Iit-ianspace - Aieee 2006 Paper

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AIEEE 2006 Paper

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

1.

The Answer Sheet is Kept inside the Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the TestBooklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

2.

The test is of 3 hours duration.

3.

4.

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited

5.

No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,

mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admint Card inside the examinationhall/room.

6.

Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

7.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in eachquestion will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deductedaccordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8.

On Completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator onduty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidated are allowed to take away this test booklet withthem.

9.

Do not fold or make any stray marks on Answer Sheet.



PART - 1

8522

Q

No.

1.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8523

Q

No.

2.

Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101,102 ..., 200, and another population B has 100observations 151,152... 250. If V and V represent the variances of the two populations,respectively, then V / V is:

(1) 1

(2) 9/4

(3) 4/9

(4) 2/3

8524

Q

No.

3.

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 0

(4) 1

8525

Q

No.

4.

A B

A B



(1) 1/2

(2) 3/2

(3) 2

(4) 1

8526

Q

No.

5.

(1) 4

(2)

6

(3) 1

(4) 2

8527

Q

No.

6.

(1)

(2)

(3) Perpendicular

(4) Parallel

8528

Q

No.

7.

(1) Not reflexive, symmetric and transitive

(2) Reflexive, symmetric and not transitive

(3) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive



(4) Reflexive, not symmetric and transitive

8529

Q

No.

8.

(1) A=B

(2) AB=BA

(3) Either of A or B is a zero matrix

(4) Either of A or B is an identity matrix

8530

Q

No.

9.

(1) I

(2) 1

(3) -1

(4) -i

8531

Q

No.

10.

All the values of m for which both roots of the equations are greater than

-2 but less than 4, lie in the interval:

(1) -2

(2) m>3

(3) -1

(4) 1

8532

Q

No.

11.

(1)

(2)



(3)

(4)

8533

QNo.

12.

At a telephone enquiry system the number of phone calls regarding relevant enquiry follow

Poisson distribution with an average of 5 phone calls during 10-minute time intervals. The probability that there is at most one phone call during a 10-minute time period is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8534

Q

No.

13.

(1) 720 m

(2) 900 m

(3) 320 m

(4) 680 m

8535

Q

No.

14.

(1)

(2)



(3)

(4)

8536

Q

No.

15.

A straight line through the point A(3,4) is such that its intercept between the axes is bisected atA. Its equation is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8537

Q

No.

16.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8538

Q

No.

17.

(1)

(2)



(3)

(4)

8539Q

No.

18.

(1) 2 and 1

(2) -2 and -1

(3) -2 and 1

(4) 2 and -1

8540

QNo.

19.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8541

QNo.

20.

(1) 1/4



(2) 41

(3) 1

(4) 17/7

8542Q

No.

21.

In an ellipse, the distance between its foci is 6 and minor axis is 8. Then its eccentricity is:

(1) 3/5

(2) 1/2

(3)4/5

(4)

8543

Q

No.

22.

(1) There cannot exist any B such that AB = BA.

(2) There exist more than one but finite number of B's such that AB = BA

(3) There exists exactly one B such that AB = BA

(4) There exists infinitely many B's such that AB = BA

8544

QNo.

23.

(1) x = 2

(2) x = -1

(3) x = 0

(4)

x = 1

8545

Q



No.

24.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8546

QNo.

25.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8547

Q

No.

26.

(1)

(2)

(3)



(4)

8548

Q

No.

27.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8549

Q

No.

28.

A triangular park is enclosed on two sides by a fence and on the third side by a straight river bank. The two sides having fence are of same length x. The maximum are enclosed by the park is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8550

Q

No.

29.

At an election, a voter may vote for any number of candidates, not greater that the number to beelected. There are 10 candidates and 4 are to be elected. If a voter votes for at least onecandidate, then the number of ways in which he can vote is:

(1) 5040

(2) 6210

(3) 385

(4) 1110



8551

Q

No.

30.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8552

Q

No.

31.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8553Q

No.

32.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



8554

Q

No.

33.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8555

QNo.

34.

(1) Second order and second degree

(2) First order and second degree

(3) First order and first degree

(4) Second order and first degree

8556

Q

No.

35.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8557

Q

No.



36.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8558

Q

No.

37.

The image of the point (-1,3,4) in the plane x - 2y = 0 is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

8559

QNo.

38.

(1) 18

(2) 54

(3) 6

(4) 12

8560



Q

No.

39.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8561

Q

No.40.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



PART - 2

8562

Q

No.

41.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8563

Q

No.42.

A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required todisplace it until the string makes an angle of 45 with the initial vertical direction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8564

Q

No.

43.

A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses of 4 kg and 12kg. The velocityof the 12kg mass is 4 ms . The kinetic energy of the other mass is:

(1) 96 J

(2) 144 J

(3) 288 J

(4) 192 J

8565

Q

No.44.

A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 15m/s . The work done bythe force of gravity during the time particle goes up is:

(1) 0.5 J

0

-1



(2) - 0.5 J

(3) - 1.25 J

(4) 1.25 J

8566Q

No.

45.

A whistle producing sound waves of frequencies 9500 Hz and above is approaching a stationary person with speed v ms . The velocity of sound in air is 300 ms . If the person can hear frequencies up to a maximum of 10,000Hz, the maximum value of v up to which he can hear thewhistle is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8567

Q

No.

46.

An electrical dipole is placed at an angle of 30 to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole willexperience:

(1) A torque only

(2) A translational force only in the direction of the field

(3) A translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

(4) A torque as well as a translational force

8568

Q

No.47.

A material 'B' has the specific resistance of 'A'. A circular wire made of 'B' has twice the diameter of a wire made of 'A'. Then for the two wires to have the same resistance, the ratio l /l of their

respective lengths must be:

(1) 2

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

8569

Q

No.

-1 -1

0

A B



48.

(1) conservation of charge, conservation of energy

(2) conservation of charge, conservation of momentum

(3) conservation of energy, conservation of charge

(4) conservation of charge, conservation of energy

8570

Q

No.

49.

In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present . These two fields are parallel to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the particle will be a:

(1) circle

(2) helix

(3) straight line

(4) ellipse

8571

Q

No.

50.

Needles N N and N are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substancerespectively. A magnet when brought close to them will:

(1) Attract all three of them

(2) Attract N and N strongly but repel N

(3) Attract N strongly, N weakly and repel N weakly

(4) Attract N strongly but repel N and N weakly.

8572

Q

No.

51.

(1) Weber (Wb)

(2)

(3) Henry (H)

1, 2 3

1 2 3

1 2 3

1 2 3



(4)

8573

Q

No.

52.

A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process iscompleted in 0.1s, the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is equal to:

(1) 300 N

(2) 150 N

(3) 3 N

(4) 30 N

8574

Q

No.

53.

A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards by applying a force by hand. If the handmoves 0.2m which applying the force and the ball goes up to 2m height further, find themagnitude of the force. Consider g=10m/s

(1)22 N

(2) 4 N

(3) 16 N

(4) 20 N

8575

Q

No.

54.

Consider a two particle system with particles having masses m and m If the first particle is pushed towards the centre of mass through a distance d, by what distance should the second particle be moved, so as to keep the centre of mass at the same position?

(1) d

(2)

(3)

(4)

8576

Q

No.

Starting from the origin, a body oscillates simple harmonically with a period of 2 s. after whattime will its kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy?

2.

1 2.



55.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8577

Q

No.56.

The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 7 mm,is 4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is:

(1) 100s

(2) 0.01 s

(3) 10 s

(4) 0.1 s

8578

Q

No.

57.

A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75cm. It is observed to have resonantfrequencies of 450 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two.Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is:

(1) 10.5 Hz

(2) 105 Hz

(3) 1.05 Hz

(4) 1050 Hz

8579

Q

No.

58.

(1)



(2)

(3)

(4)

8580

Q

No.

59.

The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.535 for blue light. Let D and D beangle of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. Then:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8581

Q

No.

60.

In a Wheatstone's bridge, there resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the fourth

arm is formed by two resistances S and S connected in parallel. The condition for bridge to be balanced will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8582

Q

No.

61.

1 2

1 2



(1) 0.17 A

(2) 0.33 A

(3) 0.5 A

(4) 0.67 A

8583

Q

No.

62.

(1)

(2)

(3) 40 V

(4) 250 V

8584

Q

No.

63.

(1)

(2)

(3)



(4)

8585

Q

No.

64.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8586

Q

No.

65.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8587

Q

No.

66.

(1) 190 V

(2) -190 V

(3) -10 V

(4) 10 V

8588

QNo.

67.

A thermocouple is made from two metals, Antimony and Bismuth. If one junction of the couple

is kept hot and other is kept cold then , an electric current will:

(1) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at cold junction



(2) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at hot junction

(3) flow from Bismuth to Antimony at cold junction

(4) not flow through the thermocouple

8589Q

No.

68.

The time by a photoelectron to come out after the photon strikes is approximately:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8590

Q

No.

69.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8591

Q

No.

70.

The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV, and thestopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5V . the incident radiation lies in:

(1) X-ray region

(2) Ultra violet region

(3) Infra-red region

(4) Visible region



8592

Q

No.

71.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8593

Q

No.

72.

(1) Neutrons

(2) Alpha particles

(3) Beta particles

(4) Gamma particles

8594

Q

No.

73.

A solid which is transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature isformed by:

(1) Metallic bonding

(2) Ionic bonding

(3) Covalent bonding



(4) Van der Waals binding

8595

Q

No.

74.

If the ratio of the concentration of electrons that of holes in a semiconductor is 7/5 and the ratio of currents is 7/4, then what is the ratio of their drift velocities?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8596

Q

No.

75.

(1) 48

(2) 49

(3) 50

(4) 51

8597

Q

No.76.

(1) 2

(2)

(3)

(4)



8598

Q

No.

77.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8599

Q

No.

78.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8600

Q

No.

79.

If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m ) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid(density = 1.5 kg/m ) of the same size in the same liquid:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3

3



8601

Q

No.

80.

(1) Monoatomic

(2)Diatomic

(3) Triatomic

(4) A mixture of monoatomic and diatomic

8602

Q

No.81.

The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the Sun is 720 N/C. The average totalenergy density of the electromagnetic wave is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8603

Q

No.

82.

(1) At the highest position for the first time

(2) At the mean position of the platform

(3)

(4)

8604

QNo.

83.

An electric bulb is rated 220 volt -100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110

volt will be:

(1) 50 watt



(2) 75 watt

(3) 40 watt

(4) 25 watt

8605Q

No.

84.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8606Q

No.

85.

The 'rad' is the correct unit used to report the measurement of:

(1) the rate of decay of radioactive source

(2) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce ions in a target

(3) the energy delivered by radiation to a target

(4) the biological effect of radiation

8607

Q



No.

86.

(1)

39.2 MeV

(2) 28.24 MeV

(3) 17.28 MeV

(4) 1.46 MeV

8608

QNo.

87.

(1) All E ,E ,E decrease

(2) All E , E , E increases

(3) E and E increases but E decreases

(4) E and E decreases E increases

8609

Q

No.

88.

In the following, which one of the diodes is reverse biased?

(1)

(2)

c g V

c, g v

c, v g

c, v g



(3)

(4)

8610

Q

No.

89.

(1) 1.33 A

(2) 1.71 A

(3) 2.00 A

(4) 2.31 A

8611

Q

No.

90.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8612Q

No.

91.



(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8613

Q

No.

92.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

8614

Q

No.

93.

Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one moleof nitrogen at temperature T , while box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3) TThe boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them until the

gases reach a common final temperature .( Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the finaltemperature of gases, T in terms of T is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8615

Q

No.94.

Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1mm and 2mm are separated by a distance of 5cm andare uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in equilibrium

condition, the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at the surface of spheres A and B is:

(1)

0 0.

f, 0



(2)

(3)

(4)

8616Q

No.

95.

(1) 1 A

(2)

(3)

(4) 0.1 A



PART - 3

8617

Q No.

96.

The smog is essentially caused by the presence of

(1) O and O

(2) O and N

(3) oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen

(4) O and N

8618

Q No.

97.

HBr reacts with CH = CH - OCH under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give

(1)

CH CHO and CH Br

(2) BrCH CHO and CH OH

(3) BrCH - CH - OCH

(4) H C - CHBr - OCH

8619

Q No.

98.

The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is

(1) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene

(2) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene



8620

Q No.

99.

The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compounds A - D is (A) HCHO (B)(C) (D) PhCOPh

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) D < B < C < A

(3) D < C < B < A

2 3

3 2

2 2

2 3

3 3

2 3

2 2 3

3 3



(4) C < D < B < A

8621

Q No.

100.

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg (PO ) will contain 0.25 mole of oxygenatoms?

(1) 0.02

(2) 3.125 x 10

(3) 1.25 x 10

(4) 2.5 x 10

8622

Q No.

101.

According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8623

Q No.

102.

Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8624

Q No.

103.

Total volume of atoms present in a face-centre cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)

(1)

3 4 2

-2

-2

-2



(2)

(3)

(4)

8625

Q No.

104.

A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbonmonoxide. If the concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept thesame, the rate of reaction will

(1) remain unchanged

(2) triple

(3) increase by a factor of 4

(4) double

8626

Q No.

105.

Which of the following chemical reactions depicts the oxidizing behavior of H SO ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8627

Q No.

106.

The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO )(NH ) ]Cl is

(1) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride

(2) nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride

(3) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride

(4) pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride

8628 The term anomers of glucose refers to

2 4

2 3 5 2



Q No.

107.

(1) isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C-1 and C-4)

(2) a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose

(3) enantiomers of glucose

(4) isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)

8629

Q No.

108.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8630

Q No.

109.

Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give

(1) a mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br

(2) a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br

(3) a mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br

(4) a mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br

8631

Q No.

110.

(1) D > C > A > B

(2) D > C > B > A

(3) A > B > C > D

(4) B > D > C > A



8632

Q No.

111.

The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are

(1) cytosine and adenine

(2) cytosine and guanine

(3) cytosine and thymine

(4) cytosine and uracil

8633

Q No.

112.

Among the following the one that gives positive iodoform test upon reaction with I and NaOH is

(1) CH CH CH(OH)CH CH

(2)

(3)

(4) PhCHOHCH

8634

Q No.

113.

The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8635

Q No.

114.

Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 x 10-31 kg) moving with a velocity 300ms , accurate upto 0.001%, will be(h = 6.63 x 10-34 Js)

2

3 2 2 3

3

-1



(1) 19.2 x 10-2 m

(2) 5.76 x 10-2 m

(3) 1.92 x 10-2 m

(4) 3.84 x 10-2 m

8636

Q No.

115.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8637

Q No.

116.

(1) the dissociation energy of H and enthalpy of sublimation of carbon

(2) latent heat of vaporization of methane

(3) the first four ionization energies of carbon and electron gain enthalpy of hydrogen

(4) the dissociation energy of hydrogen molecule, H

8638

Q No.117.

Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is present in

(1) benzene and ethanol

2

2



(2) acetonitrile and acetone

(3) KCl and water

(4) benzene and carbon tetrachloride

8639Q No.

118.

Fluorobenzene (C H F) can be synthesized in the laboratory

(1) by heating phenol with HF and KF

(2) from aniline by diazotisation followed by heating the diazonium salt with HBF

(3) by direct fluorination of benzene with F gas

(4) by reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution

8640

Q No.

119.

A metal, M forms chlorides in its +2 and +4 oxidation states. Which of the followingstatements about these chlorides is correct?

(1) MCl is more volatile than MCl

(2) MCl is more soluble in anhydrous ethanol than MCl

(3)

MCl is more ionic than MCl

(4) MCl is more easily hydrolysed than MCl

8641

Q No.

120.

Which of the following statements is true?

(1) H PO is a stronger acid than H SO

(2) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl

(3) HClO is a weaker acid than HClO

(4) HNO is a stronger acid than HNO

8642

Q No.

121.

(1)

6 5

4

2

2 4

2 4

2 4

2 4

3 3 2 3

4 3

3 2



(2)

(3)

(4)

8643

Q No.

122.

Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?

(1) K , Cl , Ca , Sc

(2) Ba , Sr , K , S

(3) N , O , F , S

(4) Li , Na , Mg , Ca

8644

Q No.

123.

(1) b < d < a < c

(2) d < a < c < b

(3) d < a < b < c

(4)

a < d < c < b

8645

Q No.

124.

In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal?

(1) SF

(2) SiF

(3) XeF

(4) BF

+ - 2+ 3+

2+ 2+ + 2-

3- 2- - 2-

+ + 2+ 2+

4

4

4

4-



8646

Q No.

125.

What products are expected from the disproportionation reaction of hypochlorous acid?

(1) HClO and Cl O

(2) HClO and HClO

(3) HCl and Cl O

(4) HCl and HClO

8647

Q No.

126.

(1) one, tetrahedral

(2) two, tetrahedral

(3) one, square planar

(4) two, square planar

8648

Q No.127.

(1)

(2)

(3) ionic character

(4)

8649

Q No.

128.

The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P, S and F (lowestfirst) is:

(1) F < S < P < B

(2) P < S < B < F

(3) B < P < S < F

(4) B < S < P < F

3 2

2 4

2

3



8650

Q No.

129.

An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated system. If

is the initial temperature and T f is the final temperature, which of the following statements iscorrect?

(1) (T ) > (T )

(2) T > T for reversible process but T = T for irreversible process

(3) (T ) = (T )

(4) T = T for both reversible and irreversible processes

8651

Q No.

130.

In Langmuir's model of adsorption of a gas on a solid surface:

(1)the rate of dissociation of adsorbed molecules from the surface does not depend on thesurface covered

(2) the adsorption at a single site on the surface may involve multiple molecules at the same time

(3) the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is proportional to the pressure of the gas

(4) the mass of gas striking a given area of surface is independent of the pressure of the gas

8652Q No.

131.

Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as:k=Ae In this equation, E represents:

(1) the energy above which all the colliding molecules will react

(2) the energy below which colliding molecules will not react

(3) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T

(4) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction

8653

Q No.

132.

f irrev f rev

f i f i

f rev f irrev

f i

-E /RT



(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8654

Q No.

133.

Reaction of trans-2-phenyl-1-bromocyclopentane on reaction with alcoholic KOH produces:

(1) (1) 4-phenylcyclopentene




8655

Q No.

134.

Increasing order of stability among the three main conformations (i.e. Eclipse, Anti, Gauche)of 2-fluoroethanol is:

(1) Eclipse, Gauche, Anti

(2) Gauche, Eclipse, Anti

(3) Eclipse, Anti, Gauche



(4) Anti, Gauche, Eclipse

8656

Q No.

135.

The structure of the compound that gives a tribromo derivative on treatment with brominewater is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8657

Q No.

136.

The decreasing values of bond angles from NH (106 ) to SbH (101 ) down group-15 of the periodic table is due to:

(1) increasing bp-bp repulsion

(2) increasing p-orbital character in sp3

(3) decreasing lp-bp repulsion

(4) decreasing electronegativity

8658Q No.

137.

3o

3o



(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8659

Q No.

138.

(1) 2.84

(2) 4.90

(3) 0

(4) 1.73

8660

Q No.

139.



(1) 416

(2)

(3)

(4)

8661

Q No.

140.

Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metalsand the halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

(1)The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase inatomic number down the group

(2) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase inatomic number down the group

(3)Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both thealkali metals and halogens

(4)In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase inatomic number down the group

8662Q No.

141.

(1) -8.12

(2) 8.612

(3) 37.83



(4) -16.13

8663

Q No.

142.

(1) 1

(2) 0

(3) 3

(4)

2

8664

Q No.

143.

Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to:

(1) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge

(2) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge

(3) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu

(4) The imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge.

8665

Q No.

144.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8666Q No.

145.

The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is maximum for:

(1)



(2)

(3)

(4)

8667

Q No.

146.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8668

Q No.

147.

(1) -14.6 kJ mol

(2) -16.8 kJ mol

(3) 16.8 kJ mol

(4) 244.8 kJ mol

8669

Q No.

148.

How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules are required to make anoctahedral complex with Ca ion?

(1) Six

(2) Three

(3) One

-1

-1

-1

-1

2+



(4) Two

8670

Q No.

149.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8671

Q No.

150.

18 g of glucose (C H O ) is added to 178.2 g of water. The vapour pressure for this aqueoussolution at 100 C is:

(1) 759.00 Torr

(2) 7.60 Torr

(3) 76.00 Torr

(4) 752.40 Torr

6 12 60

Iit-ianspace - Aieee 2006 Paper

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