IASBABA'S Rapid Revision Series(RaRe)-2021 CSAT-1
Transcript of IASBABA'S Rapid Revision Series(RaRe)-2021 CSAT-1
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Q.1) When x + y is divided by 12 the remainder is
8, and when x – y is divided by 12 the remainder is
6. If x > y, what is the remainder when xy divided
by 6?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 6
d) 7
Q.2) Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 45 minutes
and 15 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are
opened together but after 3 minutes, pipe B is
turned off. What is the total time required to fill
the tank?
a) 18 min 30 sec
b) 25 min 15 sec
c) 36 min
d) 30 min
Q.3) X is as much younger than Y and he is older
than Z. If the sum of the ages of Y and Z is 70 years,
what is definitely the difference between Y and X's
age?
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) Data inadequate
Q.4) If all 6s get inverted and become 9s between
1 and 100. then by how much will the sum of all
numbers change including both?
a) 270
b) 300
c) 330
d) 350
Q.5) 2 cars facing each other are at a distance of
500 m from each other. Each car moves forward
by 100 m at a speed of 50 m/s and then moves
backwards by 50 m at a speed of 25 m/s. How long
will they take to collide?
a) 14 sec
b) 13 sec
c) 11 sec
d) 10 sec
Q.6) Taj Mahal at Agra gets an average of 5000
visitors on Sundays and 1400 visitors on other
days. Then find the average number of visitors per
day if the month has 30 days starting with Sunday.
a) 1800
b) 2000
c) 2200
d) 2800
Q.7) In an examination, a student had to obtain
40% of the maximum marks to pass. He got 130
marks and failed by 30 marks. The maximum
marks of the examination were?
a) 280
b) 400
c) 340
d) 390
Q.8) Sujatha spends 30% of her monthly salary on
transport and half the remaining amount on food
and if she spends 5% of the salary on rent and
saves 2,700 Rs. Find her monthly salary
a) 7,800 Rs
b) 8,600 Rs
c) 9,000 Rs
d) 9,500 Rs
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Q.9) Two persons X and Y went to a Stationary
shop. A purchased 5 pens, 2 notebooks and 6
pencils and used up all his money. B purchased 6
pens, 6 notebooks and 18 pencils and paid 50%
more than what A had paid. What percentage of
the A's money was spent on pens?
a) 12.5%
b) 15%
c) 16.66%
d) 25%
Q.10) In a certain code language, "LOYALTY" is
written as "ZUMBZPM". How is "LAUGHTER"
written in that code language?
a) SFHJOMN
b) SFUIHVBM
c) SHFOJMK
d) SHFOMJL
Q.11) A number when divided by a divisor leaves a
remainder of 24. When twice the original number
is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 11.
What is the value of the divisor?
a) 35
b) 37
c) 41
d) 49
Q.12) A shopkeeper sells an article at a certain
profit percentage. If he sells his article at 1/3 of his
actual selling price, then he incurs a loss of 50%.
What is his actual profit percentage?
a) 50
b) 40
c) 30
d) 35
Q.13) A is the daughter of C while C and D are
sisters to one another. S is the mother of D. If R is
the son of S, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) D is the grandfather of A
b) R is the maternal uncle of A
c) R is the cousin of A
d) S is the brother of C
Q.14) Three containers A, B and C are having
mixtures of milk and water in the ratio of 1:5, 3:5,
5:7 respectively. If the capacities of the containers
are in the ratio 5:4:5, find the ratio of milk to
water, if all the three containers are mixed
together.
a) 53:113
b) 53:115
c) 54:115
d) 55:115
Q.15) The ten's digit of a 2 -digit number is greater
than the units digit by 4. If we subtract 36 from the
number, the new number obtained is a number
formed by the interchange of the digits. Find the
number.
a) 18
b) 37
c) 81
d) None of these
Direction for the following two questions: In each
of the following letter series, some of the letters
are missing, which are given below it. Choose the
correct alternative.
Q.16) D_F_DEE_D_EF_DE_F
a) EFFDED
b) EFFDDF
c) EFFDFE
d) None of the above
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Q.17) _OPO _ QOPQ _ RQPO _ POR _ O
a) APRQO
b) QPORO
c) QPROO
d) None of the above
Direction for the following 6 (five) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only Passage 1
Aggression is any behavior that is directed toward
injuring, harming, or inflicting pain on another
living being or group of beings. Generally, the
victims of aggression must wish to avoid such
behavior in order for it to be considered true
aggression. Aggression is also categorized
according to its ultimate intent. Hostile aggression
is an aggressive act that results from anger, and is
intended to inflict pain or injury because of that
anger. Instrumental aggression is an aggressive act
that is regarded as a means to an end other than
pain or injury. For example, an enemy combatant
may be subjected to torture in order to extract
useful intelligence, though those inflicting the
torture may have no real feelings of anger or
animosity toward their subject. The concept of
aggression is very broad, and includes many
categories of behavior (e.g., verbal aggression,
street crime, child abuse, spouse abuse, group
conflict, war, etc.). A number of theories and
models of aggression have arisen to explain these
diverse forms of behavior, and these
theories/models tend to be categorized according
to their specific focus. The most common system
of categorization groups the various approaches
to aggression into three separate areas, based
upon the three key variables that are present
whenever any aggressive act or set of acts is
committed. The first variable is the aggressor
him/herself. The second is the social situation or
circumstance in which the aggressive acts occur.
The third variable is the target or victim of
aggression.
Regarding theories and research on the aggressor,
the fundamental focus is on the factors that lead
an individual (or group) to commit aggressive acts.
At the most basic level, some argue that aggressive
urges and actions are the result of inborn,
biological factors. Sigmund Freud (1930) proposed
that all individuals are born with a death instinct
that predisposes us to a variety of aggressive
behaviours, including suicide (self-directed
aggression) and mental illness (possibly due to an
unhealthy or unnatural suppression of aggressive
urges). Other influential perspectives supporting a
biological basis for aggression conclude that
humans evolved with an abnormally low neural
inhibition of aggressive impulses (in comparison to
other species), and that humans possess a
powerful instinct for property accumulation and
territorialism. It is proposed that this instinct
accounts for hostile behaviours ranging from
minor street crime to world wars. Hormonal
factors also appear to play a significant role in
fostering aggressive tendencies. For example, the
hormone testosterone has been shown to
increase aggressive behaviours when injected into
animals. Men and women convicted of violent
crimes also possess significantly higher levels of
testosterone than men and women convicted of
non-violent crimes. Numerous studies comparing
different age groups, racial/ethnic groups, and
cultures also indicate that men, overall, are more
likely to engage in a variety of aggressive
behaviours (e.g., sexual assault, aggravated
assault, etc.) than women. One explanation for
higher levels of aggression in men is based on the
assumption that, on average, men have higher
levels of testosterone than women.
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Q.18) “An enemy combatant may be subjected to
torture in order to extract useful intelligence,
though those inflicting the torture may have no
real feelings of anger or animosity toward their
subject.” Which one of the following best
explicates the larger point being made by the
author here?
a) In certain kinds of aggression, inflicting
pain is not the objective, and is no more
than a utilitarian means to achieve another
end.
b) When an enemy combatant refuses to
reveal information, the use of torture can
sometimes involve real feelings of hostility.
c) Information revealed by subjecting an
enemy combatant to torture is not always
reliable because of the animosity involved.
d) The use of torture to extract information is
most effective when the torturer is not
emotionally involved in the torture.
Q.19) All of the following statements can be seen
as logically implied by the arguments of the
passage except
a) Freud’s theory of aggression proposes that
aggression results from the suppression of
aggressive urges.
b) The Freudian theory of suicide as self-
inflicted aggression implies that an
aggressive act need not be sought to be
avoided in order for it to be considered
aggression.
c) A common theory of aggression is that it is
the result of an abnormally low neural
regulation of testosterone.
d) If the alleged aggressive act is not sought
to be avoided, it cannot really be
considered aggression.
Passage 2
The University Grant Commission's directive to college and University lecturers to spend a minimum of 22 hours a week in direct teaching is the product of budgetary cutbacks rather than pedagogic wisdom. It may seem odd, at first blush, that teachers should protest about teaching a mere 22 hours. However, if one considers the amount of time academics require to prepare to lectures of good quality as well as the time they need to spend doing research, it is clear that most conscientious teachers work more than 40 hours a week. In University system around the world lecturers rarely spend more than 12 to 15 hours in directing teaching activities a week. The average college lecturer in India does not have any office space. If computers are available, internet connectivity is unlikely. Libraries are poorly stocked. Now the UGC says universities must implement a complete freeze on all permanent recruitment, abolish all posts which have been vacant for more than a year, and cut staff strength by 10 per cent. And it is an order to ensure that these cutbacks do not affect the quantum of teaching that existing lecturers are being asked to work longer. Obviously, the quality of teaching and academic work in general will decline. While it is true that in some college teachers do not take their classes regularly, the UGC and the institution concerned must find a proper way to hold them accountable. An absentee teacher will continue to play truant even if the number of hours he is required to teach goes up.
Q.20) Besides direct teaching, University teachers
spend considerable time in/on
a) Administrative activities such as admission
b) Supervising examination and correction of
answer papers
c) Carrying out research in the area of their
interest
d) None of the above
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Passage 3
In a low-carbon world, renewable energy
technologies are hot business. For investors
looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar
panels, among other technologies, seem a
straightforward choice. But renewables need to be
further scrutinized before being championed as
forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both
the direct and indirect impacts of renewable
energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-
smart future does not intensify social and
environmental harm. As renewable energy
production requires land, water, and labor, among
other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the
environment. Hydropower projects, for instance,
have led to community dispossession and
exclusion. Renewable energy supply chains are
also intertwined with mining, and their
technologies contribute to growing levels of
electronic waste. Furthermore, although
renewable energy can be produced and
distributed through small-scale, local systems,
such an approach might not generate the high
returns on investment needed to attract capital.
Q.21) Which one of the following statements, if
true, could be an accurate inference from the
passage?
a) The author’s only reservation is about the
profitability of renewable energy systems.
b) The author does not think renewable
energy systems can be as efficient as non-
renewable energy systems.
c) The author has reservations about the
consequences of non-renewable energy
systems.
d) The author has reservations about the
consequences of renewable energy
systems.
Passage 4
174 incidents of piracy were reported to the
International Maritime Bureau last year, with
Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest
ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in
the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious
Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil
tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed
robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast
and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of
Bengal. For [Dr. Peter] Lehr, an expert on modern-
day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a
source of instruction rather than entertainment,
piracy past offering lessons for piracy present.
But, where does piracy begin or end? According to
St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander
the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power
and wealth at sea, the difference between an
emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By
this logic, European empire-builders were the
most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic
history might have included the conquistadors,
Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But
Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making
comparisons with the renegades of today possible.
The main motive for piracy has always been a
combination of need and greed. Why toil away as
a starving peasant in the 16th century when a
successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid?
Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards
were worth the risk.
Increased globalisation has done more to
encourage piracy than suppress it. European
colonialism weakened delicate balances of power,
leading to an influx of opportunists on the high
seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich
pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly
becomes clear that in those parts of the world that
have not profited from globalisation and
modernisation, and where abject poverty and the
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daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root
causes of piracy are still the same as they were a
couple of hundred years ago.”
Q.22) “A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry.” From this statement we can infer that the author believes that:
a) Colonialism should be considered an
organised form of piracy.
b) The disorganised piracy of today is no
match for the organised piracy of the past.
c) Lehr does not assign adequate blame to
empire builders for their past deeds.
d) Vasco da Gama and the East India
Company laid the ground for modern
piracy.
Q.23) “Why toil away as a starving peasant in the
16th century when a successful pirate made up to
£4,000 on each raid?” In this sentence, the
author’s tone can best be described as being:
a) Facetious, about the hardships of peasant
life in medieval England.
b) Ironic, about the reasons why so many
took to piracy in medieval times.
c) Analytical, to explain the contrasts
between peasant and pirate life in
medieval England.
d) Indignant, at the scale of wealth successful
pirates could amass in medieval times.
Q.24) If x/y = 7/4, then what is the value of (x2 –
y2)/ (x2 + y2)?
a) 31/65
b) 33/65
c) 32/49
d) 43/72
Q.25) 2 years ago, one-fifth of A's age was equal to
one-fourth of the age of B, and the average of their
age was 27 years. If the age of C is also considered,
the average age of three of them declines to 24.
What will be the average age of B and C, 3 years
from now?
a) 25 years
b) 26 years
c) 27 years
d) cannot be determined
Q.26) Find the missing number from the given
series
5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, _
a) 109
b) 115
c) 122
d) 125
Q.27) The ratio of number of male and female
journalists in a newspaper office is 5:4. The
newspaper has two sections, political and sports.
If 30 percent of the male journalists and 40
percent of the female journalists are covering
political news, what percentage of the journalists
(approx.) in the newspaper is currently involved in
sports reporting?
a) 60%
b) 65%
c) 71%
d) 70%
Q.28) Find the total number of digits used in
numbering the pages of a book having 488 pages
a) 990
b) 1356
c) 1435
d) 1530
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Q.29) If the number 841*747 is completely
divisible by 9, then what is the smallest whole
number that should come in place of *?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
Q.30) A group of 900 men has provisions for 60
days. After 28 days, a reinforcement of 300 men
comes. The food will last for how many days
more?
a) 21 days
b) 24 days
c) 27 days
d) 35 days
Q.31) N is the greatest number which divides
1305, 4665 and 6905 and gives the same
remainder in each case. What is the sum of the
digits in N?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
Q.32) The average of 7 consecutive numbers is P.
If the next three numbers are also added, the
average shall
a) remain unchanged
b) increase by 1
c) increase by 1.5
d) increase by 2
Q.33) If the product of n positive integers is nn,
then their sum is
a) a negative integer
b) equal to n
c) equal to n + 1/n
d) never less than n2
Q.34) If the product of the integers a, b, c and d is
3094 and if l < a < b < c < d, what is the product of
b and c?
a) 91
b) 106
c) 221
d) 189
Q.35) There are five houses P, Q, R, S and T. P is
right of Q and T is left of R and right of P. Q is right
of S. Which house is in the middle?
a) P
b) Q
c) T
d) R
Q.36) On a straight road, car X and car Y are
traveling at different constant rates. If car X is now
2 km ahead of car Y, how much time from now will
car X be 4km ahead of car Y?
Statement I: Car X is traveling at 45 km/hr and car
Y is traveling at 30 km/hr.
Statement II: 6 minutes ago, car X was 1/2 km
ahead of car Y
a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but
statement II alone is not sufficient.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but
statement I alone is not sufficient
c) Both statements together are sufficient,
but neither statement alone is sufficient
d) Each statement alone is sufficient
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Q.37) How is J related to N?
Statement I: R is the brother of J and N is the son
of R.
Statement II: J is the sister of R and N is the son of
R.
Statement III: O is cousin brother of N and J’s only
son
a) Either Statement I or II alone is sufficient
b) Only Statement II alone is sufficient
c) Only Statement III alone is sufficient
d) Data insufficient
Q.38) Three friends had a lunch at the restaurant.
When the bill was received Arjun paid 2/3 of the
amount paid by Sanjay and Sanjay paid 1/2 of the
amount Manish had paid. What fraction of the bill
did Sanjay pay?
a) 3/4
b) 3/11
c) 4/11
d) 5/13
Q.39) Find the two digit number whose unit’s digit
is smaller than its ten’s digit by 4, and if the
number was divided by the digit’s sum, the
quotient would be 7
a) 51
b) 73
c) 40
d) 84
Q.40) Find the missing letters in the given pattern
c_bba__cab_ac_ab_ac
a) bcbac
b) cabcb
c) accbc
d) acbcb
Q.41) The ratio of metal 1 and metal 2 in Alloy A is
3:4. In Alloy B same metals are mixed in the ratio
5:8. If 26 kg of Alloy B and 14 kg of Alloy A are
mixed then find out the ratio of metal 1 and metal
2 in the new Alloy.
a) 3:2
b) 2:5
c) 2:3
d) 5:3
e)
Q.42) If 2, a, b, c, d, e, f and 65 forms an arithmetic
progression, find out the value of ‘e’.
a) 48
b) 41
c) 47
d) 39
Q.43) A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be
formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
without repetition. The total number of ways in
which this can be done is:
a) 220
b) 600
c) 240
d) 216
Q.44) A rectangular piece of paper is 22 cm long
and 10 cm wide. A cylinder is formed by rolling the
paper along its length. Find the volume of the
cylinder.
a) 175 cm3
b) 180 cm3
c) 385 cm3
d) 195 cm3
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Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read the following five passages and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
Passage 1
Brown et al. (2001) suggest that ‘metabolic theory
may provide a conceptual foundation for much of
ecology just as genetic theory provides a
foundation for much of evolutionary biology’. One
of the successes of genetic theory is the diversity
of theoretical approaches and models that have
been developed and applied. A Web of Science (v.
5.9. Thomson Reuters) search on genetic* +
theor* + evol* identifies more than 12000
publications between 2005 and 2012. Considering
only the 10 most-cited papers within this 12000
publication set, genetic theory can be seen to
focus on genome dynamics, phylogenetic
inference, game theory and the regulation of gene
expression. There is no one fundamental genetic
equation, but rather a wide array of genetic
models, ranging from simple to complex, with
differing inputs and outputs, and divergent areas
of application, loosely connected to each other
through the shared conceptual foundation of
heritable variation.
Q.45) Which of the following best captures the
essence of the passage?
a) Genetic theory has a wide range of
theoretical approaches and applications
and metabolic theory must have the same
in the field of ecology.
b) Genetic theory has a wide range of
theoretical approaches and application
and is foundational to evolutionary biology
and metabolic theory has the potential to
do the same for ecology.
c) Genetic theory provides an example of
how a range of theoretical approaches and
applications can make a theory successful.
d) Genetic theory has evolved to spawn a
wide range of theoretical models and
applications but metabolic theory need not
evolve in a similar manner in the field of
ecology.
Passage 2
Aesthetic political representation urges us to
realize that ‘the representative has autonomy with
regard to the people represented’ but autonomy
then is not an excuse to abandon one’s
responsibility. Aesthetic autonomy requires
cultivation of ‘disinterestedness’ on the part of
actors which is not indifference. To have
disinterestedness, that is, to have comportment
towards the beautiful that is devoid of all ulterior
references to use – requires a kind of aesthetic
commitment; it is the liberation of ourselves for
the release of what has proper worth only in itself.
Q.46) Which among the following is the most
logical inference that can be drawn from the
passage?
a) Disinterestedness is different from
indifference as the former means a non-
subjective evaluation of things which is
what constitutes aesthetic political
representation.
b) Aesthetic political representation
advocates autonomy for the
representatives drawing from
disinterestedness, which itself is different
from indifference.
c) Disinterestedness, as distinct from
indifference, is the basis of political
representation.
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d) Aesthetic political representation
advocates autonomy for the
representatives manifested through
disinterestedness which itself is different
from indifference.
Passage 3
The dominant hypotheses in modern science
believe that language evolved to allow humans to
exchange factual information about the physical
world. But an alternative view is that language
evolved, in modern humans at least, to facilitate
social bonding. It increased our ancestors’ chances
of survival by enabling them to hunt more
successfully or to cooperate more extensively.
Language meant that things could be explained
and that plans and past experiences could be
shared efficiently.
Q.47) Which of the following best captures the
essence of the passage?
a) From the belief that humans invented
language to process factual information,
scholars now thinks that language was the
outcome of the need to ensure social
cohesion and thus human survival.
b) Since its origin, language has been
continuously evolving to higher forms,
from being used to identify objects to
ensuring human survival by enabling our
ancestors to bond and cooperate.
c) Experts are challenging the narrow view of
the origin of language, as being merely
used to describe facts and label objects, to
being necessary to promote more complex
interactions among humans.
d) Most believe that language originated
from a need to articulate facts, but others
think it emerged from the need to promote
social cohesion and cooperation, thus
enabling human survival.
Passage 4
I’ve been following the economic crisis for more
than two years now. I began working on the
subject as part of the background to a novel, and
soon realized that I had stumbled across the most
interesting story I’ve ever found. While I was
beginning to work on it, the British bank Northern
Rock blew up, and it became clear that, as I wrote
at the time, “If our laws are not extended to
control the new kinds of super-powerful, super-
complex, and potentially super-risky investment
vehicles, they will one day cause a financial
disaster of global-systemic proportions.” I was
both right and too late, because all the
groundwork for the crisis had already been done—
though the sluggishness of the world’s
governments, in not preparing for the great
unravelling of autumn 2008, was then and still is
stupefying. But this is the first reason why I wrote
this book: because what’s happened is
extraordinarily interesting. It is an absolutely
amazing story, full of human interest and drama,
one whose byways of mathematics, economics,
and psychology are both central to the story of the
last decades and mysteriously unknown to the
general public. We have heard a lot about “the two
cultures” of science and the arts—we heard a
particularly large amount about it in 2009,
because it was the fiftieth anniversary of the
speech during which C. P. Snow first used the
phrase. But I’m not sure the idea of a huge gap
between science and the arts is as true as it was
half a century ago—it’s certainly true, for instance,
that a general reader who wants to pick up an
education in the fundamentals of science will find
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it easier than ever before. It seems to me that
there is a much bigger gap between the world of
finance and that of the general public and that
there is a need to narrow that gap, if the financial
industry is not to be a kind of priesthood,
administering to its own mysteries and feared and
resented by the rest of us. Many bright, literate
people have no idea about all sorts of economic
basics, of a type that financial insiders take as
elementary facts of how the world works. I am an
outsider to finance and economics, and my hope is
that I can talk across that gulf.
My need to understand is the same as yours,
whoever you are. That’s one of the strangest
ironies of this story: after decades in which the
ideology of the Western world was personally and
economically individualistic, we’ve suddenly been
hit by a crisis which shows in the starkest terms
that whether we like it or not—and there are large
parts of it that you would have to be crazy to like—
we’re all in this together. The aftermath of the
crisis is going to dominate the economics and
politics of our societies for at least a decade to
come and perhaps longer.
Q.48) According to the passage, the author is likely
to be supportive of which one of the following
programmes?
a) An educational curriculum that promotes
economic research.
b) An educational curriculum that promotes
developing financial literacy in the masses.
c) The complete nationalisation of all
financial institutions.
d) Economic policies that are more sensitively
calibrated to the fluctuations of the
market.
Q.49) All of the following, if true, could be seen as
supporting the arguments in the passage, except:
a) The story of the economic crisis is also one
about international relations, global
financial security, and mass psychology.
b) Economic crises could be averted by
changing prevailing ideologies and beliefs.
c) The failure of economic systems does not
necessarily mean the failure of their
ideologies.
d) The difficulty with understanding financial
matters is that they have become so
arcane.
Passage 5
With the Treaty of Westphalia, the papacy had
been confined to ecclesiastical functions, and the
doctrine of sovereign equality reigned. What
political theory could then explain the origin and
justify the functions of secular political order? In
his Leviathan, published in 1651, three years after
the Peace of Westphalia, Thomas Hobbes
provided such a theory. He imagined a “state of
nature” in the past when the absence of authority
produced a “war of all against all.” To escape such
intolerable insecurity, he theorized, people
delivered their rights to a sovereign power in
return for the sovereign’s provision of security for
all within the state’s border. The sovereign state’s
monopoly on power was established as the only
way to overcome the perpetual fear of violent
death and war.
Q.50) Which among the following best captures
the essence of the passage?
a) Thomas Hobbes theorized the voluntary
surrender of rights by people as essential
for emergence of sovereign states.
b) Thomas Hobbes theorized the emergence
of sovereign states as a form of
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transactional governance to limit the
power of the papacy.
c) Thomas Hobbes theorized the emergence
of sovereign states based on a
transactional relationship between people
and sovereign state that was necessitated
by a sense of insecurity of the people.
d) Thomas Hobbes theorized that sovereign
states emerged out of people’s voluntary
desire to overcome the sense of insecurity
and establish the doctrine of sovereign
equality.
Q.51) When in each box 5 or 6 dozens of apples
were packed, three dozens were left. Therefore,
bigger boxes were taken to pack 8 or 9 dozens of
apples. However, still dozens of apples remained.
What was the least number of dozens of apples to
be packed?
a) 343 dozens
b) 361 dozens
c) 363 dozens
d) 365 dozens
Q.52) There are four prime numbers written in
ascending order of magnitude. The product of the
first three is 7429 and last three is 12673. Find the
first number.
a) 19
b) 17
c) 13
d) 11
Q.53) Three partners shared the profit in a
business in the ratio 4:6:8. They had partnered for
12 months, 8 months and 6 months respectively.
What was the ratio of their investments?
a) 4:6:8
b) 4:7:8
c) 4:8:16
d) 4:9:16
Q.54) The speed of a stream is 1 kmph. A motor
boat goes 35 km upstream and back to the starting
point in 12 hours. The speed of the motor boat in
still water is
a) 8 kmph
b) 6 kmph
c) 7.5 kmph
d) 6.5 kmph
Q.55) The L.C.M of two numbers is 495 and their
H.C.F is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 100, then
their difference is
a) 10
b) 46
c) 70
d) 90
Q.56) When 0.36 is written in simplest form, the
sum of the numerator and the denominator is:
a) 15
b) 34
c) 64
d) 13
Q.57) 2 men and 7 boys can build a museum in 14
days; 3 men and 8 boys can build it in 11 days.
Then, 8 men and 6 boys can build three such
museums in how many days?
a) 18 days
b) 21 days
c) 24 days
d) 30 days
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Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read the following four passages and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
Passage 1
It is notable that power major NTPC has joined
hands with oil giant IOC to set up a series of
electric vehicle (EV) charging stations in cities and
along highways. There is much potential for India
to emerge as a leader in small and public EVs,
given high latent demand. The benefits in reducing
demand for imported crude oil can be huge, apart
from reducing carbon emissions and other air
pollutants.
The most effective way to bring down carbon
emissions and pollution from transport is to vastly
expand and improve public transport — buses are
just 2% of the vehicles on the road. That said, there
is much scope to replace India’s giant fleet of two-
wheelers with electric bikes. India has over 170
million two-wheelers, and sales data from the last
six years show that 79% of on-road vehicles here
are two-wheelers. It would make perfect sense to
boost supply of EVs, especially two-wheelers, e-
rickshaws, tempos and small cars, so as to
complement and supplement public transport
going forward. Estimates suggest that by meeting
a rising part of the incremental demand for
mobility, EVs can lead to macroeconomic benefits,
and sooner rather than later. Assuming only about
half a litre of petrol consumption per two-wheeler
daily, or about 200 litres annually, the volumes
would add up to over 30 billion litres. And the bill
for which, at current prices, would amount to well
over Rs 2 lakh crore.
In tandem, we need power reforms to rev up
utility realisations and strengthen the grid. India
also has an opportunity in supplying on-board
electric batteries. Swapping services to provide
charged batteries on lease would step-up diffusion
of EVs. A power-electronics industry ecosystem
would raise production and provide high-
efficiency subsystems for EVs. India must not miss
the bus on EVs.
Q.58) “There is much potential for India to emerge
as a leader in small and public EVs, given high
latent demand.” What can be logically deducted
from the given sentence?
1. Electric vehicles are less in developed
countries as compared to India.
2. India has not yet adopted electric vehicles
fully.
3. Indians are already demanding a huge
number of electric vehicles.
Choose the correct option
a) Only statement 3 is correct
b) Only statement 2 is correct
c) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
d) All the statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Q.59) From the given information, the tone of the
passage can be deduced as
a) Sarcastic
b) Caustic
c) Cynical
d) Laudatory
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Passage 2
The “who’s who” of universities and research
institutions published by the Human Resource
Development Ministry, as the National
Institutional Ranking Framework, 2018, should be
viewed mainly as a proposition that data makes it
possible to assign objective credentials to some
aspects of education. Its assessment of some of
the top institutions such as the Indian Institute of
Science, the Jawaharlal Nehru University, the IITs
and the IIMs is unsurprising, given their record of
research, peer-reviewed publications and
outcomes for graduates.
Even among the 3,954 institutions that
participated, there is a clear skew towards
southern, south-eastern and western India.
Participation levels are inadequate: there were
40,026 colleges and 11,669 standalone institutions
according to the HRD Ministry’s All India Survey on
Higher Education for 2016-17.
To the faculty and students in many colleges, what
matters is the vision of the administrative leaders
and a commitment to excellence. The governing
bodies should make available adequate financial
and academic resources to colleges, particularly
the younger ones, to help them improve
performance. These are measured by the NIRF in
terms of the percentage of faculty with doctoral
degrees, papers published in credentialed
journals, inclusivity and diversity of students, and
median salaries for the graduates.
Q.60) What does the author mean when he refers
to the universities and institutions as “Who’s
who”?
a) He is trying to understand ‘who’ the list
prepared by NIRF consists of
b) He is referring to the top institutions
among all institutions mentioned in the list
prepared by NIRF
c) He is asking the reader to fathom ‘who’
developed the list and the reasons behind
it
d) Both a and c
Q.61) Which of the following can be logically
deducted from the given passage?
1. There was a huge amount of participation
seen in NIRF 2018.
2. The ranking approach has been critiqued
for failing to capture the crucial metric of
learning outcomes.
3. NIRF’s assessment of the top notch
institutions was expected.
Chose the correct code
a) Only statement 3 is correct
b) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
c) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
d) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct
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Passage 3
Nature writing is nonfiction or fiction prose or
poetry about the natural environment. Nature
writing encompasses a wide variety of works,
ranging from those that place primary emphasis
on natural history facts (such as field guides) to
those in which philosophical interpretation
predominate. It includes natural history essays,
poetry, essays of solitude or escape, as well as
travel and adventure writing.
Nature writing often draws heavily on scientific
information and facts about the natural world; at
the same time, it is frequently written in the first
person and incorporates personal observations of
and philosophical reflections upon nature.
Modern nature writing traces its roots to the
works of natural history that were popular in the
second half of the 18th century and throughout
the 19th. An important early figure was the
"parson-naturalist" Gilbert White (1720 – 1793), a
pioneering English naturalist and ornithologist. He
is best known for his Natural History and
Antiquities of Selborne (1789).
Q.62) Which of the following statement best
summarizes the above passage?
a) The passage talks about the life and lessons
of Gilbert White, a profound naturalist and
ornithologist.
b) The passage talks about how the nature
writing is missing in the modern era and
needs to be revived.
c) The passage talks about from where the
writers draw inspiration for nature writing,
and how its importance is diminishing in
the modern era.
d) The passage talks about what nature
writing is, the different type of nature
writing, its style, and about the roots and
pioneer of modern nature writing.
Passage 4
Many sociologists have argued that there is
functional relationship between education and
economic system. They point to the fact that mass
formal education began in industrial society. They
note that the expansion of the economies of
industrial societies is accompanied by a
corresponding expansion of their educational
systems. They explain this correspondence in
terms of the needs of industry for skilled and
trained manpower, needs which are met by the
educational system. Thus, the provision of mass
elementary education in Britain in 1870 can be
seen as a response to the needs of industry for a
literate and numerate workforce at a time when
industrial processes were becoming more complex
and the demand for technical skills was steadily
growing.
Q.63) The industry needs a literate work-force
because
a) its expansion needs sound learning
b) it relies heavily on expertise
c) it promotes a competitive spirit
d) its operations need intricate technical
knowledge
Q.64) How many integers, greater than 999 but
not greater than 4000, can be formed with the
digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, if repetition of digits is
allowed?
a) 376
b) 375
c) 500
d) 673
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Q.65) If the price of a book is first decreased by
25% and then increased by 20%, then the net
change in the price will be:
a) 90
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Directions for the following two questions: Each
of the questions below starts with a few
statements, followed by four conclusions
numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to consider every
given statement as true, even if it does not
conform to the accepted facts. Read the
conclusions carefully and then decide which of the
conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.66) Statements:
I: Some boys are scholars
II: Some teachers are boys
III: All scholars are observers
Conclusions:
I: Some scholars are boys
II: Some scholars are not boys
III: Some observers are boys
IV: Some teachers are scholars
a) Only conclusion I and conclusion III follow
b) Either conclusion I or II and conclusion III
follow
c) Conclusions I, III, and IV follow
d) None of the above
Q.67) Statements:
I: All teachers are professors
II: All professors are researchers
III: All researchers are consultants
Conclusions:
I: Some consultants are teachers
II: All professors are consultants
III: Some researchers are teachers
IV: All professors are teachers
a) Only conclusion I and conclusion II follow
b) Either conclusion I or conclusion IV follow
c) Only conclusion I and conclusion III follow
d) None of the above
Q.68) In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of
two contestants A and B is 3:4. A has a start of 140
m. Then, A wins by:
a) 60m
b) 40m
c) 20m
d) 10m
Q.69) At a game of billiards, A can give B, 15 points
in 60 and A can give C, 20 points in 60. How many
points can B give C in a game of 90?
a) 30 points
b) 20 points
c) 10 points
d) 12 points
Q.70) The price of commodity X increases by 40
paise every year while the price of commodity Y
increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the
price of commodity X was Rs 4.20 and that of Y was
Rs 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40
paise more than the commodity Y?
a) 2010
b) 2011
c) 2012
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d) 2013
Q.71) There are two examination rooms A and B.
If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the
number of students in each room is the same. If 20
candidates are sent from B to A, then the number
of students in A is double the number of students
in B. The number of students in room A is:
a) 25
b) 60
c) 100
d) 120
Q.72) The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If
the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed
respectively in their salaries, then what will be new
ratio of their salaries?
a) 3 : 3 : 10
b) 10 : 11 : 20
c) 23 : 33 : 60
d) Cannot be determined
Q.73) What is the speed of the train?
Statement I: The train crosses a signal pole in 18
seconds.
Statement II: The train crosses a platform of equal
length in 36 seconds.
Statement III: Length of the train is 330 metres.
a) Statement I and II only are sufficient
b) Statement II and III only are sufficient
c) Statement I and III only are sufficient
d) Statement III and either Statements I or II
are sufficient
Q.74) Abhi faces towards north. Turning to his
right, he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left
and walks 30 metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to
his right. He then turns to his right again and walks
55 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and moves
40 metres. In which direction is he now from his
starting point?
a) South-west
b) South
c) North-west
d) South-east
Q.75) Two dice are tossed at the same time. The
probability that the total score is a prime number
is:
a) 1/15
b) 5/12
c) 3/14
d) 6/15
Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
Read the following three passages and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
Passage 1
India on Sunday rejected Pakistan’s allegation that
it had sought to “politicize” deliberations at the
Financial Action Task Force (FATF), which
concluded its plenary last week with more
strictures against Pakistan. According to sources,
the government has taken a strong view of
Pakistan’s accusation that India had launched a
“malicious campaign” to use the FATF’s process
for its own “narrow, partisan objectives” against
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Pakistan. Pakistan’s Foreign Ministry was, in turn,
responding to India’s statement that time was
running out for Islamabad to show action “Against
Money Laundering and Combating Financing of
Terror (AML/CFT)” by groups that pose a
transnational risk.
Calling Pakistan’s statement on politicisation a
“false ploy” meant to “deflect attention and evade
scrutiny of Pakistan’s poor compliance of global
standards on AML/CFT and hoodwink the global
community”, the government sources pointed to
Pakistan’s own attempts at trying to influence the
outcome of the FATF process, which has placed
the neighbour on a “grey list” of countries of
concern. In June 2018, the FATF decided
unanimously to put Pakistan on the grey list, and
hand it a 27-point action plan meant to be
implemented within 18 months (by September
2019). If it fails to fulfil its FATF commitments, it
could face the “next steps” or being moved to the
“blacklist”, the FATF has warned.
The sources say that instead of moving seriously
on the checklist, including shutting down support
for groups such as the Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-
e-Mohammad, Pakistan’s leadership has been
trying to influence FATF member countries for
support. At the most recent FATF plenary, where
proceedings are meant to be secret and taken by
consensus, Pakistan is believed to have received
the backing of China, Turkey and Malaysia to avert
being put on the blacklist immediately.
Q.76) Which among the following is correct
regarding the view of the FATF regarding Pakistan,
as given in the passage?
a) FATF has decided to ensure that there is no
such country called Pakistan with terrorist
origins so that other countries can be safe.
b) FATF believes that Pakistan should
implement strict measures against the
terrorist groups in their country.
c) FATF believes that India has no role to play
in the terrorist group funding in Pakistan
though Pakistan has alleged so.
d) FATF has warned India against bringing any
malicious proposal to the board of the
FATF in case Pakistan is the beneficiary.
Q.77) Which among the following can be
understood regarding the functioning of FATF
from the given passage?
1. FATF has no mechanism of putting
sanctions of any country without giving
them at least a couple of warnings.
2. FATF has got a particular time frame within
which a country that has been put under
observation should get into action and do
something worthwhile.
3. FATF works on the principle of consensus
between the member countries whenever
it comes to taking any important decision.
Choose the correct statements from below
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
b) Both statements 2 and 3 are correct
c) Only statement 3 is correct
d) Both statements 1 and 3 are correct
Passage 2
By winning the unanimous endorsement of the 55-
nation Asia-Pacific Group at the United Nations
Security Council, India has cleared an important
hurdle in its quest for a non-permanent seat for
2021-22. The decision of the grouping this week
was taken as India was the sole candidate for the
post. In the next step, all 193 members of the UN
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General Assembly will vote for five non-
permanent seats in June 2020, when India will
need to show the support of at least 129 countries
to go through to the UNSC. It will then occupy the
seat at the UNSC for a two-year period, as it has
previously on seven occasions since 1950-51.
There are several reasons why India decided to
pursue its candidature for 2021-22. The
government at the time had felt it was necessary
to have India’s voice at the high table as many
times as possible, and therefore began the process
for another seat shortly after it had ended its
previous tenure in 2011-2012. By rotation, that
seat would have reached India only in the 2030s,
and India had to reach out to Afghanistan, which
had put in its bid already for the 2021-22 slots, to
request it to withdraw. Afghanistan did so because
of the special relationship between the two
countries. India has a unique role to play at the
UNSC, given the near-complete polarization
among the permanent members (P-5 nations),
with the U.S., the U.K. and France on one side, and
Russia and China on the other. India’s ability to
work with both sides is well known. The year 2022
also has a sentimental value attached to it, as it
marks the 75th year of India’s Independence, and
a place at the UNSC would no doubt add to the
planned celebrations that year. Since 2013, when
it first announced the bid, the government has run
a quiet but consistent campaign towards this goal.
Q.78) Which among the following is the correct
equation between the P-5 Nations at the United
Nations Security Council?
a) The nations always support one another in
any endeavour by the global body on its
agenda.
b) The nations are divided among one
another since they do not find any
common solution to all the problems.
c) The nations are divided into two camps
and they are at odds with each other on
various issues.
d) The UNSC members are mainly concerned
about the broad security issues of the
world since they are tasked with that.
Passage 3
The RBI Annual Report reveals that almost all
demonetized notes have been returned to the
central bank. This number does not include the old
notes with District Central Cooperative Banks for
the short window when they were allowed to
accept deposits. It also does not include the notes
within Nepal. The shortfall of Rs 16,050 crore
between the notes in circulation when the notes
were demonetised and those that were returned,
could therefore also be made up once these notes
are returned to the RBI.
It should come as no surprise that almost all the
notes have been returned, including the stock of
black money held as cash. To the extent that it was
possible to exchange money legally, individuals did
so. When cash limits for withdrawal made it
difficult, friends and families participated. The
inconvenience of long queues was overcome by
household staff. A private company offered
booking of “chhotus”, who would stand in long
queues for people for Rs 90 an hour until their turn
came. Bank employees were averse to being
unhelpful to regular customers and found ways to
serve them. Innumerable ways were found to
work around the changing rules of exchange, cash
limits, indelible ink and specified uses of old notes.
Q.79) Which among the following can’t be inferred
from the given passage?
a) The notes returned include some stock of
black money as well.
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b) People came up with many innovative
ideas for exchanging money.
c) Bank employees were generally unhelpful
and reluctant to even serve their regular
customers.
d) Demonetization was utilized as a new
business opportunity.
Q.80) As per the passage, which factors are
responsible for the shortfall between notes before
demonetization and notes returned?
a) Old notes from neighbouring nations like
Nepal, Bangladesh and Pakistan.
b) Notes were smuggled overseas via hawala
transactions.
c) Money was laundered via fraudulent
investment in real estate.
d) Old notes that were deposited with District
Central Cooperative Banks were not
included.