibrium constant will change.

Answer: A

9.2 Bimodal Questions1) Any reaction that absorbs 150 kcal of energy can be classified as ________.

A) endothermicB) exothermicC) activatedD) reductionE) oxidation

Answer: A

2) The ________ is the energy difference between reactants and products in a chemical reaction.A) transition energyB) activation energyC) product energyD) overall energyE) heat of reaction

Answer: E

3) What is the correct form of the equilibrium constant for this reaction?

2H2O2 (g) ⇌ 2H2O (g) + O2 (g)

A)H2OH2O2

B)O2 H2O 2

H2O22

C)H2O 2

H2O2

D)H2O O2H2O2

Answer: B

4) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. Write the form of theequilibrium constant, Kc.


A) [Br2] [NO]2

[NOBr]2

B) [Br2] [NO]

[NOBr]2

C) [Br2] [NO]2

[NOBr]

D) [Br2] [NO][NOBr]

E) [Br] [NO][NOBr]

Answer: A

9.3 Matching QuestionsIndicate the effect of each change upon the rate of a reaction.

1) Column 1: adding a catalyst


2) Column 1: removing some reactant


3) Column 1: The temperature is doubled.


4) Column 1: The concentration of a reactantis decreased.


5) Column 1: More collisions betweenmolecules occur.


9.4 True/False Questions1) An equilibrium constant greater than 1 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors formation of the

products.Answer: TRUE

2) An equilibrium constant Kc = 1 × 107 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors product formation.

Answer: TRUE

3) An equilibrium constant Kc = 1 × 10-3 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors product formation.

Answer: FALSE

4) If the equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 × 10-5, this means that the reaction does not proceed well toproducts.Answer: TRUE

5) Activation energy is always a large amount of energy.Answer: FALSE

6) At equilibrium, the concentrations of the reactants and products are always equal.Answer: FALSE

7) The rate of a chemical reaction depends on temperature.Answer: TRUE

8) The rate of a chemical reaction is not affected by the concentration of reactants.Answer: FALSE

9) A catalyst for a chemical reaction affects the magnitude of the equilibrium constant.Answer: FALSE

10) One of the substances acted upon by a catalytic converter in an automobile is carbon dioxide.Answer: FALSE

11) A heterogeneous equilibrium is one in which the reactants and products are found in two or more physicalstates.Answer: TRUE

12) An example of a stress on an equilibrium is the increase of pressure in a closed system when the pressure of areactant gas is increased from 1.0 atm to 2.0 atm.Answer: TRUE

13) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction.Answer: TRUE

9.5 Short Answer Questions1) The rule or principle that describes the effect of changing reaction conditions on an equilibrium is known as

________ principle.Answer: LeChatelierʹs

2) A mixture at equilibrium that contains less product than reactant has a Kc that is ________ than 1.

Answer: less

3) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to give ammonia, NH3.

Answer:NH3 2

N2 H2 3

4) The equilibrium between hemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin in the blood can be represented by the followingreaction. Write the form of the equilibrium constant expression.

Hb + O2 ⇌ HbO2

Answer: Kc = [HbO2][Hb] [O2]

5) An equilibrium constant with a value greater than 1 means the reaction favors the ________.Answer: products

Chapter 10 Acids and Bases10.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) According to the Arrhenius concept, if NaOH were dissolved in water, it would act asA) a base.B) an acid.C) a source of hydronium ions.D) a source of H- ions.E) a proton donor.

Answer: A

2) According to the Arrhenius concept, if HNO3 were dissolved in water, it would act asA) a base.B) an acid.C) a source of hydroxide ions.D) a source of H- ions.E) a proton acceptor.

Answer: B

3) The name given to an aqueous solution of HBr isA) hydrogen bromide.B) hydrobromic acid.C) bromic acid.D) bromous acid.E) hypobromous acid.

Answer: B

4) The name given to an aqueous solution of HNO3 isA) nitric acid.B) nitrous acid.C) hydrogen nitrate.D) hydronitrogen acid.E) hyponitric acid.

Answer: A

5) Which one of the following is characteristic of a base?A) produces H3O+ in waterB) has a sour tasteC) has a slippery, soapy feelD) turns blue litmus redE) is insoluble in water

Answer: C

6) According to the Bronsted-Lowry definition,A) an acid is a proton acceptor.B) a base produces H+ ions in aqueous solutions.C) a base is a proton donor.D) a base is a proton acceptor.E) an acid acts as the solvent.

Answer: D

7) Identify the Bronsted-Lowry acid in the following reaction.H2O + CO32- → HCO3- + OH-

A) H2O

B) CO32-

C) HCO3-

D) OH-

E) H2CO3Answer: A

8) The correct formula for sulfuric acid isA) H2SO4.B) H2SO3.

C) H2SO4-.

D) H2SO3-.

E) SO42-.

Answer: A

9) The name of Al(OH)3 isA) aluminum trihydroxide.B) monoaluminum trihydroxide.C) aluminum hydroxide.D) aluminum(III) hydroxide.E) aluminum oxygen hydride.

Answer: C

10) Which of the following statements correctly describes the hydronium-hydroxide balance in the given solution?A) In acids, [OH-] is greater than [H3O+].

B) In bases, [OH-] = [H3O+].

C) In neutral solutions, [H3O+] = [H2O].

D) In bases, [OH-] is greater than [H3O+].

E) In bases, [OH-] is less than [H3O+].

Answer: D

11) For Kw, the product of [H3O+] and [OH-] is

A) 1.0 x 10-14.B) 1.0 x 10-7.C) 1.0 x 10-1.D) 1.0.E) 1.0 x 1014.

Answer: A

12) What is the [H3O+] in a solution with [OH-] = 1 x 10-12 M?

A) 1 x 10-12 MB) 1 x 102 MC) 1 x 10-7 MD) 1 x 10-8 ME) 1 x 10-2 M

Answer: E

13) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a [H3O+] = 1 x 10-6 M?

A) 1 x 10-2 MB) 1 x 10-6 MC) 1 x 10-8 MD) 1 x 10-10 ME) 1 x 10-12 M

Answer: C

14) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a [H3O+] = 2.0 x 10-4 M?

A) 2.0 x 10-10 MB) 5.0 x 10-10 MC) 1.0 x 10-10 MD) 2.0 x 10-4 ME) 5.0 x 10-11 M

Answer: E

15) A solution with a pH of 4 isA) extremely acidic.B) moderately acidic.C) neutral.D) slightly basic.E) extremely basic.

Answer: B

16) What is the pH of a solution with [H3O+] = 1 x 10-9 M?

A) 1.0 x 10-5 MB) -9.0C) 5.0D) -5.0E) 9.0

Answer: E

17) What is the pH of a solution with [H3O+] = 3.0 x 10-3 M?

A) 3.0 x 10-3B) 2.52C) 3.0D) -2.52E) 9.0

Answer: B

18) What is the pH of a solution with [OH-] = 1 x 10-4 M?A) 10.0B) -10.0C) 4.0D) -4.0E) 1.0 x 10-10

Answer: A

19) What is the pH of a solution with [OH-] = 2.0 x 10-10 M?A) 9.70B) -9.70C) 4.30D) -4.30E) 2.0 x 10-10

Answer: C

20) The [H3O+] of a solution with pH = 2 isA) 10 M.B) -10 M.C) 1 x 102 M.D) 1 x 10-2 M.E) 1 x 10-12 M.

Answer: D

21) In which of the following are the pH values arranged from the most basic to the most acidic?A) 1, 3, 6, 8, 11, 14B) 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11C) 14, 10, 7, 4, 3, 1D) 14, 10, 7, 1, 3, 5E) 7, 10, 14, 4, 3, 1

Answer: C

22) Which of the following is the strongest acid?A) H3PO4B) NH4+

C) NaOHD) H2CO3E) HCl

Answer: E

23) Which of the following is the strongest base?A) H3PO4B) NH3C) NaOHD) NaClE) HCl

Answer: C

24) Which of the following is correctly identified?A) NH3, strong acidB) NaOH, strong baseC) HCl, weak acidD) H2CO3, strong acidE) Ca(OH)2, weak base

Answer: B

25) Ammonium hydroxide is a weak base becauseA) it is a dilute solution.B) it is only slightly soluble in water.C) it cannot hold on to its hydroxide ions.D) it dissociates only slightly in water.E) it is completely ionized in aqueous solution.

Answer: D

26) An acid and base react to form a salt and water in a(n) ________ reaction.A) ionizationB) dissociationC) oxidationD) neutralizationE) reduction

Answer: D

27) In a neutralization reactionA) two acids react to form water.B) water and a salt react to form an acid and a base.C) an acid and a salt react to form water and a base.D) a base and a salt react to form water and an acid.E) an acid and a base react to form a salt and water.

Answer: E

28) Which of the following is the correctly balanced equation for the complete neutralization of H3PO4 withCa(OH)2?

A) H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHPO4 + 2H2OB) 3H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 5H2OC) H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + H2OD) 2H3PO4 + 3Ca(OH)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H2OE) 4H3PO4 + 6Ca(OH)2 → 2Ca3(PO4)2 + 12H2O

Answer: D

29) The neutralization reaction between Al(OH)3 and HNO3 produces the salt with the formulaA) H2O.B) AlNO3.C) AlH2.D) Al(NO3)3.E) NO3OH.

Answer: D

30) How many moles of H2O are produced when 1 mole of Mg(OH)2 reacts with 1 mole of H2SO4?A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

Answer: B

31) Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?A) KCl + NaNO3 → KNO3 + NaClB) HNO3 + KOH → H2O + KNO3C) H2O + SO3 → H2SO4D) 4Na + O2 → 2Na2OE) 2NO2 → 2NO + O2

Answer: B

32) The function of a buffer is toA) change color at the end point of a titration.B) maintain the pH of a solution.C) be a strong base.D) maintain a neutral pH.E) act as a strong acid.

Answer: B

33) The normal blood pH is aboutA) 6.8.B) 7.0.C) 7.2.D) 7.4.E) 7.6.

Answer: D

34) In a buffer system of HF and its salt, NaF,A) the HF neutralizes added acid.B) the HF neutralizes added base.C) the HF is not necessary.D) the F- neutralizes added H2O.

E) the F- neutralizes added base.Answer: B

35) Which of the following is a buffer system?A) NaCl and NaNO3B) HCl and NaOHC) H2CO3 and KHCO3D) NaCl and NaOHE) H2O and HCl

Answer: C

36) Which of the following could be a buffer?A) NaFB) HF + NaFC) HF + H2OD) NaF + H2OE) NaCl + HF

Answer: B

37) What is the name of the medical condition of an asthmatic patient with a blood pH of 7.30?A) respiratory acidosisB) respiratory alkalosisC) metabolic acidosisD) metabolic alkalosisE) diabetes mellitus

Answer: A

38) If a condition of hypoventilation occurs, the blood pH of the patient is expected toA) saturate.B) increase.C) decrease.D) stay the same.E) concentrate.

Answer: C

39) When hyperventilation (rapid breathing) causes a patient to exhale large amounts of CO2, the blood pH rises ina condition called

A) metabolic acidosis.B) metabolic alkalosis.C) respiratory acidosis.D) respiratory alkalosis.E) pulmonary distress.

Answer: D

40) What is the molarity of a KOH solution if 25.0 mL neutralizes 35.0 mL of a 0.200 M HCl solution?A) 0.267 MB) 0.143 MC) 0.200 MD) 0.280 ME) 0.100 M

Answer: D

41) A 25.0 mL sample of H3PO4 requires 50.0 mL of 1.50 M NaOH for complete neutralization. What is themolarity of the acid?

H3PO4 + 3NaOH → Na3PO4 + 3H2O

A) 0.333 MB) 3.00 MC) 1.50 MD) 1.00 ME) 0.750 M

Answer: D

42) A 25.0 mL sample of H2SO4 requires 20.0 mL of 2.00 M KOH for complete neutralization. What is themolarity of the acid?

H2SO4 + 2KOH → K2SO4 + 2H2O

A) 2.00 MB) 2.50 MC) 0.800 MD) 1.60 ME) 1.25 M

Answer: C

43) How many milliliters of 0.400 M NaOH are required to completely neutralize 20.0 mL of 0.200 M HCl?A) 50.0 mLB) 40.0 mLC) 0.100 mLD) 20.0 mLE) 10.0 mL

Answer: E

44) How many milliliters of 0.200 M NaOH are required to completely neutralize 5.00 mL of 0.100 M H3PO4?A) 7.50 mLB) 2.50 mLC) 0.833 mLD) 5.00 mLE) 15.0 mL

Answer: A

45) How many milliliters of 0.100 M Ba(OH)2 are required to neutralize 20.0 mL of 0.250 M HCl?A) 100. mLB) 50.0 mLC) 25.0 mLD) 0.250 mLE) 0.50 mL

Answer: C

46) The Ka for hydrofluoric acid is 7.2 x 10-4. This means that HF isA) neutral in water solution.B) able to react with HCl.C) a weak acid.D) a strong acid.E) ionic.

Answer: C

47) In a sulfuric acid solution, where the H2SO4 is .005 M, what is the pH?A) pH = 12B) pH = 2C) pH = 3D) pH = 11E) pH = 5

Answer: B

48) When a piece of magnesium metal is added to hydrochloric acid, what gas is produced?A) oxygenB) chlorineC) nitrogenD) carbon dioxideE) hydrogen

Answer: E

49) The salt made from a weak acid and a strong base should give a solution ofA) high concentration.B) low concentration.C) pH > 7.D) pH < 7E) pH = 7.

Answer: C

For the problem(s) that follow, consider the reaction in which magnesium reacts with an HCl solution .

Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)

50) If 2.00 g of Mg reacts completely with 50.0 mL of HCl solution, what is the molarity of the HCl solution?A) 1.65 MB) 80.0 MC) 8.00 MD) 0.823 ME) 3.29 M

Answer: E

10.2 Short Answer Questions1) The conjugate acid of HPO42- is ________.

Answer: H2PO4-

2) Write the proper Ka expression for the ionization of acetic acid, CH3COOH.

Answer: Ka = CH3COO- H3O+ / CH3COOH

3) If an acid has a Ka << 1, is it classified as a weak acid or a strong acid?

Answer: a weak acid

4) Is a solution of sodium phosphate in water acidic or basic?Answer: basic

5) What is the pH of a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate?Answer: 3.74

6) In a titration experiment, a student used 24.13 mL of 0.111 M sodium hydroxide to neutralize 20.00 mL of ahydrochloric acid solution. What was the molarity of the acid solution?Answer: 0.134 M

7) A student had 2.0 L of a sodium hydroxide solution that had a concentration of 0.4000 M. The student neededto make 500 mL of a 0.1000 M solution. How many mL of the concentrated solution was needed?Answer: 125 mL

8) A student had 25.0 mL of 0.100 M H2SO4 solution. How many mL of a 0.100 M NaOH solution will thesulfuric acid neutralize?Answer: 50.0 mL

10.3 True/False Questions1) If the carbon dioxide level in the blood is too high, more carbonic acid is produced, and this results in the

condition termed acidosis.Answer: TRUE

2) Alkalosis is the blood condition in which the blood pH is higher than normal.Answer: TRUE

3) A buffer is a solution that tends to maintain a neutral pH.Answer: FALSE

4) In any water solution, H3O+ OH- = 1.0 x 10-7.

Answer: FALSE

5) An ammonium chloride solution should have an acidic pH.Answer: TRUE

6) Magnesium metal is not attacked by sulfuric acid solutions.Answer: FALSE

7) Sodium carbonate gives a basic solution in water.Answer: TRUE

8) For most reactions of acids with bases, the resulting products are a salt and water.Answer: TRUE

10.4 Matching QuestionsIdentify each of the following compounds as an acid, a base, or neither.

1) Column 1: HCl

Column 2: acidAnswer: acid

2) Column 1: NaOH

Column 2: baseAnswer: base

3) Column 1: NH3


4) Column 1: H2SO4


5) Column 1: CO32-


6) Column 1: NaCl


7) Column 1: CN-


8) Column 1: H2CO3


In the following solutions, is the [OH-] greater than, less than, or equal to the [H3O+]?

9) Column 1: acid

Column 2: less thanAnswer: less than

10) Column 1: base

Column 2: greater thanAnswer: greater than

11) Column 1: [H3O+] = 1.0 x 10-6 M


12) Column 1: [H3O+] = 1.0 x 10-10 M


13) Column 1: [H3O+] = 1.0 x 10-7 M

Column 2: equal toAnswer: equal to

14) Column 1: pH = 2


15) Column 1: pH = 9


Identify the following as acids, bases, or neutral solutions.

16) Column 1: has a sour taste


17) Column 1: has a pH = 4.5


18) Column 1: turns blue litmus paper red


19) Column 1: contains more hydronium ionsthan hydroxide ions


20) Column 1: H2O

Column 2: neutralAnswer: neutral

21) Column 1: [H3O+] = 3.4 x 10-5 M


22) Column 1: [OH-]= 2.8 x 10-2 M


23) Column 1: Ca(OH)2


24) Column 1: pH =9.0


25) Column 1: [H3O+] = 1.0 x 10-7 M

Column 2: neutralAnswer: neutral

Chapter 11 Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes11.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms are calledA) isomers.B) isotopes.C) indicators.D) isozymes.E) isometrics.

Answer: A

2) Which of the following is true of nonane, C9H20, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL, melts at -51°C, and boils at157°C?

A) Nonane is soluble in water.B) Nonane is a gas at room temperature.C) Nonane is a solid at room temperature.D) Nonane does not undergo combustion.E) Nonane floats on the surface of water.

Answer: E

3) A formula that shows the arrangement of all bonds in a molecule is called a(n)A) molecular formula.B) complete structural formula.C) condensed structural formula.D) condensed molecular formula.E) isomeric formula.

Answer: B

4) In the three-dimensional structure of methane, CH4, the hydrogen atoms attached to a carbon atom are alignedA) in a straight line.B) at the corners of a square.C) at the corners of a tetrahedron.D) at the corners of a rectangle.E) at the corners of a cube.

Answer: C

5) Which one of the following is NOT an organic substance?A) an antibioticB) nylonC) coalD) silkE) salt, sodium chloride

Answer: E

6) A hydrocarbon contains only the elementsA) hydrogenand oxygen.B) carbon and oxygen.C) carbon and hydrogen.D) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.E) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.

Answer: C

7) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2OH is a(n)A) aldehyde.B) alkene.C) alcohol.D) ketone.E) ether.

Answer: C

8) What type of compound is CH3CH2CH2Cl?A) alkaneB) branched alkaneC) cycloalkaneD) haloalkaneE) isomer

Answer: D

9) What is the name of this compound?

Cl

CH3 -∣C H - CH2 - CH2 - Cl?

A) 1,1-dichlorobutaneB) 1,2,-dichlorobutaneC) 1,3-dichlorobutaneD) 1,4-dichlorobutaneE) dichlorobutane

Answer: C

10) The special feature that determines the family name and chemical reactivity of the organic compound it isfound in is called a(n)

A) functional group.B) organic compound.C) identifying group.D) ionic bond.E) covalent bond.

Answer: A

11) VSEPR theory predicts that simple carbon compounds will form bonds that areA) as far apart as possible.B) as close together as possible.C) arranged in a straight line.D) pointed to the corners of a cube.E) pointed to the corners of a triangle.

Answer: A

12) A molecule containing a carbon atom bonded to four chlorine atoms has the shape of aA) triangle.B) rhombus.C) square.D) cube.E) tetrahedron.

Answer: E

13) The bond angles of tetravalent carbon are all approximatelyA) 90°B) 109.5°C) 60°D) 99.5°E) 45°

Answer: B

14) As carbon bonds with atoms of increasingly higher electronegativities, the polarity of the bondA) decreases.B) increases.C) stays the same.D) reverses.E) becomes inverted.

Answer: B

15) Carbon tetrachloride has a polar C-Cl bond. What is the overall polarity of the carbon tetrachloride molecule?A) weakly polarB) strongly polarC) reversed polarityD) nonpolarE) inverse polarity

Answer: D

16) Which of the following is NOT typical of most organic compounds?A) high melting pointB) poor solubility in waterC) low boiling pointD) covalent bondingE) high flammability

Answer: A

17) A functional group is a certain group of atoms thatA) increases water solubility.B) reacts in a predictable way whenever present.C) changes the color of the molecule whenever present.D) always contains oxygen or nitrogen.E) never contains a halogen.

Answer: B

18) An alkene is always a carbon compound that contains a ________ bond.A) singleB) doubleC) tripleD) aromaticE) hydrogen

Answer: B

19) An alkyne is always a carbon compound that contains a ________ bond.A) singleB) doubleC) tripleD) aromaticE) hydrogen

Answer: C

20) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CHO is a(n)A) aldehyde.B) alkene.C) alcohol.D) ketone.E) ether.

Answer: A

21) The functional group contained in the compound (CH3CH2)2O is a(n)A) aldehyde.B) alkene.C) alcohol.D) ketone.E) ether.

Answer: E

22) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 is a(n)A) aldehyde.B) alkene.C) alcohol.D) ketone.E) ether.

Answer: B

23) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2COOCH3 is a(n)A) thiol.B) carboxylic acid.C) amine.D) ester.E) amide.

Answer: D

24) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2SH is a(n)A) thiol.B) carboxylic acid.C) amine.D) ester.E) amide.

Answer: A

25) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2COOH is a(n)A) thiol.B) carboxylic acid.C) amine.D) ester.E) amide.

Answer: B

26) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2CONH2 is a(n)A) thiol.B) carboxylic acid.C) amine.D) ester.E) amide.

Answer: E

27) The functional group contained in the compound CH3CH2NH2 is a(n)A) thiol.B) carboxylic acid.C) amine.D) ester.E) amide.

Answer: C

28) Isomers are molecules that share the same formula and haveA) a different shape to the molecule.B) the same arrangement of atoms within the molecule.C) a different arrangement of atoms within the molecule.D) identical boiling points.E) the same shape in each molecule.

Answer: C

29) Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of compounds ofA) oxygen.B) hydrogen.C) living things.D) polymers.E) carbon.

Answer: E

30) How does a molecule of a vitamin synthesized in the laboratory behave when compared to the behavior of thesame vitamin isolated from a natural source (e.g., vitamin C synthesized, compared to vitamin C from rosehips)?

A) identical in every wayB) usually identicalC) Some effects are the same.D) Few effects are the same.E) The natural vitamin is better.

Answer: A

31) How many valence electrons does carbon have?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: D

32) Carbon atoms always have how many covalent bonds?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: D

33) Hydrocarbons are the primary constituents ofA) drugs.B) food flavors.C) fossil fuels.D) fruit juices.E) disinfectants.

Answer: C

34) Identify the functional group in the compound CH3CH2NH2 .A) amideB) quaternary amineC) tertiary amineD) secondary amineE) primary amine

Answer: E

35) Identify the functional group in the compound CH3CH2CHO.A) amideB) ketoneC) esterD) secondary amineE) aldehyde

Answer: E

36) Identify the functional group in the compound CH3CH2NHCH3.A) amideB) quaternary amineC) tertiary amineD) secondary amineE) primary amine

Answer: D

37) Identify the functional group in the compound CH3CH2N(CH3)2 .A) amideB) alcoholC) amineD) etherE) ketone

Answer: C

38) One reason for the very large number of organic compounds (compared to the total number of inorganiccompounds) is

A) functional groups.B) constitutional isomerism.C) hydrogen bonding.D) the occurrence of organic compounds in living things.E) the electronegativity of carbon.

Answer: B

39) In a molecule with a symmetrical arrangement of polar bonds, the overall molecule isA) highly polar.B) somewhat polar.C) nonpolar.D) reverse polar.E) strongly reverse polar.

Answer: C

40) Organic compounds that are poorly soluble in water behave that way because they areA) highly polar.B) moderately polar.C) covalently bonded.D) generally nonpolar.E) ionically bonded.

Answer: D

41) Generally, a solution of an organic compound in water will be electricallyA) highly conductive.B) highly ionized.C) nonconductive.D) insulated.E) charged.

Answer: C

42) Which of the following is NOT a representation for a carboxylic acid functional group?A) CHOB) COOHC) CO2HD) C(=O)OHE) O || - C - OH

Answer: A

43) In an amine functional group, the central atom isA) carbon.B) hydrogen.C) oxygen.D) nitrogen.E) sulfur.

Answer: D

44) A thiol is a functional group containingA) carbon.B) chlorine.C) oxygen.D) nitrogen.E) sulfur.

Answer: E

45) In the equation for the combustion of pentane, the coefficient of carbon dioxide isA) oneB) two.C) three.D) four.E) five.

Answer: E

46) The IUPAC name for CH3 -Cl isA) methyl chlorideB) chloromethane.C) methanechlorine.D) chloroethane.E) methane chloride.

Answer: B

47) The major product formed when bromine reacts with propane isA) 1-bromopropane.B) 2-bromopropane.C) 3-bromopropane.D) propyl bromide.E) bromopropane.

Answer: B

48) What is the IUPAC name for CH3∣

CH3-CH2-CH2-CH- CH2-CH3A) 4-methylhexane.B) 3-methylhexane.C) heptane.D) methylhexane.E) 2-methylhexane.

Answer: B

49) What is the IUPAC name for CH3│CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3

A) 1-methylbutane.B) 4-methylbutane.C) pentane.D) butane.E) hexane.

Answer: C

50) What is the IUPAC name for Cl-CH2 -CH2 -CH2-ClA) 1,3-dichloropropane.B) 1,1-dichloropropane.C) dichloropropane.D) 1,3-dichlorobutane.E) propane dichloride.

Answer: A

11.2 True/False Questions1) Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of carbon compounds.

Answer: TRUE

2) Nylon, polyester, and most other plastics are carbon compounds.Answer: TRUE

3) Lipids are not organic compounds.Answer: FALSE

4) There are millions of organic compounds.Answer: TRUE

5) Carbon has six valence electrons.Answer: FALSE

6) Methane has a tetrahedral structure.Answer: TRUE

7) The bond angles in a tetrahedral molecule are 90°.Answer: FALSE

8) The difference in electronegativity between two atoms in a molecule determines the bond polarity.Answer: TRUE

9) Organic compounds are always highly water soluble.Answer: FALSE

10) Most organic compounds are flammable.Answer: TRUE

11) Amines contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.Answer: FALSE

12) Pentane contains six carbon atoms.Answer: FALSE

13) Isomers have the same molecular formula.Answer: TRUE

14) Halogenation occurs when a halogen atom replaces hydrogen in an alkane.Answer: TRUE

15) The products of combustion are carbon dioxide and water.Answer: TRUE

16) Amines contain the functional group -OH.Answer: FALSE

17) Organic liquids are often lighter than water.Answer: TRUE

18) Most prescription drugs are organic molecules.Answer: TRUE

19) Functional groups are groups of atoms that act in predictable ways.Answer: TRUE

20) Functional groups always contain atoms other than just carbon and hydrogen.Answer: FALSE

11.3 Matching QuestionsIdentify the following as more characteristic of an organic compound or an inorganic compound.

1) Column 1: high melting point

Column 2: inorganicAnswer: inorganic

2) Column 1: flammable

Column 2: organicAnswer: organic

3) Column 1: covalent bonds


4) Column 1: insoluble in water


5) Column 1: ionic bonds

Column 2: inorganicAnswer: inorganic

Match the following organic structures with the appropriate family name.

6) Column 1: CH3CH2CH=CH2

Column 2: alkeneAnswer: alkene

7) Column 1: O

CH3 -C - CH3

Column 2: ketoneAnswer: ketone

8) Column 1: CH3OH

Column 2: alcoholAnswer: alcohol

9) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C OH

Column 2: carboxylic acidAnswer: carboxylic acid

10) Column 1: CH3CH2OCH2CH3

Column 2: etherAnswer: ether

11) Column 1: O

CH3C OCH2CH3

Column 2: esterAnswer: ester

12) Column 1: CH3CH2SH

Column 2: thiolAnswer: thiol

13) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C H

Column 2: aldehydeAnswer: aldehyde

14) Column 1: HC≡CCH3

Column 2: alkyneAnswer: alkyne

15) Column 1: CH3CH2NH2

Column 2: amineAnswer: amine

16) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C NH2

Column 2: amideAnswer: amide

17) Column 1: Br

CH3∣C HCH3

Column 2: haloalkaneAnswer: haloalkane

Chapter 12 Unsaturated Hydrocarbons12.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) A hydrocarbon with a double bond is a(n)A) alkane.B) alkene.C) alkyne.D) alcohol.E) saturated compound.

Answer: B

2) Which of the following pairs of compounds are structural isomers?

A) Cl Cl

CH3∣C HCH2 CH3 and CH3CH2

∣C HCH3

B) ClCH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2ClC) CH3CHCH3 and CH3CHCH2Cl

∣C H2Cl

∣C H3

D) Cl

CH3CHCH3 and CH3∣C CH3

∣C H2Cl

∣C H3

E)

and

Answer: D

3) How many isomers are there for C2H4Cl2?A) noneB) oneC) twoD) threeE) four

Answer: C

4) How many isomers are there for dibromobenzene?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: C

5) Alkenes and alkynes are called unsaturated compounds becauseA) they have the maximum number of hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon in the compound.B) they have fewer hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes.C) they have more hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes.D) they have more carbon atoms than alkanes.E) they have fewer carbon atoms than alkanes.

Answer: B

6) Which of the compounds is a cycloalkene?A) CH2 = CHCH = CH2

B)

C) CH3C = CH2

D)

E)

Answer: D

7) An unsaturated compound alwaysA) is a cycloalkane.B) contains a double bond.C) contains a triple bond.D) contains at least one double or triple bond.E) is aromatic.

Answer: D

8) Which of the following compounds is an alkyne?A) CH3CH2CH3B) C3H6C) CH3CH2C ≡ CHD) H2C = CHCH = CH2E) 2-pentene

Answer: C

9) Organic compounds with double or triple bonds are classified asA) unsaturated compounds.B) saturated compounds.C) dilute solutions.D) concentrated solutions.E) substituted compounds.

Answer: A

10) The IUPAC name of CH3CH = CHCH3 isA) 2-butene.B) 2-butane.C) 1-butene.D) butene.E) 2-butyne.

Answer: A

11) When naming an alkene, the parent chain is the longest carbon chainA) that does not contain the double bond.B) regardless of whether or not it contains the double bond.C) that contains at least one of the carbon atoms of the double bond.D) that contains both atoms of the double bond.E) that contains a branch.

Answer: D

12) The IUPAC name for CH3CH2C ≡ CCH3 isA) 3-pentyne.B) 2-pentyne.C) pentyne.D) 1-methylbutyne.E) 2-propene.

Answer: B

13) The IUPAC name for ethylene isA) ethane.B) cycloethane.C) ethyne.D) ethanene.E) ethene.

Answer: E

14) Which one of the following compounds has the smallest number of hydrogen atoms?A) butyneB) 2-methylpropaneC) buteneD) 2-methylcyclopropaneE) butane

Answer: A

15) What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?

CH3 Cl

CH3 -∣C H -

∣C - CH = CH

∣C H3

∣C H3

A) 4-chloro-4,5-dimethyl-2-hexeneB) 3-chloro-1,3,4-trimethyl-1-penteneC) 3-chloro-2,3-dimethyl-4-hexeneD) 3-chloro-2,3,5-trimethyl-4-penteneE) 3-chloro-1,3,4,4-tetramethyl-1-butene

Answer: A

16) What is the condensed structural formula of the compound propene?A) CH3CH2CH3B) H3C = CH2CH3C) H2C = C = CH2D) CH3CH = CH2E) HC ≡ CCH3

Answer: D

17) What is the condensed structural formula for the compound 3-hexene?A) CH3

CH3CH2∣C HCH2CH3

B) CH2 = CHCH2CH2CH2CH3C) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3D) CH3CH2CH2CH = CHCH3E) CH3CH = CHCH2CH2CH3

Answer: C

18) The compound 1-butyne containsA) all single bonds.B) a double bond.C) a triple bond.D) a ring structure.E) a bromine atom.

Answer: C

19) Which of the following is the IUPAC name for the compound below?

A) m-bromotolueneB) m-bromomethylcyclohexeneC) 1-bromo-3-methylcyclohexeneD) 3-bromo-1-methyl-2-cyclohexeneE) 2-bromo-6-methylcyclohexene

Answer: C

20) Which of the following is the correct structural formula for 3-methylcyclohexene?A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: A

21) Some alkenes have cis-trans isomers becauseA) the carbon atoms in the double bond cannot rotate.B) each of the carbon atoms in the double bond has four different groups attached to it.C) one of the carbon atoms in the double bond has two identical groups attached to it.D) the carbon atoms in the double bond are free to rotate.E) all of the carbon atoms in the compound are rigid and cannot rotate.

Answer: A

22) Which of the following pairs of compounds are cis-trans isomers?A)

and

B)

and

C) HC ≡ C - CH3 and CH3 - C ≡ CHD)

and

E)

and

Answer: E

23) What is the name of the compound shown below?

A) 2-penteneB) trans-2-penteneC) trans-3-penteneD) cis-2-penteneE) cis-3-pentene

Answer: B

24) The reaction of hydrogen (H2) and propene using a platinum catalyst is calledA) combustion.B) substitution.C) addition.D) neutralization.E) condensation.

Answer: C

25) The hydrogenation of an alkene gives a(n) .A) alkane.B) alkene.C) alkyne.D) benzene.E) isomer.

Answer: A

26) What is the condensed structural formula for the product of the hydrogenation of 2-butene using a platinumcatalyst?

A) CH3CH = CHCH3B) Cl

CH3CH2∣C HCH3

C) CH3CH2CH2CH3D) CH3

CH3∣C HCH3

E) OH

CH3∣C HCH3

Answer: C

27) What is the product of this reaction?

CH3CH2CH = CHCH3 + Cl2 → ?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3B) Cl

CH3CH2CH2∣C CH3

∣Cl

C) Cl Cl

CH3CH2∣C H

∣C HCH3

D) Cl

CH3CH2∣C CH2CH3∣Cl

E) Cl

CH3∣C CH2CH2CH3∣Cl

Answer: C

28) The reaction of cyclohexene and Cl2 yieldsA) 1-chlorocyclohexene.B) 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane.C) 1,3-dichlorocyclohexane.D) 2,3-dichlorocyclohexane.E) 3,4-dichlorocyclohexane.

Answer: B

29) The reaction of propene and Br2 yieldsA) 1-bromopropane.B) 2-bromopropane.C) 1,1-dibromopropane.D) 1,2-dibromopropane.E) 2,2-dibromopropane.

Answer: D

30) The chemical reaction of 2-butene and HCl yields what product?A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3B) Cl

CH3 CH2∣C HCH3

C) Cl Cl

CH3 -∣C H -

∣C H - CH3

D) CH3

CH3∣C HCH3

E) Cl

CH3∣C CH2 CH3∣C H3

Answer: B

31) According to Markovnikovʹs rule, the hydrogen in HCl adds to the carbon in the double bondA) attached to the end carbon.B) that has the smaller number of hydrogen atoms attached.C) that has the greater number of hydrogen atoms attached.D) that has the smaller number of carbon atoms attached.E) that has the greater number of carbon atoms attached.

Answer: C

32) The major product of the reaction of 3-methyl-2-pentene with HCl isA) 4-chloro-3-methylpentane.B) 1-chloro-3-methylpentane.C) 2-chloro-3-methylpentane.D) 3-chloro-3-methylpentane.E) 3-chloro-3-methylpentene.

Answer: D

33) The reactants needed to produce the compound chlorocyclopentane areA) pentene and HCl.B) pentene and Cl2.C) cyclopentane and Cl2.D) cyclopentene and HCl.E) cyclopentene and Cl2.

Answer: D

34) Which set of reactants would give this compound?

Cl

CH3 - CH2 -∣C H - CH2Cl

A) CH3CH2CH2CH3 + 2HClB) CH3CH = CHCH3 + 2HClC) CH3CH2CH = CH2 + 2HClD) CH3CH = CHCH3 + Cl2E) CH3CH2CH = CH2 + Cl2

Answer: E

35) The reaction of an alkene and water in the presence of an acid catalyst to produce an alcohol is calledA) hydrolysis.B) alkoholysis.C) halogenation.D) hydration.E) hydrohydration.

Answer: D

36) What is the major product of the reaction shown below?

CH3- CH2- CH = CH2 + HOH →

A) OH OH

CH3 - CH2 -∣C H -

∣C H2

B) OH

CH3 - CH2 -∣C H - CH3

C) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 OHD) OH OH

CH3 -∣C H -

∣C H - CH3

E) OH

CH3 - CH2 -∣C = CH2

Answer: B

37) Long-chain molecules that consist of many repeating units are calledA) polymers.B) monomers.C) organic compounds.D) alkenes.E) alkanes.

Answer: A

38) Small molecules that make up the repeat unit in polymers are calledA) monomers.B) alkenes.C) alkynes.D) minipolymers.E) synthetic polymers.

Answer: A

39) The synthetic polymer polyethylene is unreactive because it isA) unsaturated.B) a haloalkane.C) saturated.D) a cycloalkene.E) an aromatic compound.

Answer: C

40) What is the starting monomer for the polymer Teflon®?

F F F F

-∣C -

∣C -

∣C -

∣C -

∣F

∣F

∣F

∣F

A) F

F -∣C - F∣F

B) F

H -∣C - H∣F

C) F F

F -∣C -

∣C - F

∣F

∣F

D) C ≡ FE) F F

F -∣C =

∣C - F

Answer: E

41) Which of the following is a naturally occurring polymer (not a synthetic polymer)?A) polypropyleneB) DNAC) teflonD) polystyreneE) saran

Answer: B

42) Which of the following would result from the polymerization of ethene?A) CH3 CH3

-∣C - CH2 -

∣C - CH2 -

∣C H3

∣C H3

B) CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

-∣C -

∣C -

∣ C -

∣C -

∣H

∣H

∣H

∣H

C) H H H H

-∣C =

∣C -

∣C =

∣C -

D) = C = C = C = C =E) - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 -

Answer: E

43) The structural formula of benzene is often represented as aA) ring of five carbon atoms.B) ring of six carbon atoms with six double bonds.C) ring of six carbon atoms with a circle in the center.D) cycloalkane.E) cycloalkyne.

Answer: C

44) The compound below is named

A) cyclohexane.B) cyclohexene.C) cyclohexyne.D) benzene.E) cyclobenzene.

Answer: D

45) What is the molecular formula of benzene?A) C6H4

B) C6H6

C) C6H8

D) C6H10

E) C6H12

Answer: B

46) What is the name of the compound below ?

A) p-chlorotolueneB) o-chlorotolueneC) m-chlorotolueneD) 1-chloro-2-methyltolueneE) 2-chloro-1-methyltoluene

Answer: B

47) The name of the compound shown below is

A) o-ethylmethylcyclohexane.B) m-ethylmethylcyclohexane.C) o-ethyltoluene.D) m-ethyltoluene.E) p-ethyltoluene.

Answer: D

48) When chlorine atoms are attached to carbon 1 and carbon 3 in benzene, the compound is namedA) dichlorobenzene.B) o-dichlorobenzene.C) m-dichlorobenzene.D) p-dichlorobenzene.E) j-dichlorobenzene.

Answer: C

49) When bromine atoms are attached to carbon 1 and carbon 4 in benzene, the compound is namedA) dibromobenzene.B) o-dibromobenzene.C) m-dibromobenzene.D) p-dibromobenzene.E) f-dibromobenzene.

Answer: D

50) The odors you associate with lemons, oranges, roses, and lavender are due toA) alkenes.B) alkanes.C) alkynes.D) thiols.E) amines.

Answer: A

51) All of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene areA) composed of only two types, single and double.B) identical.C) double bonds.D) single bonds.E) circular bonds.

Answer: B

52) What are the prefixes used to designate substituent positions on disubstituted benzene compounds?A) ortho-, meta-, and para-.B) cis- and trans-C) syn- and anti-D) All of the above.E) None of the above.

Answer: A

53) Which of the following is(are) substitution reaction(s) on aromatic rings?A) halogenationB) nitrationC) sulfonationD) All of the above.E) None of the above.

Answer: D

12.2 True/False Questions1) Light-induced cis-trans isomerization is an important step in vision.

Answer: TRUE

2) Propylene is used to induce ripening in fruits.Answer: FALSE

3) Fragrances and flavors are often compounds with more than one functional group (for example, an alkene thatalso contains an aldehyde).Answer: TRUE

4) In a cis alkene, the groups are on the same side of the double bond.Answer: TRUE

5) In a trans alkene, the groups are on the same side of the double bond.Answer: FALSE

6) All alkenes show cis-trans isomerism.Answer: FALSE

7) Hydrogenation is used to convert alkenes and alkynes to alkanes.Answer: TRUE

8) Hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils raises the melting point and makes them more solid.Answer: TRUE

9) Halogenation is the process of adding chlorine or similar elements to an alkene or alkyne.Answer: TRUE

10) Markovnikovʹs rule states that when a hydrogen halide adds to a double bond, the proton will bond to thecarbon that has the greater number of hydrogen atoms.Answer: TRUE

11) Water can be added to alkenes to produce acids.Answer: FALSE

12) Polymers are large molecules consisting of repeating units.Answer: TRUE

13) Most products made from polymers can be recycled.Answer: TRUE

14) One essential building block of aspirin, ibuprofen, and acetaminophen is the benzene ring.Answer: TRUE

15) The substituent group C6H5CH2- is called a phenyl group.

Answer: FALSE

16) All polycyclic aromatic compounds cause cancer.Answer: FALSE

17) The most important general type of reaction for aromatic compounds is substitution.Answer: TRUE

12.3 Matching QuestionsMatch the following organic structures with the appropriate family name.

1) Column 1:

Column 2: aromatic compoundAnswer: aromatic compound

2) Column 1: CH3CH2CH2CH3

Column 2: alkaneAnswer: alkane

3) Column 1:

Column 2: cycloalkane

Foil: alkaneAnswer: cycloalkane

4) Column 1:

Column 2: cycloalkene

Foil: alkenearomatic

Answer: cycloalkene

Match each of the following reactions with its product. Assume any necessary catalysts are present.

5) Column 1: CH3∣

CH3C = CH2 + H2catalyst

Column 2: CH3

CH3∣C HCH3

Foil: CH3CH2CH2CH3Answer: CH3

CH3∣C HCH3

6) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣C = CH2 + Cl2

Column 2: CH3

CH3∣C CH2Cl

|Cl

Foil: CH3

CH3∣C HCHCl2

Answer: CH3

CH3∣C CH2Cl

|Cl

7) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣C = CH2 + H2O

Column 2: CH3

CH3∣C CH3∣O H

Foil: CH3

CH3∣C HCH2OH

Answer: CH3

CH3∣C CH3∣O H

8) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣C = CH2 + HBr

Column 2: CH3

CH3∣C CH3|Br

Foil: CH3

CH3∣C HCH2Br

Answer: CH3

CH3∣C CH3|Br

9) Column 1:

+ HCl

Column 2:

Foil:

Answer:

10) Column 1:

+ H2O acid

Column 2:

Foil:

Answer:

11) Column 1:

Column 2:

Foil:

Answer:

Choose the type of compound from Column 2 that best matches each item in Column 1.

12) Column 1: CH3- CH = CH- CH3

Column 2: alkeneAnswer: alkene

13) Column 1: CH4


14) Column 1:

Column 2: cycloalkaneAnswer: cycloalkane

15) Column 1: CH3CH2Cl

Column 2: haloalkaneAnswer: haloalkane

16) Column 1:

Column 2: cycloalkeneAnswer: cycloalkene

17) Column 1: CH3∣

CH2∣

CH3


Select the correct name for each figure.

18) Column 1:

Column 2: p-chlorotoluene

Foil: 1-chloro-3-

methylcyclohexaneAnswer: p-chlorotoluene

19) Column 1:

Column 2: ethylbenzene

Foil: tolueneAnswer: ethylbenzene

Chapter 13 Alcohols, Phenols, Ethers, and Thiols13.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which one of the following compounds is an alcohol?A) OH

|CH3 -CH-CH3

B) O

CH3CH2C H

C) CH3CH=CHCH2CH3D) CH3CH2OCH2CH3E) CH3SH

Answer: A

2) The compound CH3CH2 - SH is in the organic family known asA) ethers.B) thiols.C) alcohols.D) sulfides.E) amino acids.

Answer: B

3) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

A) methylcyclobutanolB) o-methylcyclobutanolC) 2-hydroxy-1, 1-dimethylcyclobutaneD) 2-dimethyl-1-cyclobutanolE) 2,2-dimethylcyclobutanol

Answer: E

4) Which of the following is the IUPAC name for the compound below?

A) 1,1,4-trimethyl-6-cyclohexanolB) 1,1,4-trimethyl-2-cyclohexanolC) 2,2,5-trimethylcyclohexanolD) 2,2,5-trimethylphenolE) 2-ethyl-5-methylcyclohexanol

Answer: C

5) The condensed structural formula for 2,3-dichloro-4-methylcyclohexanol isA)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: D

6) What is the IUPAC name of this compound?

OH

CH3 -∣C - CH3∣C H3

A) butanolB) propanolC) 2-propanolD) 2-methylbutanolE) 2-methyl-2-propanol

Answer: E

7) Which of the following compounds is a weak acid?A) ethanolB) ethanalC) phenolD) cyclohexanolE) acetone

Answer: C

8) What is the name for this compound?

A) o-bromo-m-ethylphenolB) 2-bromo-5-ethylphenolC) 4-bromo-1-ethyl-5-phenolD) 6-bromo-3-ethylphenolE) 2-bromo-5-methylphenol

Answer: B

9) The alcohol in this list that would be most soluble in water isA) ethanol.B) 1-butanol.C) 1-pentanol.D) 1-hexanol.E) 1-heptanol.

Answer: A

10) What is the name for this compound?

A) cyclopentanolB) cyclohexanolC) cyclobenzenolD) phenolE) glycerol

Answer: D


A) cyclopentyl propyl etherB) cyclopentyl propyl ketoneC) 1-cyclopropyl-1-propylalcoholD) propylcyclopentanolE) 3-cyclopentylpropanol

Answer: A

12) The common name for the compound CH3CH2CH2 - O - CH2CH3 isA) 3-pentanol.B) ethyl propyl ether.C) 3-hexanol.D) 3-ether pentane.E) ethyl propyl ketone.

Answer: B

13) The common name of CH3CH2 - O - CH2CH3 isA) dimethyl ether.B) diethyl ether.C) 2-etherbutane.D) butyl ether.E) dibutyl ether.

Answer: B

14) Why has diethyl ether been replaced as a general anesthetic?A) It causes unpleasant side effects in many patients.B) It is slightly polar.C) It can hydrogen bond to water.D) It is not very reactive.E) It is slightly soluble in water.

Answer: A

15) The dehydration of an alcohol in the presence of a strong acid yieldsA) an alkane.B) an alkene.C) a ketone.D) an alcohol.E) an aldehyde.

Answer: B

16) The dehydration product of CH3CH2CH2OH in the presence of acid isA) CH2 = C = CH2.B) cyclopropane.C) cyclopropene.D) propene.E) propyne.

Answer: D

17) When 2-methyl-2-butanol undergoes dehydration in acid, one product isA) 2-methyl-2-butene.B) 2-methylbutanone.C) 2-pentanone.D) 2-methylbutanal.E) hexene.

Answer: A

18) What is the structural formula of the ether formed in this reaction?

CH3

2 CH3∣C HOH H+

A) CH3

CH3CH2CH2O∣C HCH3

B) CH3

CH3∣C - O - CH3∣H

C) CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH2CH3

D) CH3 CH3

CH3∣C - O -

∣C CH3

∣H

∣H

E) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

Answer: D

19) In the oxidation of an alcohol to a ketone, there isA) a loss of hydrogen.B) a loss of oxygen.C) a loss of carbon.D) a gain of hydrogen.E) a gain of oxygen.

Answer: A

20) Which of the following compounds is a secondary alcohol?A) CH3 - CH-O-CH3

∣C H3

B) CH3OH

C) OH

CH3CH2∣C CH3∣C H3

D) CH3

CH3∣C CH3∣O H

E) CH3 - CH - OH

∣C H3

Answer: E

21) In a tertiary alcohol, how many alkyl groups are attached to the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group?A) noneB) oneC) twoD) threeE) four

Answer: D

22) What is the product when this compound undergoes gentle oxidation?

CH3

CH3 -∣C - CH2 - CH2 - OH

∣C H3

A) hexanalB) 2,2-dimethylbutanalC) 2,2-dimethyl-4-butanoneD) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butanoneE) 3,3-dimethylbutanal

Answer: E

23) What classification of alcohol undergoes oxidation to yield a ketone?A) primary alcoholB) both primary and secondary alcoholsC) secondary alcoholD) all classes of alcoholsE) both secondary and tertiary alcohols

Answer: C

24) Tertiary alcohols cannot be oxidized becauseA) there are no oxygen atoms to remove from the alcohol carbon.B) there are no hydrogen atoms attached to the alcohol carbon.C) the alcohol carbon is bonded to four groups so no oxygen can be added to it.D) the alcohol carbon is bonded to four groups so no hydrogen can be added to it.E) the alcohol carbon is too electronegative to have hydrogen removed from it.

Answer: B

25) What classification of alcohol is resistant to oxidation?A) primaryB) secondaryC) tertiaryD) quaternaryE) none

Answer: C

26) What is the product when the following compound is oxidized?

OH

CH3CH2∣C HCH2CH3

A) diethyl ketoneB) 2-penteneC) pentanalD) diethyl etherE) pentane

Answer: A

27) Which compound will undergo oxidation to yield cyclopentanone?A) pentanolB) cyclopentaneC) cyclopentanolD) methylcyclobutanolE) cyclopentene

Answer: C

28) Alcohols contain which functional group?A) amineB) amideC) hydroxylD) thiol

Answer: C

29) A primary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n)A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.B) disubstituted carbon.C) trisubstituted carbon.D) aromatic carbon.

Answer: A

30) A secondary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n)A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.B) disubstituted carbon.C) trisubstituted carbon.D) aromatic carbon.

Answer: B

31) A tertiary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n)A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.B) disubstituted carbon.C) trisubstituted carbon.D) triple-bonded carbon.E) double bonded carbon.

Answer: C

32) A phenol has an -OH group bonded to a(n)A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.B) disubstituted carbon.C) trisubstituted carbon.D) aromatic carbon.E) tetrasubstituted carbon.

Answer: D

33) What is the IUPAC name of this compound?

A) pyranB) tetrahydropyranC) tetrahydrofuranD) furanE) oxycyclopentane

Answer: C

34) Thiols have structures similar to alcohols except that they containA) three alcohol groups.B) more than one carbon.C) sulfur in place of oxygen in the functional group.D) lithium in place of oxygen in the functional group.E) nitrogen in place of oxygen in the functional group.

Answer: C

35) When two molecules of methanol are heated with acid,what is the product?A) CH3-OHB) CH3-O- CH3C) CH2=CH2D) CH2E) CH3-CH2-OH

Answer: B

36) Methanol is used in all the following exceptA) making plastics.B) racing fuel.C) alcoholic beverages.D) solvents.E) paint remover.

Answer: C

37) 1,2-ethanediol (ethylene diol) has uses that includeA) antifreeze.B) solvent for paint.C) production of synthetic fibers.D) solvent for ink.E) All of the above.

Answer: E

38) In the dehydration of an alcohol to an alkene, what is produced in addition to the alkene?A) waterB) hydrogenC) oxygenD) carbon dioxideE) carbon monoxide

Answer: A

39) Ethers can be formed from the reaction ofA) water and an alkene.B) water and an alcohol.C) two alkenes.D) two alcohols.E) a ketone and an alkene.

Answer: D

40) When a primary alcohol is completely oxidized, the product isA) another alcohol.B) a carboxylic acid.C) an aldehyde.D) an alkane.E) a ketone.

Answer: B

41) Ethylene glycol and methanol are toxic because they are ________ by the liver to carboxylic acids.A) reducedB) protonatedC) oxidizedD) conjugatedE) hydrated

Answer: C

42) Secondary alcohols are oxidized toA) carboxylic acids.B) ketones.C) aldehydes.D) esters.E) ethers.

Answer: B

43) Tertiary alcohols are oxidized toA) secondary alcohols.B) ketones.C) aldehydes.D) carboxylic acids.E) None of the above.

Answer: E

44) Thiols can be gently oxidized toA) disulfides.B) aldehydes.C) ketones.D) carboxylic acids.E) thioethers.

Answer: A

45) The dehydration product of OH in the presence of acid is│

CH3-CH-CH3

A) CH2 = C = CH2.B) cyclopropane.C) cyclopropene.D) propene.E) propyne.

Answer: D

46) Thiols are strong-smelling compounds responsible forA) fruity odors.B) sharp odors.C) flowery odors.D) skunky or bad smelling odors.E) salty odors.

Answer: D

47) Which functional group below contains the most highly oxidized carbon?A) alkaneB) alcoholC) aldehydeD) ketoneE) carboxylic acid

Answer: E

48) What kind of bonds do alcohols form between individual molecules?A) oxygen bondsB) hydrogen bondsC) single bondsD) carbon bondsE) ionic bonds

Answer: B

49) What is the IUPAC name for CH3-CH2-CH2-SH ?A) 1-propanethiolB) 2-propanethiolC) 1-butanethiolD) 2-butanethiolE) propyl thiol

Answer: A

50) Which one of the following compounds is a thiol?A) OH

|CH3 -CH-CH3

B) O

CH3CH2C H

C) CH3CH=CHCH2CH3

D) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

E) CH3SH

Answer: E

13.2 True/False Questions1) Alcohols, ethers, and phenols contain oxygen with only single bonds.

Answer: TRUE

2) Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds.Answer: TRUE

3) A secondary alcohol can be easily oxidized to a carboxylic acid.Answer: FALSE

4) Cycloalkanols are straight chain alcohols.Answer: FALSE

5) Thiols usually have sweet odors.Answer: FALSE

6) Methanol, 2-propanol, and ethylene glycol are all toxic when ingested.Answer: TRUE

7) 1,2,3-propanetriol is obtained during the manufacture of soap.Answer: TRUE

8) Glycerin strongly attracts and holds water, a property that makes it useful as a skin softener in cosmetics.Answer: TRUE

9) Pyran is a cyclic ether.Answer: TRUE

10) Heptanol is a water soluble alcohol.Answer: FALSE

11) Ethyl ether has been replaced by halogenated anesthetics, which have fewer side effects.Answer: TRUE

12) Ethers can only be straight chain compounds.Answer: FALSE

13) Furan is an aromatic compound that contains oxygen in the ring.Answer: TRUE

14) Tertiary alcohols are easily oxidized.Answer: FALSE

15) Alcohols form hydrogen bonds; this accounts for their higher boiling points when compared to similar-sizedalkanes.Answer: TRUE

16) The oxygen atom in alcohols decreases water solubility of the molecule.Answer: FALSE

17) Phenols behave as weak acids in water.Answer: TRUE

18) Alcohols can be dehydrated to form alkenes.Answer: TRUE

19) Primary alcohols can be oxidized to either aldehydes or ketones.Answer: FALSE

20) Secondary alcohols can be oxidized to ketones.Answer: TRUE

13.3 Matching QuestionsIdentify the product, if any, that would form in each of the following reactions.

1) Column 1: CH3CH2CH2OH [O]

Column 2: O

CH3CH2C H

Answer: O

CH3CH2C H

2) Column 1: CH3CH2CHOH [O]

∣C H3

Column 2: O

CH3CH2C CH3

Foil:

Answer: O

CH3CH2C CH3

Match the structural formula with the correct functional group.

3) Column 1: CH3CH2OH

Column 2: alcoholAnswer: alcohol

4) Column 1: CH3CH2O CH3


5) Column 1: CH3CH2SH

Column 2: thiolAnswer: thiol

Select the correct name for the following.

6) Column 1: CH3CH2CH2SH

Column 2: propanethiol

Foil: propane sulfideAnswer: propanethiol

7) Column 1: CH3CH2OCH2CH3

Column 2: diethyl etherAnswer: diethyl ether

8) Column 1:

Column 2: m-ethylphenol

Foil: 1-ethyl-3-

hydroxycyclohexeneAnswer: m-ethylphenol

Classify the alcohols shown in column 1 as primary, secondary, or tertiary.

9) Column 1: CH3CH2OH

Column 2: primaryAnswer: primary

10) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣C CH2OH

∣C H3


11) Column 1: OH

CH3∣C HCH3

Column 2: secondaryAnswer: secondary

12) Column 1:


13) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣C CH2CH3∣O H

Column 2: tertiaryAnswer: tertiary

Chapter 14 Aldehydes, Ketones, and Chiral Molecules14.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) The addition of hydrogen to an organic compound or the loss of oxygen is calledA) reduction.B) oxidation.C) dehydration.D) halogenation.E) hydration.

Answer: A

2) The reduction of 3-pentanone with hydrogen in the presence of a nickel catalyst will yieldA) pentane.B) 2-pentene.C) diethyl alcohol.D) 3-pentanol.E) pentanaldehyde.

Answer: D

3) The hydrogenation of 2-methylpropanal gives the productA) 1-butanol.B) 2-methylpropanoic acid.C) 2-methyl-3-propanol.D) 2-methyl-1-propanol.E) 2-methyl-2-propanol.

Answer: D

4) The product of adding two molecules of an alcohol to an aldehyde in the presence of acid is a(n)A) acetal.B) ether.C) hemiacetal.D) hemiether.E) hydroxyl group.

Answer: A

5) Which of these compounds is the hemiacetal that forms when ethanol reacts with propanal?A) OH

CH3CH2∣C OCH2CH3∣H

B) OH

CH3∣C OCH2CH3∣H

C) O CH2CH3

CH3CH2∣C OCH2CH3∣H

D) OCH2CH3

CH3∣C OCH3∣H

E) OCH2CH2CH3

CH3∣C OCH2CH2CH3∣

CH2CH2CH3

Answer: A

6) What is the acetal formed when propanone reacts with two molecules of methanol?A) OH

CH3∣C CH3∣C H3

B) OCH3

CH3∣C CH3∣O CH3

C) OCH3

CH3∣C OCH3∣O CH3

D) CH3 CH3

CH3∣C - O -

∣C CH3

∣H

∣H

E) OH

CH3∣C CH3∣O CH3

Answer: B

7) Which of the following compounds contains a ketone functional group?A) CH3

CH3∣C OH

∣C H3

B) O

CH3C H

C) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

D) O

CH3CH2C CH3

E) CH3 - O - CH

∣C H3

Answer: D

8) Which of the following ketones is the most soluble in water?A) O

CH3C CH3

B) O

CH3CHC CH3

∣C H3

C) O

CH3CH2C CH3

D) O

CH3C CH2CH2CH3

E) O

CH3CH2C CH2CH3

Answer: A


O

CH3C H

A) methyl aldehydeB) 1-ethanaldehydeC) 1-ethanoneD) ethanalE) methanal

Answer: D


A) methylcyclohexanoneB) 2,5-dimethylcyclohexanoneC) 1,4-dimethyl-2-cyclohexanoneD) cyclohexyl methyl ketoneE) 1,4-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanone

Answer: B


O

CH3C CHCH3

∣C H3

A) 2-pentanoneB) methyl propyl ketoneC) 3-methyl-2-butanoneD) 2-methyl-3-butanoneE) 2-methyl-3-ketone butane

Answer: C

12) Three functional groups found in this compound are

A) alcohol, aromatic, and ether.B) alcohol, aldehyde, and ether.C) alcohol, ether, and ketone.D) aldehyde, ether, and carboxylic acid.E) cycloalkene, alcohol, and carboxylic acid.

Answer: C

13) Which of the following pairs of compounds are isomers?A) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3OCH3

B) O O

CH3CH2C CH3 and CH3

C CH2CH3

C) OH

CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3∣C CH3∣C H3

D) OH

CH3CH2CHOH and CH3∣C HCH2CH3

∣C H3

E) O

CH3CH2OH and HC CH3

Answer: C

14) In all aldehydes except formaldehyde, how many hydrogen atoms is the carbonyl group bonded to?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) four

Answer: A

15) How many hydrogen atoms is the carbonyl group in a ketone bonded to?A) noneB) oneC) twoD) threeE) four

Answer: A

16) The carbonyl group consists ofA) a carbon-oxygen-hydrogen structure.B) a carbon-oxygen single bond.C) a carbon-oxygen double bond.D) a carbon-oxygen triple bond.E) a carbon-oxygen-carbon structure.

Answer: C

17) The oxygen atom in a carbonyl group is ________ the carbon atom.A) more electronegative thanB) less electronegative thanC) identical in electronegativity toD) more electropositive thanE) more soluble than

Answer: A

18) How many lone pairs of electrons does the oxygen in a carbonyl group have?A) None, theyʹre all bonded.B) oneC) twoD) threeE) four

Answer: C

19) In the IUPAC naming system, a ketone is named by replacing the -e in the corresponding alkane name withA) yne.B) ene.C) al.D) one.E) ol.

Answer: D

20) In the IUPAC naming system, an aldehyde is named by replacing the -e of the name of the correspondingalkane with

A) yne.B) ene.C) al.D) one.E) ol.

Answer: C


A) 2-methylbutanoneB) 3-methyl-2-butanoneC) 2-methyl-3-butanoneD) 3-methylbutanoneE) pentanone

Answer: B

22) Formalin isA) another name for formaldehyde.B) a plastic.C) an aqueous solution of formaldehyde.D) an excellent solvent.E) a polymer.

Answer: C

23) Acetone is a ketone commonly used as aA) preservative.B) flavoring agent.C) fuel.D) solvent.E) drain cleaner.

Answer: D

24) The flavoring agent found in vanilla isA) an aldehyde.B) a ketone.C) a hydrocarbon.D) an ester.E) a thiol.

Answer: A

25) The increased boiling point of ketones compared to alkanes and ethers of similar mass is due toA) hydrogen bonding.B) dipole-dipole interactions.C) a bent chain structure.D) resonance.E) ionic interactions.

Answer: B

26) Low-molecular-weight ketones are soluble in water. What is the shortest length of the carbon chain whereinsolubility becomes important?

A) oneB) twoC) fourD) fiveE) eight

Answer: D

27) An enantiomer isA) a stereoisomer that is not a mirror image of another molecule.B) a stereoisomer that is a mirror image of another molecule.C) a diastereoisomer.D) a structural isomer.E) a cis-trans isomer.

Answer: B

28) Which of the following would not be water soluble?A) acetoneB) propanalC) 3-heptanoneD) formaldehydeE) 2-butanone

Answer: C

29) Chirality occurs when stereoisomers have mirror images that areA) superimposable.B) the same.C) not superimposable.D) not visible to one another.E) identical.

Answer: C

30) How many different substituents are required on a carbon atom for it to be chiral?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) Any number from 1 to 4; chiralty does not depend on substitution.

Answer: D

31) Which molecule below has stereoisomers with different biological effects?A) carvoneB) nicotineC) LSDD) epinephrineE) All of the above.

Answer: E

32) Chiral drugs consist of only one enantiomer. The benefits of using a pure enantiomer, rather than a mixture,include

A) higher potency (lower total dose of drug).B) elimination of side effects.C) reduced chances of drug interactions.D) All of the above.E) None of the above.

Answer: D

33) The Tollens test may be used to distinguishA) acids from amines.B) esters from acids.C) ketones from alcohols.D) aldehydes from ketones.E) alcohols from alkenes.

Answer: D

34) Benedictʹs test requires an aldehyde and an adjacentA) saturated carbon.B) ketone.C) alcohol.D) phenyl ring.E) acid.

Answer: C

35) Aldehydes and ketones may be reduced toA) acids.B) alkanes.C) ethers.D) alcohols.E) esters.

Answer: D

36) Aldehydes and ketones can react with water to formA) oxides.B) hydrates.C) hemiacetals.D) esters.E) hemiethers.

Answer: B

37) An acetal is formed from two molecules of an alcohol and a(n)A) aldehyde.B) ether.C) carboxylic acid.D) alkyl ether.E) ester.

Answer: A

38) How many moles of an alcohol are needed to react with 1 mole of an aldehyde to form a hemiacetal?A) 1B) 1.5C) 2D) 3E) 3.5

Answer: A

39) How do sugars form cyclic hemiacetals?A) Two molecules of a sugar react with one another.B) A molecule of sugar reacts with an added alcohol.C) A molecule of sugar reacts with itself.D) A molecule of sugar reacts with an added aldehyde.E) A sugar molecule decomposes.

Answer: C

40) The ketone with the constitutional formula C5H10O can also be written asA) CH3CH2CH2COCH3.B) CH3COCH2CH2CH3.C) CH3CH2COCH2CH3.D) All of the above.E) None of the above.

Answer: D

41) Which of the compounds would give a positive Tollens test?A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: B

42) What are the bond angles in a typical carbonyl group?A) 45°B) 90°C) 109.5°D) 120°E) 135°

Answer: D

43) How many isomers does the formula C3H6O have?A) twoB) threeC) fiveD) sevenE) eight

Answer: A

44) The compound 2-propanone is also known asA) acetone.B) 2-propanone.C) dimethyl ketone.D) β-propanone.E) propylone.

Answer: A

45) The common name for 2-butanone, a readily available solvent, isA) methyl acetone.B) methyl ethyl ketone or MEK.C) β-butanone.D) butyl ketone.E) butyl ether.

Answer: B

46) Formaldehyde is used industrially to makeA) polymers.B) insulating materials.C) carpeting.D) All of the above.E) None of the above.

Answer: D

47) Acetone can be produced by the body when a person isA) exercising.B) dieting with high protein diets.C) ill with a flu.D) recovering from surgery.E) sleeping.

Answer: B

48) Which compound is used as butter flavor?A) acetoneB) benzaldehydeC) butanedioneD) vanillinE) carvone

Answer: C

49) Aldehydes have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar mass because ofA) hydrogen bonding.B) dipole-dipole interactions.C) ionic bonding.D) covalent bonding.E) oxygen bonding.

Answer: B

50) Achiral compounds are those whichA) have no ʺhandedness.ʺB) have different mirror images.C) are non-superimposable.D) have the same formula but different structures.E) are a racemic mixture.

Answer: A

14.2 True/False Questions1) All aldehydes have a carbonyl carbon bonded to at least two hydrogens.

Answer: FALSE

2) Many odors from solvents, paint removers, and perfumes are derived from aldehydes or ketones.Answer: TRUE

3) In a ketone, the carbonyl group is bonded to two other carbon atoms.Answer: TRUE

4) The carbonyl group consists of a carbon-oxygen single bond, and a second bond to hydrogen.Answer: FALSE

5) The carbonyl group does not have a dipole.Answer: FALSE

6) The suffix -one indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.Answer: FALSE

7) The suffix -al indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.Answer: TRUE

8) Acetone would give a positive Tollens test.Answer: FALSE

9) Acetone is a three-carbon aldehyde.Answer: FALSE

10) Acetone is sometimes produced in pathological conditions such as diabetes.Answer: TRUE

11) Formaldehyde is used in solution as a germicide and preservative.Answer: TRUE

12) Excessive exposure to formaldehyde can irritate the eyes and respiratory tract.Answer: TRUE

13) Butyraldehyde is partly responsible for the flavor of butter.Answer: FALSE

14) A major flavor component of vanilla is an aldehyde.Answer: TRUE

15) The carbonyl group gives aldehydes higher boiling points than alkanes of similar mass.Answer: TRUE

16) The carbonyl group gives ketones lower boiling points than alkanes of similar mass.Answer: FALSE

17) Carbonyl compounds having fewer than four carbon atoms are very water soluble.Answer: TRUE

18) Hexanal would be soluble in water.Answer: FALSE

19) Enantiomers are mirror images of each other.Answer: TRUE

20) A chiral carbon atom can have fewer than four different groups bonded to it.Answer: FALSE

21) Enantiomers may have very different tastes or smells.Answer: TRUE

22) The biological activity of one of a set of enantionmers may be very different from the biological activity of theother optical isomers.Answer: TRUE

23) The Tollens test is used to distinguish between alcohols and acids.Answer: FALSE

24) Benedictʹs test is used to determine whether an α-hydroxyaldehyde functional group is present.Answer: TRUE

14.3 Matching QuestionsSelect the correct name for the following.

1) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C CH2CH3

Column 2: diethyl ketone

Foil: 3-propanoneAnswer: diethyl ketone

2) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C H

Column 2: propanal

Foil: 1-propanoneAnswer: propanal

Match the structural formula with the correct functional group.

3) Column 1: O

CH3CH


4) Column 1: O

CH3C CH2CH3


Identify the product, if any, that would form in each of the following reactions.

5) Column 1: O

CH3C H

[O]

Column 2: O

CH3C OH

Answer: O

CH3C OH

6) Column 1: O

CH3C CH3 + H2

Ni

Column 2: OH

CH3∣C HCH3

Foil: CH3CH2CH3

Answer: OH

CH3∣C HCH3

7) Column 1: O

CH3C H + H2

Ni

Column 2: CH3CH2OH

Foil: CH3CH3

Answer: CH3CH2OH

8) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C CH3 + CH3OH

H+

Column 2: O CH3

CH3CH2∣C CH3∣O H

Foil: no reactionAnswer: O CH3

CH3CH2∣C CH3∣O H

9) Column 1: O

CH3CH2CH2C H + CH3OH

→

Column 2: OH

CH3CH2CH2∣C OCH3∣H

Answer: OH

CH3CH2CH2∣C OCH3∣H

Identify the family for each of the following compounds.

10) Column 1: CH3CH2OCH3


11) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C H


Chapter 15 Carbohydrates15.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) A carbohydrate that gives two molecules when it is completely hydrolyzed is known as aA) monosaccharide.B) disaccharide.C) polysaccharide.D) starch.E) trisaccharide.

Answer: B

2) Which group of carbohydrates cannot be hydrolyzed to give smaller molecules?A) monosaccharidesB) disaccharidesC) trisaccharidesD) oligosaccharidesE) polysaccharides

Answer: A

3) A monosaccharide that consists of 5 carbon atoms, one of which is in a ketone group, is classified as a(n)A) aldotetrose.B) aldopentose.C) aldohexose.D) ketotetrose.E) ketopentose.

Answer: E

4) A monosaccharide that contains 4 carbon atoms, one of which is in an aldehyde group, is classified as a(n)A) aldopentose.B) aldohexose.C) ketopentose.D) aldotetrose.E) ketotetrose.

Answer: D

5) Ribulose has the following structural formula. To what carbohydrate class does ribulose belong?

CH2OH∣

C =O∣

H - C - OH∣

H - C - OH∣

CH2OH

A) aldotetroseB) aldopentoseC) ketotetroseD) ketopentoseE) ketohexose

Answer: D

6) The reduction of monosaccharides producesA) sugar alcohols.B) disaccharides.C) trisaccharides.D) sugar acids.E) polysaccharides.

Answer: A

7) In the L- isomer of a Fischer projection of a monosaccharide, the -OH group furthest from the carbonyl iswritten

A) on the left of the top chiral carbon.B) on the right of the top chiral carbon.C) on the left of the middle chiral carbon.D) on the left of the bottom chiral carbon.E) on the right of the bottom chiral carbon.

Answer: D

8) One difference between D-glucose and L-glucose isA) the open-chain form of L-glucose does not exist.B) it is not possible to make L-glucose.C) L-glucose has a 5-membered ring , and D-glucose has a 6-membered ring.D) only D-glucose is found in disaccharides and polysaccharides.E) L-glucose cannot form a closed structure.

Answer: D

9) The sugar also known as dextrose and blood sugar isA) glucose.B) galactose.C) fructose.D) lactose.E) sucrose.

Answer: A

10) A glycosidic bond between two monosaccharides can also be classified as a(n)A) double bond.B) ester bond.C) ether bond.D) achiral bond.E) alcohol bond.

Answer: C

11) In a disaccharide, two monosaccharides are joined by what kind of bond?A) doubleB) anomericC) alcoholD) glycosidicE) rotational

Answer: D

12) Which of the following contains a β-1,4-glycosidic bond?A) galactoseB) lactoseC) maltoseD) sucroseE) amylose

Answer: B

13) Which sugar is NOT a reducing sugar?A) glucoseB) fructoseC) galactoseD) maltoseE) sucrose

Answer: E

Refer to the disaccharide below to answer the question(s) that follow.

14) In the figure above, the monosaccharide unit on the left is a(n)A) aldopentose.B) ketopentose.C) aldohexose.D) aldoheptose.E) ketohexose.

Answer: E

15) In the figure above, the monosaccharide unit on the right is a(n)A) aldopentose.B) ketopentose.C) aldohexose.D) aldoheptose.E) ketohexose.

Answer: C

16) Hydrolysis of the disaccharide above gives the monosaccharidesA) fructose and ribose.B) fructose and galactose.C) ribose and glucose.D) ribose and galactose.E) fructose and lactose.

Answer: B

17) The disaccharide above contains a(n) ________-glycosidic linkage.A) α-1,4B) β-1,4C) α-2,4D) β-2,4E) α-2,6

Answer: E

18) Maltose is aA) monosaccharide.B) disaccharide.C) trisaccharide.D) polysaccharide.E) phosphosaccharide.

Answer: B

19) Which of the following contains α-1,6-branches?A) amyloseB) glycogenC) celluloseD) sucroseE) maltose

Answer: B

20) Cellulose is not digestible by humans because it contains glucose units linked by ________-glycosidic bonds.A) α-1,2B) α-1,4C) α-1,6D) β-1,2E) β-1,4

Answer: E

21) Amylose is a form of starch which hasA) only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.B) only α-1,4-links bonds glucose units.C) both α-1,4-and β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.D) hemiacetal links joining glucose units.E) carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units.

Answer: B

22) Humans cannot digest cellulose because theyA) lack the necessary enzymes to digest β-glycosides.B) are allergic to β-glycosides.C) are poisoned by β-glycosides.D) have intestinal flora which use up β-glycosides.E) cannot digest chlorophyll.

Answer: A

23) Aspartame® and Saccharin® are two examples ofA) disaccharides.B) polysaccharides.C) chlorosaccharides.D) alcohol sweeteners.E) noncarbohydrate sweeteners.

Answer: E

24) Galactose has the structure shown below. It can be classified as a(n)

A) ribose.B) ketose.C) disaccharide.D) monosaccharide.E) ketone.

Answer: D

25) Galactosemia is the name of a metabolic disorder. In this disorder, an enzyme is missing that is needed toA) make galactose from lactose.B) make lactose from galactose.C) convert galactose to glycogen.D) convert galactose to glucose.E) convert α-galactose to β-galactose.

Answer: D

26) Under acid hydrolysis conditions, starch is converted toA) glucose.B) xylose.C) maltose.D) galactose.E) fructose.

Answer: A

27) Maltose can be classified as a(n)A) disaccharide.B) polysaccharide.C) ketose.D) pentose.E) oligosaccharide.

Answer: A

28) Hyperglycemia is a condition in whichA) the glucose level in the blood is about 100 mg/dL.B) the amount of glucose in the urine is lower than normal.C) the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal.D) the glucose level in the pancreas is lower than normal.E) the glucose level in the liver is lower than normal.

Answer: C

29) Hypoglycemia is a condition in whichA) the glucose level in the blood is about 100 mg/dL.B) the amount of glucose in the urine is higher than normal.C) the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal.D) the glucose level in the pancreas is higher than normal.E) the glucose level in the blood is lower than normal.

Answer: E

30) During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water are converted to glucose and oxygen byA) large animals.B) insects.C) mushrooms.D) green plants.E) earthworms.

Answer: D

31) The breakdown of carbohydrates to carbon dioxide and water in the body is calledA) reductionB) respiration.C) photosynthesis.D) anabolism.E) mutarotation.

Answer: B

32) Photosynthesis uses ________ as an energy source.A) glucoseB) carbon dioxideC) chlorophyllD) oxygenE) sunlight

Answer: E

33) Fructose does not undergo hydrolysis because it is aA) aldose.B) hexose.C) reducing sugar.D) monosaccharide.E) disaccharide.

Answer: D

34) Galactose is a product of enzymatic hydrolysis ofA) lactose.B) glucose.C) maltose.D) erythrose.E) sucrose.

Answer: A

15.2 Short Answer QuestionsState whether each of these structures is the α- or β-form.

1)

Answer: α (alpha)

2)

Answer: β (beta)

3)

Answer: α (alpha)

4)

Answer: α (alpha)

5)

Answer: β (beta)

15.3 True/False Questions1) Sucrose is a disaccharide.

Answer: TRUE

2) A reducing sugar gives a precipitate of silver metal with Benedictʹs reagent.Answer: FALSE

3) Sucrose is made up of glucose units only.Answer: FALSE

4) Amylopectin is a straight-chain polysaccharide.Answer: FALSE

5) Cellulose will give a positive Benedictʹs test.Answer: FALSE

6) The product of oxidation of an aldose is a carboxylic acid.Answer: TRUE

7) The product of reduction of mannose is mannic acid.Answer: FALSE

8) Sucrose is a reducing sugar.Answer: FALSE

9) The product of reduction of xylose is xylitol.Answer: TRUE

15.4 Matching QuestionsSelect the correct carbohydrate for each description.

1) Column 1: a carbohydrate that cannot bedigested by humans

Column 2: celluloseAnswer: cellulose

2) Column 1: a disaccharide that occurs as abreakdown product of starch

Column 2: maltoseAnswer: maltose

3) Column 1: a carbohydrate that storesenergy in the human body

Column 2: glycogenAnswer: glycogen

4) Column 1: a carbohydrate that is used tobuild cell walls in plants

Column 2: celluloseAnswer: cellulose

5) Column 1: a monosaccharide thatcombines with glucose to formlactose

Column 2: galactoseAnswer: galactose

6) Column 1: a disaccharide found in milkand milk products

Column 2: lactoseAnswer: lactose

7) Column 1: a disaccharide consisting ofglucose and fructose

Column 2: sucroseAnswer: sucrose

8) Column 1: a disaccharide consisting oftwo glucose molecules

Column 2: maltoseAnswer: maltose

9) Column 1: a monosaccharide found infruit juices and honey, thesweetest carbohydrate

Column 2: fructoseAnswer: fructose

10) Column 1: an unbranched carbohydratethat stores glucose in plants

Column 2: amyloseAnswer: amylose

Indicate the monosaccharide(s) produced upon hydrolysis of each carbohydrate.

11) Column 1: amylopectin

Column 2: glucoseAnswer: glucose

12) Column 1: lactose

Column 2: glucose + galactoseAnswer: glucose + galactose

13) Column 1: glycogen


14) Column 1: maltose


15) Column 1: sucrose

Column 2: glucose + fructoseAnswer: glucose + fructose

Chapter 16 Carboxylic Acids and Esters16.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which functional group is a carboxylic acid?A) - OH

B) O

-C OH

C) O

-C - O -

D) OH|

- C - OH|

E) - CH2OH

Answer: B

2) This functional group is known as a(n)

O

- C - O -

A) ester.B) carboxylic acid.C) alcohol.D) aldehyde.E) acetal.

Answer: A

3) The functional group in acetic acid is called theA) hydroxyl group.B) aldehyde group.C) carbonyl group.D) carboxyl group.E) ester group.

Answer: D

4) Which of the following is found in vinegar?A) nitric acidB) formic acidC) acetic acidD) propionic acidE) butyric acid

Answer: C

5) The common name of the compoundO

CH3CH2CH2C - OH is

A) acetic acid.B) propanoic acid.C) propionic acid.D) butanoic acid.E) butyric acid.

Answer: E

6) In the compound below, the hydroxyl group is in which position?

O

CH3CH2CHC - OH

∣O H

A) αB) βC) γD) δE) ε

Answer: A

7) The compound below is named

A) benzoic acid amine.B) m-aminobenzoic acid.C) 2-acid aniline.D) benzamide.E) m-benzoic acid aniline.

Answer: B


CH3 O

CH3∣C HCH2

C OH

A) pentanoic acidB) γ-methylbutanoic acidC) 3-methylbutanoic acidD) γ-methyl butyric acidE) 2-methyl-4-butanoic acid

Answer: C

9) A carboxylic acid is prepared from an aldehyde byA) oxidation.B) reduction.C) hydrolysis.D) neutralization.E) hydrogenation.

Answer: A

10) The structural formula of the carboxylic acid produced by the oxidation of2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol is

A) CH3 O

CH3∣C -

C H

∣C H3

B) CH3 O CH3

CH3∣C -

C - O

∣C CH3

∣C H3

∣C H3

C) O

CH3CH2CH2CH2C OH

D) CH3 O

CH3∣C -

C OH

∣C H3

E) CH3

CH3∣C - OH

∣C H3

Answer: D

11) In water solution, how does dilute acetic acid behave?A) as a strong acidB) as a weak acidC) as a strong baseD) as a weak baseE) as a neutral compound

Answer: B

12) Which of the following is the reaction for the ionization of β-hydroxypropanoic acid in water?A) O OH

HOCH2CH2C OH + H2O ↔ HOCH2CH2

∣CH OH + H+

B) O O

HOCH2CH2C OH + H2O ↔ HOCH2CH2

C O- + H3O+

C) O O

CH3CHC OH + H2O ↔ CH3CH

C O- + H3O+

∣O H

∣O H

D) O O

HOCH2CH2C OH + 2 H2O ↔ - OCH2CH2

C O- + 2 H3O+

E) O O

CH3CHC OH + H2O ↔ CH3CH

C OH + H3O+

| | OH O-

Answer: B

13) The neutralization of formic acid by NaOH producesA) sodium formate as the only product.B) formate ion and hydronium ion.C) sodium formaldehyde.D) methyl alcohol.E) sodium formate and H2O.

Answer: E

14) Which of the following compounds is most soluble in water?A) CH3CH2CH3

B) CH3CH2CH2OCH3

C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

D) O

CH3CH2CH2CH2C OH

E) O

CH3C OH

Answer: E

15) Which of the following is the reaction for the neutralization of β-hydroxybutyric acid with NaOH?A) OH O OH O

CH3∣C HCH2

C OH + NaOH → CH3

∣C HCH2

C O- Na+ + H2O

B) OH O OH O

CH3∣C HCH2

C OH + NaOH → CH3C

∣C H2

C OH + NaH

∣O H

C) OH O OH O

CH3CH2∣C H

C OH + NaOH → CH3CH2

∣C H

C O-Na+ + H2O

D) OH O O-Na+ O

CH3∣C HCH2

C OH + 2 NaOH → CH3

∣C HCH2

C O-Na+ + 2 H2O

E) O O

CH3CH2CHC - OH + 2 NaOH → CH3CH2CH

C O-Na+ + H2O

∣O H

∣O H

Answer: A

16) Which compound below contains an ester functional group?A) OH

CH3∣C HCH2CH3

B) CH3CH2 - O - CH2CH3

C) O

HC - O- CH2CH3

D) O

CH3C CH2CH3

E) O

CH3C - OH

Answer: C

17) Many of the fragrances of flowers and the flavors of fruits are due toA) ethers.B) carboxylic acids.C) esters.D) amines.E) amides.

Answer: C


O

CH3C - O - CH2CH3

A) ethyl methyl esterB) diethyl esterC) ethyl methanoateD) 2-ether-2-butanoneE) ethyl acetate

Answer: E

19) The reactants that will form an ester in the presence of an acid catalyst areA) two carboxylic acids.B) two alcohols.C) a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.D) an aldehyde and an alcohol.E) two aldehydes.

Answer: C

20) Which of these compounds is the ester formed from the reaction of acetic acid and 1-propanol?A) O

CH3CH2C OCH2CH3

B) OH

CH3∣C OH

∣O CH2CH2CH3

C) OH

CH3CH2∣C OH

∣O CH2CH3

D) O

CH3C OCH2CH2CH3

E) O

CH3CH2CH2OCH2C OH

Answer: D

21) The alcohol and carboxylic acid required to form propyl ethanoate areA) methanol and propionic acid.B) ethanol and propionic acid.C) propanol and propanoic acid.D) 1-propanol and ethanoic acid.E) 2-propanol and ethanoic acid.

Answer: D

22) The splitting apart of an ester in the presence of a strong acid and water is calledA) hydrolysis.B) saponification.C) neutralization.D) esterification.E) reduction.

Answer: A

23) Which of the following is the reaction for the acid hydrolysis of ethyl formate?A) O O

CH3C OCH3 + NaOH → CH3

C O-Na+ + CH3OH

B) O O

CH3C OCH3 + H2O → CH3

C OH + CH3OH

C) O O

HC OCH3 + H2O → H

C OH + CH3OH

D) O O

HC OCH2CH3 + H2O → H

C OH + CH3CH2OH

E) O OH

HC OCH2CH3 + H2O → H

∣C OCH2CH3∣O H

Answer: D

24) Which of the following is the reaction for the saponification of methyl acetate?A) O O


C OH + CH3O-Na+

B) O O


C O-Na+ + CH3OH

C) O O

HC OCH3 + H2O → H

C O- + CH3OH +

2

D) O O

HC OCH3 + NaOH → H

C O-Na+ + CH3OH

E) O O

CH3C OCH3 + H2O → CH3

C O- + CH3OH +

2

Answer: B

25) The reaction of an ester with NaOH is known asA) esterification.B) neutralization.C) saponification.D) reduction.E) oxidation.

Answer: C

26) A carboxylic acid is named in the IUPAC system by replacing the -e in the name of the parent alkane withA) -oic acid.B) -oic.C) -carboxylic acid.D) acid.E) -oate.

Answer: A

27) When compared to sulfuric acid, how strong are carboxylic acids?A) strongerB) just as strongC) weakerD) not acidic at all

Answer: C

28) What kind of taste do carboxylic acids have?A) sweetB) sourC) fruityD) slipperyE) oily

Answer: B

29) W hat is the common name for ethanoic acid?A) butyric acidB) formic acidC) citric acidD) stearic acidE) acetic acid

Answer: E

30) What is the irritating acid found in ant and bee stings?A) acetic acidB) formic acidC) citric acidD) butyric acidE) stearic acid

Answer: B

31) Which organic acid accounts for the odor of rancid butter?A) propionic acidB) acetic acidC) formic acidD) butyric acidE) ethanoic acid

Answer: D

32) In the common naming convention for carboxylic acids, what is the correct Greek letter used for the carbonadjacent to the carboxyl group?

A) αB) βC) γD) δE) ε

Answer: A

33) What therapeutic use is made of α-hydroxy acids?A) ulcer treatmentB) fever reductionC) antibioticD) reduction of skin pigmentationE) sunscreen

Answer: D

34) What significant side effect is seen with α-hydroxy acid use?A) UV sensitivityB) increased thirstC) nauseaD) increased susceptibility to infectionE) gastric irritation

Answer: A

35) What α-hydroxy acid is found predominantly in grapes?A) tartaric acidB) citric acidC) lactic acidD) glycolic acidE) benzoic acid

Answer: A

36) What is the method of preparing carboxylic acids from alcohols or aldehydes?A) reductionB) hydrationC) oxidationD) saponificationE) hydrolysis

Answer: C

37) Which carboxylic acid in the list below is an aromatic carboxylic acid?A) acetic acidB) benzoic acidC) butyric acidD) benzeneE) citric acid

Answer: B

38) What kind of intermolecular bonding occurs between carboxylic acids?A) ionic bondingB) nonpolar bondingC) covalent bondingD) hydrogen bondingE) charge-transfer bonding

Answer: D

39) Why do carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than similar alcohols or aldehydes?A) They form dimers that are relatively stable.B) They are more water soluble.C) They have higher molecular weights.D) They have an additional oxygen atom.E) The carboxylic acid chain is not linear.

Answer: A

40) What happens to water solubility as chain length increases in carboxylic acids?A) It increases.B) It decreases.C) It stays the same.

Answer: B

41) What is the common use of monosodium glutamate?A) as a preservativeB) as a disinfectantC) as an anti-pyreticD) as a flavor enhancerE) as a spoilage inhibitor

Answer: D

42) What common use is made of sodium propionate and sodium benzoate?A) flavor enhancerB) preservativeC) pH adjusterD) disinfectantE) decongestant

Answer: B

43) What metabolic product of pyruvic acid is formed anaerobically during exercise?A) lactic acidB) citric acidC) malic acidD) acetic acidE) β-ketoglutaric acid

Answer: A

44) Which of these is an acid formed in the citric acid cycle?A) acetic acidB) propionic acidC) α-ketoglutaric acidD) benzoic acidE) palmitic acid

Answer: C

45) What is the product of the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid when reacted together under acidicconditions?

A) an etherB) an esterC) a saltD) a ketoneE) an aldehyde

Answer: B

46) Derivatives of which aromatic carboxylic acid have been used as analgesics, antipyretics, andanti-inflammatory agents?

A) benzoic acidB) anthranilic acidC) naphthenic acidD) p-toluenesulfonic acidE) salicylic acid

Answer: E

47) Which of these functional groups is likely to give a sour taste to a food?A) esterB) etherC) ketoneD) carboxylic acidE) thiol

Answer: D

48) From what component is the first part of the IUPAC name of an ester (such as methyl anthranilate) derived?A) the carboxylic acidB) the alcoholC) the etherD) the esterE) the amide

Answer: B

49) What chemical process is responsible for the smell of vinegar in an old bottle of aspirin?A) reductionB) hydrationC) hydrolysisD) esterificationE) dissolution

Answer: C

50) What kind of conditions can produce hydrolysis of an ester?A) acidicB) basicC) either acidic or basicD) neither acidic nor basic

Answer: C

51) Which part of a soap is responsible for its ability to dissolve fats and oily dirt?A) the hyrophilic endB) the hydrophobic endC) the carboxylateD) the ionized oxygenE) the carbonyl group

Answer: B

52) What is the name of the structure formed when a soap coats an oily particle to make it water soluble?A) micelleB) clusterC) liposomeD) dimerE) lipid

Answer: A

16.2 True-False Questions1) Soaps are salts of long chain fatty acids.

Answer: TRUE

2) Carboxylic acids are strong acids.Answer: FALSE

3) Esters are formed from the reaction of an ether with a carboxylic acid.Answer: FALSE

4) Carboxylic acids are responsible for the sweet taste of fruits and vegetables.Answer: FALSE

5) Long chain carboxylic acids are also known as fatty acids.Answer: TRUE

6) Aspirin that has a smell of vinegar has broken down by hydrolysis.Answer: TRUE

7) The major acidic component of vinegar is formic acid.Answer: FALSE

8) Alpha-hydroxy acids should be used at concentrations under 10% in skin care products.Answer: TRUE

9) It is always safe to use any commercial skin care product without doing a test patch first.Answer: FALSE

10) Benzoic acid is an aliphatic carboxylic acid.Answer: FALSE

11) Carboxylic acids with more than five carbons are very water soluble.Answer: FALSE

12) The boiling points of carboxylic acids are lower than the corresponding alcohols.Answer: FALSE

13) Carboxylic acids with four or fewer carbons are very water soluble.Answer: TRUE

14) Sodium propionate is a common disinfectant.Answer: FALSE

15) Most of the carboxylic acid in an aqueous solution is ionized.Answer: FALSE

16) Sodium benzoate is a common preservative.Answer: TRUE

17) Citric acid is an important part of glycolysis.Answer: FALSE

18) The Krebs cycle is a process that the cell uses to produce energy.Answer: TRUE

19) The Krebs cycle and the citric acid cycle are different processes.Answer: FALSE

20) An ester is derived from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.Answer: TRUE

21) Methyl salicylate (oil of wintergreen) is used therapeutically as a counter-irritant.Answer: TRUE

22) Polyesters are plastics that are used to make fabrics, bottles, and medical devices such as heart valves.Answer: TRUE

23) Butyl alcohol is one of the reactants used to make methyl butyrate.Answer: FALSE

16.3 Matching QuestionsIdentify the family for each of the following compounds.

1) Column 1: O

CH3C CH3


2) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C OH

Column 2: carboxylic acidAnswer: carboxylic acid

3) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C OCH3



4) Column 1: O

HC OH

Column 2: formic acidAnswer: formic acid

5) Column 1: O

HC - O - CH2CH3

Column 2: ethyl formateAnswer: ethyl formate

6) Column 1: O

HC O - Na+

Column 2: sodium formateAnswer: sodium formate

Chapter 17 Lipids17.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which statement is NOT true?A) Lipids are found in cell membranes.B) Lipids are soluble in organic solvents.C) Lipids vary in composition.D) Oxidation of lipids provides half as much energy as oxidation of carbohydrates.E) Some hormones are lipids.

Answer: D

2) Lipids are compounds that are soluble inA) distilled water.B) normal saline solution.C) glucose solution.D) chloroform.E) oxygen.

Answer: D

3) Which of the following lipids will give a single molecule of fatty acid when hydrolyzed?A) waxB) fatC) phospholipidD) glycolipidE) cholesterol

Answer: A

4) Which of the following lipids will give no fatty acid when hydrolyzed?A) waxB) fatC) phospholipidD) glycolipidE) cholesterol

Answer: E

5) A polyunsaturated fatty acid contains more than oneA) carboxyl group.B) hydroxyl group.C) carbonyl group.D) long carbon chain.E) double bond.

Answer: E

6) Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids becauseA) they have fewer hydrogen atoms.B) they have more hydrogen atoms.C) their molecules fit closely together.D) the cis double bonds give them an irregular shape.E) the trans double bonds give them an irregular shape.

Answer: D

7) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?A) myristicB) oleicC) palmiticD) stearicE) lauric

Answer: B

8) Which of the following fatty acids is a solid at room temperature?A) palmitoleicB) oleicC) stearicD) linoleicE) linolenic

Answer: C

9) Compared to saturated fatty acids, unsaturated fatty acids haveA) longer carbon chains.B) shorter carbon chains.C) higher melting points.D) lower melting points.E) greater intermolecular attraction.

Answer: D

10) Waxes are lipids derived fromA) a long-chain alcohol and a long-chain fatty acid.B) glycerol and three fatty acids.C) glycerol, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol.D) sphingosine, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol.E) terpenes and steroids.

Answer: A

11) A triacylglycerol that is solid at room temperature is called a(n)A) cephalin.B) lecithin.C) oil.D) wax.E) fat.

Answer: E

12) Commercially, liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid fats such as margarine byA) hydrogenation.B) hydrolysis.C) hydration.D) oxidation.E) saponification.

Answer: A

13) A fat or oil becomes rancid whenA) its double bonds are oxidized.B) it is hydrogenated.C) it is hydrolyzed.D) it is saponified.E) it is partially hydrogenated.

Answer: A

14) Margarine containing partially hydrogenated soybean oil is solid becauseA) it contains only saturated fats.B) it contains only trans fatty acids.C) some of its double bonds have been converted to single bonds.D) it contains only cis double bonds.E) it contains only polyunsaturated fatty acids.

Answer: C

15) Palmitic acid is a 16 carbon acid. In a balanced equation, the products of the saponification of tripalmitin(glyceryl tripalmitate) are

A) O

CH2 - OH + 3 H3C - (CH2)14 -C - OH

| CH - OH|C H2 - OH

B) O

CH2- O- Na+ + 3 H3C - (CH2)14 -C - OH

|CH - O- Na+

|CH2- O - Na+

C) O

CH2 - OH + 3 H3C - (CH2)14 -C - O- Na+

|CHOH|CH2 - OH

D) O

CH2 - OH + H3C - (CH2)14 -C - O- Na+

|3 CHOH

|CH2 - OH

E) O

CH2 - OH + 2 H3C - (CH2)14 -C - O- Na+

|CHOH O | CH2 - OH + H3C - (CH2)16 - C - O- Na+

Answer: C

16) The products of the acid catalyzed hydrolysis of a fat areA) the esters of fatty acids.B) fatty acids and glycerol.C) salts of fatty acids.D) salts of fatty acids and glycerol.E) phospholipids.

Answer: B

17) The products of the saponification of a fat areA) the esters of fatty acids.B) fatty acids and glycerol.C) salts of fatty acids.D) salts of fatty acids and glycerol.E) phospholipids.

Answer: D

18) Glycerolphospholipids can interact both with other lipids and water because they contain both ________ and________.

A) single bonds; double bondsB) polar regions; nonpolar regionsC) glycerol; sphingosineD) saturated fatty acids; unsaturated fatty acidsE) bile salts; cholesterol

Answer: B

19) The components in the following glycerolphospholipid are

|O-

A) sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and choline.B) sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and serine.C) glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.D) glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and galactose.E) sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.

Answer: C

20) The main lipid components in cellular membranes areA) glycerolphospholipids.B) terpenes.C) steroids.D) triacylglycerols.E) waxes.

Answer: A

21) In the list below, which lipid type is most soluble in water?A) triacylglycerolsB) glycerophospholipidsC) oilsD) steroidsE) waxes

Answer: B

22) Glycospingolipids are lipids composed ofA) a long-chain alcohol and a fatty acid.B) glycerol and fatty acids.C) glycerol, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol.D) sphingosine, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol.E) sphingosine, fatty acids, amino alcohol, phosphate, and a carbohydrate.

Answer: E

23) What phospholipid contains fatty acids but NOT glycerol?A) lecithinB) glycolipidC) sphingolipidD) cephalinE) corticosteroid

Answer: C

24) Which of the following compounds is a glycerolphospholipid?A) jojoba waxB) estrogenC) lecithinD) trioleinE) cerebroside

Answer: C

25) Which of the following is a lipid?A) cholesterolB) nicotineC) anilineD) lactoseE) collagen

Answer: A

26) Which of the following is NOT a function of glycerophospholipids?A) transport of triacylglycerolsB) regulation of cellular permeabilityC) protect nerve cellsD) aid in digestionE) transport of cholesterol

Answer: D

27) The most common type of gallstones is composed of almost pureA) cholesterol.B) bile salts.C) glycerophospholipids.D) calcium salts of fatty acids.E) anabolic steroids.

Answer: A

28) Which of the following is NOT a lipoprotein that carries nonpolar lipids through the bloodstream?A) sphingosineB) LDLC) HDLD) VLDLE) chylomicron

Answer: A

29) The steroid hormone that increases the blood glucose and glycogen levels from fatty acids and amino acids isA) aldosterone.B) progesterone.C) cortisone.D) estrogen.E) prednisone.

Answer: C

30) The steroid hormone present in birth control pills isA) aldosterone.B) progesterone.C) cortisone.D) estrogen.E) norethindrone.

Answer: E

31) In the fluid-mosaic model that describes plasma membranes,A) there are three layers of glycerophospholipid molecules.B) two layers of glycerophospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections oriented to the inside of the

membrane.C) two layers of glycerophospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections along the outer surface of the

membrane.D) A single row of glycerophospholipid molecules forms a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell.E) two layers of proteins separate the contents inside a cell from the surrounding fluids.

Answer: B

32) Channel proteins in cell membranes serve what function?A) They add strength and rigidity to the membrane.B) They provide pathways for water and electrolytes to move through cell membranes.C) They form the bilayer portion of the membrane.D) They allow nonpolar substances to move through the membrane.E) They prevent interactions between the nonpolar tails of the phospholipids which gives the membrane its

fluidity.Answer: B

33) A double cheeseburger with bacon contains 640 kcal and 39 g of fat. Calculate the number of kilocalories fromfat. (1 gram of fat = 9 kcal; 1 gram of carbohydrate or protein delivers 4 kcal.)

A) 4.3 kcal from fatB) 39 kcal from fatC) 71 kcal from fatD) 350 kcal from fatE) 640 kcal from fat

Answer: D

34) A double cheeseburger with bacon contains 640 kcal and 39 g of fat. Calculate the percentage of totalkilocalories due to fat (1 gram of fat = 9 kcal).

A) 0.68% of total kilocaloriesB) 6.1% of total kilocaloriesC) 11% of total kilocaloriesD) 55% of total kilocaloriesE) 100% of total kilocalories

Answer: D

For the question(s) that follow, identify the class of lipid to which each of the following molecules belongs.

35)

A) waxB) triacylglycerolC) glycerolphospholipidD) glycosphingolipidE) steroid

Answer: A

36)

A) triacylglycerolB) waxC) glycerolphospholipidD) bile saltE) steroid

Answer: A

37)

|O-

A) glycerophospholipidB) triacylglycerolC) glycosphingolipidD) steroidE) wax

Answer: A

38)

|O-

A) sphingolipidB) simple lipidC) bile saltD) triacylglycerolE) prostaglandin

Answer: A

39)

A) steroidB) glycerophospholipidC) waxD) bile saltE) prostaglandin

Answer: A

40)

A) bile saltB) triacylglycerolC) prostaglandinD) waxE) sphingolipid

Answer: A

41) According to the fluid-mosaic model of a cell membrane, the main component of a membrane isA) a lipid bilayer.B) a membrane protein.C) a glycoprotein.D) a steroid.E) a prostaglandin.

Answer: A

42) The type of lipid that gives a cell membrane its shape is aA) triacylglycerol.B) glycerophospholipid.C) prostaglandin.D) bile salt.E) wax.

Answer: B

43) One inner component of a typical cell membrane isA) glucose.B) cholesterol.C) glycine.D) palmitic acid.E) glycerol.

Answer: B

44) A lipoprotein particle functions toA) dissolve polar lipids for excretion.B) metabolize lipids into new substances.C) dissolve polar lipids in urine.D) transport nonpolar lipids to body cells.E) store lipids in the tissues.

Answer: D

45) Synthesis of cholesterol and bile salts takes place in theA) liver.B) gall bladder.C) small intestine.D) large intestine.E) pancreas.

Answer: A

Answer the question(s) that follow about the diagram shown below.

46) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the small branched object labeled (A) is part of aA) steroid.B) hydrophobic region.C) membrane protein.D) glycerophospholipid.E) glycolipid.

Answer: E

47) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the large object labeled (E) isA) a steroid.B) a hydrophobic region.C) an integral membrane protein.D) a phospholipid.E) a glycolipid.

Answer: C

48) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (C) is aA) steroid.B) hydrophobic region.C) phospholipid.D) mitochondrion.E) glycolipid.

Answer: B

49) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (B) is aA) steroid.B) hydrophobic region.C) membrane protein.D) glycerophospholipid bilayer.E) glycolipid.

Answer: D

50) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (D) is part of aA) steroid.B) hydrophobic region.C) peripheral membrane protein.D) glycerophospholipid.E) glycosphingolipid.

Answer: C

17.2 Bimodal Questions1) Bile salts are synthesized from ________.

A) cephalinB) triacylglycerolsC) pancreasD) cholesterolE) lecithin

Answer: D

2) Cholesterol belongs to the ________ group of lipids.A) phospholipidB) steroidC) prostaglandinD) triacylglycerolE) wax

Answer: B

3) Bile salts are stored in the ________.A) liverB) pancreasC) stomachD) gall bladderE) small intestine

Answer: D

4) Bile salts are among the lipid class known as ________.A) sphingosidesB) prostaglandinsC) cerebrosidesD) triacylglycerolsE) steroids

Answer: E

5) A precursor of prostaglandins is ________ acid.A) oleicB) linoleicC) arachidonicD) tauricE) palmitic

Answer: C

6) In a simple model of atherosclerosis and heart disease, the compound that forms plaques that adhere to thewalls of the blood vessels is ________.

A) cholesterolB) carnauba waxC) stearic acidD) glycerolE) sphingosine

Answer: A

7) The name of the reaction that occurs when a fat reacts with sodium hydroxide and water is ________.A) hydrogenationB) reductionC) hydrationD) oxidationE) saponification

Answer: E

17.3 True/False Questions1) The catalyst needed for saponification is H+ ion.

Answer: FALSE

2) Olestra is a triacylglycerol.Answer: FALSE

3) Hydrogenation of a double bond in a triacylglycerol requires a catalyst.Answer: TRUE

4) Most plant lipids are saturated lipids.Answer: FALSE

5) The head of a triacylglycerol is the polar end of the molecule.Answer: TRUE

6) The tail of a triacylglycerol is the nonpolar end.Answer: TRUE

7) One function of phospholipids is to provide structure to biomembranes.Answer: TRUE

8) In the fluid-mosaic model of cell membranes, the lipid molecules are oriented with their heads to the outside ofthe membrane.Answer: TRUE

9) Glycoproteins are components of cell membranes.Answer: TRUE

10) The interior of a lipid bilayer is the hydrophilic region.Answer: FALSE

17.4 Matching QuestionsMatch the following.

1) Column 1: Triacylglycerols are formedfrom glycerol and ________.

Column 2: fatty acids

Foil: glycerinAnswer: fatty acids

2) Column 1: a lipid that cannot behydrolyzed

Column 2: cholesterolAnswer: cholesterol

3) Column 1: the functional group oftriacylglycerols


4) Column 1: a fatty acid with at least onedouble bond

Column 2: unsaturatedAnswer: unsaturated

5) Column 1: phospholipids that do notcontain glycerol

Column 2: sphingolipidsAnswer: sphingolipids

6) Column 1: the process of convertingunsaturated fats into saturatedfats

Column 2: hydrogenation

Foil: hydrolysisAnswer: hydrogenation

7) Column 1: the melting points of saturatedfats compared to unsaturatedfats

Column 2: higher

Foil: lowerAnswer: higher

8) Column 1: a source of most saturated fats

Column 2: animals

Foil: plantsAnswer: animals

9) Column 1: a characteristic common tomost lipids

Column 2: insoluble in waterAnswer: insoluble in water

10) Column 1: the product of reacting atriacylglycerol with a strongbase and water

Column 2: soapAnswer: soap

Select the type of lipid that matches the description.

11) Column 1: triolein

Column 2: triacylglycerolAnswer: triacylglycerol

12) Column 1: ganglioside

Column 2: glycosphingolipidAnswer: glycosphingolipid

13) Column 1: aldosterone

Column 2: steroidAnswer: steroid

14) Column 1: testosterone

Column 2: steroidAnswer: steroid

15) Column 1: cephalin

Column 2: glycerophospholipidAnswer: glycerophospholipid

Identify each of the specified regions on this phospholipid as polar or nonpolar.

16) Column 1: A

Column 2: nonpolar

Foil: neitherAnswer: nonpolar

17) Column 1: B

Column 2: nonpolarAnswer: nonpolar

18) Column 1: C

Column 2: polarAnswer: polar

Chapter 18 Amines and Amides18.1 Multiple Choice Questions

1) The compound CH3CH2NHCH3 is classified as aA) primary amine.B) secondary amine.C) tertiary amine.D) quaternary amine.E) hydrated amine.

Answer: B

2) Which of the following compounds CANNOT form hydrogen bonds with water?A) CH3CH2CH3

B) CH3CH2OH

C) O

CH3C OH

D) O

CH3C OCH3

E) CH3CH2NH2

Answer: A


A) 1-methyl-5-bromoanilineB) N-methyl-3-bromoanilineC) N-methyl-p-bromoanilineD) 1-bromo-3-N-methylamine benzeneE) 1-bromo-3-N-methyl aniline

Answer: B

4) Aminobenzene is properly known asA) toluene.B) aniline.C) amidine.D) histidine.E) phenylamine.

Answer: B


CH3NCH2CH3∣C H3

A) trimethylamineB) diethylamineC) ethylmethylamineD) ethylmethylnitrideE) ethyldimethylamine

Answer: E

6) In response to allergic reactions or injury to cells, the body increases the production ofA) diphenhydramine.B) antihistamine.C) histamine.D) epinephrine.E) dopamine.

Answer: C

7) Which of the following represents the complete neutralization of N,N-dimethylamine?

A) CH3NH + H2O → CH3NH2+ + OH-

∣C H3

∣C H3

B) CH3NH + NaOH → CH3N-Na+ + H2O

∣C H3

∣C H3

C) CH3NH + HCl → CH3 NH2 + CH3Cl

∣C H3

D) CH3NH + H2O → CH3OH + CH3NH2∣C H3

E) CH3NH + HCl → CH3NH2+ + Cl-

∣C H3

∣C H3

Answer: E

8) When ethylamine dissolves in water, a solution of _____ is produced.A) ammoniaB) ethylammonium hydroxideC) ethylamineD) ethylhydroxideE) ethylhydroxylate

Answer: B

9) Diethylamine and HCl react to produceA) diethyl chloride.B) diethylammonium chloride.C) ethylammonium chloride.D) ammonium chloride.E) butylammonium chloride.

Answer: B

10) The amide formed in the reaction of benzoic acid and ethylamine isA)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: B

11) When acetic acid reacts with ammonia, NH3, the reaction called amidation yieldsA) acetamine.B) ammonium acetate.C) ethylammonium hydroxide.D) amino acetate.E) acetamide.

Answer: E

12) Physiologically active nitrogen-containing compounds produced by plants are calledA) aromatics.B) alkaloids.C) esters.D) polymers.E) ethers.

Answer: B

13) Which of the following is NOT an alkaloid?A) nicotineB) caffeineC) diethylamineD) quinineE) cocaine

Answer: C

14) What is the major functional group in the following compound?

O

CH3C NHCH3

A) ketoneB) carboxylic acidC) esterD) amineE) amide

Answer: E


A) 1-ethylbenzamideB) N,N-dimethylbenzamideC) 2-ethylbenzamideD) N-ethylbenzamideE) ethylaminobenzoic acid

Answer: D

16) One name for this compound is

O

CH3CH2CNHCH2CH3

A) N-ethylpropanamide.B) N-ethylacetamide.C) pentanamide.D) N,N-diethylacetamide.E) ethylpropionamide.

Answer: A

17) In the formation of N-ethylacetamide, the reactant(s) is(are)A) acetic acid and dimethylamine.B) diethylamine.C) acetamide and ethanol.D) acetic acid and ethylamine.E) ethanol and ethylamine.

Answer: D

18) The reaction of butanoic acid and dimethylamine givesA) N-methylbutanamide.B) N-ethylbutanamide.C) N,N-dimethylbutanamide.D) N,N-methylbutanamine.E) N-methylbutanamine.

Answer: C

19) Which of the following is the reaction for the acid hydrolysis of N-methylacetamide?A) O O

CH3C NHCH3 + H2O → CH3

C NH2 + CH3OH

B) O O

HC NHCH3 + H2O → H

C NH2 + CH3OH

C) O O

CH3C NHCH3 + H2O + HCl → CH3

C NH3+Cl

- + CH3OHD) O O

HC NHCH3 + H2O + HCl → H

C NH3+Cl- + CH3OH

E) O O

CH3C NHCH3 + H2O + HCl → CH3

C OH CH3NH3+Cl-

Answer: E

20) Which of the following is the reaction for the base hydrolysis of N-ethylformamide?A) O O

HC NHCH2CH3 + NaOH → H

C OH + CH3CH2NH2-Na+

B) O O


C O-Na+ + CH3CH2NH2

C) O O


C O-Na+ + NH3 + CH3CH3

D) O O


C O-Na+ + CH3NHCH3

E) O

HC NHCH2CH3 + NaOH → CH3CH2NH2 + NaHCO2

Answer: B

21) With the correct choice of acid, acid hydrolysis of acetamide could produceA) acetic acid and ammonium chloride.B) acetic acid and methylamine.C) ethanol and ammonia.D) acetaldehyde and ammonium hydroxide.E) formic acid and ethylamine.

Answer: A

22) With the correct choice of acid, the product(s) of the acid hydrolysis of N-methylbenzamide could beA) formic acid and aniline.B) methanol and benzoic acid.C) benzoic acid and ethylamine.D) benzoic acid and methylammonium chloride.E) formic acid, phenol, and ammonia.

Answer: D

23) Amines contain the elementA) nitrogen.B) oxygen.C) sulfur.D) astatine.E) arginine.

Answer: A

24) In what kind of amine is the nitrogen bonded to two carbon atoms?A) primaryB) secondaryC) tertiaryD) quaternaryE) amide

Answer: B

25) Which chemical class does phenobarbital belong to?A) esterB) amineC) amideD) alkaneE) ether

Answer: C

26) What functional group is always found in alkaloids (such as caffeine, nicotine, and digitalis)?A) amideB) acidC) etherD) amineE) ester

Answer: D

27) When naming amines according to the IUPAC system, the -e in the corresponding alkane is replaced withA) -amide.B) -amine.C) -ine.D) -ide.E) -ane.

Answer: B

28) Cyclic compounds that contain a nitrogen atom are calledA) carbocyclic compounds.B) aromatic compounds.C) heterocyclic compounds.D) homocyclic compounds.

Answer: C

29) Aniline is a(n)A) primary aromatic amine.B) secondary aromatic amine.C) heterocyclic amine.D) aliphatic amine.E) tertiary amine.

Answer: A

30) What prefix is used to show that a small alkyl group is attached to the nitrogen of aniline and not to thearomatic ring?

A) N-B) C-C) Roman numeralsD) Greek lettersE) iso-

Answer: A

31) How many alkyl substituents does N-ethyl-N-methylaniline have?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) eightE) none

Answer: B

32) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) contains both ________ and ________ functional groups.A) ester; acidB) ether; amineC) ester; amineD) ether; amideE) acid; amide

Answer: B

33) What pharmacologic activity do amphetamine, phenylephrine, and methedrine have in common?A) CNS depressantB) antidepressantC) appetite stimulantD) CNS stimulantE) sedative

Answer: D

34) What pharmacologically active amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms encountered in an allergicreaction?

A) histamineB) epinephrineC) diphenhydramineD) phenylephrineE) dopamine

Answer: A

35) A deficiency of which amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms of Parkinsonʹs disease?A) histamineB) dopamineC) epinephrineD) diphenhydramineE) methedrine

Answer: B

36) The prefix nor- in a drug name means that there isA) one more amine in the new molecule than in the original.B) one more methyl group on the nitrogen atom in the new molecule than in the original.C) one less methyl group on the nitrogen atom in the new molecule than in the original.D) one less amine in the new molecule than in the original.E) one less double bond in the new molecule than in the original.

Answer: C

37) What relation does the boiling point of an amine have to a similar hydrocarbon?A) higherB) lowerC) very similar

Answer: A

38) Amines can form ________ bonds with other molecules.A) oxygenB) hydrogenC) nonpolarD) metallicE) triple

Answer: B

39) What kind of amine can NOT form hydrogen bonds?A) primaryB) secondaryC) tertiaryD) aromaticE) substituted

Answer: C

40) Amines areA) Bronsted-Lowry bases.B) Bronsted-Lowry acids.C) neutral in water solution.D) unreactive.

Answer: A

41) The odor of an amine can be neutralized withA) water.B) acids.C) bases.D) detergents.E) solvents.

Answer: B

42) Choline is a quaternary ammonium compound with a ________ charge on the nitrogen.A) positiveB) negativeC) zeroD) neutralE) double

Answer: A

43) In what form are amine-containing drugs often administered?A) free baseB) sodium saltC) amine saltD) water solutionE) oil solution

Answer: C

44) What kind of pharmacologic activity is found in the amines Procaine® and Lidocaine®?A) stimulantB) general anestheticC) local anestheticD) disinfectantE) fungicide

Answer: C

45) What are alkaloids?A) physiologically active nitrogen compounds derived from plantsB) anesthetics found in plantsC) flavoring agents found in fruits and vegetablesD) preservatives found in animal tissueE) natural steroids

Answer: A

46) Identify the heterocyclic amine in the choices below.A) diphenhydramineB) pyrrolidineC) adrenalineD) methylamineE) cholesterol

Answer: B

47) Among the choices below, identify the heterocyclic amine found in DNA.A) piperidineB) pyridineC) pyrroleD) purineE) imidazole

Answer: D

48) Nicotine, coniine, quinine, atropine, and morphine are all examples ofA) ethers.B) esters.C) carboxylic acids.D) alkaloids.E) amides.

Answer: D

49) Procaine® and Lidocaine® were developed by modifying the structure ofA) cocaine.B) nicotine.C) harmaline.D) meperidine.E) caffeine.

Answer: A

50) Amides are derivatives of ________ and ________.A) amines; estersB) amines; acidsC) alkanes; aminesD) acids; alcoholsE) alcohols; acids

Answer: B

51) What kind of compound is urea?A) esterB) acidC) amideD) ketoneE) amine

Answer: C

52) What is the chemical classification of the barbiturate sedatives?A) cyclic amidesB) cyclic ethersC) cyclic aminesD) cyclic estersE) cyclic acids

Answer: A

53) Valium®, first synthesized by Leo Sternbach at Hoffman-LaRoche, is chemically classified as a(n)A) amine.B) ether.C) heterocyclic amide.D) ester.E) alcohol.

Answer: C

54) Amides having fewer than ________ carbons are generally water soluble.A) fiveB) sixC) tenD) elevenE) twelve

Answer: A

18.2 True/False Questions1) Caffeine is an alkaloid.

Answer: TRUE

2) The amide group is often found in pharmacologically active substances.Answer: TRUE

3) The amine function is rarely found in pharmacologically active compounds.Answer: FALSE

4) Primary amines contain two carbon-containing groups bonded to the nitrogen atom.Answer: FALSE

5) Heterocyclic amines contain a nitrogen atom in a ring.Answer: TRUE

6) Aniline is the IUPAC approved name for aminobenzene.Answer: TRUE

7) Amphetamines are arylalkylamines with stimulant activity.Answer: TRUE

8) The prefix meth- means that there is one less methyl group on the nitrogen atom of an amine.Answer: FALSE

9) Amines do not form hydrogen bonds.Answer: FALSE

10) Hydrogen bonds in amines are weaker than those in alcohols.Answer: TRUE

11) Amines do not ionize in water.Answer: TRUE

12) Amines act as weak acids by accepting protons from water.Answer: FALSE

13) Amines are mostly ionized in water.Answer: FALSE

14) Amine salts are usually liquid at room temperature.Answer: FALSE

15) Amine salts are odorless and usually highly water soluble.Answer: TRUE

16) Crack cocaine is produced by the neutralization and extraction of cocaine from its hydrochloride salt.Answer: TRUE

17) Quinine is an alkaloid used for treatment of malaria.Answer: TRUE

18) Atropine and cocaine are used in the diagnosis of eye diseases.Answer: TRUE

19) Pyrimidine derivatives are found in DNA.Answer: TRUE

20) Nicotine is a pharmacologically active aromatic amine.Answer: TRUE

21) Meperidine is a synthetic compound developed from morphine.Answer: TRUE

22) Lysergic acid is produced by a fungus.Answer: TRUE

23) Urea is one end product of protein metabolism in humans.Answer: TRUE

24) Aspartame is a sweetener made from amino acid derivatives.Answer: TRUE

25) Aspirin substitutes may contain amide rather than ester functional groups.Answer: TRUE

18.3 Matching QuestionsIdentify the family for each of the following compounds.

1) Column 1: CH3CH2NHCH3

Column 2: amineAnswer: amine

2) Column 1: O

CH3CH2C NHCH3

Column 2: amideAnswer: amide

3) Column 1: CH3

CH3CH2∣N CH3

Column 2: ethyldimethylamineAnswer: ethyldimethylamine


4) Column 1: O

HC NHCH2CH3

Column 2: N-ethyl formamideAnswer: N-ethyl formamide

5) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣N CH3

Column 2: tertiary

Foil: secondaryAnswer: tertiary

6) Column 1: CH3CH2CH2NH2


7) Column 1:

Column 2: primary

Foil: tertiaryAnswer: primary

8) Column 1: H

CH3∣N CH2CH3


9) Column 1: CH3

CH3∣C HCH2NH2


Chapter 19 Amino Acids and Proteins19.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?A) provide structural componentsB) stores the genetic information of a living organismC) movement of musclesD) catalyze reactions in the cellsE) transport substances through the bloodstream

Answer: B

2) Collagen, a protein found in tendons and cartilage, would be classified as a ________ protein.A) catalyticB) structuralC) transportD) storageE) hormone

Answer: B

3) Sucrase, the protein that facilitates the hydrolysis of sucrose, would be classified as a ________ protein.A) transportB) hormonalC) catalyticD) structuralE) contractile

Answer: C

4) The structural formulas of amino acids are the same EXCEPT for theA) carboxyl group.B) alpha carbon.C) amino group.D) side (R) group.E) hydrogen bonding.

Answer: D

5) The following amino acid side chain is

- C|HCH3

CH3

A) polar.B) hydrophobic.C) hydrophilic.D) acidic.E) basic.

Answer: B

6) Which of the following would be most likely to be deficient in at least one essential amino acid?A) eggsB) milkC) beansD) steakE) ham

Answer: C

7) Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body and must be obtained from the diet are calledA) essential.B) polar.C) nonpolar.D) complete.E) incomplete.

Answer: A

8) The R group for serine is -CH2OH. As a zwitterion, serine has the structural formulaA) CH2OH

NH2∣C HCOOH

B) CH2OH

NH2∣C HCOO-

C) CH2O-

+N H3

∣C HCOOH

D) CH2OH

+N H3

∣C HCOOH

E) CH2OH

+N H3

∣C HCOO-

Answer: E

9) Which of the following functional groups of an amino acid would be in the ionized state at high pH?A) O

-COH

B) -CH2OH

C) -CH3

D) O

-CNH2

E)

Answer: A

10) Which of the following is the correct structure for Ser-Ala-Asp? The appropriate side chains look like this.O

Ala: -CH3; Ser: -CH2OH; Asp: -CH2COH

A) OH COOH

CH3 O|CH2 O

|CH2 O

H3 N+∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C O -

B) COOH OH| |CH2 O CH3 O CH2 O

H3 N+∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C O-

C) OH COOH| |CH2 O CH2 O CH3 O

H3 N+∣C H -

C -NH -

∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C O-

D) COOH OH| |CH2 O CH2 O CH3 O

H3 N+∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C O-

E) OH COO-

| |CH2 O CH3 O CH2 O

H3 N+∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C - NH -

∣C H -

C O-

Answer: E

11) The peptide bonds that combine amino acids in a protein areA) ester bonds.B) ether bonds.C) amide bonds.D) glycosidic bonds.E) sulfide bonds.

Answer: C

12) The bonds that are important in the secondary structure of a protein areA) hydrogen bonds.B) hydrophobic interactions.C) disulfide bonds.D) salt bridges.E) peptide bonds.

Answer: A

13) Which of the following is a secondary protein structure?A) α-helixB) Ser-Met-Ala-Gly-IleC) disulfide bondD) salt bridgesE) hydrophobic interactions

Answer: A

14) Which R group would most likely be found in a hydrophobic area of the tertiary structure of a globularprotein?

A) -CH2OH

B) -CH2COO-

C)

D) -CH2CH2CH2CH2+N H3

E) O

-CH2C NH2

Answer: C

15) What type of interaction would you expect between the following R groups in the tertiary structure of aprotein?

O

-CH2C O- and -CH2CH2CH2CH2NH3+

A) disulfide bondsB) salt bridgesC) hydrogen bondsD) hydrophobic interactionsE) peptide bonds

Answer: B

16) What kinds of interactions are NOT part of tertiary protein structure?A) peptide bondsB) disulfide bondsC) hydrophilic interactionsD) salt bridgesE) hydrophobic interactions

Answer: A

17) Acids and bases denature a protein by disruptingA) peptide bonds and ionic bonds.B) amide bonds and alkene bondsC) hydrophobic interactions and peptide bonds.D) ionic bonds and hydrophobic interactions.E) ionic bonds and hydrogen bonds.

Answer: E

18) Heat denatures a protein by disruptingA) ionic bonds and peptide bonds.B) hydrophobic bonds and hydrogen bonds.C) peptide bonds and hydrophobic bonds.D) disulfide bonds and peptide bonds.E) hydrogen bonds and disulfide bonds.

Answer: B

19) The secondary structure of collagen is distinguished byA) single α-helix strands.B) double α-helix strands.C) many α-helixes wound into fibrils.D) a braided triple helix.E) many glycoside links.

Answer: D

20) The fibrous protein responsible for the structure of hair and wool isA) keratin.B) collagen.C) endorphin.D) myosin.E) casein.

Answer: A

21) In the peptide Ala-Try-Gly-Phe, the N-terminal amino acid isA) alanine.B) phenylalanine.C) tryptophan.D) aspartic acid.E) glycine.

Answer: A

22) In the peptide Ser-Cys-Ala-Gly, the C-terminal end isA) serine.B) serotonin.C) glycine.D) glycerine.E) alanine.

Answer: C

23) A peptide bond contains which kind of functional group?A) alcoholB) amineC) amideD) carboxylic acidE) ketone

Answer: C

24) A chain made of more than 50 amino acids is usually referred to as a(n)A) peptide.B) protein.C) enzyme.D) globulin.E) hormone.

Answer: B

25) The α-helix of the secondary structure of a protein is held together by ________ between two widely separatedparts of a protein chain.

A) hydrogen bondsB) disulfide bridgesC) salt bridgesD) hydrophilic interactionsE) hydrophobic interactions

Answer: A

26) In the β-pleated sheet secondary structure of a protein, two or more amino acid sequences in separate parts ofthe protein are held together

A) in a coil, by hydrogen bonding.B) in random order, due to hydrophobic interactions.C) in a triple helix.D) in a double helix.E) in a zig-zag conformation, by hydrogen bonding.

Answer: E

27) Enkephalins are polypeptides that haveA) a sweet taste.B) a bitter taste.C) extra caloric value.D) pain-killing properties.E) hormone activity.

Answer: D

28) A completely vegetarian diet will contain all the essential amino acids if it includesA) wheat and rice.B) rice and beans.C) almonds and walnuts.D) corn and beans.E) wheat and corn.

Answer: B

29) In insulin, two peptide chains are held together in a single unit byA) disulfide bridges.B) hydrogen bonds.C) salt bridges.D) a prosthetic group.E) a β-pleated sheet.

Answer: A

30) Hemoglobin is an example of a protein withA) primary structure only.B) two protein chains held together.C) a globular structure.D) primarily a β-pleated sheet structure.E) primarily an α-helix structure.

Answer: C

31) The heme in hemoglobin is a(n)A) protein chain.B) small molecule within a protein.C) helix area in the hemoglobin molecule.D) pleated sheet area in the hemoglobin molecule.E) oxygen molecule within the hemoglobin molecule.

Answer: B

32) Within hemoglobin, the heme functions asA) a disulfide bridge.B) an oxygen carrier.C) a reducing agent.D) an α subunit.E) one of the four protein subunits.

Answer: B

33) Hemoglobin has a total of ________ protein chains in its quaternary structure.A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: D

34) Wool is primarily made up ofA) protein.B) carbohydrate.C) globin.D) triacylglycerols.E) enkephalin.

Answer: A

35) The function of myoglobin is toA) carry vitamins in the blood.B) carry oxygen in the blood.C) support the skeletal muscles.D) carry oxygen in the muscle.E) provide strength in cartilage.

Answer: D

36) In sickle-cell anemia, the hemoglobin moleculesA) come apart into separate chains.B) enlarge to twice normal size.C) clump together into insoluble fibers.D) dissolve in the plasma.E) undergo crenation.

Answer: C

37) Denaturation of a proteinA) changes the primary structure of a protein.B) disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein.C) is always irreversible.D) hydrolyzes peptide bonds.E) can only occur in a protein with quaternary structure.

Answer: B

38) One heavy metal that can cause denaturation of a protein isA) silver.B) sodium.C) barium.D) iron.E) calcium.

Answer: A

39) Heavy metals denature proteins byA) releasing amino acids.B) disrupting hydrophobic interactions.C) changing the pH of the protein solution.D) changing the temperature of the protein solution.E) disrupting disulfide bonds.

Answer: E

40) An acid can denature a protein byA) agitating the protein chains.B) disrupting hydrogen bonds between side chains.C) disrupting hydrophobic interactions within a protein chain.D) removing helping molecules such as heme.E) breaking disulfide bridges.

Answer: B

41) Glycine is the only naturally occurring amino acid that isA) negatively charged.B) positively charged.C) neutral.D) in the L- form.E) achiral.

Answer: E

42) In a typical amino acid zwitterion, the carboxylic acid end isA) positively charged.B) negatively charged.C) neutral.D) soluble in a nonpolar solvent.E) attached to an amine.

Answer: B

43) Methionine is an amino acid that containsA) a sulfur atom.B) a chlorine atom.C) a sodium atom.D) a phenyl ring.E) a heterocyclic ring.

Answer: A

44) Disulfide bonds in a protein chain connectA) an amine and a carboxylic acid group.B) an alcohol and a carboxylic acid group.C) tryptophan and alanine residues.D) two cysteine residues.E) two asparagine residues.

Answer: D

45) The side chain for histidine is classified as a ________ side chain.A) basicB) neutralC) acidicD) nonpolarE) polar

Answer: A

46) At a pH > 9, the zwitterion of glycine will haveA) a net positive charge.B) a net negative charge.C) an overall charge of zero.D) low solubility in water.E) a negative charge on the nitrogen.

Answer: B

47) At a pH < 5, the zwitterion for alanine (pI = 6) will haveA) a net positive charge.B) a net negative charge.C) an overall charge of zero.D) low solubility in water.E) a negative charge on the carboxyl group.

Answer: A

48) What is the structural formula of glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at pH = 1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Answer: E

49) A basic amino acid has a side chain that containsA) an amine group.B) a carboxyl group.C) a methyl group.D) an alcohol group.E) a thiol group.

Answer: A

50) Enkephalins, naturally produced opiates in the body, are found inA) muscles and bone tissue.B) brain and kidney tissue.C) thalamus and spinal cord tissue.D) heart and lung tissue.E) pancreas and liver tissue.

Answer: C

19.2 Bimodal Questions1) Immunoglobulin, a protein that stimulates immune responses, would be classified as a ________ protein.

A) transportB) structuralC) storageD) protectionE) catalytic

Answer: D

2) In an enzyme, the polypeptide chain folds into a compact shape known as the ________ structure.A) pleatedB) primaryC) secondaryD) tertiaryE) quaternary

Answer: D

3) What amino acids have polar side chains that are attracted to water?A) hydrophilicB) hydrophobicC) nonpolarD) aromaticE) hydrocarbon

Answer: A

4) At what pH would you expect valine, an amino acid with a neutral side chain, to be in the zwitterionic form?A) 1B) 4C) 7D) 10E) 14

Answer: C

5) Consider the R groups of the following amino acids:

cysteine: -CH2SH; alanine: -CH3; serine: -CH2OH

The name for the dipeptide shown below is ________.

CH3 O CH2OH

NH2∣C H -

C - NH

∣C HCOOH

A) alanyl-cysteineB) alanyl-serineC) seryl-alanineD) seryl-cysteineE) serine-alanine

Answer: B

6) What process occurs when heat, acids, bases, and heavy metal ions cause a loss of biological function of aprotein?

A) denaturationB) saponificationC) hydrogenationD) amidationE) esterification

Answer: A

7) In digestion, proteins are broken down into amino acids by a(n) ________ reaction.A) saponificationB) reductionC) hydrolysisD) oxidationE) denaturation

Answer: C

8) When two protein chains combine to form an active protein, the structural level is ________.A) pleatedB) primaryC) secondaryD) tertiaryE) quaternary

Answer: E

9) Hydrophobic interactions help to stabilize the ________ structure(s) of a protein.A) primaryB) secondaryC) secondary and tertiaryD) tertiary and quaternaryE) secondary and quaternary

Answer: D

10) The peptide hormone that regulates uterine contractions during labor is ________.A) oxytocinB) vasopressinC) myoglobinD) an endorphinE) an enkephalin

Answer: A

19.3 Short Answer Questions1) Collagen can be classified as a ________ protein.

Answer: structural

2) The protein that transports oxygen in the blood is ________.Answer: hemoglobin

3) Proteins that stimulate immune response are known as ________.Answer: immunoglobulins

4) Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body but must be ingested with the diet are called ________ aminoacids.Answer: essential

5) All naturally occurring amino acids in the human body are the ________ enantiomers.Answer: L-

6) A zwitterion of any amino acid has a net charge of ________.Answer: zero

7) The isoelectric point for any amino acid is the pH at which the amino acid has a net charge of ________.Answer: zero

8) Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique for separating amino acids using their different ________.Answer: isoelectric points

9) Write the zwitterion of glycine.Answer:

10) Circle the peptide bond in this structure.

Answer:

19.4 Matching QuestionsIdentify the structural level in each protein.

1) Column 1: The protein folds into acompact structure stabilizedby interactions between Rgroups.

Column 2: tertiaryAnswer: tertiary

2) Column 1: the combination of two ormore protein molecules toform an active protein

Column 2: quaternaryAnswer: quaternary

3) Column 1: pleated sheet

Column 2: secondary structureAnswer: secondary structure

4) Column 1: the peptide bonds between theamino acids

Column 2: primary structureAnswer: primary structure

5) Column 1: the structural level achievedwhen hydrogen bonds formbetween the carboxyl group ofone amino acid and the aminogroup of a different aminoacid

Column 2: secondary structureAnswer: secondary structure

Classify each protein by function.

6) Column 1: trypsin for the hydrolysis ofprotein

Column 2: catalyticAnswer: catalytic

7) Column 1: lipoproteins in the blood

Column 2: transportAnswer: transport

8) Column 1: collagen in tendons andcartilage

Column 2: structuralAnswer: structural

9) Column 1: antibodies

Column 2: protectionAnswer: protection

10) Column 1: actin in muscle

Column 2: contractileAnswer: contractile

Would an amino acid with the given side chain be most likely to be found in the hydrophobic or hydrophilic region of a protein?

11) Column 1: -CH2 - CH - CH3∣

CH3

Column 2: hydrophobic

Foil: bothAnswer: hydrophobic

12) Column 1: - CH - CH3

∣

OH

Column 2: hydrophilicAnswer: hydrophilic

13) Column 1: -CH3

Column 2: hydrophobicAnswer: hydrophobic

14) Column 1: -CH2CH2SCH3


15) Column 1: O

- CH2 - C - NH2


16) Column 1:


17) Column 1: -CH-CH2-CH3

| CH3


18) Column 1:


Chapter 20 Enzymes and Vitamins20.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of lactose to galactose andglucose belong?

A) oxidoreductaseB) transferaseC) hydrolaseD) lyaseE) isomerase

Answer: C

2) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction belong?

O OH

CH3C COO- → CH3

∣C HCOO-


Answer: A

3) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction belong?

ser-ala → ser + ala


Answer: C

4) Compared to an uncatalyzed reaction, an enzyme-catalyzed reactionA) uses less substrate.B) produces different products.C) occurs at a faster rate.D) requires more energy.E) requires a higher temperature.

Answer: C

5) Which of the following is NOT a step in the enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate to product?A) The substrate changes its shape so it can bind at the active site.B) The substrate binds in the active site to form the E-S complex.C) The enzyme assists in the conversion of the substrate to product.D) The product is released from the active site.E) A new substrate molecule binds to the enzyme for a new cycle

Answer: A

6) The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is the ________ step in enzyme action.A) firstB) secondC) thirdD) fourthE) last

Answer: A

7) The active site of an enzymeA) is remote from the site of substrate attachment.B) is converted to a product.C) catalyzes the reaction.D) increases the energy of reaction.E) includes the entire enzyme.

Answer: C

8) The water-soluble B and C vitamins supplyA) essential amino acids.B) substrates necessary for most of the reactions in the body.C) essential fatty acids.D) coenzymes required by some enzymes.E) competitive inhibitors needed to regulate enzyme activity.

Answer: D

9) The optimum temperature for sucrase activity is 37°C. The hydrolysis of sucrose is slowest at whichtemperature in the choices below?

A) 0°CB) 10°CC) 20°CD) 25°CE) 45°C

Answer: A

10) Which of the following is NOT true for a competitive inhibitor?A) It occupies the active site.B) It cannot be converted to products.C) It has a structure similar to the substrate.D) Increasing the substrate concentration can reverse competitive inhibition.E) It binds to the enzyme at a site remote from the active site.

Answer: E

11) A noncompetitive inhibitorA) binds at the active site of the enzyme.B) alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme.C) increases the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.D) has a structure similar to the substrate.E) has its effect reversed by adding more substrate.

Answer: B

12) The purpose of the many chemical reactions in our bodies is toA) store chemical energy in the body for future use.B) produce the essential amino acids.C) produce the essential lipids.D) release chemical energy for the production of macromolecules.E) All of the above.

Answer: E

13) The general function of an enzyme in the body is toA) catalyze chemical reactions.B) maintain a neutral pH.C) act as a reactant in carbohydrate storage.D) maintain homeostasis.E) eliminate waste products from the blood.

Answer: A

14) The enzymes that extract energy from biomolecules for our use are located in theA) plasma.B) cell mitochondria.C) lymph.D) urine.E) lipoproteins.

Answer: B

15) Metal ions such as Zn2+ and Fe3+ are often needed by enzymes asA) isozymes.B) allosteres.C) inhibitors.D) cofactors.E) substrates.

Answer: D

16) ʺPhysiological conditionsʺ for reactions within the body are approximatelyA) pH 3 and 37°C.B) pH 7 and 37°C.C) pH 7 and 37°F.D) pH 8 and 273°C.E) pH 7 and 273K.

Answer: B

17) The hydrolysis of ester bonds in triglycerides is catalyzed by a(n)A) lipase.B) lyase.C) isomerase.D) hydrolase.E) oxidoreductase.

Answer: A

18) Most enzymes areA) fluid-mosaic proteins.B) induced proteins.C) substrate proteins.D) fibrous proteins.E) globular proteins.

Answer: E

19) In any reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the reacting molecule is called theA) substrate.B) cofactor.C) coenzyme.D) isozyme.E) allostere.

Answer: A

20) When a substance bonds to an enzyme for reaction, its place of binding is theA) allosteric site.B) primary pocket.C) end pocket.D) primary site.E) active site.

Answer: E

21) Substances that react under the influence of an enzyme are usually held to the enzyme byA) peptide bonds.B) side chains of amino acids in the enzyme protein.C) ester bonds.D) pH changes.E) competitive inhibition.

Answer: B

22) Urease catalyzes only the hydrolysis of urea, and no other substrates. This limited activity is calledA) absolute specificity.B) extreme specificity.C) rigid specifity.D) noncompetitive specificity.E) hyperspecificity.

Answer: A

23) The presence of enzymes to catalyze bioreactions in our bodies allowsA) us to eat non-nutritious substances without consequence.B) the activation energy of a reaction to be raised.C) the rate of a desired chemical reaction to slow down.D) bioreactions to occur under extreme conditions of temperature and pH.E) bioreactions to take place under mild conditions.

Answer: E

24) ʺPhysiological pHʺ, the pH for optimum activity for most enzymes, is a pH equal toA) 3.0.B) 5.4.C) 7.4.D) 8.6.E) 9.0.

Answer: C

25) Hexokinase catalyzes only the addition of phosphate to any hexose sugar. This type of activity is calledA) regional specificity.B) collateral specificity.C) group specificity.D) noncompetitive specificity.E) general specificity.

Answer: C

26) In the lock-and-key model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site is thought of asA) a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly.B) an area of the enzyme that can adjust to fit the substrate shape.C) a key-like shape that fits into a pocket of the substrate surface.D) a hydrophilic area on the enzyme surface.E) a lock that bars a noncompetitive inhibitor from reacting.

Answer: A

27) In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, the enzyme active siteA) stays the same shape during substrate binding.B) adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate.C) stays the same shape while causing a change in the shape of the substrate.D) uses an inhibitor to adjust its shape for the substrate.E) uses a cofactor to change the shape of a substrate.

Answer: B

28) The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway thatA) lowers the energy of the products.B) lowers the energy of the substrate.C) changes the concentration of the substrate.D) decreases the activation energy for the reaction.E) changes the possible product formed.

Answer: D

29) How many generalized steps are there in the reaction of an enzyme (E) with a substrate (S) to form and releasethe product (P)?

A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: B

30) An increase in concentration of the enzyme LDH in the blood can be used to detectA) heart attack.B) kidney damage.C) anemia.D) uremia.E) bulimia.

Answer: A

31) Creatine kinase can be used in the diagnosis ofA) hepatitis.B) rickets.C) heart attack.D) prostatitis.E) cancer.

Answer: C

32) Most enzymes are deactivated permanently above a temperature of aboutA) 25°C.B) 37°F.C) 40°C.D) 45°F.E) 50°C.

Answer: E

33) The surface of a freshly cut apple turns brown because ofA) inhibition of the surface enzymes by nitrogen.B) interaction of the surface enzymes with oxygen.C) a change in pH at the surface.D) an increase in substrate concentration at the cut surface.E) the presence of vitamin C in the apple.

Answer: B

34) In an enzyme-substrate reaction, when excess substrate is present, increasing the concentration of the enzymewill

A) increase the number of substrate molecules available.B) inhibit the formation of products.C) increase the decomposition rate of the enzyme-substrate complex.D) decrease the turnover rate for the substrate.E) increase the amount of reaction occurring.

Answer: E

35) Consider an enzymatic reaction in which the initial concentration of substrate is low. If the amount of enzymeis held constant, but the amount of substrate is increased, the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will

A) increase in an exponential fashion.B) decrease at first, then increase in a linear fashion.C) increase at first in a linear fashion, then remain at a constant high rate.D) stay the same.E) be inhibited by the higher concentrations of substrate.

Answer: C

36) Urea is converted to ammonia and carbon dioxide by the action of urease. What will be the effect on the rate ifthe temperature of the reaction is lowered from 37°C (the optimum temperature) to 27°C?

O

NH2-C -NH2 + H2O

urease 2NH3 + CO2

A) There will be no effect.B) The rate will slow down.C) The rate will double.D) The rate will triple.E) The rate will slow down, then speed up again.

Answer: B

37) A competitive inhibitor is one thatA) binds to the enzyme at a site far from the active site.B) binds to the active site in place of the substrate.C) destroys the substrate.D) binds to the allosteric site on an enzyme.E) forms a complex with the substrate.

Answer: B

38) An irreversible inhibitor is one thatA) forms hydrogen bonds with the substrate.B) binds to the enzyme with hydrophobic interactions.C) reacts covalently with the substrate.D) binds covalently to the enzyme active site.E) reacts covalently with a cofactor.

Answer: D

39) A noncompetitive inhibitor has a structure thatA) does not resemble the substrate structure.B) resembles the active site of the enzyme.C) can bind to the active site of the enzyme.D) does not interfere with the enzyme-substrate complex formation.E) causes a change in the shape of the substrate.

Answer: A

40) Penicillin functions as an antibiotic byA) poisoning bacteria with toxins.B) raising the temperature of a bacterium.C) bonding to metal ions in bacterial electron transport systems.D) inhibiting the enzymes for cell wall formation in bacteria.E) acting as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.

Answer: D

41) A compound that binds to the surface of an enzyme, and changes its shape so that a substrate cannot enter theactive site, is called a(n)

A) irreversible inhibitor.B) proenzyme.C) cofactor.D) noncompetitive inhibitor.E) competitive inhibitor.

Answer: D

42) Some insecticides kill insects by inhibiting the enzymeA) alcohol dehydrogenase.B) acetylcholinesterase.C) creatine kinase.D) lipase.E) penicillinase.

Answer: B

43) Penicillin-resistant bacteria can survive treatment with penicillin because they produce the enzymeA) sucrase.B) penicillin kinase.C) penicillinase.D) bacteriase.E) phosphate lyase.

Answer: C

44) Pepsinogen is an example of a(n)A) coenzyme.B) cofactor.C) isoenzyme.D) allosteric enzyme.E) zymogen.

Answer: E

45) When an end product from an enzyme-mediated sequence is also an inhibitor for an earlier step in the reactionsequence, the process is referred to as

A) feedback control.B) competitive inhibition.C) irreversible inhibition.D) negative catalysis.E) concentration control.

Answer: A

46) Allosteric enzymes can control their output of product byA) binding the substrate at a site away from the active site.B) binding an irreversible inhibitor at the active site.C) binding a positive or negative regulator at a noncompetitive site.D) changing the pH in the active site.E) reversible inhibition using the product as the inhibitor.

Answer: C

47) When a cofactor is a small organic molecule, it is known as a(n)A) isoenzyme.B) vitamin.C) zymogen.D) coenzyme.E) regulator.

Answer: D

48) Iron(II) and iron(III) ions are used in the functioning ofA) urease.B) alcohol dehydrogenase.C) creatine kinase.D) the cytochrome oxidase system.E) pepsin.

Answer: D

49) The B vitamins are examples ofA) water-soluble vitamins.B) essential amino acids.C) essential minerals.D) oil soluble vitamins.E) vitamins that are stored in the liver.

Answer: A

50) Coenzymes such as water-soluble vitamins are needed in only small amounts becauseA) only small amounts of enzymes are present in each cell.B) only small amounts of substrates are available at any one time.C) they can be eliminated in the urine.D) each vitamin molecule can be reused many times as a cofactor.E) they can be stored in the liver for future use.

Answer: D

20.2 Bimodal Questions1) A biological catalyst is called a(n) ________.

A) lipidB) enzymeC) cofactorD) coenzymeE) substrate

Answer: B

2) Another name for a zymogen is a(n) ________.A) cofactorB) coenzymeC) prosthetic groupD) isozymeE) proenzyme

Answer: E

3) The full name of the enzyme LDH is ________.A) lactate dehydrogenaseB) liver decompensation hexaseC) lactate dehydraseD) liver dihydrogen kinaseE) lipase dehydrogenase

Answer: A

4) The names of many enzymes can be recognized by the suffix ________.A) -ateB) -iteC) -oseD) -ineE) -ase

Answer: E

5) An enzyme that converts a cis double bond to a trans double bond is classified as a(n) ________.A) oxidoreductaseB) transferaseC) hydrolaseD) lyaseE) isomerase

Answer: E

6) Enzymes that catalyze the same reactions but have slightly different structures are called ________.A) coenzymesB) cofactorsC) isoenzymesD) competitiveE) noncompetitive

Answer: C

7) Different forms of an enzyme that catalyze the same reaction in different tissues are called ________.A) isomersB) allosteresC) coenzymesD) prozymesE) isoenzymes

Answer: E

8) The optimum pH for the activity of pepsin is about ________.A) 2.0B) 4.0C) 6.5D) 7.4E) 7.6

Answer: A

9) One deficiency disease that can be traced to insufficient intake of vitamin D is ________.A) scurvyB) ricketsC) beriberiD) pellagraE) pernicious anemia

Answer: B

10) A diet very low in vitamin C can lead over time to the condition ________.A) ricketsB) scurvyC) cancerD) carpal tunnel syndromeE) anorexia nervosa

Answer: B

20.3 Short Answer Questions1) vitamin B6

Answer: water soluble

2) vitamin AAnswer: fat soluble

3) pantothenic acidAnswer: water soluble

4) ascorbic acidAnswer: water soluble

5) vitamin EAnswer: fat soluble

6) vitamin KAnswer: fat soluble

7) niacinAnswer: water soluble

8) folic acidAnswer: water soluble

9) vitamin DAnswer: fat soluble

10) riboflavinAnswer: water soluble

20.4 Matching QuestionsIdentify each of the designated regions on the energy diagram for the conversion of a substrate to product with and without an enzyme.

1) energy of the substrateAnswer: A

2) energy of the productAnswer: D

3) activation energy without the enzymeAnswer: B

4) activation energy with the enzymeAnswer: C

Match the correct term in enzyme action with each description.

5) Column 1: the temporary combination ofan enzyme with thecompound on which it acts

Column 2: enzyme-substrate complexAnswer: enzyme-substrate complex

6) Column 1: an organic compound that issometimes needed to completean enzyme

Column 2: coenzymeAnswer: coenzyme

7) Column 1: the portion of an enzymemolecule where catalyticactivity occurs

Column 2: active siteAnswer: active site

8) Column 1: an inorganic substance such asMg2+ required by someenzymes for activity

Column 2: cofactorAnswer: cofactor

9) Column 1: one theory that accounts forthe unusual specificity of anenzyme

Column 2: lock-and-key theoryAnswer: lock-and-key theory

Identify the effect of the following on the activity of maltase, an enzyme that hydrolyzes maltose.

10) Column 1: decreasing the concentrationof maltose

Column 2: decreases

Foil: has no effectAnswer: decreases

11) Column 1: adjusting the temperature tothe optimum temperature


12) Column 1: raising the pH to 11.0


13) Column 1: increasing the concentration ofmaltase (enzyme) when theenzyme is saturated withsubstrate


14) Column 1: lowering the pH to 1.0


Identify the type of inhibition in each description.

15) Column 1: an inhibitor that resembles thestructure of the substrate

Column 2: competitiveAnswer: competitive

16) Column 1: an inhibitor that forms acovalent bond with a sidechain in the active site


17) Column 1: adding more substrate doesnot reverse the effect of thisinhibitor.

Column 2: noncompetitiveAnswer: noncompetitive

18) Column 1: The inhibition can be reversedby increasing theconcentration of substrate.


19) Column 1: The inhibitor does notresemble the substrate.

Column 2: noncompetitiveAnswer: noncompetitive

Match the vitamin name with its corresponding chemical name.

20) Column 1: vitamin B3

Column 2: niacin

Foil: cholecalciferolAnswer: niacin


Column 2: riboflavinAnswer: riboflavin


Column 2: thiamine pyrophosphateAnswer: thiamine pyrophosphate

23) Column 1: vitamin C

Column 2: ascorbic acidAnswer: ascorbic acid


Column 2: cobalaminAnswer: cobalamin


Column 2: pyridoxineAnswer: pyridoxine

Chapter 21 Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis21.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base and a sugar.A) nucleosideB) base pairC) nucleotideD) complementary baseE) pyrimidine

Answer: A

2) A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.A) nucleosideB) base pairC) nucleotideD) complementary baseE) purine

Answer: C

3) Which of the following can NOT be found in a nucleotide of RNA?A) purineB) pyrimidineC) phosphateD) riboseE) deoxyribose

Answer: E

4) Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?A) thymineB) uracilC) guanineD) cytosineE) deoxyribose

Answer: B

5) Which of the following will not be found in DNA?A) adenineB) thymineC) guanineD) cytosineE) ribose

Answer: E

6) Which of the following can be found in DNA?A) riboseB) GMPC) uracilD) deoxyadenosineE) FMN

Answer: D

7) The nucleotides in the backbone of DNA are held together by ________ bonds.A) hydrogenB) peptideC) phosphodiesterD) glycosidicE) ionic

Answer: C

8) The bonds that link the base pairs in the DNA double helix areA) ionic bonds.B) peptide bonds.C) hydrogen bonds.D) hydrophobic bonds.E) ester bonds.

Answer: C

9) The base sequence of the strand of DNA complementary to the segment5ʹ-T-G-G-C-A-A-C-3ʹ is:

A) 3ʹ-T-G-G-C-A-A-C-5ʹB) 3ʹ-A-C-C-G-T-T-G-5ʹC) 3ʹ-A-C-C-G-U-U-G-5ʹD) 3ʹ-U-C-C-G-T-T-G-5ʹE) 3ʹ-A-C-G-C-T-U-G-5ʹ

Answer: B

10) Which of the following is not a step in DNA replication?A) Hydrogen bonds break, allowing the two DNA strands to separate completely.B) A base on the DNA pairs with its complementary base free in solution.C) DNA polymerase forms bonds between a 5ʹ-phosphate of one nucleotide and a 3ʹ-hydroxyl of another.D) On one strand the DNA is synthesized continuously.E) DNA ligase connects short segments of DNA on one strand.

Answer: A

11) The two new DNA molecules formed in replicationA) are complementary to the original DNA.B) both contain only two new daughter DNA strands.C) both contain only the parent DNA strands.D) contain one parent and one daughter strand.E) are identical, with one containing both parent strands, and the other containing both daughter strands.

Answer: D

12) What is the process in which the DNA double helix unfolds, and each strand serves as a template for thesynthesis of a new strand?

A) transcriptionB) complementationC) translationD) replicationE) restriction

Answer: D

13) When DNA duplicates itself, the correct placement of the nucleotides is accomplished byA) complementary base pairing.B) polymerase.C) enzyme matching.D) base matching.E) transcription.

Answer: A

14) When DNA replicates, a guanine forms a base pair withA) uracil.B) adenine.C) guanine.D) thymine.E) cytosine.

Answer: E

15) Which of the following types of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasmfor protein synthesis?

A) mRNAB) histone RNAC) rRNAD) tRNAE) sRNA

Answer: A

16) Translation is the process wherebyA) DNA is synthesized from DNA.B) DNA is synthesized from mRNA.C) protein is synthesized from DNA.D) protein is synthesized from mRNA.E) mRNA is synthesized from DNA.

Answer: D

17) In transcriptionA) the mRNA produced is identical to the parent DNA.B) a double helix containing one parent strand and one daughter strand is produced.C) uracil pairs with thymine.D) both strands of the DNA are copied.E) the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA.

Answer: E

18) Which of the following is a section of mRNA produced from the DNA template below?3ʹ-A-T-A-G-C-T-A-5ʹ

A) 5ʹ-A-T-A-G-C-T-A-3ʹB) 5ʹ-A-U-A-G-C-U-A-3ʹC) 5ʹ-U-A-U-C-G-A-U-3ʹD) 5ʹ-U-U-U-G-C-U-U-3ʹE) 5ʹ-T-A-T-C-G-A-T-3ʹ

Answer: C

19) Which one of the following base pairs is found in DNA?A) adenine-thymineB) adenine-guanineC) cytosine-thymineD) adenine-uracilE) guanine-uracil

Answer: A

20) Which one of these base pairs is found in RNA?A) guanine-cytosineB) adenine-cytosineC) adenine-thymineD) adenine-guanineE) guanine-thymine

Answer: A

21) In the synthesis of mRNA, an adenine in the DNA pairs withA) uracil.B) adenine.C) guanine.D) thymine.E) cytosine.

Answer: A

22) A DNA template having the base sequence 3ʹ-A-G-A-T-G-A-5ʹ would produce a mRNA with a basesequence of

A) 5ʹ-A-G-A-T-G-A-3ʹ.B) 5ʹ-U-C-U-A-C-U-3ʹ.C) 5ʹ-T-C-T-U-C-T-3ʹ.D) 5ʹ-T-C-T-A-C-A-3ʹ.E) 5ʹ-A-C-A-U-C-A-3ʹ.

Answer: B

23) Codons are base pair sequences thatA) signal the start of DNA synthesis.B) signal the end of DNA synthesis.C) code for amino acids.D) signal the start of RNA synthesis.E) code for one or more bases in mRNA.

Answer: C

24) When mRNA is synthesized using the information from DNA, the process is calledA) transportation.B) transposition.C) transcription.D) translation.E) transliteration.

Answer: C

25) Which of the following is not a step in protein synthesis?A) activation of tRNAB) initiationC) elongationD) terminationE) unwinding of two strands of mRNA

Answer: E

26) The codon is found on ________, and the anticodon is found on ________.A) mRNA; tRNAB) tRNA; mRNAC) rRNA; tRNAD) ribosomes; tRNAE) mRNA; rRNA

Answer: A

27) The anticodon isA) identical to the codon on DNA.B) complementary to the codon on DNA.C) identical to the codon on mRNA.D) complementary to the codon on mRNA.E) complementary to the codon on tRNA.

Answer: D

28) A tRNA is activated when itA) attaches to mRNA.B) attaches to its specific amino acid.C) attaches to the ribosome.D) leaves the ribosome.E) releases its specific amino acid.

Answer: B

29) During protein synthesis, the codon for an amino acid is found onA) DNA.B) rRNA.C) tRNA.D) mRNA.E) sRNA.

Answer: D

30) The anticodon of U-A-G isA) A-T-C.B) U-A-G.C) A-A-C.D) A-U-C.E) G-A-U.

Answer: D

31) Which of the following is used in the preparation of recombinant DNA?A) RNA polymeraseB) DNA polymeraseC) repressor proteinD) restriction enzymeE) enzyme induction

Answer: D

32) The insertion of new DNA into the plasmid DNA of a bacterium producesA) viral DNA.B) DNA fingerprints.C) recombinant DNA.D) ribosomes.E) restriction enzymes.

Answer: C

33) The polymerase chain reaction is used inA) preparing recombinant DNA.B) transcription.C) DNA fingerprinting.D) translation.E) replication.

Answer: C

34) Mutations are the result ofA) alterations in the phosphate of the DNA backbone.B) exposure to water in utero.C) physical trauma in the motherʹs childhood.D) alterations in the sugar component of the DNA backbone.E) alterations in the DNA base sequence.

Answer: E

35) The result of a defective enzyme caused by a mutation in the DNA nucleotide sequence isA) a genetic disease.B) AIDS.C) HIV.D) recombinant DNA.E) translocation.

Answer: A

36) A set of directions in the DNA base sequence for the synthesis of a protein is a(n)A) structural gene.B) promotor.C) operator.D) codon.E) regulatory gene.

Answer: A

37) In the enzyme induction model of cellular control,A) cofactors control protein synthesis.B) the substrate controls protein synthesis.C) the substrate combines with a protein to form a repressor.D) the enzyme for the substrate is always synthesized by the gene.E) the substrate represses the operator.

Answer: B

38) Small living particles, with 3 to 200 genes, that cannot replicate without a host cell are calledA) recombinant DNAs.B) viruses.C) bacteria.D) tumors.E) plasmids.

Answer: B

39) A virus that contains RNA as its genetic material is aA) genetically engineered virus.B) bacteria.C) recombinant DNA.D) retrovirus.E) vaccine.

Answer: D

40) Protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-HIV drugs,A) are nucleoside analogs.B) prevent reverse transcription.C) prevent synthesis of viral proteins.D) prevent mRNA synthesis.E) prevent activation of tRNA.

Answer: C

41) Some sections of a DNA molecule do not code for protein synthesis. These segments are calledA) codons.B) anticodons.C) Okazaki fragments.D) introns.E) exons.

Answer: D

42) Guanine is one example of a nitrogen base that is aA) cofactor.B) 5-carbon sugar.C) phosphodiester.D) pyrimidine.E) purine.

Answer: E

43) The two strands of the double helix of DNA are held together byA) hydrogen bonds.B) covalent bonds.C) dipole-dipole interactions.D) ionic bonds.E) sugar-to-phosphate bonds.

Answer: A

44) A restriction enzyme functions toA) prevent the DNA from leaving the nucleus.B) limit the number of replications a DNA molecule can achieve.C) cut a large DNA double helix into smaller fragments.D) stop the elongation step of protein synthesis.E) eliminate a virus from a cell.

Answer: C

45) When a mutation occurs by elimination of one base in a DNA sequence, this mutation is called aA) frame-shift mutation.B) retrovirus insertion.C) substitution mutation.D) translocation mutation.E) viral mutation.

Answer: A

46) In the study of genetics, the abbreviation PCR refers toA) purine chain repression.B) pyrimidine complement restriction.C) purine coded ribose.D) protein combination and replication.E) polymerase chain reaction.

Answer: E

47) Recombinant DNA technology requires the use of bacterialA) plasmids.B) mitochondria.C) endoplasmic reticulum.D) ribosomes.E) cell walls.

Answer: A

48) One therapeutic product now available due to recombinant DNA technology isA) measles vaccine.B) penicillin.C) human growth hormone.D) sulfamethoxazole.E) tamoxifen.

Answer: C

49) DNA fingerprinting uses ________ to produce DNA fragments that can be separated and screened for thepresence of genetic diseases.

A) extracellular DNAB) restriction enzymesC) bacterial plasmidsD) anticodonsE) codons

Answer: B

50) The purpose of the human genome project was toA) identify genes responsible for noninheritable diseases.B) determine how to clone human DNA.C) identify substrates for the polymerase chain reaction.D) learn how to clone bacterial DNA.E) map the locations of all the genes in human DNA.

Answer: E

21.2 True/False Questions1) Adenine is a purine.

Answer: TRUE

2) Uracil is a pyrimidine.Answer: TRUE

3) AZT is a drug used in the treatment of cancer.Answer: FALSE

4) Human DNA contains many nucleotides that are not used in genes.Answer: TRUE

5) Human insulin can be made with the use of recominant DNA technology.Answer: TRUE

6) A retrovirus uses DNA as its genetic material.Answer: FALSE

7) DNA fingerprinting is not yet be used to detect genes for cancer susceptibility.Answer: FALSE

8) A nucleotide consists of only a base and a sugar.Answer: FALSE

9) Down syndrome is an acquired disease, not a genetic disease.Answer: FALSE

10) Messenger RNA carries protein synthesis information from the nucleus to the mitochondrion.Answer: TRUE

11) The DNA complement of the sequence 5ʹ-GCCAT-3ʹ is 3ʹ-GCCAT-5ʹ.Answer: FALSE

12) DNA is a protein.Answer: FALSE

13) RNA contains no phosphate.Answer: FALSE

14) DNA differs from RNA in the sugar it contains.Answer: TRUE

15) In the DNA double helix, a purine can only bond with a pyrimidine.Answer: TRUE


1) Column 1: picks up the specific aminoacids for protein synthesis

Column 2: tRNAAnswer: tRNA

2) Column 1: synthesized by the DNA tocarry the genetic message tothe ribosomes

Column 2: mRNAAnswer: mRNA

3) Column 1: contains within the nucleus ofthe cell the information for thesynthesis of protein

Column 2: DNAAnswer: DNA

4) Column 1: the nucleic acid that containsthe codons for the amino acidsof a protein

Column 2: mRNAAnswer: mRNA

5) Column 1: the most abundant nucleicacid in the ribosomes

Column 2: rRNAAnswer: rRNA

6) Column 1: the nucleic acid that contains asingle anticodon for a specificamino acid

Column 2: tRNAAnswer: tRNA

Match the correct term with the statement.

7) Column 1: the portion of a gene that turnsthe synthesis of a specificmRNA on or off

Column 2: operatorAnswer: operator

8) Column 1: a group of genes whosetranscription is controlled bythe same regulatory gene

Column 2: operonAnswer: operon

9) Column 1: the portion of the control sitethat regulates DNA synthesis

Column 2: promotorAnswer: promotor

10) Column 1: a protein that interacts withthe operator gene to preventmRNA synthesis

Column 2: repressorAnswer: repressor

11) Column 1: that portion of the gene that,when repressed, preventsmRNA synthesis

Column 2: operatorAnswer: operator

Match the type of cellular control with the description.

12) Column 1: The substrate induces thesynthesis of its own metabolicenzymes.

Column 2: enzyme inductionAnswer: enzyme induction

13) Column 1: The end product of a reactioncombines with the regulator toproduce a repressor moleculethat turns off the operatorgene.

Column 2: enzyme repressionAnswer: enzyme repression

14) Column 1: When substrate is present inthe cell, the structural geneproduces mRNA for enzymesynthesis.


15) Column 1: The end product of a reactionpathway controls proteinsynthesis.

Column 2: enzyme repressionAnswer: enzyme repression

16) Column 1: The substrate of a reactionpathway controls proteinsynthesis.


Chapter 22 Metabolic Pathways for Carbohydrates22.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is true for prokaryotic cells?A) They are more complex than eukaryotic cells.B) They are larger than eukaryotic cells.C) They contain mitochondria.D) They are found in animals.E) They do not contain a nucleus.

Answer: E

2) A compound that is formed in a metabolic oxidation is called a(n)A) product.B) enzyme.C) metabolite.D) food.E) cofactor.

Answer: C

3) Which of the following does not require energy from ATP hydrolysis?A) digestionB) muscle contractionC) transport across cell membranesD) sending nerve signalsE) synthesis of an enzyme

Answer: A

4) Which coenzyme is the electron acceptor in the following reaction?

H H

-|C -

|C - → - C = C-

| | | |

A) FADB) NAD+

C) FMND) NADHE) FADH2

Answer: A

5) Which coenzyme is the electron acceptor in the following reaction?

OH O

- |C - → -

C -

|H

A) FADB) NAD+

C) FMND) NADHE) FADH2

Answer: B

6) Which of the following metabolic pathways can occur in the absence of oxygen?A) electron transportB) oxidative phosphorylationC) citric acid cycleD) glycolysisE) β-oxidation

Answer: D

7) In step 7 of glycolysis, ATP is generated when a phosphate group is transferred directly from1,3-diphosphoglycerate to ADP in a process known as

A) oxidation.B) substrate level phosphorylation.C) reduction.D) transamination.E) oxidative phosphorylation.

Answer: B

8) The compounds formed when fructose-1, 6-diphosphate is split areA) pyruvic acid and lactic acid.B) ethanol and acetyl CoA.C) dihydroxyacetone phosphate and pyruvic acid.D) dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.E) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and pyruvic acid.

Answer: D

9) When one glucose molecule undergoes glycolysis it generatesA) 6 ATP.B) 6 ATP and 2 NADH.C) 2 ATP and 2 NADH.D) 2 ATP and 4 NADH.E) 12 ATP.

Answer: C

10) The process by which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones for the bodyʹs use is calledA) metabolism.B) catabolism.C) anabolism.D) glucogenesis.E) gluconeogenesis.

Answer: B

11) The process of building up new molecules in the cell is calledA) metabolism.B) catabolism.C) anabolism.D) glycolysis.E) transamination.

Answer: C

12) Overall, catabolic reactionsA) release energy.B) take in energy.C) occur mainly in the liver.D) occur outside the cell membrane.E) take place in the nucleus of the cell.

Answer: A

13) Anabolic reactions are reactions thatA) use oxidation but not reduction.B) break down large molecules into smaller ones.C) take place in the mitochondria.D) use energy.E) give off energy.

Answer: D

14) How many main stages of catabolism are there?A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: C

15) The first stage of catabolism isA) the citric acid cycle.B) production of pyruvate.C) production of acetyl CoA.D) buildup of macromolecules from monomers.E) digestion of large molecules.

Answer: E

16) The middle stage of catabolism is the point at whichA) acetyl CoA is produced.B) monomers are produced from macromolecules.C) macromolecules are made from monomers.D) glycogen is converted to glucose.E) excess nutrients are stored as fats.

Answer: A

17) Protein synthesis takes placeA) in the mitochondria.B) on the endoplasmic reticulum.C) in the nucleus.D) on the ribosomes.E) in the cytosol.

Answer: D

18) The synthesis of glycogen can be classified as a(n)A) catabolic reaction.B) anabolic reaction.C) digestion reaction.D) phosphorylation reaction.E) β-oxidation reaction.

Answer: B

19) The main compound used to release energy for metabolism isA) sucrose.B) glucose phosphate.C) adenosine triphosphate.D) ribonucleic acid.E) NAD+.

Answer: C

20) The components of ATP areA) adenosine, ribose, and triphosphate.B) aniline and triphosphate.C) alanine, ribose, and triphosphate.D) adenine, ribose, and triphosphate.E) adenosine, deoxyribose, and triphosphate.

Answer: D

21) The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP isA) endothermic.B) exothermic.C) isothermic.D) an oxidation.E) a reduction.

Answer: B

22) The symbol Pi stands forA) inorganic phosphate.B) inert pyrophosphate.C) insoluble phosphate.D) isomers of phosphate.E) irreversible phosphorylation.

Answer: A

23) The release of pyrophosphate from ATP to give AMP and PPi, followed by the hydrolysis of thepyrophosphate, releases approximately the same amount of energy as

A) sucrose breakdown.B) protein digestion.C) glucose oxidation.D) glycogen production.E) ATP → ADP + Pi

Answer: E

24) The reaction of glucose with ATP to produce ADP and glucose-6-phosphate is an example of a(n)A) endothermic reaction.B) coupled reaction.C) decomposition reaction.D) oxidation reaction.E) reduction reaction.

Answer: B

25) Muscle contraction requiresA) copper ion and ATP.B) iron.C) calcium ion and ATP.D) lipid hydrolysis.E) carbon dioxide.

Answer: C

26) Muscle contraction is an example of a(n)A) anabolic process.B) catabolic process.C) glucose storage process.D) protein degradation process.E) lipid hydrolysis process.

Answer: B

27) The final products of catabolic reactions areA) carbon dioxide, water, and ammonia.B) glucose, lipids, and glycogen.C) lipids, oxygen, and water.D) RNA and DNA.E) lipids and carbohydrates.

Answer: A

28) In biochemical systems, the term reduction often refers toA) a loss of hydrogen or electrons by a compound.B) a gain of hydrogen or electrons by a compound.C) a gain in oxygen.D) a loss of electrons.E) an energy-releasing reaction.

Answer: B

29) NAD+ stands for the coenzymeA) niacin adenine dinucleotide.B) nicotinic acid diphosphate.C) nicotinamide diphosphate.D) nicotine adenosine dinucleotide.E) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide.

Answer: E

30) NAD+ participates in reactions that produceA) a CH2 group.B) a C=O bond.C) phosphorylation.D) ADP from ATP.E) a C-C bond.

Answer: B

31) FAD stands forA) flavin adenosine dinucleotide.B) folic acid diphosphate.C) fumarate alcohol dehydrogenase.D) folate adenosine diphosphate.E) flavin adenine dinucleotide.

Answer: E

32) FAD is a coenzyme which usually participates inA) oxidation of alcohols to aldehydes.B) formation of carbon-carbon double bonds.C) decarboxylation reactions.D) phosphorylation reactions.E) β-oxidation reactions.

Answer: B

33) Coenzyme A is a molecule whose function is toA) activate enzyme A.B) undergo phosphorylation.C) provide energy for the citric acid cycle.D) activate acyl groups for reaction.E) help break down macromolecules.

Answer: D

34) An acyl group contains at least ________ carbon atom(s).A) oneB) twoC) threeD) fourE) five

Answer: B

35) The portion of Coenzyme A that reacts with potential substrates isA) an acid group.B) an amino group.C) a C=O group.D) an alcohol group.E) a thiol group.

Answer: E

36) Digestion of carbohydrates begins in theA) mouth.B) stomach.C) pancreas.D) small intestine.E) large intestine.

Answer: A

37) An enzyme that can facilitate the breakdown of starch into smaller units isA) glucose phosphatase.B) alcohol dehydrogenase.C) amylase.D) lactase.E) maltase.

Answer: C

38) Lactose intolerance occurs due toA) an excess of galactose intake.B) a deficiency of β-galactosidase.C) a deficiency of lactase.D) an overabundance of glucose.E) overproduction of amylase.

Answer: C

39) Glycolysis is a(n) ________ process.A) aerobicB) anaerobicC) anabolicD) one-stepE) five-step

Answer: B

40) In the process of glycolysis, glucose is converted toA) pyruvate.B) citrate.C) sucrose.D) oxaloacetate.E) ribose.

Answer: A

41) The overall process of glycolysisA) requires oxygen.B) uses up 4 ATP molecules.C) requires acetyl CoA.D) is an anabolic pathway.E) produces 2 ATP molecules.

Answer: E

42) The process of glycolysis is regulated byA) cell requirements for pyruvate.B) allosteric control.C) ATP needs.D) feedback inhibition.E) All of the above.

Answer: E

43) Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate produced in glycolysis can be converted toA) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.B) lactic acid.C) glucose-6-phosphate.D) fructose-6-phosphate.E) acetyl CoA.

Answer: E

44) Under anaerobic conditions, lactate is produced fromA) acetyl CoA.B) pyruvate.C) ATP.D) carbon dioxide.E) NAD+.

Answer: B

45) Glycogen is normally stored inA) heart and lung.B) liver and muscle.C) spleen and bone.D) pancreas and muscle.E) fat cells and muscle.

Answer: B

46) When as much glycogen is stored as possible in the body, excess glucose is converted toA) triacylglycerols.B) fructose.C) sucrose.D) Coenzyme A.E) ATP.

Answer: A

47) The synthesis of glycogen from glucose is calledA) glyceration.B) gluconeogenesis.C) glucogenesis.D) glycogenesis.E) glycolysis.

Answer: D

48) Glycogenesis obtains energy fromA) ADP.B) UTP.C) Pi.D) pyrophosphate.E) pyruvate.

Answer: B

49) When glycogen is broken down into glucose, the process is calledA) glycogenesis.B) glycogenolysis.C) gluconeogenesis.D) lactate production.E) glucagon production.

Answer: B

50) The primary energy source for the brain isA) lactate.B) triacylglycerols.C) amino acids.D) fructose.E) glucose.

Answer: E

22.2 Bimodal Questions1) This is the term that refers to all of the chemical reactions in living cells.

A) glycolysisB) β-oxidationC) metabolismD) anabolismE) catabolism

Answer: C

2) The energy for most energy-requiring reactions in the cells of the body is obtained by the hydrolysis of________.

A) ATPB) ADPC) AMPD) cyclic AMPE) GTP

Answer: A

3) Two reactions occurring together, one providing the energy for the other one to occur, are known as ________.A) sequential reactionsB) stacked reactionsC) series reactionsD) concomitant reactionsE) coupled reactions

Answer: E

4) Hydrolysis of sucrose takes place primarily in the ________.A) mouthB) stomachC) pancreasD) small intestineE) large intestine

Answer: D

5) The net energy production in anaerobic glycolysis is ________.A) 2 ATPB) 4 ATPC) 6 ATPD) 8 ATPE) 12 ATP

Answer: A

6) Most of the energy in the typical animal cell is produced in the ________.A) cytosolB) nucleusC) mitochondriaD) lysosomesE) endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: C

7) The production of ethanol from glucose is termed ________.A) fermentationB) glycolysisC) gluconeogenesisD) β-oxidationE) dehydrogenation

Answer: A

22.3 True/False Questions1) Energy production in the cell occurs primarily in the nucleus.

Answer: TRUE

2) The cytosol is an aqueous solution of salts and enzymes.Answer: TRUE

3) Reactions in the mitochondria produce most of the cellʹs energy.Answer: TRUE

4) Lysosomes digest and recycle old cell structures.Answer: TRUE

5) Digestion of a polysaccharide is an anabolic process.Answer: FALSE

6) The production of carbon dioxide and water in the body is an anabolic process.Answer: FALSE

7) ATP is the primary energy source for the cell.Answer: TRUE

8) Catabolic reactions provide energy to generate ATP in the cell.Answer: TRUE

9) The conversion of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate produces 7.3 kcal/mole of energy.Answer: TRUE

10) The reaction of glucose with ATP to produce ADP and glucose-6-phosphate is an example of a coupledreaction.Answer: TRUE

11) Oxidation involves the gain of electrons for a substance.Answer: FALSE

12) NAD+ acts as a hydrogen acceptor in metabolic reactions.Answer: TRUE

13) FADH2 is the oxidized form of FAD.

Answer: FALSE

14) Pantothenic acid is a part of NADHAnswer: FALSE

15) ATP contains ribose.Answer: FALSE

22.4 Matching QuestionsIdentify each of the following metabolic pathways.

1) Column 1: anaerobic glycolysis

Column 2: the conversion of glucose tolactic acid

Answer: the conversion of glucose to lactic acid

2) Column 1: fermentation

Column 2: the conversion of pyruvic acidto ethanol and CO2

Answer: the conversion of pyruvic acid to ethanol and CO2

3) Column 1: glycogenesis

Column 2: the synthesis from glucose ofglycogen for storage

Answer: the synthesis from glucose of glycogen for storage

4) Column 1: gluconeogenesis

Column 2: the production of glucose fromother small molecules

Answer: the production of glucose from other small molecules

5) Column 1: the Cori cycle

Column 2: the flow of lactate and glucosebetween muscle and liver

Answer: the flow of lactate and glucose between muscle and liver

6) Column 1: digestion

Column 2: breaking down ofmacromolecules

Answer: breaking down of macromolecules

7) Column 1: triacylglycerol hydrolysis

Column 2: lipid metabolismAnswer: lipid metabolism

Chapter 23 Metabolism and Energy Production23.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) When combined with the electron transport chain, one turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________ ATP.A) 24B) 12C) 11D) 14E) 2

Answer: B

2) What is the correct coefficient for ATP in the complete combustion of glucose?

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + _____ ATP + 6H2O

A) 6B) 12C) 18D) 24E) 36

Answer: E

3) In the absence of oxygen in muscles, pyruvate is converted toA) glycogen.B) glucose.C) ethanol.D) lactate.E) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

Answer: D

4) Under anaerobic conditions, there is a net production of ________ ATP during glycolysis.A) zeroB) twoC) fourD) sixE) eight

Answer: B

5) In order to enter the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is first converted to A) ate.B) acetaldehyde.C) citrate.D) acetyl CoA.E) ethanol.

Answer: D

6) In yeast cells, energy is obtained when pyruvate is converted to ethanol (C2H5OH) and carbon dioxide (CO2).What is the name of this process?

A) aerobic glycolysisB) reductionC) fermentationD) oxidative decarboxylationE) oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: C

7) Which of the following is NOT a possible product of pyruvate under anaerobic conditions?A) lactateB) acetaldehydeC) fumarateD) ethanolE) CO2

Answer: C

8) The citric acid cycle is used in the oxidation ofA) glucose only.B) glucose and fatty acids only.C) fatty acids only.D) glucose, fatty acids, and proteins.E) proteins only.

Answer: D

9) What electron acceptor(s) is(are) used in the citric acid cycle?A) FAD onlyB) NAD+ onlyC) NADH + FADH2 + CoASHD) FMNE) NAD+ + FAD

Answer: E

10) Which of the following compounds in the citric acid cycle undergoes oxidative decarboxylation?A) citrateB) isocitrateC) succinateD) fumarateE) succinyl CoA

Answer: B

11) Which of the following is the net reaction for one turn of the citric acid cycle?A) Acetyl-S-CoA + 3 NAD+ + FAD + GDP + Pi +H2O → 2 CO2 + 3 NADH + 3 H+ + FADH2 + HS-CoA +

GTPB) Pyruvate + 3 NAD+ + FAD + GDP + Pi 2H2O → 3 CO2 + 3 NADH + 3 H+ + FADH2 + GTP

C) Acetyl-S-CoA + NAD+ + FAD + GDP + Pi → 2 CO2 + NADH + H++ FADH2 + HS-CoA + GTP

D) Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2GDP + 2 Pi + 2H2O → 2Pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + GTPE) Glucose + 2GDP + 2Pi → 2Lactate + 2GTP

Answer: A

12) The citric acid cycle operates only under aerobic conditions becauseA) oxygen is a reactant in the citric acid cycle.B) oxygen is a product of the citric acid cycle.C) CO2 is a product of the citric acid cycle.D) the NADH and FADH2 produced by the citric acid cycle can only be reoxidized by the electron transport

chain.E) the NAD+ and FAD produced by the citric acid cycle can only be reduced by the electron transport chain.

Answer: D

13) In the chemiosmotic model of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP is synthesized asA) OH- flows through ATP synthase.B) electrons flow through ATP synthase.C) Ca2+ flows through ATP synthase.D) H+ flows through ATP synthase.E) Na+ flows through ATP synthase.

Answer: D

14) The components of the electron transport chain do NOT includeA) oxygen (O2).B) cytochromes.C) FMN.D) CoQ.E) acetyl CoA.

Answer: E

15) In the electron transport chain, the synthesis of ATP from ADP + Pi is calledA) glycolysis.B) fermentation.C) oxidative phosphorylation.D) isomerization.E) hydrolysis.

Answer: C

16) In the electron transport chain, the three protein complexes (I, III, and IV)A) act as proton pumps, which generate a proton gradient.B) transfer electrons from NAD+ to O2.C) transfer electrons from FAD to O2.D) act as electron pumps, which generate an electron gradient.E) act as Ca2+ pumps, which generate a Ca2+ gradient.

Answer: A

17) In the electron transport chain, the oxidized product from the reaction of FMN + NADH + H+ isA) CoQ.B) FMNH2.C) FADH.D) FAD.E) NAD+.

Answer: E

18) In the last step of the electron transport chain, water is produced when protons and electrons are transferred tooxygen (O2) from ________.

A) cyt a3B) cyt bC) cyt cD) cyt c1E) cyt a

Answer: A

19) The electron carrier ________ provides two ATP via the electron transport chain.A) FADH2B) NADHC) NADPHD) CoASHE) FNMH2

Answer: A

20) When oxygen is in plentiful supply in the cell, pyruvate is converted toA) CoA.B) acetyl CoA.C) glucose.D) lactate.E) fructose.

Answer: B

21) The process which requires oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water is calledA) fermentation.B) reduction.C) decomposition.D) oxidation.E) respiration.

Answer: E

22) Which of the three major stages of metabolism includes the citric acid cycle?A) Stage oneB) Stage twoC) Stage three

Answer: C

23) The citric acid cycle takes place in theA) mitochondria.B) cytosol.C) cytoplasm.D) Golgi apparatus.E) endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: A

24) In stage three of metabolism, the overall result is to releaseA) glucose and water.B) lactate and acetyl CoA.C) lactate and glucose.D) glycogen and water.E) carbon dioxide and energy.

Answer: E

25) Most of the energy released in the citric acid cycle is used to produceA) glucose.B) acetyl CoA.C) NADH and FADH2.D) carbon dioxide and water.E) citric acid.

Answer: C

26) The electron transport chain is also calledA) the citric acid cycle.B) β-oxidation.C) transamination.D) the respiratory chain.E) fermentation.

Answer: D

27) In the electron transport chain, NADH and FADH2 are used to provideA) oxygen.B) electrons and hydrogen ions.C) carbon atoms.D) water and carbon dioxide.E) thiol groups.

Answer: B

28) The energy released during the electron transport chain is used to produceA) glucose.B) citric acid.C) carbon dioxide.D) ATP.E) NADH.

Answer: D

29) Another name for the citric acid cycle isA) the electron transport chain.B) glycolysis.C) the tricarboxylic acid cycle.D) glucolysis.E) the transamination pathway.

Answer: C

30) Another name for the citric acid cycle isA) the Krebs cycle.B) gluconeogenesis.C) glucose hydrolysis.D) oxidative phosphorylation.E) the chemiosmotic pump.

Answer: A

31) In the first reaction of the citric acid cycleA) glucose becomes pyruvate.B) ATP is produced.C) NADH is produced.D) acetyl CoA reacts with oxaloacetate to give citrate.E) pyruvate becomes CO2 and H2O.

Answer: D

32) During the first reaction in the citric acid cycle,A) free CoA is released.B) acetyl CoA is made.C) a decarboxylation occurs.D) a decomposition occurs.E) ATP is synthesized.

Answer: A

33) The transformation of citrate to isocitrate in the citric acid cycle rquires two ________ reactions.A) oxidationB) reductionC) hydrolysisD) decarboxylationE) dehydration-hydration

Answer: E

34) The citric acid cycle step that removes the first CO2 molecule is a(n)A) oxidative decarboxylation.B) reduction.C) carbonylation.D) hydrolysis.E) combination.

Answer: A

35) In the third major step of the citric acid cycle, NAD+ is converted toA) NAS-.B) NAD2+.C) NADH2.D) NAD.E) NADH.

Answer: E

36) Step 5 of the citric acid cycle is the hydrolysis of succinyl CoA. In this reactionA) the energy released is used to make GTP.B) the energy released is used to make ATP.C) carbon dioxide is released.D) α-ketoglutarate is released.E) the enzyme aconitase is needed.

Answer: A

37) In the hydrolysis of succinyl CoA in step 5 of the citric acid cycle, CoA is released asA) CoA-SH.B) CoA-OH.C) CoA-O-.D) CoA-S-.

E) CoA-COO-.Answer: A

38) The GTP formed in step 5 of the citric acid cycle is used to makeA) carbon dioxide.B) oxygen.C) water.D) CoA.E) ATP.

Answer: E

39) In the dehydration of succinate to fumarate in the citric acid cycle, the coenzyme used isA) CoA.B) acetyl CoA.C) NAD+.D) NADH.E) FAD.

Answer: E

40) In step 7 of the citric acid cycle, fumarate is converted to malate by a ________ reaction.A) hydrolysisB) dehydrogenationC) hydrogenationD) hydrationE) dehydration

Answer: D

41) The last step in the citric acid cycle converts malate toA) citrate.B) isocitrate.C) succinate.D) fumarate.E) oxaloacetate.

Answer: E

42) Overall, one turn of the citric acid cycle producesA) three CO2 molecules.B) three NADH molecules.C) two FADH2 molecules.D) 6 ATP.E) 2 GTP.

Answer: B

43) One method of regulation of the citric acid cycle isA) allosteric control.B) osmosis.C) temperature control.D) carbon dioxide production.E) water concentration.

Answer: A

44) The compounds in the respiratory chain that rermove hydrogen ions and electrons from NADH are classifiedas

A) oxidative transporters.B) osmotic carriers.C) electron carriers.D) phosphorylators.E) citrates.

Answer: C

45) One example of an electron carrier in the respiratory chain isA) ATP.B) GTP.C) coenzyme Q.D) citrate.E) water.

Answer: C

46) Which is the best choice for the box labeled ʺAnswerʺ in the illustration below?

A) oxidized carrier BB) carbon dioxideC) OH-

D) reduced carrier BH2E) energy

Answer: D

47) In the electron transport chain, in the iron-sulfur proteins,A) the sulfur is the element that carries the electrons.B) the protein complex is either oxidized or reduced.C) iron alternates between the +2 and +3 state.D) FAD is carried to coenzyme Q.E) oxygen is carried to water.

Answer: C

48) In the electron transport chain, cytochromes containA) FMN.B) heme.C) lymph.D) iron-sulfur clusters.E) CoQ.

Answer: B

49) Cyanide ion and carbon monoxide inhibitA) cytochrome c oxidase.B) ATP production.C) antibiotic activity.D) CoQ formation.E) CoA formation.

Answer: A

50) In the chemiosmotic model, protons circulate through a protein complex calledA) iron-sulfur clusters.B) FMA.C) CoA.D) CoQ.E) ATP synthase.

Answer: E

51) In glycolysis, glucose produces 2 pyruvate molecules and a total of ________ ATP molecules.A) 2B) 4C) 6D) 8E) 12

Answer: C

52) The complete oxidation of glucose produces ________ ATP molecules.A) 2B) 8C) 12D) 24E) 36

Answer: E

23.2 Short Answer QuestionsIn this figure taken from your text, identify the metabolic substance numbered.

1) substance 1Answer: proteins

2) substance 2Answer: carbohydrates or polysaccharides

3) substance 3Answer: lipids

4) substance 4Answer: pyruvate

5) substance 5Answer: acetyl CoA

6) substance 6Answer: carbon dioxide

7) substance 7Answer: ATP

8) substance 8Answer: oxygen

9) process 9Answer: citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle

10) process 10Answer: electron transport

11) process 11Answer: oxidative phosphorylation

In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.

12) substance 12Answer: acetyl CoA

13) substance 13Answer: citrate


15) substance 15Answer: α-ketoglutarate


17) substance 17Answer: succinyl CoA

18) substance 18Answer: oxaloacetate

23.3 Matching QuestionsIndicate the amount of ATP produced when each of the following reactions occurs.

1) Column 1: complete oxidation of glucose

Column 2: 36 ATPAnswer: 36 ATP

2) Column 1: Acetyl CoA → 2CO2


3) Column 1: glucose → 2 pyruvate underaerobic conditions


4) Column 1: glucose → 2 lactate


5) Column 1: pyruvate → acetate + CO2


Match the terms with the following descriptions.

6) Column 1: the process that makes ATPusing energy from the electrontransport chain

Column 2: oxidative phosphorylationAnswer: oxidative phosphorylation

7) Column 1: the carrier of acetyl(two-carbon) groups

Column 2: coenzyme AAnswer: coenzyme A

Identify each of the following metabolic pathways.

8) Column 1: the conversion of glucose topyruvic acid

Column 2: glycolysisAnswer: glycolysis

9) Column 1: the series of reactions thatconverts acetyl CoA to carbondioxide and water

Column 2: citric acid cycleAnswer: citric acid cycle

10) Column 1: the series of reactions thatproduces water

Column 2: electron transport chainAnswer: electron transport chain

11) Column 1: the series of reactions that useselectron carriers

Column 2: electron transport chainAnswer: electron transport chain

Chapter 24 Metabolic Pathways for Lipids and Amino Acids24.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) In the activation of a fatty acid, energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is used toA) form a double bond in an oxidation reaction.B) join the fatty acid to CoA.C) add a molecule of water across a double bond to give a hydroxyl group on the β-carbon.D) oxidize the hydroxyl group on the β-carbon.E) cause a unit of acetyl CoA to separate from the fatty acid chain.

Answer: B

2) The coenzyme(s) used in fatty acid synthesis is (are) ________.A) NADHB) FADH2C) NADPHD) NADH and NADPHE) FADH2 and NADH

Answer: C

3) The series of reactions that produces energy by hydrolyzing fats to units of acetyl CoA is calledA) transamination.B) β-oxidation.C) hydration.D) hydrolysis.E) β-reduction.

Answer: B

4) Which step is found in the breakdown of a fat?A) an activation that requires 2 ATP.B) an oxidation with a cytochrome.C) an oxidation with CoQ.D) direct substrate phosphorylation.E) production of pyruvate.

Answer: A

5) During complete oxidation of the fatty acid CH3(CH2)18COOH, ________ molecules of acetyl CoA areproduced, and the fatty acid goes through the β-oxidation cycle ________ times.

A) ten; tenB) nine; tenC) nine; nineD) nine; eightE) ten; nine

Answer: E

6) What is the total number of ATP molecules produced from the lauric acid (C12H24O2) found in coconut oil?A) 72 ATPB) 90 ATPC) 100 ATPD) 97 ATPE) 95 ATP

Answer: E

7) The complete oxidation of CH3(CH2) 8COOH produces ________ molecules of ATP.A) 80B) 78C) 82D) 74E) 76

Answer: B

8) When carbohydrates are not available to meet energy needs, less acetyl CoA enters the citric acid cycle becauseA) acetyl CoA is converted to ketone bodies to provide energy for the brain.B) less NADH is available.C) acetyl CoA is converted to glucose.D) oxaloacetate is converted to glucose, so less is available for the citric acid cycle.E) the electron transport chain cannot reoxidize NAD+ and FAD as rapidly as they are produced inβ-oxidation.

Answer: D

9) In a(n) ________ reaction, NH4+is produced when glutamate is converted to α-ketoglutarate.A) dehydrogenationB) transaminationC) oxidative deaminationD) reductionE) hydration

Answer: C

10) All of the nonessential amino acids can be synthesized in the body by transamination, using an amino groupfrom

A) glutamic acid.B) α-ketoglutaric acid.C) pyruvic acid.D) oxaloacetate.E) lactic acid.

Answer: A

11) Which of the following does NOT require NAD+ ?A) glycolysisB) transaminationC) citric acid cycleD) β-oxidationE) oxidative deamination

Answer: B

12) In mammals, the ammonium ion produced in oxidative deamination isA) excreted in the feces.B) stored in the liver.C) converted to uric acid, which is excreted in the urine.D) converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine.E) converted to uric acid, which is excreted by the liver.

Answer: D

13) The digestion of protein begins in theA) mouth.B) stomach.C) small intestine.D) large intestine.E) pancreas.

Answer: B

14) The initial digestion of protein is catalyzed by an enzyme calledA) chymotrypsin.B) peptidase.C) pepsin.D) amylase.E) trypsin.

Answer: C

15) The digestion of fats begins in theA) mouth.B) stomach.C) small intestine.D) gall bladder.E) large intestine.

Answer: C

16) The digestion of fats begins when the fat globules areA) emulsified by bile salts.B) attacked by protease enzymes to form smaller fat globules.C) converted to lipoproteins for greater solubility.D) hydrolyzed to glucose and amino acids.E) hydrolyzed to glycerol and fatty acids.

Answer: A

17) The primary fuel for the synthesis of ATP isA) protein.B) lactate.C) ammonia.D) GTP.E) glucose.

Answer: E

18) Fatty acids and glycerol are produced from the metabolism ofA) lipids.B) proteins.C) carbohydrates.D) amino acids.E) glucose.

Answer: A

19) Most of the energy stored in the human body is in the form ofA) glycogen.B) glucose.C) muscle tissue.D) triacylglycerols.E) the amino acid pool.

Answer: D

20) Fat cells are known asA) lysosomes.B) adipocytes.C) glycerides.D) islet cells.E) monoacylglycerols.

Answer: B

21) The small droplets of fat that are the first step in the digestion of dietary fats are calledA) emulsions.B) detergents.C) bile drops.D) lipoproteins.E) micelles.

Answer: E

22) The action of pancreatic lipase on triacylglycerols producesA) emulsions.B) micelles.C) monoacylglycerols and free fatty acids.D) high-density lipoproteins.E) low-density lipoproteins.

Answer: C

23) A chylomicron is aA) lipase.B) digestive enzyme.C) triacylglycerol.D) transport lipoprotein.E) storage protein.

Answer: D

24) Fatty acids are not a source of energy for the brain becauseA) they cannot diffuse across the blood-brain barrier.B) the citric acid cycle does not operate in the brain.C) chylomicrons are too large for absorption by brain cells.D) they are metabolized before they get as far as the brain.E) there is no lipase in the brain.

Answer: A

25) The source of energy for red blood cells isA) amino acids.B) fatty acids.C) glycerol.D) glucose.E) lactate.

Answer: D

26) Heart muscleʹs primary source of fuel isA) glucose.B) fatty acids.C) amino acids.D) glycogen.E) lactate.

Answer: B

27) Red blood cells do not metabolize fatty acids because they haveA) no nucleus.B) a cell wall.C) a cell membrane.D) no mitochondria.E) no DNA.

Answer: D

28) Fat stores in the body are mobilized whenA) adipocyte concentrations are high.B) blood glucose levels are high.C) glucagon production is low.D) insulin production is high.E) glucose and glycogen stores are low.

Answer: E

29) The enzymes that break down triacylglycerols into fatty acids and glycerol are calledA) lyases.B) aconitases.C) lipases.D) hydrolases.E) oxidoreductases.

Answer: C

30) Most of the glycerol produced by fatty acid breakdown goes to theA) pancreas.B) gall bladder.C) liver.D) small intestine.E) brain.

Answer: C

31) Most of the glycerol produced by fatty acid breakdown is converted eventually toA) glucose.B) protein.C) fat.D) lactate.E) amino acids.

Answer: A

32) The removal of 2-carbon segments of a fatty acid for further metabolism is calledA) β-oxidation.B) transamination.C) deglyceration.D) dehydration.E) decarboxylation.

Answer: A

33) The 2-carbon segments removed from a fatty acid during metabolism are used to formA) glucose.B) pyruvate.C) lactate.D) CoA.E) acetyl CoA.

Answer: E

34) The 2-carbon units obtained by degradation of a fatty acid are further metabolized inA) gluconeogenesis.B) the citric acid cycle.C) β-oxidation.D) glycolysis.E) transamination.

Answer: B

35) The function of fatty acyl CoA is toA) activate a fatty acid for metabolism.B) produce a 2-carbon segment for metabolism.C) isomerize cis fatty acids.D) cross the blood-brain barrier.E) produce a lipoprotein.

Answer: A

36) Fatty acyl CoA cannot cross into the mitochondrial matrix untilA) it is cut into 2-carbon segments.B) the citric acid cycle has begun.C) β-oxidation has taken place.D) the mitochondrial membrane undergoes a modification.E) it binds with a charged carrier molecule called carnitine.

Answer: E

37) Beta-oxidation takes place in theA) nucleus.B) cytosol.C) cytoplasm.D) mitochondrial matrix.E) Golgi body.

Answer: D

38) Myristic acid, a C14 fatty acid, produces ________ acetyl CoA when completely metabolized.A) 2B) 5C) 7D) 12E) 14

Answer: C

39) Myristic acid, a C14 fatty acid, undergoes the β-oxidation cycle ________ times.A) 2B) 4C) 6D) 7E) 14

Answer: C

40) The energy released by the β-oxidation of a cis fatty acid isA) slightly more than that obtained from a trans fatty acid.B) slightly less than that obtained from a trans fatty acid.C) the same as that obtained from a trans fatty acid.D) less than that obtained from one glucose molecule.E) used immediately to form ATP.

Answer: B

41) Fats are higher in caloric value than carbohydrates becauseA) 1 gram of fat produces significantly more ATP than 1 gram of glucose.B) fats can make use of the citric acid cycle.C) fats make use of β-oxidation.D) 1 gram of glucose weighs more than 1 gram of fat.E) 1 gram of glucose contains more moles than 1 gram of fat.

Answer: A

42) Leptin isA) a digestive enzyme.B) a cofactor for fatty acid oxidation.C) an obesity gene.D) a zymogen.E) a hormone stored in fat cells.

Answer: E

43) Each acetyl CoA produces ________ ATP in the citric acid cycle.A) 2B) 6C) 10D) 12E) 24

Answer: D

44) When excess acetyl CoA accumulates in the liver, a pathway called ________ is initiated.A) transaminationB) glycolysisC) gluconeogenesisD) emulsificationE) ketogenesis

Answer: E

45) Ketosis is a condition that can occur ifA) ketone bodies cannot be completely metabolized.B) too many ketones are ingested.C) too much protein is available in the diet.D) the brain is starved of glucose.E) low fat intake occurs.

Answer: A

46) In Type II diabetes mellitus,A) blood glucose levels are too low.B) glucose intake is too low.C) birth of a baby restores normal pancreatic function.D) sufficient insulin is produced, but cannot be used.E) the pancreas produces insufficient insulin.

Answer: D

47) Ketosis can lower the blood pH below 7.4, producing the conditionA) anemia.B) hyponatremia.C) hypokalemia.D) acidosis.E) alkalosis.

Answer: D

48) The production of new fatty acids is calledA) gluconeogenesis.B) β-oxidation.C) transesterification.D) oxidation.E) lipogenesis.

Answer: E

49) Acyl carrier protein is used inA) β-oxidation.B) lipogenesis.C) gluconeogenesis.D) acetyl CoA production.E) fatty acid degradation.

Answer: B

50) In Type I diabetes mellitus,A) blood glucose levels are too low.B) glucose intake is too low.C) birth of a baby restores normal pancreatic function.D) sufficient insulin is produced, but cannot be used.E) the pancreas produces insufficient insulin.

Answer: E

51) Malonyl CoA contains a 3-carbon compound used inA) lipogenesis.B) acetyl CoA formation.C) gluconeogenesis.D) glycogenolysis.E) the citric acid cycle.

Answer: A

52) The letters ACP stand forA) acetyl Coenzyme P.B) aconitate protein complex.C) acetyl condensing protein.D) acyl carrier protein.E) acetyl CoA-palmitate.

Answer: D

53) Fatty acid synthesis takes place primarily inA) liver cells.B) intestinal cells.C) brain cells.D) muscle cells.E) adipocytes.

Answer: E

54) The nitrogen for nucleotide synthesis comes fromA) carbohydrates.B) fats.C) proteins.D) DNA.E) RNA.

Answer: C

24.2 True/False Questions1) Acyl carrier protein is used in fatty acid synthesis.

Answer: TRUE

2) The production of new triacylglycerols is termed ketogenesis.Answer: FALSE

3) Fatty acids can be used in the brain as an energy source.Answer: FALSE

4) Red blood cells have mitochondria, which serve as an energy production site.Answer: FALSE

5) Chylomicrons consist of bile salts and lipids.Answer: FALSE

6) Nonessential amino acids can be made in the body using the transamination pathway.Answer: TRUE

7) Ammonium ions and carbon dioxide produce urea in the urea cycle.Answer: TRUE

8) The urea cycle is the major pathway for eliminating the excess nitrogen from amino acid degradation.Answer: TRUE

9) The overall process of synthesizing and breaking down proteins is called protein turnover.Answer: TRUE

10) Protein digestion begins in the small intestine.Answer: FALSE

11) Some amino acids can be converted into others via transamination.Answer: TRUE


1) Column 1: compounds produced whenthere is little or nocarbohydrate metabolism anda subsequent increase in fatmetabolism

Column 2: ketone bodiesAnswer: ketone bodies

2) Column 1: a carrier of electrons to the siteof ATP production, fromoxidation reactions involvingcarbon-carbon double bonds

Column 2: FADAnswer: FAD

3) Column 1: lipoproteins formed fromtriacylglycerols and protein

Column 2: chylomicronsAnswer: chylomicrons

4) Column 1: an amino acid that is notsynthesized in the body

Column 2: essential amino acid

Foil: transaminated amino acidAnswer: essential amino acid

5) Column 1: a major step in fatty aciddegradation

Column 2: β-oxidationAnswer: β-oxidation

6) Column 1: an amino acid producingcarbons for glucose production

Column 2: a glucogenic amino acid

Foil: a ketogenic amino acidAnswer: a glucogenic amino acid

7) Column 1: a condition of low blood pH

Column 2: acidosis

Foil: alkalosisAnswer: acidosis

8) Column 1: the products of ketogenesis

Column 2: ketone bodiesAnswer: ketone bodies

9) Column 1: the main source of energy inthe body

Column 2: ATP

Foil: GTPAnswer: ATP

10) Column 1: a carrier of 2-carbon units infatty acid degradation

Column 2: Coenzyme A.Answer: Coenzyme A.

Identify each of the following metabolic pathways.

11) Column 1: the conversion of fatty acids to2-carbon units of acetylCoenzyme A

Column 2: β-oxidationAnswer: β-oxidation

12) Column 1: the conversion of an aminoacid to an α-keto acid

Column 2: transaminationAnswer: transamination

13) Column 1: the combination of 2-carbonunits of acetyl CoA to formfatty acids

Column 2: lipogenesisAnswer: lipogenesis

14) Column 1: the removal of an aminogroup as NH4+ from glutamicacid to yield α-ketoglutaricacid

Column 2: oxidative deaminationAnswer: oxidative deamination

15) Column 1: the production of ketonebodies

Column 2: ketogenesisAnswer: ketogenesis

Introduction to General Organic & Biochemistrey - 2nd Edition- Test Bank

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