Q No: 1

For shown situation, what will be the magnitude of minimum force in newton that can be applied in any direction so that the resultant force is along east direction?

(1)5 (2)4 (3)6 (4)8Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 2

A p–n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly :-

(1)1 × 1014 Hz(2)20 × 1014 Hz(3)10 × 1014 Hz(4)5 × 1014 Hz

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 3

A potentiometer circuit shown in the figure is set up to measure e.m.f. of a cell E. As the point P moves from X to Y the galvanometer G shows deflection always in one direction, but the deflection decreases continuosuly until Y is reached. In order to obtain balance point between X and Y it is necessary to

(1)Decrease the resistance R(2)Increase the resistance R(3)Reverse the terminals of battery V(4)Reverse the terminals of cell E

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 4

Two thin lenses of power +8D and –3D are put in contact with each other. Focal length of the

combination is :-(1)20m (2)–20m (3)5m (4)0.2m

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 5

An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic thermodynamic process through four steps. The amounts of heat involved in these steps are Q1 = 5960J, Q2 = –5585 J, Q3 = –2980 J and Q4 = 3645 J respectively. The corresponding quantities of work involved are W1 = 2200 J, W2 = –825 J, W3 = –1100 J and W4respectively. What is the efficiency of the cycle :-

(1)7.96%(2)10.82%(3)30.87%(4)20%

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 6

Out of the following four cases of projection where components along horizontal and vertical are given the maximum range is for :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 7

A rope ladder with a length ℓ carrying a man of mass m at its end is attached to the basket of balloon with a mass M. The entire system is in equilibrium in the air. As the man climbs up the ladder into the balloon, the baloon descends by a height h. Then the potential energy of the man:

(1)Increases by mg (ℓ – h)(2)Increases by mgℓ(3)Increases by mgh(4)Increases by mg (2ℓ – h)

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 8

Two parallel long wires carry current i1 and i2 with i1 > i2, When the currents are in the same direction, the magnetic field midway between the wires is 15μT. When the direction of i2 is reversed, it becomes 40μT, the ratio i1/i2 is

(1)3 : 4(2)11 : 7(3)7 : 11(4)11 : 5

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 9

Mark the wrong statement :-(1)Wavefront is the locus of same phase points(2)Wavefront can have only spherical or plane shapes(3)A line drawn perpendicular to the wavefront is called a ray of light(4)There is no experimental evidence for the existance of ether medium assumed by Huygen

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 10

A sonometer wire of length 1.5m is made of steel. The tension in it produces an elastic strain of 1%. What is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 respectively ?

(1)188.5 Hz(2)178.2 Hz(3)200.5 Hz(4)770 Hz

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 11

A body of mass 4 kg is acted on by a force which varies as shown in the graph below. The momentum acquired is

(1)280 N–s(2)140 N–s(3)70 N–s(4)210 N–s

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 12

A person A of 50 kg rests on a swing of length 1m making an angle 37º with the vertical. Another person B pushes him to swing on other side at 53º with vertical. The work done by person B is : [g = 10 m/s2]

(1)50 J(2)9.8 J(3)100 J(4)10 J

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 13

A long thin hollow metallic cylinder of radius 'R' has a current i ampere. The magnetic induction 'B'-away from the axis at a distance r from the axis varies as shown in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 14

If solid sphere and solid cylinder of same radius and density rotate about their own axis, the moment of inertia will be greater for (L = R) :-

(1)Solid sphere(2)Solid cylinder(3)Both(4)Equal both

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 15

An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. what is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency ?

(1)zero (2)0.5% (3)5% (4)20%

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 16

If s = 2t3 + 3t2 + 2t + 8 then Calculate time at which acceleration is zero -

(1)1 sec(2)2 sec(3)

sec(4)Acceleration will not zero at any time

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 17

Two identical spheres carrying charges –9μC and 5μC respectively are kept in contact and then separated from each other. Point out true statement from the following. In each sphere.

(1)1.25 × 1013 electrons are in deficit(2)1.25 × 1013 electrons are in excess(3)2.15 × 1013 electrons are in excess(4)2.15 × 1013 electrons are in deficit

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 18

A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation equal to T. Now it is broken into two equal halves (each having half of the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the

same field. If its period of oscillation if T', the ratio is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)2

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 19

In making an alloy, a substance of specific gravity s1 and mass m1 is mixed with another substance of specific gravity s2 and mass m2; then the specific gravity of the alloy is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 20

Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency ω along the x-axis. Their mean position is separated by distance X0(X0 > A). If the maximum separation between them is (X0 + A), the phase difference between their motion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 21

A ball of mass m hits the floor with a speed v making an angle of incidence θ = 45° with the normal to

the floor. If the coefficient of restitution e = , Calculate the speed of the reflected ball and the angle of reflection-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 22

Three identical metal plates with large surface areas are kept parallel to each other as shown in Fig. The leftmost plate is given a charge Q, the rightmost a charge –2Q and the middle one remains neutral. Find the charge appearing on the outer surface of the rightmost plate.

(1)–Q/4(2)–2Q(3)–Q(4)–Q/2

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 23

The radius of the circular conducting loop shown in figure is R. Magnetic field is decreasing at a constant rate α. Resistance per unit length of the loop is ρ. Then current in wire AB is (AB is one of the diameters) :-

(1)

from A to B(2)

B to A(3)

from A to B(4)zero

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 24

The speeds of air-flow on the upper and lower surfaces of a wing of an aeroplane are v1 and v2 respectively. If A is the cross-sectional area of the wing and 'ρ' is the density of air, then the upward lift is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 25

The height above the surface of earth where acceleration due to gravity reduces by 36% its value on the surface of earth is (R is radius of earth):

(1)

(2)

(3)R(4)

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 26

A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r under a centripetal force equal to , where K is constant. What is the total energy of the particle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 27

Two charge are released find kinetic energy of charge of mass m :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 28

A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving outward from the magnetic field then which plate of the capacitor will be positive :-

(1)Plate-A(2)Plate-B(3)Plate -A and Plate-B both(4)None

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 29

When fluids are heated from the bottom, convection currents are produced because :-(1)Molecular motion of fluid becomes aligned(2)Molecular collisions take place within the fluid(3)Heated fluid becomes more dense than the cold fluid above it(4)Heated fluid becomes less dense than the cold fluid above it

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 30

Two satellites A and B of masses M1 and M2 (M1 = 2M2) are moving in circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 4r2) respectively around the earth. If their time periods are TA and TB then the ratio TA/ TB is :

(1)4 (2)16 (3)2 (4)8

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 31

The logic operation carried out by the combination of the gates shown in the circuit its truth table will be :-

(1) A B Y0 0 00 1 11 0 11 1 1

(2) A B Y0 0 10 1 01 0 01 1 0

(3) A B Y0 0 01 0 10 1 11 1 0

(4) A B Y0 0 10 1 01 0 01 1 1

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 32

For the circuit in Fig., find the potential difference between points a and b :

(1)1.8V (2)zero (3)2.4V (4)4.8V

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 33

A resistor R, an inductor L, a capacitor C and voltmeters V1, V2 and V3 and are connected to an oscillator

in the circuit as shown in the adjoining diagram. When the frequency of the oscillator is increased, then at resonant frequency the reading of voltmeter V3 is equal to :-

(1)That of voltmeter V1

(2)That of voltmeters V2

(3)Both of the voltmeters V1 and V2

(4)None of these

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 34

Two rods of copper and brass having the same length and cross-section are joined end to end. The free end of the copper is at 0°C and of brass is at 80°C in steady state. If thermal conductivity of copper is 4 times of that of brass find the temp. at junction of two rods

(1)80°C(2)64°C(3)20°C(4)16°C

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 35

Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. The energy released during this process is (mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, Mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of electron = 9 × 10–

31 kg)(1)0.73 MeV(2)7.10 MeV(3)6.30 MeV(4)5.4 MeV

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 36

A particle moves along a circle of radius m with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begun, the tangential acceleration is :–

(1)40 ms–2

(2)640 π ms–2

(3)160 π ms–2

(4)40 π ms–2

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 37

If potential difference across 9Ω resistance is 4.5V then find value of I :-

(1)0.5A(2)2.25A(3)1.5A(4)0.1A

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 38

The cross-sectional areas of three magnets of equal length are A, 2A and 6A. The ratio of their magnetic moment will be :-

(1)6 : 2 : 1(2)1 : 2 : 6(3)1 : 4 : 6(4)36 : 4 : 1

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 39

A 2 gm bullet moving with a velocity of 200 m/s is brought to a sudden stoppage by an obstacle. The total heat produced goes to the bullet. If the specific heat of the bullet is 0.03 cal/gm-°C. The rise in its temperature will be :-

(1)158.0°C(2)15.80°C(3)1.58°C(4)0.158°C

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 40

If one starts with one curie of radioactive substance (T1/2 = 12 hrs) the activity left after a period of 1 week will be about

(1)1 curie(2)120 micro curie(3)60 micro curie(4)8 mili curie

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 41

An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms–1and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms–1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4ms–1, its mass would be :-

(1)3 kg(2)5 kg(3)7 kg(4)17 kg

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 42

What will be charge stored in capacitor in steady state condition.

(1)10 μc(2)15 μc(3)5 μc(4)Zero

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 43

For a biconvex lens, an image lies at same distance as the object is from lens; image is real and inverted. What can be said about the object :-

(1)Placed at focus(2)Placed between f and 2f(3)Placed at 2f(4)Placed at infinity

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 44

If average kinetic energy of oxygen molecules at 127°C is 2.4 × 10–20 joules, then calculate the average kinetic energy of the oxygen molecules at 250 K :-

(1)1.5 × 10–20 joule(2)3.84 × 10–20 joule(3)3 × 10–20 joule(4)None of these

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 45

Order of e/m ratio of proton, α-particle and electron is(1)e > p > α(2)p > α > e(3)e > α > p(4)None of these

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 46

For element atomic number 53 which oxidation state possibility is negligible :-(1)–5 (2)+5 (3)–1 (4)+1

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 47

Which match is wrong :-(1)Slag - calcium silicate(2)Smelting - reduction process(3)Basemerisation - extraction of copper

(4)Cupellation - extraction of copper

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 48

A certain zeroth order reaction has k = 0.025 M s–1 for the disappearance of A. What will be the concentration of A after 15 seconds if the initial concentration is 0.50 M ?

(1)0.50 M(2)0.375 M(3)0.125 M(4)0.060 M

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 49

If an element is in its maximum oxidation state, under proper conditions, it can act as :-(1)An reducing agent(2)An oxidising agent(3)Oxidising as well as reducing agent(4)Neither oxidizing nor reducing agent

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 50

The main product P in above reaction :-(1)Acetone(2)Acetone dicarboxylic acid(3)dihydroxy acetone(4)Cinnamic acid

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 51

IP1, IP2, IP3 & IP4 for an element are respectively 7.5, 20.6, 50.4, 190 eV then valance electron may be :-(1)1 (2)3 (3)2 (4)4

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 52

Correct statement regarding H2O and D2O is :-(1)Boiling point H2O = D2O(2)Surface tension D2O < H2O(3)Viscosity H2O > D2O(4)Solubility of ionic compound H2O < D2O

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 53

Consider following reaction,Zn + 2H+ → Zn2+ + H2

Half-lie period is independent of concentration of Zn at constant pH. At constant Zn concentration, half-life is 10 minuts at pH = 2 and half-life is 100 minutes at pH = 3. Hence, rate law is :

(1)k[Zn] [H+](2)k[Zn] [H+]2

(3)k[Zn]0 [H+](4)k[Zn]0 [H+]2

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 54

In which of the following reactions the underlined substance is oxidized ?(1)3Mg + N2 → Mg3N2

(2)2KI + Br2 → 2KBr + I2(3)H2 + Br2 → 2HBr(4)2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + 3S

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 55

The product in following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)none

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 56

Which hydride represents bridge bond :-(1)LiH(2)NaH(3)BaH2

(4)BeH2

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 57

Which one is a basic ligand :-(1)F–

(2)CN–

(3)NH3

(4)All of these

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 58

Milk turns sour at 40°C three times as faster as 0°C. Hence Ea in cal of process of turning of milk sour is :(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)None of the above

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 59

Reaction N2O3 NO + NO 2 was studied by taking 2 mole L–1 of N2O3 initially. At equilibrium degree of dissociation of N2O3 was found to be 10%. What is the ratio of equilibrium concentrations of [N2O3], [NO] and [NO2] :-

(1)19 : 1 : 1(2)9 : 1 : 1(3)1 : 1 : 9(4)18 : 1 : 1

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 60

IUPAC name of is :-(1)dimethyl amine(2)2-aminopropane(3)isopropyl amine(4)2-propanamine

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 61

Correct solubility order is :-(1)BeSO4 < MgSO4

(2)BeF2 < MgF2

(3)NaHCO3 < KHCO3

(4)all of these

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 62

Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] + Na2S → Na4[Fe NOS]Here oxidation state of Fe changes from :-

(1)+2 → +3(2)+2 → +4(3)+3 → +2

(4)No change

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 63

All of the water in a 0.20 M solution of NaCl was evaporated and a 0.150 mole of NaCl was obtained. What was the original volume of the sample ?

(1)30 mL(2)333 mL(3)750 mL(4)1000 mL

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 64

The pH of a solution is zero. The solution is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 65

(1)resonating structures(2)tautomers(3)geometrical isomers(4)optical isomers

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 66

In which property S-show difference between SF4 and SOCl2 :-(1)Number of lone pair(2)Oxidation number(3)Bond polarity(4)Covalency

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 67

[CO(NH3)4Br2Cl] shows which isomerism :-(1)Geometrical & ionisation(2)Optical & ionisation(3)Geometrical & optical(4)Only geometrical

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 68

An aqueous solution of a solute AB has b.p. of 101.08°C (AB is 100% ionised at boiling point of the solution) and freezes at –1.80°C. Hence, AB (Kb/Kf = 0.3)

(1)Is 100% ionised at the f.p. of the solution(2)behaves as non-electrolyte at the f.p. of the solution(3)forms dimer(4)none of the above

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 69

The major product of mononitration of p-methyl anisole is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 70

Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers ?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 71

In octahedral geometry involved d-orbitals are :-(1)dxy, dyz, dxz(2)dx2-y2, dz2

(3)dx2-y2, dxz(4)dz2, dxy

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 72

Effective atomic number of Mn in Mn2(CO)10 is(1)33 (2)35 (3)37 (4)36

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 73

The pressure of gas having 2 moles in 44.8 L vessel at 540 K is :-(1)1 atm(2)2 atm(3)3 atm(4)4 atm

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 74

Identify (z) in following sequence of reaction :-

(1)CH3 = CH2 – OSO3H(2)CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

(3)CH2 = CH2

(4)CH3 – CH2 – OH

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 75

Oxidation of A gives p-benzoquinone; A can be:-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 76

pH of alum is :-(1)< 7 (2)= 7 (3)> (4)14

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 77

The reaction A Products, is zero order while the reaction B Products, is 1st order. For what initial concentration of A the half lives of the two reactions are equal ?

(1)2M(2)ℓn 2M(3)2 log 2M(4)2 ℓn 2M

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 78

The radius of Na+ ion is 116 pm and that of Cl– ion is 167 pm. The volume of NaCl unit cell is:-(1)1.34 × 10–22 cm3

(2)1.81 × 108 cm3

(3)1.81 × 102 cm3

(4)1.81 × 10–8 cm3

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 79

Which of the following amines will not give carbylamine reaction :-(1)C2H5 – NH2

(2)CH3 – NH – CH3

(3)CH3 – NH2

(4)C6H5 – NH2

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 80

Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene by polymerisation ?(1)

(2)CF2 = CF2

(3)CH2 = CHCl(4)CCl2 = CCl2

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 81

Most reactive form of C is :-(1)diamond(2)graphite(3)coal(4)charcoal

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 82

For the reaction A + 2B → products (started with concentrations taken in stoichiometric proportion), the experimentally determined rate law is

The half time of the reaction would be(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)not defined

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 83

Which quantum no. is not related with schrodinger's equation :-(1)Principal(2)Azimuthal(3)Magnetic(4)Spin

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 84

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between but-1-yne and but-2-yne :-(1)Cl2/AlCl3(2)Ag+

(3)Br2/CCl4(4)KMnO4

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 85

Which destroy antigens ?(1)Insulin(2)Antibodies(3)Chromoprotein(4)Phosphoprotein

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 86

Which shows maximum decomposition temperature :-(1)AsH3

(2)PH3

(3)NH3

(4)SbH3

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 87

Consider the following reactions at 300 K.A → B (uncatalysed reaction)A B (catalyst reaction)

The activation energy is lowered by 8.314 KJ mol–1 for the catalysed reaction. How many times the rate of this catalysed reaction greater than that of uncatalysed reaction ?

(1)15 times(2)18 times(3)22 times(4)28 times

Correct Answer : 4

Q No: 88

The shape of an orbital is given by the quantum no. :-(1)n (2)ℓ (3)m (4)s

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 89

Which of the following will give iodoform test :-(1)CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH(2)

(3)

(4)CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 90

Which of the following is an antidiabetic drug :-(1)Penicillin(2)Insulin(3)Aspirin(4)Chloroquine

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 91

The structure marked as 'A' in figure secretes harmone :-

(1)hCG(2)Progesterone(3)Relaxin(4)Progesterone and relaxin

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 92

Brush border epithelium has :-(1)Villi(2)Microvilli(3)Cilia(4)Flagella

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 93

Which of the following events can change frequency of genes and alleles in future generation(1)Mutation(2)Gene recombination(3)Gene flow(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 94

Growth is found in both livings and nonlivings, but the growth in nonlivings is from :-(1)Inside(2)Outside(3)Both outside and inside

(4)None of the above

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 95

Which one is the most common species of honey bee that is widely used in rearing ?(1)Apis dorsata(2)Apis indica(3)Apis mellipera(4)Apis florea

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 96

During meiosis homologous pair in pachytene is reffered to as ............ becoz each homologous pair is made up of ........... chromatid :-

(1)Bivalent, two(2)Tetravalent, two(3)Tetrad, four(4)Hexad, Four

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 97

How many families are included in spermatophyta division by Bentham & Hooker ?(1)199 (2)165 (3)202 (4)3

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 98

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?(A) Poikilothermous - Birds and Mammals(B) Cyclostomates - Petromyzon and Myxine(C) Tunicates - Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum(D) Cartilaginous fishes - Beta and Labeo

(1)A and B(2)A, B and C(3)B and C(4)A, B and D

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 99

What is not true :-Due to increased CO2 concentration in atmosphere

(1)The rate of photosynthesis will increase(2)Enhance fixation of N2 in root nodules(3)Water use efficiency will increase(4)Stomatal conductance will increase

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 100

Which is the floral formula of fabaceae ?(1)

% K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1

(2) K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2)

(3) P3+3 A3+3 G(3)

(4) K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 101

The number of chromosome present in cell A, B and C of diagram is respectively :-

(1)40, 20, 20(2)46, 23, 23(3)23, 23, 46(4)23, 46, 23

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 102

Common between arthritis and gout is :-(1)Both are age related disorders(2)Both are characterised by decreased bone mass(3)Both are autoimmune disorders(4)Both are inflammation of joints

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 103

Which of the following symbol is used for five unaffected offspring?(1)(2)(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 104

Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution -(A) The thron and tendrils of Bougainvillea and cucurbita(B) Fore limbs of whales and cheetah(C) Flippers of penguin and Dolphins(D) Eyes of octopus and mammals(E) Potato and Sweet Potato

(1)A, C and E(2)A, B and E(3)A, B, D and E(4)A and B

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 105

When superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed than this method of animal breeding is known as :-

(1)Inbreeding(2)Interspecific hybridization(3)Out crossing(4)Crossbreeding

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 106

Match the correct options :- Column-I Column-IIA Metacentric 1 Equal armsB Telocentric 2 1 Short and 1 Long armsC Acrocentric 3 Terminal centromereD Submetacentric 4 Extremely short and one very long

Which of following options is not incorrect :-(1)A-1, B-4(2)C-4, A-1(3)C-2, D-4(4)D-2, B-4

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 107

Who stated that "Taxonomy without phylogeny is like bones without flesh" ?(1)A.P. de Candolle(2)Takhtajan(3)Linnaeus(4)Bentham & Hooker

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 108

Distinguishing character of tunicates are -(1)Notochord is present only in larval tail(2)The Notochord is replaced by a vertebral column(3)Kidney for excretion and osmoregulation(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 109

Choose the incorrect match :-(1)Marsh – Grass like plant domination(2)Swamps – Amphibious plants(3)Alpha diversity – Diversity between two communities(4)Esturies – Highly productive ecosystems

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 110

Read the following statement and find out how many statements are correct ?(i) Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem(ii) In Alstonia whorled phyllotaxy is present(iii) In neem, palmately compound leaves occurs(iv) Tuber is a modification of stem

(1)1 (2)2 (3)3 (4)4

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 111

Emergency contraceptive should be administered within :-(1)72 hours(2)60 days(3)30 minutes(4)82 hours

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 112

The maximum volume of air a person can breath in, after d forced expiration :-(1)TV + ERV(2)TV + IRV(3)TV + ERV + IRV(4)ERV + RV

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 113

If blood group of mother is A and father is B then ratio of blood group of offspring A : AB : B : O will be?(1)2 : 2 : 0 : 0(2)0 : 0 : 4 : 0(3)1 : 1 : 1 : 1(4)All of these

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 114

Man has bred selected plants and animals for agriculture, horticulture, sport or security. Man has domesticated many new breeds of animals and crops. This intensive breeding programme is known as :-

(1)Natural selection(2)Sexual selection(3)Artificial selection(4)Differential reproduction

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 115

Which is the severest form of allergy-(1)Hay fever(2)Asthma(3)Anaphylactic shock(4)urticaria

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 116

Through nucleur pore movement of RNA and protein takes place in :-(1)Only from nucleus to cytoplasm(2)Only from cytoplasm to nucleus(3)In both direction(4)Never move

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 117

Which of the following structure is helpful for conjugation in bacteria ?(1)Flagella(2)Sex pili(3)Shorter pili(4)Slime layer

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 118

Which one of the following groups of animals is amniotes and endothemic ?(1)Tunicates(2)Birds(3)Bony fishes(4)Amphibians

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 119

Which of the following statements is false ?(1)Ecotype differs from each other, on the basis of morphological and physiological characters(2)In hydrosere, the colonisation by land plants is usually progresses from margins towards centre

(3)Low amount of nutrient in rain forests is stored in the tall vegetation, where the nutrient storage in soil is higher

(4)Vertical stratification leads to increase in number of species, also efficient use of resources of a habitat by different type of plants

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 120

What glycolytic product is shuttled to the mitochondria in aerobic respiration ?(1)Acetyl Co-A(2)Fumarate(3)Succinyl Co-A(4)Pyruvate

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 121

Match the following Column-I Column-IIA 1 Prevent ovulation

B

2 Also Prevent STD

C

3 Prevent fertilization

D

4 Prevent implantation

(1)A–4 B–2 C–1 D–3(2)A–2 B–4 C–1 D–3(3)A–1 B–2 C–4 D–3(4)A–2 B–1 C–4 D–3

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 122

The chloride content of RBC will be higher than that of plasma in :-(1)Systemic arteries and pulmonary veins(2)Systemic veins and pulmonary arteries(3)Systemic arteries and pulmonary arteries(4)Systemic veins and pulmonary veins

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 123

Morgan and his group found that when genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were very tightly linked and showed -

(1)Very low recombination(2)Higher recombination(3)No recombination(4)100% parental combination

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 124

According to industrial melanization phenomenon, in rural areas where industrialisation did not occur, which of the following is true :-

(1)The count of melanic moths was low(2)The count of white winged moth was low(3)The white winged moth were picked out by predators(4)The count of black winged moth was high

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 125

Street virus effects-(1)Kidney(2)CNS(3)Lungs(4)Eyes

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 126

Glycosidic bond is not present in which of the following type of compounds :-(a) Nucleic acids(b) Nucleotides(c) Monosaccharides(d) Polypeptides

(1)a, b and d(2)c and d(3)b and d(4)d only

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 127

Origin of ascospore and basidiospore :-(1)Endogenous, Endogenous respectively(2)Exogenous, Exogenous respectively(3)Endogenous, Exogenous respectively(4)Exogenous, Endogenous respectively

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 128

Camelus and Elephas are the members of class mammalia bearing which of the following characters ?(1)They are found in deserts and forests(2)They are viviparous with direct development(3)They have external ears/pinnae(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 129

Which type of treatment is applied for the removal of Pathogen in water :-(1)Primary treatment(2)Secondary treatment(3)Tertiary treatment(4)None of these

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 130

In superoxide dis mutase 1, an enzyme implicated in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a copper ion is bound to the active site and is important for enzyme activity. In this enzyme, copper most likely functions as a(n) :-

(1)Coenzyme(2)Cofactor(3)Allosteric activator(4)Allosteric inhibitor

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 131

Which statement is incorrect regarding the organ shown in above diagram :-(1)It is J-shape organ(2)It's mucosa contains oblique muscle layer(3)It can absorb simple sugars and alcohol(4)It secrete HCl and enzymes

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 132

Mark the incorrectly matched pair regarding the structure with its location and functions :-(1)Otolith organs – Located in utriculus and sacculus, and is related with static equilibrium.(2)Organ of corti – Located on basilar membrane and contains hair cells that acts as auditory

receptors.(3)Visual cortex area – Located on temporal lobe where sight impulses are analysed and retinal image

is recognised.(4)Ear ossicles – Located in middle ear cavity and increases efficieny of transmission of sound waves

to the inner ear.

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 133

Which statement is not true for Drosophila melanogaster?(1)They complete their life cycle in about two weeks(2)Single mating produce large number of progeny flies(3)It has few hereditary variation that can be seen with high power microscope(4)It has clear differentiation of the sex

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 134

Which of the following is correctly matched :-(1)Survival of the fittest : Lamarck(2)Evolution is irreversible : Oparin(3)Spontaneous generation : Darwin(4)Big-Bang theory : Lemaitre

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 135

Which of the following disease is spread by mosquito but not caused by virus-(1)Dengue fever(2)Yellow fever(3)Filariasis(4)Chicken Pox

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 136

During replication of DNA new deoxyribose nucleotides are added one by one in 5' → 3' direction by phosphodiester bond formation. In this bond formation the source of energy is :-

(1)NADH + H+

(2)GTP(3)deoxyribose nucleoside triphosphate(4)DNA polymerase enzyme

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 137

Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks with appropriate words/ terms.In pteridophytes the main plant body is a (A) which bears sporangia that are subtended by leaf like appendages called (B) . The sporangia produce spores by (C) and after germination of spores, they give rise to photosynthetic gametophytes called (D) . Choose the correct option

(1)A-Sporophyte, B-Sporangia, C-meiosis, D-Protonema(2)A-Gametophyte, B-Sporophylls, C-mitosis, D-Protonema(3)A-Sporophyte, B-Sporophylls, C-meiosis, D-Prothallus(4)A-Gametophyte, B-Sporophylls, C-mitosis, D-Prothallus

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 138

Which one of the following class is incorrectly matched with its two general characters ?(1)Cyclostomata → closed circulation and 6-15 pairs of gill slits(2)Chondrichthyes → Airbladder, Operculum

(3)Reptilia → Cornified skin, direct development(4)Amphibia → External fertilisation, indirect develoment

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 139

Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services, the soil formation accounts for about(1)70% (2)30% (3)50% (4)10%

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 140

Which statement about ATP synthesis is false ?(1)ATP is synthesised only in chloroplasts and mitochondria(2)ATP synthesis in the chloroplast occurs in the thylakoid region(3)Proton motive force drives the formation of ATP(4)Substrate level phosphorylation does not require ATP synthase

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 141

Select the correct option regarding the structures shown in the adjacent figure :-

(1)Muscularis – contains glands(2)Serosa – contains no epithelium(3)Submucosa – contains brunner's gland in duodenum(4)Mucosa – contains symbiotic bacteria in stomach

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 142

Consider the following facts regarding the structures labelled as alphabets in the adjacent diagram of human brain and choose the correct option :-

(i) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.(ii) When get blocked, it may lead to enlargement of the head.(iii) Related with visual and auditory reflexes.(iv) Contains regulatory centres for respiration, cardio-vascular reflexes and gastric secretions

(1)i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D(2)i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-E(3)i-B, ii-C, iii-E, iv-F(4)i-C, ii-B, iii-E, iv-A

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 143

Which of the following technique is used for separation and isolation of DNA fragments -(1)RFLP(2)Gel electrophoresis(3)PCR - technique(4)Cloning

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 144

Some scientists believe that life come out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc. This is known as :-

(1)Theory of Panspermia(2)Chemical evolution(3)Spontaneous generation(4)Big-Bang theory

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 145

Leukemia is a cancer of-(1)Skin(2)RBC(3)Leucocyte(4)colon

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 146

Which of the following is correct for R-group and type of amino acid

(1)R = H → Glycine and R = –CH3 → Serine(2)R = –CH3 → Alanine and R = –CH2–OH → Serine(3)R = –CH2–OH → Alanine and R = –CH3 → Serine(4)R = H → Alanine and R = –CH3 → Serine

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 147

Identify the following figures :

(1)A-Aspergillus, B-Volvox, C-Selaginella(2)A-Agaricus, B-Volvox, C-Selaginella(3)A-Aspergillus, B-Chlamydomonas, C-Salvinia(4)A-Agaricus, B-Chlamydomonas, C-Equisetum

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 148

Mark the correct statement -

(1)All condrichthyes are marine with streamlined body(2)Chelone and Testudo are able to maintain a constant body temperature(3)Amphibians and reptiles have mesonephric kidneys.(4)All mammals have placenta

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 149

Photochemical smog in metropolitan cities is mainly caused by which gas ?(1)N2O(2)SO2

(3)NO2

(4)NO

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 150

The main effect of cytokinins in plants is to :-(1)Prevent the growth of lateral buds(2)Stimulate cell division(3)Improve the quality of fruits(4)Regulate opening and closing of stomata

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 151

Villi is absent in the mucosa of :-(1)Oesophagus(2)Pharynx(3)Rectum(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 152

Select the incorrect statement for RFLP :-(1)It is the basis of DNA fingerprinting(2)It is due to variable length of restricted fragment.(3)It is due to variable number of minisatellite.

(4)It is same for all human beings.

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 153

In which of the following sex is determined by female individual?(1)Human(2)Drosophila(3)Birds(4)Grass-hopper

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 154

About 2 million years ago ........ probably lived in East African grassland. They hunted with stone weapons. There brain capacity was about ....... cc

(1)Homo erectus, 900(2)Homo habilis, 650-800(3)Australophithecus, 600(4)Homo sapians, 1400

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 155

Which of the following is included in physical factor of inducing cancers-(1)Tobacco(2)oncovirus(3)Kangri(4)Cigarrette

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 156

Some proteins and their associated functions are given below. Identify the correct matching. Protein FunctionsA Collagen 1 EnzymeB Insulin 2 Enables glucose transport into cellsC Trypsin 3 HormoneD GLUT-4 4 Intercellular ground substance(1)A–4 B–2 C–3 D–1

(2)A–3 B–1 C–2 D–4(3)A–4 B–3 C–1 D–2(4)A–3 B–2 C–1 D–4

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 157

Find the group of bacteria in which all are nitrogen fixing :-(A) Nitrosomonas Strptococcus Lactobacillus(B) Rhizobium Azotobacter Nostoc(C) Nitrobacter Streptcoccus Nitrosomonas(D) Clostridium Rhizobium Lactobacillus(1)A (2)B (3)C (4)D

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 158

Which one is considered as gregarious pest ?(1)Locusta(2)Laccifer(3)Aedes(4)Bombyx

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 159

Which condition is shown in above diagram ?(1)Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver(2)Multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil of Papaver(3)Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Michelia(4)Multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil of Michelia

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 160

The conversion of...........element to form useful to plants that occurs as a result of the activity of bacteria is :-

(1)Carbon(2)Oxygen(3)Phosphorus(4)Nitrogen

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 161

Match the following Column-I Column-IIA Compound organ 1 Fibrous SheathB Cystic duct 2 Hepatic lobulesC Glisson's capsule 3 PancreasD Structural unit 4 Carry bile(1)A–3 B–4 C–1 D–2(2)A–2 B–3 C–1 D–4(3)A–4 B–3 C–2 D–1(4)A–3 B–4 C–2 D–1

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 162

EST in human genome are :-(1)Regulatory sequences(2)Genes that expressed as RNA(3)Repetative sequences(4)(1) & (3) both

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 163

Which is ofcourse not capable of reproducing or replicating by itself :-(1)All plants(2)All animals(3)All plants and animals(4)All non living objects

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 164

Which characters of maize plant provide resistant for 'Maize stem borer' pest ?(1)High Aspartic acid(2)Low nitrogen content(3)Low sugar content(4)All of these

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 165

Which of the following is an example of ELISA-(1)Torniquet test(2)HCG test during pregnancy(3)WIDAL test(4)Mantoux test

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 166

Many of the compounds produced by microbes and plants do not have identifiable functions in their host organisms. Such compounds are called

(1)drugs(2)primary metabolites(3)alkaloids(4)secondary metabolites

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 167

Select the pair of structures, which are common in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes:-(1)Cell membrane and lysosome(2)Cell wall and mitochondria(3)Cell membrane and Ribosomes(4)Microbodies and Sap vacuole

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 168

Mantle cavity of molluscs contain(1)Alimentry canal(2)Gills(3)Lungs(4)Kidneys

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 169

Phloem is composed of sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres in :-

(1)Bryophytes(2)Pteridophytes(3)Gymnosperms(4)Angiosperms

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 170

Which of the following is not applicable for plant growth ?(1)It is open as well as determinate(2)It is open as well as indeterminate(3)It is open as well as localised(4)It is neither closed nor determinate

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 171

Select the incorrect :-(1)Monoglyceride Fatty acid + Glycerol(2)Lactose Glucose + Galactose(3)Maltose Glucose + Glucose(4)Diglyceride Triglyceride + Glycerol

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 172

For the isolation of DNA, which enzyme is used to treat plant cells ?

(1)Lysozyme(2)Cellulase(3)Chitinase(4)Cutinase

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 173

Which of the followings can not be an all inclusive defining characters of living organisms :-(1)Cellular organisation(2)Metabolism(3)Consciousness(4)Reproduction

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 174

Breeding crop with higher levels of nutrients, to improve public health is called :-(1)Organic farming(2)Biofortification(3)Bio informatics(4)Genetic engineering

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 175

Painfull swelling of parotid gland, testis can lead to sterlity in which of the following disease-(1)Elephantiasis(2)Ascariasis(3)Mumps(4)Gonorrhoea

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 176

Consider the following statements :-(A) Intrinsic growth can be taken as defining property of living(B) Reproduction is not found in any non living object(C) No non-living object shows metabolism(D) For unicellular organisms, the growth and reproduction are synonym

How many of the above statement are not correct?(1)Two (2)Three (3)Four (4)Zero

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 177

Correct sequence of steps in fungi during sexual reproduction :(1)Karyogamy → Meiosis → Plasmogamy(2)Plasmogamy → Meiosis → Karyogamy(3)Meiosis → Plasmogamy → Karyogamy(4)Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis

Correct Answer: 4

Q No: 178

Which is not a function of ecosystem ?(a) Energy flow(b) Mineral cycle(c) Productivity(d) Life form

(1)a, b(2)Only d(3)Only c(4)b, d

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 179

Which one of the following is not correct ?(1)Early wood is characterised by large number of xylary elements(2)Early wood is characterized by vessels with wider cavities(3)Late wood is characterised by large number of xylary elements(4)Late wood is characterised by vessels with narrower cavities

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 180

Root pressure can be observed during :-(1)Guttation(2)Bleeding

(3)Active absorption of water(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 4

Solution:4.

Solution:

5.

Solution:

8.

Solution:

10.

Solution:

13.

Solution:

18.

Solution:

19.

Solution:

23.

Solution:

24.

Solution:

25.

Solution:

28.

Solution:

30.

Solution:

32.

Solution:

33.

Solution:

34.

Solution:

38.

Solution:

39.

Solution:

44.

Solution:

Solution:

46.

Solution:

51.

Solution:

55.

Solution:

56.

Solution:

69.

Solution:

72.

Solution:

73.

Solution:

76.

Solution:

79.

Solution:

86.Solution:

89.

Solution: