INSTRUCTIONS - FIITJEE · PDF fileThe greatest acceleration or deceleration that a train may...

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942 website: www.fiitjee.com

PART TEST – 1 (4th July 2016)

SAT (Paper – 3)

Code 1003

Time Allotted: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100 Please r ead the inst ruct ions carefu l l y. You are a l lot ted 5 m inutes

speci f i ca l l y for th is purpose. You are not a l lowed to leave the E xam inat ion Hal l before the end of

the test .

INSTRUCTIONS

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions 1. All questions are compulsory. 2. The question paper consists of 100 questions. 3. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.

2. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.

3. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.

4. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers. C. Marking Scheme 1. Each question carries +1 mark for correct answer and no negative mark for wrong

answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

ALL

IND

IA O

PE

N T

ES

T S

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IES

FIITJEE TARGET NTSE-2016-17 68

2 FI

ITJE

E st

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ts q

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015-

16) f

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AIOTS-1617-NTSE-Stage-I-PT-1-SAT (Paper-3)-2

SAT 1. A wire is drawn such that its radius changes from r to 2r. The new resistance is (A) 1 times (B) 4 times

(C) 8 times (D) 116

times

2. The greatest acceleration or deceleration that a train may have is a. The minimum time

in which the train may reach from one station to the other separated by a distance d is

(A) da

(B) 2da

(C) 1 d2 a

(D) d2a

3. I – V characteristics of a copper wire of length L and area of

cross-section A is shown in figure. The slope of the curve becomes

(A) more if the experiment is performed at higher temperature (B) more if a wire of steel of same dimension is used (C) more if the length of the wire is increased (D) less if the length of the wire is increased

V

I

4. The location of a particle is changed. What can we say about the displacement and

distance covered by the particle? (A) Both cannot be zero (B) One of the two may be zero (C) Both must be zero (D) Both must be equal

Space for Rough work



5 The magnitude of I in ampere is

1 A 10

60

15 5

1 A

I

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.6 (D) none of these 6. The magnitude of displacement is equal to the distance covered in a given interval of

time if the particle (A) Moves with constant acceleration along any path (B) Moves with constant speed (C) Moves in same direction with constant velocity or with variable velocity (D) Moves with constant velocity 7. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference between X and Y will be

X

40 Y

120 20

(A) Zero (B) 20 V (C) 60 V (D) 120 V 8. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2 A, the resistance R is

R

A

6

3

6 V (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4




9. In the given circuit, the voltmeter records 5 V. The resistance of the voltmeter in ohms is V

100

10 V

50

(A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 10 (D) 50 10. A small block starts falling freely. Let Sn be the distance travelled from time t = n – 1 to

t = n. Then n

n 1

SS

is

(A) 2n 12n (B) 2n 1

2n 1

(C) 2n 12n 1

(D) 2n2n 1

11. Bulb B1 (100 W – 250 V) and bulb B2 (100 W – 200 V) are connected across 250 V.

What is potential drop across B2?

B1 B2

250 V (A) 200 V (B) 250 V (C) 98 V (D) 48 V




12. When 4 equal resistors are connected in series with a battery, they dissipate a power of 10W. What will be the power dissipated through any of them if it is individually connected across the same battery?

(A) 40 W (B) 10 W3

(C) 90 W (D) 10 W 13. The velocity versus time graph of a body moving in a

straight line is as follows : The displacement covered by the body in 3 sec. is (A) 1 m

(B) 2 m (C) 3 m

(D) 4 m

t

V

-2

-1

+1

+2

3 1 2

14. A ball is thrown upwards with speed v from the top of a tower and it reaches the ground

with speed 3v. What is the height of the tower?

(A) 2v

g (B)

22vg

(C) 24v

g (D)

28vg

15. 25 g of a solution of silver nitrate in distilled water was taken in a beaker. To this 15 g of

a solution of sodium chloride was mixed. The mixture was stirred with a glass rod on weighing the mass of the contents was found to be

(A) 40 g (B) More than 40 g (C) Less than 40 g (D) None of these




16. What will be the chemical formula of calcium nitride. (A) Ca3N2 (B) Ca2N2 (C) Ca3N3 (D) Ca2N3 17. How many atoms are present in phosphate ion? (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5 18. Identify physical changes from the following: I. Dissolution of carbon dioxide in water II. Dissolution of oxygen in water III. Dissolution of salt in water (A) I & II only (B) II & III only (C) II & I only (D) I, II & III 19. Tick the wrong statement (A) 6.022 × 1023 atoms of C = 12g of carbon (B) 3.011 × 1023 atoms of S = 16g of Sulphur (C) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of oxygen = 16g of oxygen molecules (D) 3.011 × 1023 molecules of hydrogen = 1g of hydrogen molecules 20. Solubility of gas decreases with increase in temperature because (A) Dissolution of gases in water is an endothermic process (B) Dissolution of gases in water is an exothermic process (C) Dissolution of gases in water requires large amount of heat (D) Dissolution of gases in water at high temperature and low pressure 21. The density of water at 4°C is 1.0 × 103 kg/m3. The volume occupied by one molecule of

water is approximately. (A) 3.0 × 1023 mL (B) 6.0 × 1022 mL (C) 3.0 × 1021 mL (D) 9.0 × 1023 mL




22. Boron has two stable isotopes 10B (19%) & 11B (81%). The atomic mass that should appear for boron in periodic table is

(A) 10.8 (B) 10.2 (C) 11.2 (D) 10.0 23. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is isoelectronic with CO2? (A) NO2 (B) N2O (C) NO (D) N2O2 24. What will be the rate of effusion of methane and sulphur dioxide under the same

conditions (A) Rate of effusion of SO2 will be twice that of CH4 (B) Rate of effusion of CH4 will be twice that of SO2 (C) Rate of effusion of SO2 will be equal to CH4 (D) None of these 25. Which of the following is not a compound? (A) Marble (B) Washing Soda (C) Quick lime (D) Brass 26. If we draw a graph between temperature T (°C) and heat energy for a quantity of ice

converted into steam, which graph will show the phase transition.

A

B C

D E

F

(A) AB & CD (B) BC & DE (C) CD & EF (D) AB, CD & EF




27. Which of the following pairs of colloidal solutions have dispersed phase as liquid and dispersion medium as gas?

(A) Fog, mist (B) Butter, milk (C) Fog, smoke (D) Smoke, foam 28. Nucleoid is present in: (A) Eukaryotic cell (B) Prokaryotic cell (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these 29. Group of cells which perform similar function is called: (A) Tissue (B) Organ (C) Organ system (D) Organism 30. In which type of plant tissue, cell wall is covered by lignin: (A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma (C) Sclerenchyma (D) All of these 31. Recker’s particles are: (A) F1 particles (B) G1 particles (C) Dust particles (D) None of these 32. Bacterium contains: (A) 70s Ribosomes (B) 80s Ribosomes (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these 33. Kitchen of the cell is known as: (A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast (C) ER (D) Vacuole 34. Fluid connective tissue is: (A) Blood (B) Bone (C) Cartilage (D) Muscle




35. The principal cereal crop of India is: (A) Sorghum (B) Wheat (C) Maize (D) Rice 36. Involuntary muscles are found in: (A) Alimentary canal (B) Urinary bladder (C) Blood vessels (D) All of these 37. White Leghorn is exotic breeds of: (A) Cow (B) Buffalo (C) Poultry bird (D) None of these 38. Frieswal is a: (A) cross breed of Holstein-friesian and Sahiwal (B) cross breed of Tharparkar and Holstein-friesian (C) cross breed of Brown Swiss and Sahiwal (D) None of these 39. Rotation of crops is essential for: (A) increasing quality of proteins (B) increasing fertility of soil (C) increasing quality of minerals (D) getting different kind of crops 40. Match the following: (a) Cattle farming (i) Milk production (b) Pisciculture (ii) Egg yielding animals (c) Poultry farming (iii) Fish production (d) White revolution (iv) Milk animals (A) (a)(iv), (b)(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i) (B) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv) (C) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iv) (D) None of these




41. Find the remainder when 1 2 3 4 5 9910 10 10 10 10 .......... 10 is divided by 6. (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5 42. Among the expression 2 31 3P , 1 3P , 1 3P and 41 3P the number of

factors of 41 81P is: (A) one (B) two (C) four (D) three

43. If 3 5 77 5 3

7 5 3f x 1 3x 5x 7xx x x

. Now, if the value of f 2 is 1081.58 then the

value of 1f2

is:

(A) 540.79 (B) 11081.58

(C) 1081.58 (D) 367.42

44. If x y za b c and b ca b then 2z

x z is equal to:

(A) yx

(B) xy

(C) x2

(D) zx

45. If a, b are two perfect square digits and ab is a two digit perfect square number, such

that a b a b ab then the value of ba b a is:

(A) 27 (B) 2b (C) 81 (D) either of b and c




46. If 1x 99,x

find the value of 2100x .

2x 102x 2

(A) 12

(B) 13

(C) 14

(D) 16

47. Let x denote the greatest 4 digit number which when divided by 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 leaves

a remainder of 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively. Then, the sum of the four digits of x is (A) 25 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 22

48. If 2 2x 2x 1 x 2x 1 22 3 2 3 ,

2 3

then x is equal to:

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) both (a) and (c)

49. If 2r 1 s 3p .p .p p and 3/2 r r s 1/2p .p p p .p then the value of r sr s is:

(A) 27 (B) 64 (C) 4 (D) none of these 50. The ratio of the roots of the equation 2ax bx c 0 is same as the ratio of the roots of

the equation 2px qx r 0 . If 1D and 2D are the discriminants of 2ax bx c 0 and 2px qx r 0 respectively then 1 2D : D

(A) 2

2

aq

(B) 2

2

ap

(C) 2

2

bq

(D) none of these




51. If 3 1a3 1

and 3 1b3 1

, then the value of 2 2a b a bab

(A) 14 3 (B) 18 (C) 8 3 4 (D) 4 3 4 52. Let f . be a function defined on the set of positive integers, such that f n n f n 1

and f 1 1 , then f 100 equals (A) 4900 (B) 4950 (C) 5000 (D) 5050 53. If ab, cd, ba and dc are two digit numbers then the maximum value of

ab cd ba dc is, where a, b, c, d are distinct non – zero integers: (A) 7938 (B) 7128 (C) 6930 (D) none of these

54. If a

11 log xy a and a

11 log yz a , then x is equal to:

(A) 1 logyz (B) a

11 log z

(C) a

11 log za (D) y

z

55. The unit digit of the following expression 99 98 97 96 11! 2! 3! 4! .......... 99! is: (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 6




56. The number of solutions satisfying for x R 23 3

9log x log x 52x 3 3

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 57. For any odd prime number p there exists a positive integer k where 1 k p, such that

the remainder of 2k

p is 1. Then the number of positive integer value that ‘k’ can take for

that given value of ‘p’ will be (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) p – 1 (D) can’t be determined

58. 2 4 8

1 1 1 ........log a log a log a

to n terms n n 1

k

, then k is equal to:

(A) 22log a (B) 2

alog2

(C) alog 2 (D) none of these

59. If 3 33 3

1 a 4 b 2 c4 2 1

and a, b, c are rational numbers, then a + b + c is equal

to (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 60. If a2 + b2 + c2 + 3 = 2(a – b – c), then the value of 2a – b + c is: (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 0




61. The Dutch started ‘Scientific forestry’ at: (A) Sumatra (B) Kalimantan (C) West Iran (D) Java 62. Who led Russian revolution of October 1917? (A) Stalin (B) Brezhnev (C) Lenin (D) Karl Marx 63. Who was the last Tsar of Russia? (A) Nicholas I (B) Nicholas II (C) Alexander I (D) Alexander II 64. Which of the following features stood for Nazism? (A) Anti – semitic policy (B) Pro – socialistic policy (C) Pro democratic policy (D) Pro communist policy 65. Through whose writings did the people find an expression of their feelings in France? (A) Montesquieu (B) J S Mill (C) Necker (D) Calon 66. Which event led to the end of feudalism? (A) Constantinople’s fall (B) First Religious war (C) French Revolution (D) American War of Independence 67. Which statement is not applicable for capitalism? (A) Economic system based on mass production (B) Means of production are Government owned (C) Economic system based on mass distribution (D) The capitalist aims at maximizing profits 68. ‘Father Gapon’ is related to which event? (A) Leader of Petrograd workers (B) Confiscation of landed estates (C) Experimentation of collective farming (D) The Bloody Sunday




69. The dictatorship of the proletariat as the only solution for all feudal problems was advocated by:

(A) Czar Nicholas II (B) Karl Marx (C) Vladimir Lenin (D) Joseph Stalin 70. Assertion A: During eighteenth century France witnessed the emergence of a middle class. Reason R: The emergence of the middle class happened on account of royal patronage. (A) A is true, R is false (B) A is false, R is true (C) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 71. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options

given thereafter: Statement I: Nazism became a mass movement after the Great Depression. Statement II: After 1929, banks collapsed the businesses shut down, workers lost their

jobs and the middle classes were threatened with destitution. (A) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (B) Statement I is true and Statement II is false

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

72. Arrange these hills from west to east direction: A. Khasi hills 2. Garo hills 3. Naga hills 4. Jaintia range (A) CABD (B) DBAC (C) ABCD (D) BADC




73. Which of the following diagram shows the approximate relief of India around, 20o N latitude from Daman to Bhubaneswar?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

74. Which of the following is correctly matched? (A) Shimla hills – Snowclad mountains (B) Aravalli – Oldest mountain (C) Nanda devi – Located in outer Himalays (D) Satpura hills – Lie north of the Vindhyas 75. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming the boundary with Myanmar are

collectively called as (A) Himachal (B) Purvanchal (C) Uttrakhand (D) Uttar Pradesh 76. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-II i Pulicat lake p Andhra Pradesh ii Chilka lake q Tamil Nadu iii Kolleru lake r Jaisalmer iv Gadisar lake s Orissa

(A) i – q, ii – s, iii – p, iv - r (B) i – s, ii – p, iii – q, iv – r (C) i – r, ii – s, iii – q, iv - p (D) i – q, ii – r, iii – p, iv – s




77. The two volcanic islands in the Indian territory are (A) Kavaratti and New Moor (B) Bitra and Kavaratti (C) Pamban and Barren (D) Norcondam and Barren 78. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Column-I Rivers

Column-II Origin

i Narmada p Mahabaleshwar ii Krishna q Orissa iii Godavari r Madhya Pradesh (Amarkantak) iv Mahanadi s Maharashtra

(A) i – p, ii – r, iii – q, iv - s (B) i – q, ii – s, iii – r, iv – p (C) i – r, ii – p, iii – s, iv - q (D) i – s, ii – q, iii – p, iv - r 79. What is the mean annual inflow of Indian rivers? (A) About 1569 million cubic metres (B) About 1669 million cubic metres (C) About 1769 million cubic metres (D) About 1869 million cubic metres 80. Which states of India have a common border with Pakistan? a. Jammu and Kashmir b. Himachal Pradesh c. Punjab d. Gujarat e. Rajasthan (A) a, b, c, d (B) a, b, c, e (C) a, c, d (D) a, c, d, e 81. Why is time tag of two hours from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh? (A) because of India’s east west extent (B) because of India’s north south extent (C) because of India’s proximity of oceans (D) because of India’s landmass




82. On the basis of following features identify the correct option. I. Total length of the river is about 760 km. II. It rises in the Brahmagiri range of the western ghats. III. Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini IV. Its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamilnadu (A) The Krishna Basin (B) The Godavari Basin (C) The Kaveri Basin (D) The Narmada Basin 83. Why did US and its allies invade Iraq? (A) Iraq possessed secret nuclear weapons which posed a big threat to the world security (B) Saddam Hussein abolished traditional islamic law (C) Saddam Hussein appreciated women’s participation in defence (D) Saddam Hussein made provisions for free education to the citizen of iraq 84. What is ‘ZANU - PF’? (A) It is a political party of Zimbabwe (B) It is a educational institute of Ghana (C) It is an institution working under Amnesty International (D) It is a political party of Ghana 85. Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of Govt. Which of the following

statements support this claim? A. It is a more accountable form of government B. it improves the quality of decision making C. it ensures rapid, economic development of citizens D. it enhances the dignity of citizens (A) A, B and D (B) A and C (C) C and D (D) B, C and D




86. The appeal of democracy is based on the fact that Democracy 1. upholds freedom of conscience 2. offers the opportunity of free thinking expression 3. guarantees equal opportunity to have jobs in the public sector 4. protects the privileges of the elites Which one of the pairs are true? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 87. Consider the following statements: 1. Democracy promotes equality and freedom of expression. 2. In non – democratic countries people cannot freely choose their leaders.

3. The relationship between different countries has became more democratic then even before

4. Now a days there is not any military govt in the world Which of the above statement are correct? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 88. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-II i Chile p Freedom from Britishers ii Nepal q End of military dictatorship iii Poland r End of one party rule iv Ghana s King agreed to give up his powers

(A) i – q, ii – s, iii – r, iv - p (B) i – s, ii – p, iii – r, iv – q (C) i – r, ii – q, iii – p, iv - s (D) i – p, ii – r, iii – s, iv – q




89. On the basis of following features, identify the correct option: 1. Holds elections after every 6 years to elect its president. 2. Never been under a military or dictator’s rule 3. Until 2000, a single party own in every election 4. Teacher’s of government schools used to force parents to vote for PRI (A) Mexico (B) Fiji (C) Estonia (D) Ghana 90. Consider the following statements:

a. The UN Security Council is responsible for maintaining peace and security among countries. b. The World Bank gives loans to the individuals for the monetary help. c. The UN secretary General is the chief administrative officer of UN d. The UN is only responsible for maintaining international law Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) a, b and c (B) a and c (C) b and d (D) b, c and d

91. Assertion A: What took place in Chile on 11 September 1973 was a military coup.

Reason R: The govt of the United States of America was un happy with Allendes rule and is known to have supported and funded activities that led to the coup

(A) A and R are true and R explains A (B) A and R are true but R does not explain A (C) A is true and R is false (D) A if false and R is true 92. When was the Universal Adult Franchise granted in Germany? (A) 1934 (B) 1918 (C) 1928 (D) 1919




93. As per the electoral system of Fiji, whose vote has more value than any one else? (A) Women in Fiji (B) Govt servants (C) Indigenous Fijian (D) Indian Fijian 94. What type of unemployment is found in Indian agricultural sector? (A) structural unemployment (B) cyclical unemployment (C) voluntary unemployment (D) disguised unemployment 95. Match the population pyramid with type of economic category.

I. Developing Economics II. Developed Economies III. Least Development Economies Select the correct alternative (A) III – A, II – B, I - C (B) I – A, III – B, II – C (C) II – A, III – B, I – C (D) III – A, I – B, II – C


C



96. Given below are some factors influencing the location of certain industries: A, Skilled labour B. Low transportation cost C. Clean and dustfree environment D. Availability of raw material E. Government policy Which among these have more strongly influenced location of IT industry in India? (A) A, B and C (B) B, C and D (C) C, D and E (D) A, C and E 97. The worst effect of the agricultural indebtedness was (A) the acquisition of land by money lenders (B) distribution of the debtor’s land to others by money lenders (C) social boycott of the debtor by villagers (D) intervention by the government 98. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of ___ (A) employment conditions (B) the nature of economic activity (C) ownership of enterprises (D) members of workers employed in the firm 99. What made countries like Japan rich / developed? (A) Scientific inventions and discoveries (B) Efficiency and technology evolved by people (C) Raw materials and Natural resources (D) None of them 100. Raw material and money in hand are called (A) Physical capital (B) Human capital (C) Working capital (D) Fixed capital


INSTRUCTIONS - FIITJEE · PDF fileThe greatest acceleration or deceleration that a train may...

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