IIT, MEDICAL & ENGINEERING Entrance COACHING Now MUKKAM · 2019-01-02 · & PHARMACY . Course...

NEET MODEL - HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

IIT, MEDICAL & ENGINEERING

Entrance COACHING

Now

@

MUKKAM:

BHABHA Institute of Sciences

2nd floor, Karayil Tower,

Near Bend Pipe Bridge, Orphanage Road,

Mukkam, PIN - 673602

Ph : 8943300201 , 8943300204.

Registration Started

BHABHA CRASH Course – NEET/JEE/KERALA ENGG. & PHARMACY.

Course commencement: Immediate after the Plus two Board examination.

BHABHA INSTITUTE OF SCIENCES - KOZHIKODE, KOTTAKKAL & MANJERI HINTS & SOLUTIONS/ NEET MODEL/ 02 -01 -2018

ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE SCHEMATIC AND

NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

01. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the

experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s, 2.42 s, 2.71

s and 2.80 s respectively. The value of time period is

(1) 2.62 0.15 (2) 2.62 0.11

(3) 2.6 0.1 (4) 2.6 1.05

sol: Answer (3)

Refer NCERT (+1- Vol - I ) - Page No-25

02. If ,.3 BABA

then the value of BA

is

(1)

2/1

22

3

ABBA (2) A + B

(3) 2/122 3ABBA

(4) 2/122 ABBA

sol: Answer (4)

03. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t,

tt beaex , where a , b , and are

positive constants. The velocity of the particle will

(1) Go on decreasing with time

(2) Be independent of and

(3) Drop to zero when =

(4) Go on increasing with time

sol: Answer (4)

04. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range

and maximum height of projectile are equal is

(1) 450 (2) 25.0tan 1

(3) 4tan 1 or 076 (4) 60

0

sol: Answer (3)

05. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1

and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards

the centre of mass of particles through a distance d,

by what distance would be particle of mass m2 move

so as to keep the centre of mass of particles at the

original position

(1) dmm

m

21

1

(2) d

m

m

2

1

(3) d (4) dm

m

1

2

sol: Answer (2)

06. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of

radius R. A body slides down the track from point A

which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of R for

the body to successfully complete the loop is





(1) 5 cm (2) 4

15 cm

(3) 3

10 cm (4) 2 cm

sol: Answer (4)

07. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on a

table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free

upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so

that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net

work done in the process is

(1) 2

2

1Kddhmg (2) 2

2

1Kddhmg

(3) 2

2

1Kddhmg (4) 2

2

1Kddhmg

sol: Answer (2)

08. The moments of inertia of a non – uniform circular

disc (of mass M and radius R) about four mutually

perpendicular tangents AB, BC, CD, DA are I1 , I2 , I3

and I4 respectively (the square ABCD circumscribes

the circle). The distance of the centre of mass of the

disc from its geometrical centre is given by

(1) 242

2

314

1IIII

MR

(2) 242

2

3112

1IIII

MR

(3) 242

2

213

1IIII

MR

(4) 242

2

312

1IIII

MR

sol: Answer (1)

09.

A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time

t = 0. It is subjected to a force F(t) = F0 e -bt

in the x

direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the

following curves





(1) (2)

(3) (4)

sol: Answer (3)

10. The masses and radii of the earth and moon are M1, R1

and M2, R2 respectively. Their centres are distance d

apart. The minimum velocity with which a particle of

mass m should be projected from a point midway

between their centres so that it escapes to infinity is

(1) 212 MMd

G (2) 21

22 MM

d

G

(3) 212 MMd

Gm (4)

21

212RRd

MMGm

sol: Answer (1)

11. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from

the sun are r1 and r2 , its distance from the sun when it

is at the perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit

drawn from the sun

(1) 4

21 rr (2)

21

21

rr

rr

(3) 21

212

rr

rr

(4)

3

21 rr

sol: Answer (3)

12. A mid steel wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area

A is stretched, well within elastic limit, horizontally

between two pillars (see figure given below). A mass

m is suspended from the mid-point of the wire.

Strain in the wire is





(1) 2

2

2L

x (2)

L

x

(3) Lx /2 (4) Lx 2/2

Sol: Answer (1)

13. What is the velocity v of a metallic ball of radius r

falling in a tank of liquid at the instant when its

acceleration is one-half that of a freely falling body?

(The densities of metal and of liquid are and

respectively, and the viscosity of the liquid is )

(1)

29

2

gr

(2)

29

2gr

(3)

9

2gr (4)

9

2 2gr

Sol: Answer (3)

14. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all of same

material and same mass are initially heated to same

high temperature

(1) Plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest

(2) Sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest

(3) Plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest

(4) Cube will cool fastest and plate the slowest

Sol: Answer (3)

15. Pressure P, volume V and temperature T for a certain

gas are related by V

BTATP

2 where A and B are

constants. The work done by the gas as its temperature

change from T1 to T2 with pressure remaining constant

is

(1) 122

TTB

A

(2) 2

1

2

212 TTBTTA





(3) 3

1

3

2

2

1

2

232

TTB

TTA

(4) 312

2

123

TTB

TTA

Sol: Answer (2)

16. The curve between absolute temperature and v2

rms is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Sol: Answer (2)

17. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with

two inputs A and B and the output Y. The voltage

waveforms of A, B and the output Y are as given

The logic gate is

(1) NOR gate (2) OR gate

(3) AND gate (4) NAND gate

Sol: Answer (4)

18. “Heat cannot itself flow from a body at lower

temperature to the body at higher temperature” is a

statement or consequence of

(1) second law of thermodynamics

(2) conservation of momentum

(3) conservation of mass

(4) first law of thermodynamics

Sol: Answer (1)

It is a consequence of the second law of

thermodynamics





19. A Carnot‟s reversible engine converts 6

1of heat input

into work. When the temperature of the sink is

reduced by 62 K, the efficiency of Carnot‟s cycle

becomes (1/3). The temperature of the source and the

sink, in kelvin, are respectively

(1) 372, 310 (2) 472, 410

(3) 310, 372 (4) 744, 682

Sol: Answer (1)

The efficiency of Carnot engine if T₁ and T₂

temperature are initial and final temperature .

condition 1 :- when η ( efficiency of engine ) = 1/6

then, 1/6 = 1 - T₂/T₁ ---------(1)

condition 2 : when temperature of sink is reduced by

62 K then, η (efficiency of engine ) = 1/3

ie., 1/3 = 1 - (T₂ - 62)/T₁ -----------(2)

solve equations (1) and (2)

2(1 - T₂ /T₁) = 1 - (T₂ - 62) /T₁

2 - 1 = 2T₂/T₁ - (T₂ - 62)/T₁ = (T₂ + 62)/T₁

T₁ = T₂ + 62

Put it in equation (1)

1/6 = 1 - T₂/(T₂ + 62)

1/6 = (62)/(T₂ + 62)

T₂ + 62 = 372 ⇒ T₂ = 310 K

now T₁ = 372 K

20. A system of springs with their spring constants are as

shown in figure. The frequency of oscillations of the

mass m will be (assuming the springs to be massless)

(1)

mkkkkkk

kkkk

414321

4321

2

1

(2)

mkkkkkk

kkkk

214321

4321

2

1

(3)

mkkkkkk

kkkk

214321

4321

2

1

(4)

mkkkk

kkkkkk

4321

214321

2

1

Sol: Answer (3)

Here k3 and k4 are in parallel, their equivalent

spring constant, k = (k3 + k4). Now, k1, k2 and k

are in series, their equivalent spring constant

k is

4321

1111

kkkkk

or

4321

214314321

kkkk

kkkkkkkk

k

or

21431432

4321

kkkkkkkk

kkkkk

214321

4321

kkkkkk

kkkk

Frequency, m

k

2

1

mkkkkkk

kkkk

214321

4321

2

1





21. A transverse wave is described by the equation

x

tyy 2sin0. The maximum particle

velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if

(1) 4

0y (2)

2

0y

(3) 0y (4) 02 y

Sol: Answer (2)

22. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining

two equal charges Q. The system of the three charges

will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to

(1) – Q/2 (2) – Q/4

(3) + Q/4 (4) + Q/2

Sol: Answer (2)

23. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface

charge in the upper half negative surface charge -

in the lower half. The electric field lines around the

cylinder will look like figure given in (figure are

schematic and not drawn to scale)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Sol: Answer (1)

Because electric field lines come out of the positive

charge and go into the negative charge. And field lines are

always normal to conducting surface.

24. Four electric charges +q, +q, -q and –q are placed at

the corners of a square of side 2L (see figure). The

electric potential at point A, midway between the two

charges +q

(1) Zero (2) 512

4

1

0

L

q

(3)

5

11

2

4

1

0 L

q

(4)

5

11

2

4

1

0 L

q

Sol: Answer (4)





25. Five capacitors, each of capacitance value C are

connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of

capacitance between P and R, and the capacitance

between P and Q, is

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 4

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1

Sol: Answer (3)

26. Electric field (E) and current density (J) have relation

(1) E J-1

(2) E J

(3) E 2

1

J (4) E

2

J

1

Sol: Answer (2)

J = E J E

27. In order to quadruple the resistance of a uniform wire,

a part of its length was uniformly stretched till the

final length of the entire wire was 1.5 times the

original length, the part of the wire was fraction equal

to

(1) 1/8 (2) 1/6

(3) 1/10 (4) 1/4

Sol: Answer (1)

28. An infinite line charge of uniform electric charge

density lies along the axis of an electrically

conducting infinite cylindrical shell of radius R. At

time t = 0, the space inside the cylinder is filled with a

material of permittivity and electrical conductivity

. The electrical conduction in the material follows

Ohm‟s law. Which one of the following graphs best

describes the subsequence variation of the magnitudes

of current density )(tf at any point in the material

(1) (2)





(3) (4)

Sol: Answer (3)

29. A loop carrying current I lies in the x - y plane as

shown in the figure. The unit vector k̂ is coming out

of the plane of the paper. The magnetic moment of

the current loop is

(1) kIa ˆ2 (2)

1

2

kIa ˆ2

(3)

1

2

kIa ˆ2

(4) 12 kIa ˆ2

Sol: Answer (2)

30. Let 1 and 2 be the angles of dip observed in two

vertical planes at right angles to each other and be

the true angle of dip, then

(1) 2

2

1

22 coscoscos

(2) 2

2

1

22 secsecsec

(3) 2

2

1

22 tantantan

(4) 2

2

1

22 cotcotcot

Sol: Answer (4)

31. A wire in the form of a circular loop of radius r lies

with its plane normal to a magnetic field B. If the

wire is pulled to take a square shape in the same plane

in time t, the emf induced in the loop given by

(1)

101

2

t

Br

(2)

81

2

t

Br





(3)

61

2

t

Br (4)

41

2

t

Br

Sol: Answer (4)

Induced emf t

AB

Circumference of circular loop = r2

Side of square loop = 24

2 rr

41

2

2

2

2

rr

rA

41

2

t

rB

32. The primary and secondary coils of transformer have

50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux

linked with the primary coil is given by

t40 , where is in webers, t is time in

seconds and 0 is a constant, the output voltage

across the secondary coil is

(1) 90 volts (2) 120 volts

(3) 220 volts (4) 30 volts

Sol: Answer (1)

Np = 50, Ns = 1500

voltdt

det pP 440

s

p

s

p

e

e

N

N Voltes 120

50

15004

33. A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a

potential difference of 12V. The charging battery is

then removed and the capacitor is connected across an

inductor of self-inductance 0.6 mH. The current in the

circuit at a time when the potential difference across

the capacitor is 6V is

(1) 0.3 A (2) 0.6 A

(3) 0.9 A (4) 1.2 A

Sol: Answer (2)

Q = CV, tQQ cos0 (oscillation starts from

capacitor)

Q0 = CV0, 3/,12

6cos

00

tV

V

Q

Qt

FCHLLC

63 102,106.0,1

32

105

rad/s

tQdt

d

dt

dQI cos0

tQ sin0

tCVtQI sinsin 00

= 2 10-6

12 32

105

sin 3/

= 0.6A

34. The i – v curve for anti-resonant circuit is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Sol: Answer (2)

35. Consider the following statements about

electromagnetic waves and choose the correct ones

S1: Electromagnetic waves having wavelengths

1000 times smaller than light waves are called

X-rays.

S2: Ultraviolet waves are used in the treatment of





swollen joints.

S3: Alpha and gamma rays are not electromagnetic

waves.

S4: de Broglie waves are not electromagnetic in

nature.

S5: Electromagnetic waves exhibit polarization

while sound waves do not.

(1) S1, S4 and S5 (2) S3, S4 and S5

(3) S1, S3 and S5 (4) S2, S3 and S4

Sol: Answer (1)

36. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an

average power output of 1500 W. The maximum

value of electric field at a distance of 3 m from this

source in Vm-1

is

(1) 500 (2) 100

(3) 3

500 (4)

3

250

Sol: Answer (2)

37. In the following common emitter configuration an

NPN transistor with current gain = 100 is used.

The output voltage of the amplifier will be

(1) 10 mV (2) 0.1 V

(3) 1.0 V (4) 10 V

Sol: Answer (3)

38. The dual nature of light is exhibited by

(1) Photoelectric effect

(2) Refraction and interference

(3) Diffraction and reflection

(4) Diffraction and photoelectric effect

Sol: Answer (4)

Diffraction shows wave nature and

photoelectric effect shows particle nature.

39. A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors

inclined at an angle of 600. The number of images

formed are

(1) 6 (2) 2

(3) 5 (4) 4

Sol: Answer (3)

40. A beaker containing liquid is placed on a table,

underneath a microscope which can be moved along

a vertical scale. The microscope is focussed, through

the liquid onto a mark on the table when the reading

on the scale is a. It is next focussed on the upper

surface of the liquid and the reading is b. More liquid

is added and the observations are repeated, the

corresponding readings are c and d. The refractive

index of the liquid is

(1) abcd

bd

(2)

abcd

db

(3) bd

abcd

(4)

dcba

bd





Sol: Answer (1)

41. A glass convex lens 5.1g has a focal length of

8 cm when placed in air. What would be the focal

length of the lens when it is immersed in water?

33.1w

(1) 2 m (2) 4 cm

(3) 16 cm (4) 32 cm

Sol: Answer (4)

42. A mixture of light, consisting of wavelength 590 nm

and an unknown wavelength, illuminates young‟s

double slit and gives rise to two overlapping

interference patterns on the screen. The central

maximum of both lights coincide. Further, it is

observed that the third bright fringe of known light

coincides with the 4th bright fringe of the unknown

light. From this data, the wavelength of the unknown

light is

(1) 393.4 nm (2) 885.0 nm

(3) 442.5 nm (4) 776.8 nm

Sol: Answer (3)

43. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the

ground state by emitting a photon of wavelength .

If R is the Rydberg constant, the principal quantum

number n of the excited state is

(1) 1R

R

(2)

1R

(3) 1

2

R

R

(4)

1

R

Sol: Answer (1)

44. The decay constant of a radio isotope is . If A1 and

A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, the

number of nuclei which have decayed during the

time (t1 – t2)

(1) 2211 tAtA (2) 21 AA

(3) /21 AA (4) 21 AA





Sol: Answer (3)

45. Which of the following is not a rectifier circuit?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sol: Answer (2)

46. Oxidation number of N in HNO3 is

(1) – 3.5 (2) + 3.5

(3) – 3, +5 (4) + 5

Sol: Answer (4)

Let the oxidation state of N in HNO3 = x

0)32(1 x

x + 1 – 6 = 0

x = + 5

47. Sodium hypohalite when dissolved in water will

turn

(1) blue litmus red (2) red litmus blue

(3) red litmus green (4) No change

Sol: Answer (2)

Sodium hypohalite when dissolved in water gives

alkaline solution, thus it will turn red litmus in to

blue.

48. Carborandum is

(1) SiC (2) AlCl3

(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) Al2O3.2H2O

Sol: Answer (1)

Silicon combines with carbon at 2500 K forming

SiC, known as carborandum.

49. Which of the following methods can be used to

separate a mixture of ortho and para nitro phenols.

(1) crystallisation (2) solubility

(3) sublimation (4) Steam distillation

Sol: Answer (4)

Intra molecular Hydrogen bond is present is ortho

nitro phenol, so it is more volatile.

50. Reaction of propene with diborane followed by

alkaline hydrolysis in the presence of hydrogen

peroxide give

(1) propan-1-ol (2) propan-2-ol

(3) propane-1,2-diol (4) n-propane

Sol: Answer (1)

Addition of water against Markownikoff‟s rule.

51. Benzene reacts with n-propylchloride in presence

of anhy:AlCl3 gives

(1) n-propyl benzene (2) Isopropyl benzene

(3) Ethyl benzene (4) Acetophenone

Sol: Answer (2)





52. Which of the following organic halogen compound

undergoes hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH

predominantly by SN1 mechanism?

(1) Ethyl iodide (2) Chloro benzene

(3) Benzyl chloride (4) Isopropyl chloride

Sol: Answer (3)

Benzyl cation is stabilised by resonance.

53. Bromo benzene reacts with Mg in dry ether to give

a compound A, which further reacts with ethanol to

give

(1) Phenol (2) Benzene

(3) Ethyl benzene (4) Pheny ether

Sol: Answer (2)

54. HCHO was treated with reagent X. The product

formed upon hydrolysis in the presence of an acid

gave C2H5OH, the reagent „X‟ is

(1) alcoholic KOH (2) alcoholic KCN

(3) CH3MgI (4) Aqueous KOH

Sol: Answer (3)

OHCHCH

OMgICHCHHCHOMgICH

HOH

23

/

233

2

55. Ethyl chloride is converted in to diethylether by

(1) Perkins reaction (2) Grignard reagent

(3) Wurtz reaction (4) Willianson synthesis

Sol: Answer (3)

32232323 CHOCHCHCHONaCHCHClCHCH

56. When ethanal is treated with Fehling‟s solution, it

gives a precipitate of

(1) Cu2O (2) Cu

(3) Cu3O (4) CuO

Sol: Answer (1)

OCuCOOHCHCuOCHOCH 233 2

57. The product formed when hydroxylamine

condenses with a carbonyl compound is called

(1) hydrazine (2) oxime

(3) hydrazone (4) semicarbazone

Sol: Answer (2)

OHOHNCOC

oxime

OHNH

2)(

||2

58. Carbyl amine test is not observed in

(1) C6H5 – NH2 (2) (CH3)3 – C – NH2

(3) C6H5 – CH2 – NH2 (4) (CH3)3N

Sol: Answer (4)

Only primary amine answer carbylamines test

59. In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly

as

(1) anion (2) zwitter ion

(3) cation (4) covalent form

Sol: Answer (1)

2|

37

)(

2|

3 NHHCCHNHHCCH

COO

PH

OH

AlanineCOOH

60. Which of the following polymer is stored in liver of

animals?

(1) amylase (2) cellulose

(3) Amylopectin (4) Glycogen

Sol: Answer (4)

Glycogen is known as animal starch.

61. Terylene is not a

(1) copolymer (2) polyester fibre

(3) chain growth polymer (4) step growth polymer

Sol: Answer (3)

Terylene is condensation to polymer of terephthalic

acid and ethylene glycol.

62. Saponification value of an oil or Fat is measured in

terms of:

(1) NH4OH (2) NaOH

(3) KOH (4) C6H5OH

Sol: Answer (3)

Saponification value is the number of milligrams of

KOH required to neutralise the fatty acid resulting

from the complete hydrolysis of 1 gm of fat or oil





63. Which of the following is secondary pollutant?

(1) CO2 (2) N2O

(3) PAN (4) SO2

Sol: Answer (3)

Pollutants which are formed by reaction amongst

the primary pollutants are called secondary

pollutants. PAN (Peroxy acylnitrate) are formed

through the reaction between nitrogen oxides and

hydrocarbons in the presence of light

64. Ethyl benzene cannot be prepared by:

(1) Wurtz reaction

(2)Wurtz-fittig reaction

(3) Friedel-craft reaction

(4)Clemmenson reduction

Sol: Answer (1)

Wurtz reaction is used to prepare alkanes

65. Commercial sample of H2O2 is labelled as 10V. Its

strength is nearly

(1) 3 (2) 6

(3) 9 (4) 12

Sol: Answer (1)

A 30% H2O2 is marketed as 100 volume H2O2.

Commercially it is marketed as 10V. Which means

that the sample contains 3% H2O2.

66. During electrolysis of water the volume of O2

liberated, is 2.24 dm3. The volume of hydrogen

liberated, under some conditions will be

(1) 2.24 dm3 (2) 1.12 dm

3

(3) 4.48 dm3 (4) 0.56 dm

3

Sol: Answer (3)

During electrolysis volume of O2 and H2 liberated

are in the ratio of 1:2 hence volume of H2 liberated

will be 4.48 dm3.

67. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid

dehydrate is made up of to 250 ml. The volume of

0.1N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10 ml

of this solution is

(1) 40 ml (2) 20 ml

(3) 10 ml (4) 4 ml

Sol: Answer (1)

N1V1 = N2V2

V

VNVVE

W

1.010250

1000

63

3.6

1000221

V =40 ml

68. If first orbit energy of He+ is – 54.4 eV, then the

second orbit energy will be

(1) – 54.4 eV (2) – 13.6 eV

(3) – 27.2 eV (4) 27.2 eV

Sol: Answer (2)

ev

n

EE 6.13

4

4.542

0

69. The value of the energy for the first excited state of

hydrogen atom will be

(1) – 13.6 eV (2) – 3.40 eV

(3) – 1.51 eV (4) – 0.85 eV

Sol: Answer (2)

evev

nE 40.3

4

6.13

2

6.136.1322

70. The electronegativity of the following elements

increases in the order.

(1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P

(3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C

Sol: Answer (3)

Nitrogen is the most electronegative elements.

(Si < P < C < N)

71. Among the following compounds the one that is

polar and has central atom with sp2 hybridization is

(1) H2CO3 (2) BF3

(3) SiF4 (4) HClO2

Sol: Answer (1)

In H2CO3 and BF3 central atom are in sp2

hybridisation but in H2CO3 due to the ionic

character of O – H bond it will be polar (high

electronegativity of oxygen).

72. The smallest bond angle is found in

(1) IF7 (2) CH4

(3) BeF2 (4) BF3





Sol: Answer (1)

It is shows sp3d

3 – hybridisation. Hence the bond

angle is about 72o.

73. A bottle of ammonia and a bottle of dry hydrogen

chloride connected through a long tube are opened

simultaneously at both ends, the white ammonium

chloride ring first formed will be.

(1) at the centre of the tube

(2) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle

(3) Near the ammonia bottle

(4) throughout the length of the tube

Sol: Answer (2)

NH4Cl ring will first form near the HCl bottle

because rate of diffusion of NH3 is more than that

of HCl

)5.36:17:(3

2 HClNHb MM . So NH3 will reach

first.

74. In the reaction

kJxSOOS 22

332 and

kJySOOSO 3221

2 . Heat of formation

of SO2 is.

(1) – 2x + y (2) x + y

(3) 2x + y (4) x – y

Sol: Answer (1)

?;22 HpSOOS

kJxSOOS 22

332 ............(1)

kJySOOSO

3222

1 ............(2)

Substrate eq (2) from eq (1)

kJykJxSOOS 222

kJyxHp )2(

75. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g),

H2O(l) and glucose at 25oC are – 400 kJ/mol,

- 300 kJ/mol and – 1300 kJ/mol respectively. The

standard enthalpy of combustion per gram of

glucose at 25oC is

(1) + 2900 kJ (2) – 2900 kJ

(3) – 16.11 kJ (4) + 16.11 Kj

Sol: Answer (3)

)(2)(2)(2)(6126 666 lggs OHCOOOHC

gOpHOHCpH

OHHCOHH ffc

)(6)(

)(6)(6

26126

22

= 0)1300()300400(6

= - 4200 + 1300

= - 2900 kJ/mol

For one gram of glucose, enthalpy of

combustion = gkJ /11.16180

2900

76. In the manufacture of NH3 by Haber‟s process, the

condition which would give maximum yield is

N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + Q kcal

(1) High temperature, high pressure, and high

concentration of the reactants

(2) High temperature, low pressure and low

concentrations of the reactants

(3) low temperature and high pressure

(4) low temperature, low pressure and low

concentration of H2.

Sol: Answer (3)

According to le chatelier‟s principle.

77. A solution which is 10-3

M each in Mn2+

, Fe2+

, Zn2+

and Hg2+

is treated with 10-16

M sulphide ion. If

Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10-15

, 10-23

, 10-20

and 10-54

respectively, which one will precipitate

first.

(1) FeS (2) MnS

(3) HgS (4) ZnS

Sol: Answer (3)

[S2-

] needed for precipitation of

.1010

10 20

3

23

MFeS

MMnS 12

3

15

1010

10

MZnS 17

3

20

1010

10





MHgS 51

3

54

1010

10

Thus minimum [S2-

] is for HgS and so it will

precipitate first.

78. Atomic radius of element having atomic mass

60 g mol-1

, d = 6.23 g/cm3 with edge length of unit

cell 400 pm is

(1) 101.1 pm (2) 111.2 pm

(3) 121.3 pm (4) 141.4 pm.

Sol: Answer (4)

60

10022.6)10400(23.6 233103

M

NodaZ

= 4 it means f.c.c.

pma

r 4.1414

2

79. A hexagonal unit cell has following characteristics

(1) ocba 90,

(2) oocba 12090,

(3) ocba 90,

(4) ocba 90,

Sol: Answer (2)

80. Van‟t Hoff factor for K3[Fe(CN)6] in very dilute

solution is

(1) 1 (2) 10

(3) 4 (4) ¼

Sol: Answer (3)

81. If an azeotropic solution has higher b.p. than the of

b.p.of both the mixed liquids, it is the case of

(1) Positive deviation from Raoult‟s Law

(2) Negaitive deviation from Raoult‟s Law

(3) Perfectly obeying Raoult‟s Law

(4) no such relation exists

Sol: Answer (2)

82. Given VEVE o

FeFe

o

CrCr42.0;72.0

// 23

The potential for the cell:

Cr/Cr3+

(0.1 M)||Fe2+

(0.01 M)|Fe is

(1) -0.339V (2) -0.26V

(3) 0.26V (4) 0.339V

Sol: Answer (3)

)72.0(42.0 o

cellE

= + 0.30 V

FeCrFeCr 3232 32 n = 6

32

23

][

][log

6

059.0

Fe

CrEE o

=3

2

)01.0(

)1.0(log

6

059.030.0

= 46

059.030.0

= 0.30 – 0.04 = 0.26 V

83. Activation energy of a reaction is 200 kJ mol-1

at

600 K. The fraction of molecules of reactants

having energy equal to or greater than activation

energy is

(1) 3.89910-20

(2) 3.89910-19

(3) 3.89910-18

(4) 3.89910-17

Sol: Answer (3)

RT

Ea

ex

RT

Eax

303.2log

= 600314.8303.2

10200 3

= -17.409

x = antilog of -17.409

= 3.89910-18

84. What would be the rate equation of the reaction

PbA . If following data is collected

experimentally?





Expt. [A] [B] Initial rate

1

2

3

0.1 M

0.2 M

0.2 M

1 M

1 M

2 M

2.110-3

8.4 10-3

8.4 10-3

(1) r = k[A]2 (2) r = k[B]

2

(3) r = k[A]2[B]

1 (4) r = k[A]

1[B]

1

Sol: Answer (1)

r = k[A]x [B]

y

2.110-3

= (0.1)x (1)

y k ...........(1)

8.410-3

= (0.2)x (1)

y k ...........(2)

8.410-3

= (0.2)x (2)

y k ...........(3)

(3) + (2)

1 = 2y y = 0

(2) + (1)

4 = 2x x = 2

Rate equation is r = k[A]2

85. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) Solid in liquid : Sol (2) Liquid in solid: Gel

(3) Gas in liquid : Foam (4) Gas in Gas : Aerosol

Sol: Answer (4)

86. Which method of purification is represented by the

following equation?

)(2)(

)()(2)(

2

1700

4

523

2

gIsTi

gTiIsIsTi

K

K

(1) Zone refining (2) Cupellation

(3) Poling (4) Van Arkel method

Sol: Answer (4)

87. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3 gas

(1) KI (2) FeSO4

(3) KMnO4 (4) K2MnO4

Sol: Answer (4)

88. Oxidation of oxalic acid by KMnO4/H+ is an

example of autocatalysis. The catalyst is

(1) K+ (2)

4MnO

(3) MnO2 (4) Mn2+

Sol: Answer (4)

89. Which one of the following has an optical isomer?

(1) [Zn(en)2]2+

(2) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+

(3) [Co(en)3]3+

(4) [Co(en)(H2O)4]3+

Sol: Answer (3)

90. In which of the following octahedral complexes of

CO will be the magnitude of o (CFSE in

octahedral field) be the highest

(1) [CO(NH3)6]3+

(2) [CO(CN)6]3-

(3) [CO(C2O4)3]3-

(4) [CO(H2O)6]3+

Sol: Answer (2)

91. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as

(1) Protists (2) Golden algae

(3) Slime moulds (4) Blue-green algae

Sol: Answer (4)

92. Which statement is wrong for viruses?

(1) All are parasites

(2) All of them have helical symmetry

(3) They have the ability to synthesize nucleic acids

and proteins.

(4) Antibiotics have no effect on them

Sol: Answer (4)

93. Which one of the following shows isogamy with

non-flagellated gametes?

(1) Sargassum (2) Ectocarpus

(3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra

Sol: Answer (4)

94. Which of the following gametophyte is not

independent free living?

(1) Funaria (2) Marchantia

(3) Pteris (4) Pinus

Sol: Answer (4)

95. Phyllode is present in

(1) Asparagus (2) Euphorbia

(3) Australian Acacia (4) Opuntia

Sol: Answer (3)

96. Vexillary aestivation is a characteristic of the

family





(1) Fabaceae (2) Asteraceae

(3) Solanaceae (4) Brassicaceae

Sol: Answer (1)

97. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic

(2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit

(3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in

maize grain

(4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode

Sol: Answer (3)

98. A hilum is a scar on the

(1) Seed, where funicle was attached

(2) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel

(3) Fruit, where style was present

(4) Seed, where micropyle was present

Sol: Answer (1)

99. Which one of the following is not a lateral

meristem?

(1) Intrafascicular cambium

(2) Interfascicular cambium

(3) Phellogen

(4) Intercalary meristem

Sol: Answer (4)

100. Ground tissue includes

(1) All tissues except epidermis and vascular

bundles

(2) Epidermis and cortex

(3) All tissues internal to endodermis

(4) All tissues external to endodermis

Sol: Answer (1)

101. The common bottle cork is a product of

(1) Dermatogen (2) Phellogen

(3) Xylem (4) Vascular Cambium

Sol: Answer (2)

102. Age of a tree can be estimated by

(1) Its height and girth

(2) Biomass

(3) Number of annual rings

(4) Diameter of its heartwood

Sol: Answer (3)

103. Which one of the following has its own DNA?

(1) Mitochondria (2) Dictyosome

(3) Lysosome (4) Peroxisome

Sol: Answer (1)

104. The plasma membrane consists mainly of

(1) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer

(2) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

(3) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose

molecules

(4) Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

Sol: Answer (2)

105. In „S‟ phase of the cell cycle

(1) The amount of DNA doubles in each cell

(2) The amount of DNA remains same in each cell

(3) The chromosome number is increased

(4) The amount of DNA is reduced to half in each

cell

Sol: Answer (1)

106. The enzyme recombinase is required at which state

of meiosis

(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene

(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis

Sol: Answer (1)

107. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct

sequence

(A) Crossing over

(B) Synapsis

(C) Terminalization of chiasmata

(D) Disappearance of nucleolus

(1) [B], [A], [C], [D] (2) [A], [B], [C], [D]

(3) [B], [C], [D], [A] (4) [B], [A], [D], [C]





Sol: Answer (1)

108. Guttation is the result of

(1) Diffusion (2) Transpiration

(3) Osmosis (4) Root pressure

Sol: Answer (4)

109. Which of the following criteria does not pertain to

facilitated transport?

(1) Requirement of special membrane proteins

(2) High selectivity

(3) Transport saturation

(4) Uphill transport

Sol: Answer (4)

110. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise

in plants by

(1) Pulling it upward

(2) Pulling and pushing it respectively

(3) Pushing it upward

(4) Pushing and pulling it respectively

Sol: Answer (2)

111. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules

of legumes is

(1) Oxygen removal

(2) Nodule differentiation

(3) Expression of nif gene

(4) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity

Sol: Answer (1)

112. Which one of the following elements in plants is

not remobilized?

(1) Calcium (2) Potassium

(3) Sulphur (4) Phosphorus

Sol: Answer (1)

113. How many moles of ATP is required to regenerate

one mole of RuBP?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

Sol: Answer (1)

114. Kranz type of anatomy is found in

(1) C2 plants (2) C3 plants

(3) C4 plants (4) CAM plants

Sol: Answer (3)

115. A process that makes more important difference

between C3 and C4 plants is

(1) Transpiration (2) Glycolysis

(3) Photosynthesis (4) Photorespiration

Sol: Answer (4)

116. How many molecules of ATP are produced per

molecule of FADH2 oxidized?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

Sol: Answer (2)

117. RQ is defined as

(1) Ratio between CO2 liberated and O2 taken

(2) Volume of oxygen taken

(3) Volume of carbon dioxide liberated

(4) Ratio between oxygen taken and fat utilized

Sol: Answer (1)

118. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration

mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and

proteins?

(1) Glucose 6 – phosphate

(2) Fructose 1, 6 – bisphosphate

(3) Pyruvic acid

(4) Acetyl-CoA

Sol: Answer (4)

119. By how many times, the cells of watermelon

increase in size?

(1) 3,15,000 (2) 3,50,000

(3) 3,25,000 (4) 3,17,000

Sol: Answer (2)

120. Root development is promoted by

(1) Abscisic acid (2) Auxin

(3) Gibberellins (4) Ethylene





Sol: Answer (2)

121. Which one of the following growth regulators is

known as „stress hormone‟?

(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene

(3) GA3 (4) Indole acetic acid

Sol: Answer (1)

122. Pre-fertilization events among these are

(1) Syngamy

(2) Gametogenesis and gamete transfer

(3) Formation of zygote

(4) Embryogenesis

Sol: Answer (2)

123. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly

matched while the remaining three are correct?

(1) Penicillium - Conidia

(2) Water hyacinth - Runner

(3) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds

(4) Agave - Bulbils

Sol: Answer (2)

124. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the

stigma of another flower of the same plant is called

(1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy

(3) Karyogamy (4) Autogamy

Sol: Answer (2)

125. Wind pollinated flowers are

(1) Small, brightly coloured, producing large

number of pollen grains

(2) Small, producing large number of dry pollen

grains

(3) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollen

(4) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen

Sol: Answer (2)

126. Which of the following are the important floral

rewards to the animal pollinators?

(1) Colour and large size of flower

(2) Nectar and pollen grains

(3) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals

(4) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates

Sol: Answer (2)

127. Consumption of which one of the following foods

can prevent the kind of blindness associated with

vitamin „A‟ deficiency?

(1) „Flavr Savr‟ tomato (2) Canola

(3) Golden rice (4) Bt Brinjal

Sol: Answer (3)

128. In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection

(of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all

genes in a given crop is called

(1) Selection of superior recombinants

(2) Cross-hybridization among the selected parents

(3) Evaluation and selection of parents

(4) Germplasm collection

Sol: Answer (4)

129. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(1) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA

molecule

(2) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for

binding of DNA ligase

(3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA

polymerase

(4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA

molecule

Sol: Answer (1)

130. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing

transgenic plants resistant to

(1) Bollworms (2) Nematodes

(3) White rusts (4) Bacterial blights

Sol: Answer (2)

131. Which body of the Government of India regulates

GM research and safety of introducing GM

organism for public services?

(1) Bio-safety committee

(2) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

(3) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee





(4) Research Committee on Genetic manipulation

Sol: Answer (3)

132. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked

together by

(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Phosphodiester bond

(3) Covalent bond (4) Disulphide bridges

Sol: Answer (4)

133. Study the four statements (A to D) given below and

select the two correct ones out of them.

(A) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on

grain are ecologically similar in being consumers

(B) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining

species diversity of some invertebrates

(C) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of

prey species

(D) Production of chemicals such as nicotine,

strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders.

The two correct statements are

(1) (B) and (C) (2) (C) and (D)

(3) (A) and (D) (4) (A) and (B)

Sol: Answer (4)

134. The logistic population growth is expressed by the

equation

(1)

K

NKNrdNdt /

(2)

K

NKrNdtdN /

(3) rNdtdN /

(4)

N

KNrNdtdN /

Sol: Answer (2)

135. In which of the following interactions both partners

are adversely affected?

(1) Predation (2) Parasitism

(3) Mutualism (4) Competition

Sol: Answer (4)

136. What is the dental formula of human being?

(1) 2123

2123 (2)

2123

2213

(3) 2114

2114 (4)

2122

2122

Sol: Answer (1)

137. Which is the largest gland of human body?

(1) Gastric gland (2) Pancreas

(3) Liver (4) Salivary gland

Sol: Answer (3)

138. Atherosclerosis is caused by deposition of

(1) Calcium

(2) Fat and cholesterol

(3) Deposition of fibrous tissue

(4) All of the above

Sol: Answer (4)

139. In an ECG, auricular depolarization is represented by

(1) P - wave (2) Q - wave

(3) QRS complex (4) S - T wave

Sol: Answer (1)

140. Cardiac output is

(1) Stroke volume × Heart rate = 72 mL/ m

(2) Stroke volume × Heart rate = 5 L/m

(3) Stroke volume × Heart rate = 500 mL

(4) Stroke volume × Heart rate = 3 L/m

Sol: Answer (2)

141. Angiotensin is secreted by

(1) Liver (2) Kidney

(3) JGA (4) Macula densa

Sol: Answer (1)

142. Podocytes are present on the

(1) Endothellal cells of the glomerulus

(2) Endothelial cells of Bowman‟s capsule

(3) Epithelium cells of the Bowman‟s capsule

(4) Epithelium cells of the glomerulus

Sol: Answer (3)





143. Presence of ketose sugar in urine is

called

(1) Ketonuria (2) Ketonemia

(3) Glycosuria (4) Uremia

Sol: Answer (3)

144. I – bands of myofibrils are bisected by

(1) A – bands (2) H – zone

(3) Z – lines (4) M – lines

Sol: Answer (3)

145. Ribs that are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and

ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of

hyaline cartilage are called

(1) True ribs (2) False rib

(3) Floating ribs (4) Rib cage

Sol: Answer (1)

146. Gout happens due to the accumulation of .......... in

joints

(1) Glucose crystals (2) Uric acid crystals

(3) Urea crystals (4) Ammonia crystals

Sol: Answer (2)

147. Hypothalamus controls

[I] Urge for eating and drinking

[II] Thermoregulation

[III]Hormone production that regulates the secretion

of pituitary gland

[IV] Creative thinking and consciousness

(1) I and III are correct

(2) II and III are correct

(3) I and II are correct

(4) I, II and III are correct

Sol: Answer (4)

148. How many pairs of cranial nerves are found

in humans?

(1) 10 pairs (2) 11 pairs

(3) 12 pairs (4) 13 pairs

Sol: Answer (3)

149. Bipolar neurons are found in the

(1) Embryonic stage (2) Cerebral cortex

(3) Cerebellum (4) Retina of eye

Sol: Answer (4)

150. In systemic arteries

(1) PO2 = 95 mm Hg ; PCO2 = 40 mm Hg

(2) PO2 = 40 mm Hg ; PCO2 = 95 mm Hg

(3) PO2 = 40 mm Hg ; PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

(4) PCO2 = 45 mm Hg ; PO2 = 40 mm Hg

Sol: Answer (1)

151. The trachea divides in to bronchi at the level of

(1) 5th lumbar vertebra (2) 6

th thoracic vertebra

(3) 6th lumbar vertebra (4) mid-thoracic cavity

Sol: Answer (4)

152. Which is true about estrogen?

(1) Stimulates milk secretion

(2) stimulates milk production

(3) has intracellular receptor

(4) For maintenance of pregnancy

Sol: Answer (3)

153. Hormone which controls menstrual cycle is:

(1) hCG (2) HPL

(3) Melatonin (4) Oxytocin

Sol: Answer (3)

154. Which of the following is not a peptide hormone?

(1) TSH (2) TCT

(3) Epinephrine (4) All

Sol: Answer (3)

155. GLUT-4 is a

(1) Protein enabling transport

(2) Hormone

(3) Carrier molecule

(4) Lipid for glucose transport across the cell

membrane

Sol: Answer (1)

156. Lecithin is

(1) Phosphoprotein (2) Lipoprotein

(3) Lipid (4) A co-enzyme

Sol: Answer (3)





157. Glycosidic bond is a characteristic feature of

(1) Individual monosaccharide

(2) Nucleoside

(3) All sugars

(4) All the above

Sol: Answer (2)

158. Some of the statements are given below

[I] Porifera to Echinodermata lack a notochord.

[II]Platyhelminthes display tissue level organization.

[III] Mesoglea is present in coelenterate during

development

[IV] Aschelminthes are coelomates

Choose the correct option.

(1) I, II, III and IV are true

(2) I and II are true

(3) I and III are true

(4) II and III are true.

Sol: Answer (3)

159. The unique character of animals belonging to

class – Mammalia is

(1) Only mammals possess hair on skin

(2) Completely four chambered heart

(3) Presence of mammary glands

(4) Fertilization is internal

Sol: Answer (3)

160. Which part of the alimentary canal of cockroach has

an outer layer of thick circular muscles and inner

cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called

teeth?

(1) Gizzard (2) Crop

(3) Proventriculus (4) Both (1) and (3)

Sol: Answer (4)

161. Which statement is incorrect for human female?

(1) Menstrual cycle takes 28 days

(2) Menopause occurs at 45 – 55 yr

(3) Ovulated egg released during pregnancy

(4) Menstruation takes 4 days.

Sol: Answer (3)

162. Which one of the following is the most likely

reason of not occurring regular menstruation

cycle in females?

(1) Fertilization of the ovum

(2) Maintenance of the hypertrophic endometrial

lining

(3) Maintenance of high concentration of sex

hormones in the blood stream.

(4) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum.

Sol: Answer (1)

163. Withdrawal of which of the following hormone is

the immediate cause of menstruation?

(1) Estrogen (2) FSH

(3) FSH – LH (4) Progesterone

Sol: Answer (4)

164. In a lady, menstruation starts on 3rd

of April. Her

normal sexual cycle lasts for 32 days. The safest

day for a sexual contact (for not to have a kid) is

(1) April 20th (2) April 22

nd

(3) April 7th (4) April 9

th

Sol: Answer (3)

165. Which one of the following individuals cannot

produce 16 different gametes?

(1) Aa Bb Cc DD Ee Ff (2) Aa Bb cc DD Ee Ff

(3) Aa Bb cc Dd (4) Both (1) and (3)

Sol: Answer (4)

166. There is a plant, in which genes for black or white

flower colour do not show complete dominance or

recessiveness. If a plant carrying only black flower

colour genes is crossed with a plant with only white

flower colour genes, all the offsprings have grey

flowers. If two of these grey flowered plants were

crossed, the theoretical progeny ratio would be

(1) Either all black or all white

(2) ½ black, ½ white

(3) ½ grey, ¼ white, ¼ black

(4) All the above are grey.

Sol: Answer (3)

167. Which of the following is a chromosome disorder?

(1) Haemophilia (2) Gynaecomastia

(3) Turner‟s syndrome (4) Alkaptonuria





Sol: Answer (3)

168. The enzyme which unwinds the double helix of

DNA is

(1) Topoisomerase (2) Helicase

(3) Ligase (4) Polymerase

Sol: Answer (2)

169. Read the following statements and choose the

correct option.

[I] RNA polymerase associates transiently with

‟Rho‟ factor to initiate transcription

[II]In bacteria, transcription and translation take

place in the same compartment.

[III] RNA polymerase I is responsible for

transcription of tRNA

[IV] When hnRNA undergoes capping process,

adenylate residues are added at 3‟ – end in a

template independent manner

[V] hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA

(1) Only II (2) II, III and IV

(3) I and IV (4) II and V

Sol: Answer (4)

170. How many statements are true?

[1] DNA contains phosphorus and protein does not

contain phosphorus

[2] Ghosts of the bacterial cells are associated with

radioactivity if radioactive sulphur is used

[3] In Blender experimentT2 bacteriophage is used

[4] Purines are single ringed and pyrimidines are

double ringed.

(1) Nil (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

Sol: Answer (3)

171.E.coli which was grown in the medium containing

heavy isotope 15

N for several generations is shifted to

normal 14

N medium, the percentage of DNA strands

with 14

N isotope after two generation is

(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%

Sol: Answer (2)

172.The important key concept of Darwinism other than

natural selection is

(1) Mutation (2) Struggle for existence

(3) Branching descent (4) Use and disuse

Sol: Answer (3)

173.The ancestor of man having the cranial capacity more

than 1200 cc is

(1) Peking man (2) Java ape man

(3) Ramapithecus (4) Neanderthal man

Sol: Answer (4)

174.Match the Column I and II, and choose the correct

combination from the options given

Column- I Column – II

[a] Typhoid [1] Chronic inflammation of

lymphatic vessels

[b] Pneumonia [2] Dry scaly lesions on skin

[c] Filariasis [3] Chill and high fever recurring

every 3 – 4 days

[d] Ringworm [4] Alveoli filled with fluid

[e] Malaria [5] Intestinal perforations

(1) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 5, e – 4

(2) a – 5, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2, e – 3

(3) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 5, e – 4

(4) a – 5, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3, e – 2

Sol: Answer (2)

175.Read the statements and choose the correct option

[I] Secretion of interferons is a physiological barrier

of innate immunity

[II] T – lymphocytes are responsible for cell mediated

Immunity

[III] Injection given against snake venom is a type of

active immunization

[IV] Antibodies produced during allergic reactions are

of IgA type

(1) I and II alone are correct

(2) II and IV alone are correct

(3) I alone is correct





(4) II alone is correct

Sol: Answer (4)

176.Which of the following immunoglobulin constitute

the largest percentage in human milk?

(1) IgM (2) IgA

(3) IgG (4) IgD

Sol: Answer (2)

177.Phase of menstrual cycle when ovulation occurs is

(1) Luteal (2) Menstrual

(3) Proliferative (4) Secretory

Sol: Answer (3)

178.In sickle cell anaemia, the sequence of amino acids

from first to seventh position of - chain of

haemoglobin (HbS) is

(1) His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Val, Val

(2) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu

(3) Glu, His, Leu, Pro, Val, Glu, Glu

(4) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu

Sol: Answer (4)

179. Term biodiversity was popularized by

(1) Paul Ehrlich (2) David Tilman

(3) Edward Wilson (4) Robert May

Sol: Answer (3)

180. Presence of gill slits in the embryos of all vertebrates

supports the theory of

(1) Organic evolution (2) Biogenesis

(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metastasis

Sol: Answer (4)

IIT, MEDICAL & ENGINEERING Entrance COACHING Now MUKKAM · 2019-01-02 · & PHARMACY . Course...

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Transcript of IIT, MEDICAL & ENGINEERING Entrance COACHING Now MUKKAM · 2019-01-02 · & PHARMACY . Course...