Insights Test 3

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http://insightsonindia.com Page 1 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 3 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 3

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT

write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider

the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that

question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty

for that question.

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2014

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1. With reference to waterways in

India, consider the following

statements

1. There are five national

waterways in India

2. The National Waterway-

V connects Brahmani

river & Mahanadi delta

system along with East

Coast Canal

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

2. Power sharing is the very spirit

of democracy. In this context,

which of the following

statements are correct?

1. Power sharing increases

conflict among different

communities

2. Power sharing increases

the possibility of

arbitrariness

3. Power sharing delays

decision making process

4. Power sharing increases

instability and

divisiveness

5. Power sharing

undermines the unity of

a country

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1, 2 and 5 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 2, 3 and 4 Only

d. None

3. India needs to be energy secure for

ensuring robust economic growth.

What are the characteristics of a good

source of energy:

1. Readily accessible

2. Easy to store and

transport

3. High calorific value

4. Should be renewable

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3 Only

c. 3 and 4 Only

d. 2 and 4 Only

4. Nineteenth century witnessed one

of the important phase of transition in

the history of the world. With regard

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to the plethora of novels that surfaced

during this period, consider the

following statements:

1. Novels focused more on the

lives of the great people

2. Novels focused on the

problems faced by the working

class

3. Novels focused more on the

lives of the ordinary man

4. Oliver Twist was one of the

famous novel of this period

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 3 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

5. Consider the following

statements on WIFS

programme

1. Iron folic acid tablet can be

taken during illness and even

during menstruation.

2. The weekly Iron Folic Acid

Supplementation (WIFS) is

an evidence based

programme for addressing

Iron Deficiency Anaemia

which is both safe and

effective.

3. If taken on empty stomach,

these tablets can even cause

death in many cases of

children

4. This programme is restricted

to the children between

class 4th to class 12th as

children below 4th standard

are vulnerable to side effects.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 1,2 and 3 Only

d. All Four

6. With reference to the Rajiv

Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikran

Abhiyan (RGPSA) scheme,

consider the following

statements,

1. The schemes of Rashtriya

Gram Swaraj

Yojana(RGSY), e-Panchayat,

Panchayat Empowerment

and Accountability

Incentive Scheme(PEAIS)

and Panchayat Mahila Evam

Yuva Shakti Abhiyan

(PMEYSA) will be

subsumed in RGPSA from

2013-14

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2. The funding of RGPSA for

State plans is envisaged on a

90:10 sharing basis by the

Central and all State

Governments respectively.

3. During the 12th plan, grants

to State Election

Commissions is linked to the

performance under RGPSA

4. Constitution of State

Finance Commission(SFC)

every five years and

placement of Action Taken

Report (ATR) on the

recommendations of the

SFC in the state Assembly is

a must to avail funds under

RGPSA

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 1,3 and 4 Only

c. 2, 3 and 4 Only

d. All Four

7. Sarojini Naidu was one of the

famous personality on the 20th

Century. Which of the

following statements is/are

correct?

1. Sarojini Naidu was the first

Indian woman to become

the President of the Indian

National Congress

2. Sarojini Naidu was the first

woman Governor of India

3. Sarojini Naidu’s birthday is

celebrated as "Women's

Day"

4. Sarojini Naidu was one of

the framers of Indian

Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 4 Only

b. 1, 3 and 4 Only

c. 1, 2 and 4Only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. With regard to Indian Literature

consider the following:

1. Stories in prose was new to India.

2. Panchatantra is a prose.

3. Prose overlooks asthetic appeal.

4. Dastan contains tales of adventure

and heroism in Persian and Urdu

and is regarded as a prose

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

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c. 1 Only

d. 1, 3 and 4

9. With reference to resource

planning and development,

consider the following

statements

1. Resource planning includes

matching the resource

development plans with

overall national

development plans.

2. The availability of resources

is a necessary condition for

the development of any

region, but mere availability

of resources in the absence

of corresponding changes in

technology and institutions

may hinder development.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

10. Consider the following

statements,

1. The Limits to

Growth is a 1972 book

about the computer

modeling of

exponentialeconomic

and population

growth with finite

resource supplies

2. The Club of Rome is

a global think

tank that deals with a

variety of

international political

issues.

3. The purpose of The

Limits to

Growth was to

explore how

exponential growth

interacts with finite

resources.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. All Three

11. Power is shared among different

organs of government. Such a

separation of powers ensures

that none of the organs can

exercise unlimited power.

Which the following system of

power sharing is called checks

and balances?

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1. Horizontal division of

powers

2. Separation of powers

3. Vertical division of

powers

4. Federal division of

powers

Which of the above answers is/are

correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 1 and 3

c. 1 and 4

d. 4 Only

12. In the parliamentary system of

Government, India has adopted the

principle of checks and balances.

Consider the following statements:

1. Even though ministers and

government officials exercise

power, they are responsible to the

Parliament or State Assemblies.

2. Powers shared among governments

at different levels

3. Although judges are appointed by

the executive, they can check the

functioning of executive or laws

made by the legislatures

4. Power shared among different

social groups, such as the religious

and linguistic groups.

Which of the statements is/are

incorrect?

a. 2 and 4 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 1, 2 and 3 Only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

13. Which of the following mirrors

are best suited to be used in

Solar cookers?

a. Concave and Convex

both

b. Only Plane Mirror

c. Convex mirror only

d. Concave mirror only

14. What is the basic force behind

the generation of Ocean

thermal energy?

a. Heat generated by the

seabed volcanoes.

b. Energy of waves and

currents

c. Temperature difference

between the surface and

deeper ocean

d. Rise and fall in the level

of tides

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15. Which of the following are

correct?

1. The modern novel form

developed in India in the

eighteenth century, as

Indians became familiar with

the Western novel.

2. Print and vernacular helped

in the development of the

modern novel.

3. The earliest novel in Marathi

was Baba Padmanji’s

Yamuna Paryatan, which

spoke about the plight of

widows.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 2 Only

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

16. Consider the following:

1. Indian novelists of the

nineteenth century wrote

for a cause.

2. Colonial rulers regarded

the contemporary culture

of India as superior.

3. Indian novelists failed to

develop a modern

literature of the country

that could produce a

sense of national

belonging and cultural

equality with their

colonial masters.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 1 and 2

c. 3 Only

d. None

17. In the modern India, though

there was an increase in the

Indian novels, the spread of it

was declined because of which

of the following factors?

1. Absence of translations

of novels into different

regional languages.

2. Absence of Print

3. Vernacular languages did

not help in development

of the novels.

4. Fear of Western culture

invading Indian culture

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1, 2 and 3

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b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. None

18. Consider the following

statements about Agenda 21

1. Agenda 21 is a binding action

plan of the United Nations

with regard to sustainable

development

2. The "21" in Agenda 21 refers

to the 21 important points

that are need to be

implemented by all the

countries

3. In 2012, at the United

Nations Conference on

Sustainable

Development the attending

members reaffirmed their

commitment to Agenda 21

in their outcome document

called "The Future We

Want"

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 3 Only

d. All Three

19. The First World War created a

new economic and political

situation in India which.

Consider the following

statements related to the First

World War :

1. Customs duties were

introduced and income

tax was raised to finance

the war.

2. Through the war years

prices increased –

doubling between 1913

and 1918 – leading to

extreme hardship for the

common people.

3. Soldiers were forcefully

recruited from the rural

areas which caused

widespread anger among

the people.

4. The end of the First

World War improved

the lives of the people.

Which of the above statement/s

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

20. Which of the following

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statements about Mahatma

Gandhi's famous philosophy of

SATYAGRAHA is/are correct

?

1. Satyagraha is not physical

force. A satyagrahi does

not inflict pain on the

adversary; he does not

seek the destruction of

the enemy.

2. Mahatma Gandhi first

experimented with

Satyagraha at Champaran

in Bihar.

3. Satyagraha aims at

appealing to the

conscience of the

oppressor.

4. Satyagraha Theory

influenced Martin Luther

King, Jr.'s and James

Bevel's campaigns during

the civil rights movement

in the United States

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. On 13 April 1919, the infamous

Jallianwalla Bagh incident took

place in Amritsar. Consider the

following statements on the

Jallianwalla Bagh massacre.

1. The people had gathered

at JallianwallaBagh to

attend the annual

Baisakhi fair and there

wasn't any protest.

2. The British media

strongly condemned

General Dyer for

ordering the killings of

the people.

3. The Government held an

inquiry commision,

chaired by Lord Hunter.

4. This commission did not

have any members and

the report was uncritical

of General Dyer.

which of the above statement/s

is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. none of the above

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22. Consider the following

Statements:

1. In India, citizens have the

right to seek enforcement of

the Fundamental Rights

2. The Right to Constitutional

Remedies is not a

Fundamental Right.

3. In case of violation of a

Fundamental Right the

citizen can directly approach

Supreme Court or High

Court.

4. Only the High Courts have

the right to issue orders for

the enforcement of both

Fundamental Rights and

Legal rights.

5. The Courts can also enforce

the Fundamental Rights

against private individuals

and bodies.

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 3

b. 1, 3 and 5

c. 1, 3, 4 and 5

d. 1, 2, 3 and 5

23. The concept of sustainable

development focuses on the

needs of :

a. Future generation of

humanity only

b. Conservation of

environment irrespective

of the needs of economic

growth

c. Present and future

generations of humanity

d. Conservation of fossil

fuels to ensure energy

security of the nations

24. The fusion reaction is said to

the future source of energy.

What are the conditions needed

to achieve fusion reaction?

a. Extremely high pressure

and extremely low

temperature

b. Extremely low pressure

and extremely low

temperature

c. Extremely high pressure

and extremely high

temperature

d. Extremely low pressure

and extremely high

temperature

25. Which of the following

statements is/are true?

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a. The hydrogen bomb is

based on thermonuclear

fission reaction.

b. The fundamental physics

of the fission chain

reaction in a nuclear

weapon is quite different

to the physics of a

controlled nuclear

reactor. Also, the two

types of devices are

engineered differently.

c. No industrialized nation

has been able to meet

even one-fourth of its

total demand of energy

from nuclear reactors.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. All of the above

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. None of the above

26. With reference to the Special

Industry Initiative scheme

known as UDAAN, consider

the following statements,

1. It will be implemented by

the National Skills

Development Corporation

(NSDC) and Ministry of

Home Affairs along with the

corporate sector

2. It targets the youth of J&K,

Naxal affected districts and

North East India, specifically

graduates and postgraduates,

who are seeking global and

local opportunities.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

27. A new campaign for the safety

of women titled ‘I respect

women’ has been launched by

a. Ministry of tourism

b. Ministry of women and

family welfare

c. Ministry of Home Affairs

d. None of the above

28. Consider the following

statements on National Urban

Health Mission (NUHM),

which along with National

Rural Health Mission (NRHM)

1. Both the schemes have been

now clubbed under Sarva

Swasthya Abhiyan.

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2. A NUHM is proposed for

the urban poor with focus

on those living in urban

slums.

3. One Accredited Social

Health Activist ASHA

(community link worker)

for 200 to 500 households

will work under NUHM

scheme

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 3 Only

d. 2 Only

29. Consider the following statements:

1. The Concurrent List contains

forest, education and agriculture as

its subjects.

2. All States in the Indian Union do

not have identical powers.

3. The Union territories do not have

the powers of a State

4. The Constitution originally

provided for a two-tier system of

government, the Union

Government and the State

Government only.

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. Country ‘A’ is said to be a

federal country. Which of the

following are the features of a

federal government?

1. There are four levels (or

tiers) of government.

2. The fundamental provisions

of the constitution can be

unilaterally changed by one

level of government.

3. Courts have the power to

interpret the constitution

and the powers of different

levels of government.

4. Sources of revenue for each

level of government are

clearly specified to ensure its

financial autonomy.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 3 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 1 and 3

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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31. During the 19th Century,

Bengal literature was one of the

important vernacular literature

which has contributed

immensely to the Indian

literature. Which of the

following is/are correct with

reference to Bengal literature?

1. Initially the Bengali novel

used a colloquial style

associated with urban life.

2. Initially the Bengali novel

used meyeli, the language

associated with women’s

speech.

3. Bankim Chandra was

famous for verse-oriented

Indian writing.

4. Vandhe Mataram was taken

from Rabindranath tagore’s

Anandamath

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1, 3 and 4 Only

c. 1, 2 and 3 Only

d. None

32. With regard to Vernacular

literature, consider the

following:

1. Vernacular novels were

used by colonial

administrators in

governing the Indian

society.

2. Vernacular novels

inspired the spirit of

Nationalism in the

remote areas.

3. Vernacular novels failed

to revive the Indian

culture.

4. Vernacular novels were

translated into English by

British administrators.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 2 Only

b. 1 and 2 Only

c. 1, 2 and 4 Only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

33. The Himalayan Yew is a

a. Bird species known for

its long beautiful white

feathers

b. A sub species of Owl

which is bigger in size

than any other owl

species in the world

c. A medicinal plant known

from which world

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famous anti-cancer drug

is produced

d. None of the above

34. Consider the following

statements about decline in

India’s biodiversity

1. Habitat destruction,

hunting, poaching, over-

exploitation,

environmental pollution,

poisoning and forest fires

are factors, which have

led to the decline in

India’s biodiversity.

2. Other important causes

of environmental

destruction are unequal

access, inequitable

consumption of resources

and differential sharing of

responsibility for

environmental well-

being.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

35. Consider the following

statements on forests,

1. Assam has the largest

area under permanent

forests, constituting 75

per cent of its total forest

area.

2. Reserved and protected

forests are also referred

to as permanent forest

estates maintained for the

purpose of producing

timber and other forest

produce, and for

protective reasons.

3. In India More than half

of the total forest land

has been declared

reserved forests. Reserved

forests are regarded as the

most valuable as far as

the conservation of forest

and wildlife resources are

concerned.

4. Almost one-third of the

total forest area is

protected forest, as

declared by the Forest

Department. This forest

land are protected from

any further depletion.

Which one of the statements given

above is/are correct?

a. 1, 2and 4 Only

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b. 2,3 and 4 Only

c. 1 and 4 Only

d. All Four

36. The first proper modern novel

was written by Srinivas Das,

which was titled Pariksha-Guru.

Which of the following is the

theme of Pariksha Guru?

a. It is based on the inner and

outer world of the newly

emerging middle classes.

b. It is based on India’s

freedom struggle.

c. It is based on the plight of

women.

d. It is based on the issues

between a master and a

student

37. What are the benefits of

watershed management?

1. Boosts local communities’

income

2. Rejunevates land and

water sources

3. Increases the life of

downstream dam and

reservoirs

4. Mitigates drought and

floods

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1, 2 and 3 Only

c. All of the above

d. 3 and 4

38. Storing water in form of

groundwater is often considered

to be a better option than

storing it on surface reservoirs.

What can be the possible

reasons behind it?

1. Unlike surface water,

groundwater can always

be free of contaminants.

2. Evaporation of surface

reservoirs is higher as

compared to

groundwater.

3. Stagnated surface water

provides a breeding

ground for disease

vectors.

4. Even nearby wells can be

recharged and water need

not be conveyed to each

well.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. All of the above

b. 2, 3 and 4

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c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1 and 4 only

39. Which of the following

statements are true?

1. The regions of water scarcity

are also the regions of high

poverty in India.

2. Narmada Bachao Aandolan

and Chipko Movement are

examples of movements

related to the conservation

of the environment.

3. Local irrigation solutions as

compared to Mega-irrigation

projects enable the local

communities to exercise

more control over their

fields and environment.

Select the correct answer

using the codes below

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. All of the above

40. The Rowlatt Act,1919 was an

act hurriedly passed through the

Imperial Legislative Council

despite the united opposition of

the Indian members.

Consider the following statements

with regard to this Act:

1. It gave the government

enormous powers to repress

only the political activities of

the Indians.

2. It allowed detention of political

prisoners without trial for three

or more years.

3. Opposition to this law was the

sole reason for Gandhiji to call

for the Non-Cooperation

Movement.

Which of the statements above

is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

41. The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat

Movement began in January

1921. Various social groups

participated in this movement,

each with its own specific

aspiration in their own way.

Consider the following social

groups:

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1. Students,

headmasters and

teachers, and

lawyers

2. Peasants

3. Tribals

4. Plantation workers

Which of the above group/groups

participated in the movement?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. Which of the following mission

mode projects are exclusively

implemented by the state

governments under National e-

Governance Plan?

1. Education

2. Health

3. PDS

4. Agriculture

5. Insurance

6. Banking

7. Road Transport

Select the codes given below to

answer the question

a. 1,2,3,5,and 7 Only

b. 1,2,3,4 and 7 Only

c. 1,2,4 and 7 Only

d. 1,2 and 4 Only

43. The newly launched “Seekho

aur Kamao” scheme is,

1. a 100% Central Sector

Scheme for Skill

Development of minorities

2. Implemented by the

Ministry of Youth Affairs

Select the codes given below to

answer the question

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

44. The Tory government in Britain

constituted a Statutory

Commission under Sir John

Simon which was to arrive in

India in 1928.

1. It did not have even a

single Indian member.

2. Lord Reading,

announced in October

1929, a vague offer of

dominion status for

India in an unspecified

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future.

3. All the political

parties in India except

the Muslim League

participated in Go

back Simon

demonstrations.

Which of the above is/are

incorrect?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 3 only

45. Consider the statements on the

impact of the Great Depression

(which began in 1929 and lasted

till the mid-1930s) on India.

1. Both the exports

and imports of

India nearly

halved between

1928 and 1934.

2. In these

depression years,

India became an

exporter of

precious metals,

notably gold.

Which of the above statement/s

is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

46. Which of the following

statements is/are correct?

a. In India joint forest

management (JFM)

programme e has been in

formal existence since

1988 when the state of

Orissa passed the first

resolution for joint forest

management

b. JFM depends on the

government to undertake

protection activities

mostly on degraded forest

land managed by the

forest department.

Select the right answer using the codes

below

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

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47. Consider the following

statements:

1. Dr B.R. Ambedkar

organised the dalits into

the Depressed Classes

Association in 1930

2. He clashed with

Mahatma Gandhi at the

second Round Table

Conference by

demanding reserved seats

for dalits in provincial

and central legislative

councils.

3. Gandhiji began a fast

unto death opposing

reservations to Depressed

Classes in 1932.

Which of the above statement/s

is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1 , 2 and 3

48. Consider the following

statements about the Science,

Technology and Innovation

Policy (STI) 2013

1. One of its key features is

positioning India among the

top five global scientific

powers by 2020

2. Raising Gross Expenditure

in Research and

Development (GERD) to

2% from the present 1% of

the GDP in this decade by

encouraging enhanced

private sector contribution.

3. India has declared 2010-20 as

the “Decade of Innovation”

4. A Strong and viable Science,

Research and Innovation

system for High Technology

led path for India (SRISHTI)

are the goal for the STI

policy.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1and 2 Only

b. 1,2 and 3Only

c. 3 and 4Only

d. All Four

49. Consider the following

statements about the ‘Jiyo Parsi’

scheme

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1. It has been launched in

order to reverse the

declining trend of Parsi

population.

2. Financial assistance will be

provided under the scheme

for investigation and

detection of infertility,

counselling and fertility

treatment to couples.

3. This is a 100% Central

sector scheme

Which of the following statements

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 3 Only

d. All Three

50. Consider the following state

about the “Nai Roshni” scheme

1. It is launched by the

ministry of women and

family welfare to impart

leadership skills to rural

women

2. This scheme is also known

as “Scheme for Leadership

Development of Minority

Women”.

Which of the following statements

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

51. Consider the following

statements about the National

Urban Livelihoods Mission

(NULM)

1. It is an an improved version

of the earlier poverty

alleviation programme for

the urban poor titled Swarna

Jayanti Shahari Rozgar

Yojana (SJSRY)

2. It is being implemented by

the Ministry of Housing and

Urban Poverty Alleviation

(HUPA)

Which of the statements above is/are

correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

52. With reference to the Lifestyle

Disease Education and

Awareness Programme (LEAP),

consider the following

statements

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1. The Programme is a joint

initiative of the National

Rural Health Mission and

the State Departments of

Health and Education of

Kerala government

2. The new initiative will

complement a peer

programme titled

‘Amrutham, Arogyam’ for

adults in the State.

3. Training for students in

vegetable farm making and

making healthy diet is one of

its main objectives

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. All Three

d. None

53. Consider the following

statements:

1. Indian Constitution has

given the status of

national language to

Hindi.

2. Seventh Schedule

contains the languages

recognized by Indian

Constitution.

3. Languages in India are

grouped as scheduled and

non-scheduled languages.

4. In India, states have been

created on the linguistic

basis with the theory ‘one

language- one state’

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

a. 3 Only

b. 2 and 3

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

54. Rise of coalition government at the

centre has led to which of the

following?

1. More autonomy to the States.

2. The federal power sharing has

become more effective

3. Delay in decision making

4. It is one of the casual factors for

instability

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

a. 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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55. Consider the following with regard

to 73rd and 74th Amendment Act.

1. The panchayat works under the

overall supervision of the gram

sabha.

2. Seats are reserved in the elected

bodies and the executive heads

of these institutions for the

Scheduled Castes, Scheduled

Tribes and Other Backward

Classes.

3. At least one-third of all

positions are reserved for

women and one-sixth for

minorities.

4. An independent institution

called the State Election

Commission has been created in

each State to conduct

panchayat and municipal

elections. He can only be

removed by the President of

India.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 2 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4

56. The salient features of the

Scheme of Tourist Visa on

Arrival (TVOA) are:

1. The TVOA is available to

foreign nationals arriving

from Japan, USA, UK,

Singapore, Finland,

Luxembourg, New Zealand,

Cambodia, Laos, Vietnam,

Philippines, Myanmar and

Indonesia.

2. The TVOA is allowed for a

maximum of two times in a

calendar year to a foreigner

with a minimum gap of two

months between each visit.

TVOA is non-extendable

and non-convertible.

3. The TVOA facility is even

applicable to the holders of

Diplomatic/Official

Passports.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3Only

c. 2 Only

d. All Three

57. Consider the following

statements about Swavalamban

Yojana

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1. "NPS -Swavalamban Model"

is designed to ensure ultra-

low administrative and

transactional costs, so as to

make small investments

viable

2. Open to eligible citizens of

India, in the age group of

40–60 years. Subscriber is

free to choose the amount

he/she wants to invest every

year.

3. Regulated by Pension Fund

Regulatory Development

Authorities (PFRDA)

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3Only

c. 2 Only

d. All Three

58. With reference to the proposed

the LPG Connection Portability

Scheme, consider the following

statements

1. An LPG consumer in these

markets can now switch to

the distributor of his/her

choice within a cluster of

LPG distributors in the

vicinity under this scheme

2. This initiative is expected to

usher in improvement in

customer service by

fostering healthy

competition among each

cluster of distributors.

3. No Transfer fee or

additional security deposit

will be charged for transfer

of connection under the

portability scheme.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3Only

c. 3 Only

d. All Three

59. Consider the following

statements on water scarcity

and water stress

1. Water scarcity is the lack

of sufficient available

water resources to meet

the demands of water

usage within a region

2. Water stress is the

difficulty of obtaining

sources of fresh water for

use during a period of

time and may result in

further depletion and

deterioration of available

water resources.

http://insightsonindia.com Page 24

3. According to Falken

Mark, a Swedish expert,

water stress occurs when

water availability is less

than 1,000 cubic metre

per person per day.

4. The per capita

availability of water in

India is 1545 cubic meters

as per the 2011 census

compared to 1816 cubic

meters in 2011

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 2,3 and 4 Only

c. 3 and 4 Only

d. All Four

60. Which of the following

statements is/are correct?

1. Aus, Aman and Boro are

three crops of wheat

grown in and around

Punjab and Haryana

2. Cotton, jute, groundnut

and soyabean are mostly

grown during Zaid season

which is cropping season

between Rabi and Kharif

seasons.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below.

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

61. Consider the following

statements about pulses

1. India is the largest

producer as well as the

consumer of pulses in the

world.

2. Major pulses that are

grown in India are tur

(arhar), urad, moong,

masur, peas and gram.

3. Being leguminous crops,

all these crops including

arhar help in restoring

soil fertility by fixing

nitrogen from the air

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 3 Only

d. All Three

62. Consider the following

statements about the Printing

Press in India:

http://insightsonindia.com Page 25

1. The printing press first came to

Kerala(Cochi) with Portuguese

missionaries in the mid-

sixteenth century.

2. The Bengal Gazette, a weekly

newspaper, is the first

published Indian

newspaper, brought out by

Gangadhar Bhattacharya, who

was close to Rammohun Roy.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. both 1 and 2

d. neither 1 nor 2

63. The following energy sources

are the most widely used in

India.

1. Coal

2. Petroleum and Natural

Gas

3. Hydroelectricity

4. Nuclear energy

5. Wind energy

Which option shows their

arrangement in increasing order of

consumption in India?

a. 5, 4, 3, 2 ,1

b. 4,5,3,2,1

c. 2,5,4,3,1

d. 2,4,5,3,1

64. To which crop does following

descriptions apply?

1. It requires high

temperature, light rainfall

or irrigation, 210 frost-

free days and bright

sunshine for its growth.

2. It is a kharif crop and

requires 6 to 8 months to

mature.

Select the correct answer from

following choices

a. Sugarcane

b. Cotton

c. Tobacco

d. Jute

65. With reference to the Rashtriya

Bal Swaasthya Karyakram,

consider the following

statements,

1. It is a newly launched

scheme by ministry of HRD

and Social Justice which

assures a package of health

http://insightsonindia.com Page 26

services for children up to 18

years of age.

2. It is part of the National

Rural Health Mission

3. The services under this

programme aim to cover all

children of 0-6 years of age

group in rural areas and

urban slums, in addition to

children enrolled in classes

1st to 12th in Government

and Government aided

schools.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only

2. 1 and 3 Only

3. 2 and 3 Only

4. All Three

66. Consider the following

statements on generic drugs

1. A generic drug is a

pharmaceutical product

that is manufactured

without a license from

the innovator company

and marketed after the

expiry date of the patent

or other exclusive rights.

2. Generic drugs are subject

to the same regulations

over manufacturing,

packaging, testing and

quality standards, as their

patented/branded

equivalent.

3. Prices of the

branded/patented drugs

are generally quite high,

due to the temporary

monopoly over the

product, bestowed by the

patent.

4. At ‘Jan Aushadhi Stores',

where quality generic

medicines, which are

equivalent to the

expensive branded drugs,

in terms of their potency

and efficacy, are sold at

cheaper prices.

Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 4 Only

b. 1,2 and 3 Only

c. 1,2 and 4 Only

d. All Four

67. Consider the following

statements about the National

Electric Mobility Mission Plan

(NEMMP) 2020

http://insightsonindia.com Page 27

1. It is a roadmap for

progressive induction and

expansion of efficient and

environmentally friendly

electric and hybrid vehicles

in the country.

2. It aims to boost 6-7 million

units of new vehicle sales of

the full range of electric

vehicles by year 2020

3. The Mission Plan lays special

emphasis on progressive

indigenization of technology,

localization of

manufacturing and

eventually, job creation.

Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. All Three

d. None

68. The beneficiaries under the

Antyodaya Anna Yojana"

(AAY) include

1. and persons earning their

livelihood on daily basis in

the informal sector like

porters, coolies, rickshaw

pullers, hand cart pullers,

fruit and flower sellers,

snake charmers, rag pickers

2. Single women or single men

with no family or societal

support or assured means of

subsistence.

3. Families of HIV positive

persons and all primitive

tribal households

4. Landless agriculture

labourers, marginal farmers,

rural artisans/craftsmen

Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 4

d. All Four

69. Consider the following

statements about the Direct

Benefits Transfer (DBT)

scheme

1. The scheme is aimed at

cutting the bloated subsidy

bill of Rs.1, 64,000 crores.

2. Aims to eliminate

middlemen in various

government sponsored

welfare schemes and

subsidized food, fuel and

fertiliser schemes.

http://insightsonindia.com Page 28

3. On the basis of Aadhar cards

money is deposited in

beneficiaries’ accounts.

4. It would infuse financial

inclusion on a greater scale

in rural India.

Which of the statements given

above is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 1,3 and 4 Only

c. 1 and 4

d. All Four

70. Consider the following

statements

1. Operation Sadhbhavana is

evidence of the Indian

Army's "organisational

innovation and operational

learning".

2. Youth Employment and

Guidance Node

(YEGN) programme under

Operation Sadhbhavana was

launched a few years back

in border and remote areas

of Jammu and Kashmir to

enable the youth to get

employment

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both

d. None

71. Consider the following

statements,

1. The running water cuts

through the clayey soils

and makes deep channels

as gullies. It is known as

gully erosion.

2. Sometimes water flows

as a sheet over large areas

down a slope. In such

cases the top soil is

washed away. This is

known as sheet erosion.

3. Soil erosion is also caused

due to defective methods

of farming.

4. When the land becomes

unfit for cultivation it is

known as bad land.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1,2 and 3

b. 2,3 and 4

c. 1,3 and 4

d. All Four

72. With reference to various

species and their status n the

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wild in India, consider the

following statements

1. Great Indian Bustard,

Siberian Crane, Red-

headed Vulture and

Forest Owlet are now

listed under critically

endangered birds

2. Among animals, Pygmy

Hog, Kondana Rat and

The Sumatran

Rhinoceros are listed as

critically endangered

3. The Leatherback turtle is

listed as vulnerable

species

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 3 Only

d. All Three

73. Consider the following criteria;

1. Populations have

declined or will decrease,

by greater than 80% over

the last 10 years or three

generations.

2. Have a restricted

geographical range.

3. Small population size of

less than 250 individuals

and continuing decline at

25% in 3 years or one

generation.

4. Very small or restricted

population of fewer than

50 mature individuals.

Which of the following categories

would be aptly described by the

above criteria for a species?

a. Vulnerable

b. Critically Endangered

c. Endangered

d. Near Risk Category

74. Social Justice is one of the

ideals enshrined in the

preamble of the Constitution.

Which of the following are

correct with regard to the social

differences that occur in a

society?

1. All kinds of

social

differences are

based on

accident of

birth.

2. Some of the

differences are

http://insightsonindia.com Page 30

based on our

choices.

3. Every social

difference

does not lead

to social

division.

4. Democracy

always leads

to

disintegration

of society on

the basis of

social

divisions.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 2 and 3

b. 2, 3 and 4

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

75. Which of the following are the

measures taken by Government to

reduce social differences in the

society?

1. The government has provided

for 33% reservation for women

in the Parliament.

2. Hindi Language has been made

the national language of the

country.

3. The State intervenes in

thematters of religion in order

to ensure equality within

religious communities.

4. Enactment of Mahatma Gandhi

National Rural Employment

Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 4

b. 3 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

76. Communalism is based on the

belief that:

1. People who follow different

religions cannot belong to the

same social community.

2. Any difference that the

followers of a particular religion

may have is irrelevant or trivial

for community life.

3. The fundamental interests of a

particular community are the

same.

4. If the followers of different

religion have some

commonalities these are

superficial and immaterial.

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

http://insightsonindia.com Page 31

a. 1 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. Consider the following

statements:

1. The Constitution of India

ensures equality of

citizens within religious

communities.

2. A democratic

government is the most

legitimate government

3. Preamble is not an

integral part of the

Constitution

4. Democracy helps in

promoting dignity and

freedom of the individual

Which of the following statements

is/are correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 1 and 4

c. 1,2 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

78. Consider the following

statements with regard to

Pressure Groups.

1. They have political ideology

and take positions on

political issues

2. Their decision making is

more formal and rigid.

3. Their principal concern is

the betterment and well-

being of their members, not

society in general.

4. They have deepened

democracy.

5. These groups are formed

having uncommon

objectives.

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

a. 1, 4 and 5

b. 3, 4 and 5

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 4 and 5

79. Which of the following is

associated with or true about

Ozone (O3) ?

1. Human exposure

to ozone is not

harmful.

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2. The chemicals

used in fire

extinguishers

deplete ozone

layer.

3. The United

Nations

Environment

Programme

succeeded in

freezing the

production of

ozone-depleting

substances like

CFCs only at the

beginning of 21st

century.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 2 and 3

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 1,2 and 3

80. The Ganga Action Plan was

being implemented from 1985

to make Ganga pollution-free.

Which of the following

qualities in the Ganga water

would ensure that it is safe for

human uses?

1. High concentration of Coliform

bacteria which is found in

human intestine and kills other

harmful micro-organisms.

2. Low pH value of Ganga water

3. Complete absence of all metals

from the Ganga water.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 2 only

d. None of the above

81. Who are the stakeholders in the

conservation of forests in India?

1. Manufacturing Industries

2. Tourists and wildlife enthusiasts

3. Forest Department,

Government of India

4. Forest inhabitants

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. All of the above

b. 2,3 and 4

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 4 only

82. Which of the following

statements have been realized

http://insightsonindia.com Page 33

to be true by communities and

governments around the world?

1. Partnering local

communities in the

conservation of forests

ensures decentralised

economic growth and

ecological

conservation.

2. Ecological stability of

the area may be

disturbed by banning

traditional methods of

exploitation of forest

produce by the local

communities.

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. Both

b. 1 only

c. 2 only

d. None

83. With reference to land

utilization in India, consider the

following definitions

1. Culturable waste land

includes land available

for cultivation, whether

taken up or not taken up

for cultivation once, but

not cultivated during the

last five years or more in

succession including the

current year for some

reason or the other .

2. Fallow lands other than

current fallows includes

all land which was taken

up for cultivation but is

temporarily out of

cultivation for a period of

not less than one year and

not more than five years.

3. Land which cannot be

brought under cultivation

except at an exorbitant

cost is classified as

unculturable whether

such land is in isolated

blocks or within

cultivated holdings.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 and 3 Only

c. 1 and 3 Only

d. All Three

84. Consider the following

statements about soils

1. Alluvial soils as a whole

are very fertile. Mostly

http://insightsonindia.com Page 34

these soils contain

adequate proportion of

potash, phosphoric acid

and lime which are ideal

for the growth of

sugarcane, paddy, wheat

and other cereal and

pulse crops.

2. Black soils are black in

colour and are also

known as regur soils.

3. Black soils are rich in soil

nutrients, such as calcium

carbonate, magnesium,

potash and lime. These

soils are generally poor in

phosphoric contents.

4. The laterite soil develops

in areas with high

temperature and heavy

rainfall.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct?

a. 1,2 and 3 Only

b. 1,3 and 4 Only

c. 2,3 and 4 Only

d. All Four

85. In the Indian context, which of

the following statements are

incorrect with respect to the

multi-party system adopted?

1. It leads to political

instability.

2. It deepens democracy.

3. It creates a natural

system of checks and

balance

4. It may lead to hung

parliament

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 3 Only

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. None

86. Democracies that follow a federal

system all over the world tend to have

two kinds of political parties; parties

that are present in only one of the

federal units and parties that are

present in several or all units of the

federation. Which of the following are

the necessary conditions for a party to

be recognized as a national party in

India?

1. The party should secure a

minimum 6% of total valid votes

in the Lok Sabha elections or the

Assembly elections in four or more

States.

http://insightsonindia.com Page 35

2. The party should win a minimum

of 2% of Lok Sabha seats by

contesting from at least 3 states.

3. The party should be recognised as

a state party in minimum of 3

states.

4. The party should have won at least

4 seats in Lok Sabha elections

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1 and 4

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 Only

d. None

87. Reforming political parties is one of

the aspects of good governance.

Which of the following is/are a step

in this direction?

1. The Parliament enacted anti-

defection law

2. On Supreme Courts orders, it’s

now mandatory for every

candidate who contests elections to

file an Affidavit giving details of his

property and criminal cases

pending against him.

3. The Election Commission passed

an order making it necessary for

political parties to hold their

organizational elections and file

their income tax returns.

4. The political parties do not come

under the ambit of Right to

Information Act.

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 1, 2 and 3

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

88. Consider the following

statements about sustainable

development

1. Sustainable development

ties together concern for

the carrying

capacity of natural systems

with the social and

economic challenges faced

by humanity.

2. The carrying capacity of a

biological species in

an environment is the

minimum population size of

the species that the

environment can sustain

definitely, given the

food, habitat, water and

other necessities available in

the environment

http://insightsonindia.com Page 36

3. Economic development,

social development, and

environmental protection

are the interdependent and

mutually reinforcing pillars

of sustainable development

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 1 and 3 Only

c. 2 and 3 Only

d. All Three

89. Which of the following

statements are true concerning

the construction of dams?

1. The vegetation that is

submerged under the

dam, rots under

anaerobic conditions and

gives rise to large

amounts of methane.

2. The construction of dams

is preferable in hilly

areas.

3. It disturbs the natural

eco-system of the

surrounding areas.

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1 and 3

b. 1,2 and 3

c. 1 and 2

d. Only 3

90. What are the usual constraints

in promoting solar energy at a

large scale in India?

1. The manufacturing of solar

cells is very expensive given

the level of technology India

posses.

2. The energy efficiency of

solar cells is very low.

3. Solar cells require heavy and

costly maintenance.

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2

b. 1,2 and 3

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3

91. Which of the following

statements is/are true?

1. The green plants in a

terrestrial ecosystem

capture the majority of

the fraction of the solar

energy falling on their

leaves.

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2. Only a fraction of the

energy is transferred from

one trophic level to the

other via the food chain.

3. The lower trophic levels

house greater number of

individuals than the

higher levels.

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 3

92. Which of the following is true

regarding the process of

Biological Magnification?

1. The maximum

concentration of the

chemicals is found at the

highest trophic level.

2. The effect of biological

magnification in

vegetables, fruits etc. can

always be overcome by

washing them properly.

3. The chemical must be

non-biodegradable for

Biological magnification

to occur.

Select the correct answers using

the codes below

a. 1 and 3

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 3 only

93. With regard to the necessary

conditions for a party to be

recognized as a State party.

Consider the following

statements:

1. A political party should

secure at least 6% of the

total valid votes polled

during general election to a

State Legislative Assembly

and should, in addition, win

at least two seats in that

Assembly or the party

should win at least 3% of the

total number of seats or

three seats in the Legislative

Assembly, whichever is

more.

2. A political party should

secure at least 6% of the

total valid votes polled in a

State during a general

election to Lok Sabha and

win at least one seat in the

Lok Sabha from that State,

or the party should win at

least one seat in the Lok

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Sabha for every 25 seats or

any fraction thereof allotted

to that State.

Which of the statements is/are

correct?

a. 1 Only

b. 2 Only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

94. With regard to registration of

political parties in India, consider the

following statements:

1. All political parties must register

themselves with the Election

Commission.

2. Not all parties that are registered

with the Election Commission are

recognized by it.

3. The registered parties will get

unique symbols.

4. The registered parties are entitled

for free broadcasting or telecasting

facilities.

Select the correct answers using the

codes below

a. 2 and 4

b. 1 and 3

c. 1, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

95. Which of the following non-

metals form oxides on burning

of fossil fuels:

1. Carbon

2. Nitrogen

3. Sulphur

Select the correct answer using the

codes below

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 1,2 and 3

96. Which of the following

statements is/are true?

1. The availability of

electrical energy to each

individual in a country is

one of the parameters to

measure the growth of

the country.

2. The transmission of

electricity is less efficient

than transporting coal or

petroleum over the same

distance.

http://insightsonindia.com Page 39

Select the correct answer using

the codes below

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both

d. None

97. Consider the following

statements about the

Constituent Assembly formed

in 1946:

1. The members of the

Constituent Assembly

were elected in 1946

directly on the basis of

universal franchise.

2. The Constituent

Assembly that came into

being was dominated by

the Congress party.

3. The Congress party

members of the

Constituent Assembly

were unanimous in

theiropinion on all the

critical issues.

Which of the above is/are

incorrect?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

98. In the nineteenth century,

hundreds of thousands of Indian

and Chinese labourers went to

work in various countries

around the world. Consider the

following statements with

regard to the migration of

Indian labourers:

1. In India, indentured labourers

were hired under contracts

which promised good working

conditions and permanent

settlement in those countries.

2. Most Indian indentured

workers came from the present-

day regions of Rajasthan,

Gujarat, and Punjab.

3. The labourers were hired to

work on plantations, in mines,

and in road and railway

construction projects around

the world.

Which of the above is/are

correct?

a. 1 and 2 Only

b. 2 Only

c. 3 Only

d. 1 and 3 Only

99. India had a very rich and old

tradition of handwritten

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manuscripts. Which of the

following statement/s about

the manuscripts is/are

incorrect?

1.The manuscripts were written

in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian only

and never in any of the

vernacular languages.

2.Manuscripts ceased to be

produced well before the

introduction of print.

3.Manuscripts were highly

expensive and were not widely

used in everyday life.

Select the right answer using

the codes below

a. 1 and 2Only

b. 2 Only

c. 3 Only

d. 1 and 3 Only

100. Consider the following

statements about Raja Ravi

Varma :

1. Raja Ravi Varma achieved

recognition for his depiction of

scenes from the epics of the

Mahabharata and Ramayana.

2. Raja Ravi Varma produced

images for mass circulation.

3. Ravi Varma's prints began

shaping popular ideas about

modernity and tradition,

religion and politics, and society

and culture.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3