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INSTRUCTIONS :(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only

PHYSICS

1. In the relation z

kP e

, where P is pressure, Z

is distance, K is Boltzmann constant and istemperature. The dimensional formulae of willbe–

(1) o 2 o[M L T ] (2) 2ML T

(3) o 1ML T (4) o 2 1M L T

2. A bird is flying 3m due east, then 4m in north andfinally 5m in upward directions, the magnitude ofdisplacement of bird is–

(1) 5m (2) 5 2m(3) 5 3m (4) 10m

3. In y = a – b, if percentage errors in measurementof a and b are 2% and 3%. The maximumpercentage error in y If a = 5m and b = 3m, is(1) 5%(2) –1%(3) 1%(4) 9.5%

4. A ball is dropped from the roof of a building reachthe ground in 5 s. If ball is stopped after 3 s of itsfall and then allowed to fall again then the timetaken by the ball to reach ground for the remainingheight, is(1) 1 s (2) 2 s

(3) 3 s (4) 4 s5. If a body losses half of its velocity on penetrating

3cm in a wooden block, then how much will itpenetrate more before coming to rest?(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm

6. A boat which has speed of 5 kmh–1 in still water,crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortestpossible path in 15 min. The velocity of the riverwater is–

(1) 1 kmh–1

(2) 3 kmh–1

(3) 4 kmh–1

(4) 141 kmh

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST-29

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Home Assignment-29 (CST-29)

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

10 The variation of momentum P with time t of one

of the body in a two body collision is shown infigure. The instantaneous force is maximumcorresponding to point–

P

t

PQ

RS

(1) P (2) Q(3) R (4) S

11. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30° with thehorizontal. A ring is rolling down this inclined planefrom rest without slipping. The linear accelerationof ring is

(1)2g3 (2)

g2

(3)g3 (4)

g4

12. One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circulardisc of radius R. This sector has mass ‘M’. It ismade to rotate about an axis perpendicular to itsplane and passing through the centre of originaldisc. The moment of inertia about the axis ofrotation is

(1) 21MR2 (2) 21MR

4

(3) 21MR8 (4) 22MR

13. A body is projected up from the surface of the

earth with a velocity equal to 3 th4

of escape

velocity. The maximum height attained by bodyfrom surface is (R is radius of earth).

(1)3R10 (2)

9R7

(3)8R5 (4)

9R5

7. In the diagram given below spring constant of thespring is 100 N/m. Extension produced in thespring in equilibrium is (g = 10 m/s2)

3Kg

3Kg

K

(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm

8. In the figure given below co-efficient of frictionbetween masses m1 and m2 is and that betweenm1 and the wall is zero. A force F is pressing thesystem against the wall. Minimum value of forcerequired to hold the system in equilibrium is

m1m2F

(1) m1g

(2) m2g

(3) (m1 + m2)g

(4) system can not held in equilibrium

9. A body of mass m starts from rest and acquires avelocity v in time ‘t’. The work done on the bodyby the force in time T is

(1)vm Tt

(2)2

2 .vm Tt

(3)2

22 .

2m v T

t(4)

2 2v Tmt

(3)

Complete Syllabus Test - 29

14. If two satellites of different masses are revolving inthe same orbit, they have the same–(1) angular momentum (2) energy(3) time period (4) none of the above

15. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L isimmersed in two non-mixing liquids having densityd and 2d with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid

interface with length 4L

in the denser liquid as

shown in the figure. Then density of material ofcylinder is

d

2dL4

(1)5 d4

(2)4 d5

(3) 4d (4)d5

16. There are two holes O1 and O2 in a tank of heightH. The water emerging from O1 and O2 strikes theground at the same points, as shown in figure, then

h2

h1

H O2

O1

(1) H = h1 + h2 (2) H = h2 – h1

(3) H = h1.h2 (4) 2

1

hHh

17. A wire of length L and radius r is fixed at one endand force F is applied at the other end, producesan extension y. The extension produced in anotherwire of the same material of length 2L and radius2r by a force 2F is(1) y (2) 2y

(3) 2y

(4)4y

18. A ball of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ is released in air.The value of its terminal velocity is proportional to

(1)1r

only (2)mr

(3)1/2m

r (4) m only

19. Masses m and 3m are attached to the two endsof a spring of spring constant ‘k’. If system vibratesfreely, the period of oscillation is

(1)mk

(2)3m2k

(3)3mk

(4)m2k

20. Two particles are executing simple harmonicmotion of same amplitude and same frequencyalong the same line. They pass each other whengoing in opposite directions every time withdisplacement half of their amplitude. Phasedifference between the particles is

(1) 3

(2)4

(3) 6

(4)23

21. A transverse progressive wave is given by theequation

2cos 0.5 200y x t ( x and y are in cm)

Which of the following statements is true?(Here represents wavelength, v velocity of wave,A amplitude and f is frequency of wave)(1) = 2cm and v = 400 cm/s(2) = 2cm and A = 2cm(3) = 4cm and f = 100 Hz(4) = 2cm and f = 200Hz

22. Fundamental frequency of a sonometer wirecarrying a block of mass 1kg and density1.8 gm/cm3 is 260Hz. When the block iscompletely immersed in a liquid of density1.2 gm/cm3, then the new frequency will be–(1) 150 Hz(2) 300 Hz(3) 450 Hz(4) 75 Hz

23. 10g of ice at –20°C is dropped into a calorimetercontaining 10g of water at 10°C, the specific heatof water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium isreached, the calorimeter will contain(1) 20g of water(2) 20g of ice(3) 10g ice and 10g water(4) 5g ice and 15g water

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

24. A sphere and cube of same material and samevolume are heated upto the same temperature andallowed to cool in the same surrounding. The ratioof the amount of radiations emitted will be

(1) 1 : 1 (2)4 :13

(3)1/3

: 16

(4)2/31 4 :1

2 3

25. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volumeuntil its pressure is doubled. It is again heated atconstant pressure until its volume is doubled. Themolar heat capacity for the whole process is

(1)23R

5 (2)19R

5

(3)13R

4(4)

19R6

26. A thin semicircular ring of radius ‘r’ has a positivecharge q distributed uniformly over it. The netelectric field E

at the centre ‘O’ is

O i

j

(1) 2 20

ˆ2

q jr (2) 2 2

0

ˆ4

q jr

(3) 2 20

ˆ4

q jr

(4) 2 2

0

ˆ2

q jr

27. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other

of capacity C2 , are connected in parallel to a

battery of the V volt as shown. The work done bybattery in charging fully both the condensers is

V C/2C

(1) CV2 (2) 21 CV4

(3) 23 CV4

(4) 23 CV2

28. A 5 volt battery with internal resistance 2 and 2Vbattery with internal resistance 1 are connectedto a 10 resistor as shown in figure. The currentin 10 resistor is

10

2

1

5V 2V

Q

P

(1) 0.27 A, P to Q (2) 0.20 A, Q to P(3) 0.03 A, P to Q (4) 0.28 A, Q to P

29. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor ofnon-uniform cross-section. The quantity whichremain constant along the length of the conductoris(1) Current, electric field and drift speed(2) Drift speed only(3) Current and drift speed(4) Current only

30. An electron and a proton enters a uniformmagnetic field perpendicularly, both have samekinetic energy. Which of the following is true?(1) Trajectory of electron is less curved(2) Trajectory of proton is less curved(3) Both trajectories are equally curved(4) Both moves on a straight line

31. Two long straight wires are connected by a circularsection which has a radius R. All the threesegments lie in the same plane and carry acurrent I. The magnetic induction at the centre ‘O’of the circular segments is–

i

i

RO

i

(1) 0

4IR

(2) 0

4I

R

(3) 0IR

(4) 0

2I

R

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

32. If horizontal and vertical components of the earth’smagnetic field are equal at a certain place, thenangle of dip at that place is(1) 90° (2) 60°(3) 45° (4) 0°

33. A small bar magnet is being slowly passes withconstant velocity through a solenoid of small lengthas shown in figure. Which of the following graphsbest represents the relationship between emfinduced with time

(1)

emf

time

(2)

emf

time

(3)

emf

time(4)

emf

time

34. Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor ‘R’and an inductor L. When the switch S is turned off

SB1R

L B2

(1) both B1 and B2 die out promptly(2) both B1 and B2 die out with some delay(3) B2 dies out promptly but B1 with some delay(4) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay

35. A brilliant arc lamp delivers a luminous flux of 100watt to a 1cm2 area. The force due to radiationpressure is(1) 3.3 × 10–4N (2) 16.5 × 10–7N(3) 3.3 × 10–6N (4) 3.3 × 10–7N

36. A candle flame is kept 1.5m in front of a wall.Distance of a spherical mirror of focal length 1mfrom the candle flame such that an image of theflame is formed on the wall is(1) 2.4m (2) 1.8m(3) 3.8m (4) 1.5m

37. A ray of l ight is incident on one face of a

transparent glass slab 3 of thickness

12cm at an angle of incidence 60°. Lateraldisplacement of the ray on emerging from theopposite parallel face is nearly(1) 9cm (2) 7cm(3) 5cm (4) 3cm

38. In Young’s double slit experiment value value of ,for which the phase difference at P is 1.57 radianis

d O

P

DD d > >

(1) 1sin4d

(2) 1sin2d

(3) 1sind

(4) 1sin3d

39. Two polaroids are oriented with their transmissionaxes making angle of 30° with each other. Thefraction of incident unpolarised light transmitted is(1) 37% (2) 62.5%(3) 3.36% (4) 36.5%

40. The de Broglie wavelength associated withneutrons in thermal equilibrium with matter at 300Kis(1) 1450Å (2) 145Å(3) 14.5Å (4) 1.45Å

41. The work function of a substance is 4.0eV. Thelongest wavelength of l ight that can causephotoelectron emission from this substance, is(approximately)(1) 540 nm(2) 400 nm(3) 310 nm(4) 220 nm

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

42. Two radioactive material X1 and X2 have decayconstants 10 and respectively. If initially theyhave the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of

the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be 1e

after a time of

(1) 1

10

(2) 1

11

(3) 11

10

(4) 1

9

43. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 volts isconnected to a diode and resistor R in the circuitshown so that half wave rectification occurs. If theforward resistance of the diode is negligiblecompared to ‘R’ , the rms voltage across R isapproximately (in volt)

R~200 volt(Peak value)

(1) 200(2) 100

(3)100

2(4) 283

44. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of50, an input impedance of 100 and an outputimpedance of 200. The power gain of the amplifieris–(1) 500(2) 1000(3) 1250(4) 100

45. Digital circuits can be made by repetitive use of–(1) OR gate (2) AND gate(3) NOT gate (4) NAND gate

CHEMISTRY

46. The number of sigma() and pi() bonds in 2-oxocyclohex-3-en carboxylic(1) 10 -bonds and 3 bonds(2) 18 -bonds and 5 bonds(3) 11 -bonds and 2 bonds(4) 18 -bonds and 3 bonds

47. The intermediate in the following reaction is

Ph – C – NH + Br + 4KOH2 2

PhNH + 2KBr + K CO + 2H O2 2 3 2

O

(1) Ph – C – NBr2

O

(2) PhNCO(3) PhCNO

(4) Ph – C – CH3

O

48. Which one is correct structure of sodiumtetrathionate ?

(1)

O

NaO – S – O – O – S – ONa

O

O

O

(2)

O

NaO – S – S – S – S – ONa

O

O

O

(3) NaO – S – ONa

S

O

(4) HO – S – O – O – H

O

O49. Which one element has least energetic 2s

orbital?

(1) Na (2) N(3) C (4) H

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

50. Which of the fol lowing reactions aredisproportionation reaction?

IV.

I. 2H O2 2 2H O2 + O2

II. 3Br2 +6OH 5Br + BrO3 +3H O2

II.I P + 3NaOH + 3H O4 2 PH3+ 3NaHPO2

2H S + SO2 2 3S + 2H O2

(1) I, II and IV (2) II, III, IV(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III

51. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expandisothermally at 27°C from 5 L to 10 L against aconstant external pressure of 2 bar. The change inentropy of the surroundings is(1) –3.33 J (2) 5.74 J(3) –2.87 J (4) 2.87 J

52. Among the fol lowing the one that is not acomponent of photochemical smog(1) NO2 (2) PAN(3) O3 (4) CFCl3

53. For the cell reaction

2Fe (aq) + Br (g)2+2 2Fe (aq) + 2Br (aq), 3+ – G°

= –56 kJ at 298K

The standard cell potential of the cell reaction is(1F = 96500 C mol–1)(1) –0.56 V (2) 0.29 V(3) –1.3 V (4) 0.4 V

54. The artificial sweetening agents which is stable atcooking temperature and doesn’t provide calories(1) Aspartame (2) Alitame(3) Sucrolose (4) Fructose

55. The most suitable reagent for the followingconversion, is

OHO

H

(1) NaNH3()(2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline(3) C5H5N, HCl, CrO3

(4) LiAlH4, H2O56. Which one is correct order for reducing nature of

HX ?(1) HF > HBr > HCl > H(2) HBr > HF > HCl > H(3) H > HBr > HCl > HF(4) HF > H > HBr > HCl

57. Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) BF3 can be hydrolysed more rapidly than BCl3(2) N3 is more stable than NF3

(3) PbX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, ) is more stable than PBX2

(4) K and FeCl2 can exist together

58. Match the following :

(a) Hydrometallurgy (i) Al

(b) Hall-Heroult process (ii) Na2S

(c) Nitroprusside test (iii) Cu

(d) Ostwald process (iv) HNO3

Which of the following is the correct option ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)(1) I II III IV

(2) III I II IV

(3) II I III IV

(4) IV III II I

59. The species having bond order different from that inCO is

(1) NO (2) NO+

(3) CN– (4) N2

60. Which of the following elements has maximumsecond ionisation energy ?

(1) (Ar) 3d5 4s2 (2) (Ar) 3d5 4s1

(3) (Ar) 3d3 4s2 (4) (Ar) 3d6 4s2

61. The polymer which has strongest molecular forceis ?

(1) buna-N (2) nylon-6,6

(3) PVC (4) buna-S

62. pH of a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2 is 10. Thesolubility of Mg(OH)2 in 0.1M NaOH(aq) solution willbe

(1) 5 × 10–11 mol L–1

(2) 5 × 10–13 mol L–1

(3) 5 × 10–6 mol L–1

(4) 10–4 mol L–1

63. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is K,the time (t) required for the completion of 87.5% ofthe reaction is given by

(1)4.606

K (2)2.079

K

(3)6.909

K (4)2.303

K

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

64. Which of the following B group vitamins can bestored in our body ?(1) Vitamin B1 (2) Vitamin B2

(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B12

65. Which one of the following reactions proceedsthrough nucleophilic substitution reaction ?

(1)C ClO

+H2Pd/BaSO4

quinolineC H + HClO

(2)C OHO

NaOH,CaO

+ Na CO2 3

(3)Cl

OMe

NaNH /NH (l)2 3NH2

+ NaCl

OMe

(4)

OH

K Cr O /H SO2 2 7 2 4

O

O66. The mixture that forms minimum boiling azeotrope

is(1) C6H6 + CHCl3 (2) C2H5OH + H2O(3) H2O + HNO3 (4) C6H6 + C6H5CH3

67. Which of the following expressions is correct forthe rate of reaction given below ?5Br –(aq) + BrO3

–(aq) + 6H+ (aq) 3Br2(aq) +3H2O()

(1)d[Br ] d[H ]5

dt dt

(2)d[Br ] 6 d[H ]

dt 5 dt

(3)d[Br ] 5 d[H ]

dt 6 dt

(4)d[Br ] d[H ]6

dt dt

68. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide ?(1) SnO2 (2) CrO3

(3) B2O3 (4) Na2O69. The number of moles of SO3 can be produced from

30 moles of SO2 and 40 moles of O2 in contactprocess is(1) 20 (2) 80(3) 30 (4) 15

70. Which of the following compounds can not producewhite precipitate with AgNO3(aq) ?

(1) Cl (2)

Cl

(3)

Cl

(4) Cl

71. The correct option for a mixture of water and nitricacid is

(1) mix H > 0 at constant T and P

(2) mix V > 0 at constant T and P

(3) mix G > 0 at constant T and P

(4) mix S > 0 at constant T and P

72. Conjugate acid for Bronsted bases H2O and NH3 are

(1) H O3

+and NH4

+, respectively

(2) OH and NH2 , respectively

(3) +OH and NH4 , respectively

(4) and N3–H O3+ , respectively

73. Which of the following electrolytes will havemaximum coagulating value for CdS sol ?

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (2) NaCl

(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl274. Which of the following is not antidepressants ?

(1) Iproniazid (2) Phenelzine

(3) Equanil (4) Salvarsan

75. An optically active (C5H12O) on reaction with 2/NaOH gives yellow precipitate. Addition of HBrgives B as the major product. The structure ofproduct B is

(1)Br

(2)Br

(3) Br (4)Br

76. What is the correct electronic configuration of thecentral atom in [CoF6]3– based on crystal fieldtheory ?

(1) 4 22g gt e (2) 6 0

2g gt e

(3) 4 2g 2ge t (4) 3 3

2g gt e

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

77. Identify the incorrect statement related to SO2 fromthe following

(1) Its bleaching action is due to reduction and ispermanent

(2) It acts as lewis base in presence of BF3

(3) It has P – P and P – d bonding

(4) It supports the combustion of Mg

78. Which one will form acidic buffer ?(1) 100 mL of 0.1M H3PO4 + 100 mL of 0.5M

NaOH(2) 100 mL of 0.2M Na2CO3 + 100 mL of 0.1M

HCl(3) 100 mL of 0.1M NH4Cl + 100 mL of 0.2M

NaOH(4) 100 mL of 0.1M NH4OH + 100 mL of 0.1M HCl

79. The major product of the following reaction is

N O1. LiAlH4

2. MeCHO,H (pH=4–6)+

Amajor

(1) N (2) N

(3) N (4)NH2

80. Match the compounds in Column - I with theirstructures in Column - II and assign the correctcode

column I column II(a) BrF5 (i) Tetrahedral

(b) Cl4 (ii) Distorted

tetrahedral(c) SF4 (iii) Square planar

(d) BeCl2(s) (iv) Square pyramidala b c d

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

81. Which one pair of species having only P – dbonding

(1) 2–3 2CO , SO (2) SO3,

44SiO

(3) PO43–,ClO4 (4) XeO3, NO2

82. Which one of the following species does not exist ?(1) BiF5 (2) SCl6(3) PBr5 (4) (TeF8)2–

83. For a galvanic cell, at 298K

Cr Cr3+(aq)(s)

Ni (aq)2+ Ni(s) , the equil ibrium

constant would be

(Given that, E°Cr|Cr3+= 0.74VE°Ni |Ni2+ = – 0.25V2.303RT

F =0.06)

(1) 3.2 × 10–16 (2) 1.0 × 1049

(3) 1.0 × 10–32 (4) 1.0 × 1028

84. A gas at 273K and 1000 bar has molar volumemore than that for an ideal gas under the sameconditions. The correct option about the gas and itscompressibility factor (z) is

(1) z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant

(2) z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

(3) z = 1 and neither attractive nor repulsive forcesare dominant

(4) z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

85. An ionic crystal is formed by cation(X) and anion(Y). The anions form cubic close packed latticeand the cations occupy at alternate tetrahedralvoids.The formula of the compound is

(1) X3Y2 (2) XY2

(3) XY (4) X2Y3

86. In which case change in entropy is positive ?

(1) SO2(g) + 12 O2(g) SO3(g)

(2) NaCl H O2 Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq)

(3) H2O (V, 373K, 1 bar) H2O(, 360K, 1bar)

(4) 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)

87. Which of the following series of transitions in thespectrum of hydrogen having maximum energeticline?

(1) 6 5 (2) 4 2

(3) 3 1 (4) 3 2

88. Which of the following is responsible for temporaryhardness of water ?

(1) CaCl2 (2) MgCO3

(3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) MgSO4

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

89. Which one is calamine from the following ?(1) CuFeS2

(2) ZnCO3

(3) FeCO3

(4) Al2CO3.2H2O90. Which one is correct sequence of basic strength

in aqueous solution for nitrogen containingcompounds ?

(1) Me2NH > Me3N > MeNH2

(2) CH3NH2 > CH2 = CH – NH2 > CH3–CN

(3)NH2

> NH

>N

(4) CH –C–NH > CH –NH > NH3 2 3 2 3

O

BOTANY

91. Cell theory in its final shape was put forward by(1) Schleiden(2) Schwann(3) Virchow(4) Both (1) and (2)

92. Secondary wall is found in all plant cells, except(1) Sclerenchyma (2) Collenchyma(3) Meristemic cell (4) Tracheid

93. Match the column and find the correct optionColumn I Column II(A) Nuclear pore (i) Packaging of materials(B) Nucleolus (ii) r-RNA synthesis(C) Golgi complex (iii) Transport of proteins

and RNA(D) Tonoplast (iv) Transport of materials

against concentrationgradient

(1) (A) - (ii), B - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)(2) (A) - (iii), B - (ii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)(3) (A) - (iii), B - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)(4) (A) - (i), B - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)

94. Cytoskeleton is involved in all activity, except(1) Mechanical support(2) Motility(3) Providing shape(4) Chromosome formation

95. In which phase of the cell cycle most of the cellorganelles get duplicated?(1) G1

(2) G2

(3) S(4) G0

96. Total number of mitotic division required to produce400 cells from a cell will be(1) 100 (2) 200

(3) 300 (4) 39997. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. defining

property of living being ?

(1) Growth(2) Metabolism

(3) Consciousness(4) Cellular organisation

98. Select the correct option w.r.t. obligate category(1) Domain (2) Tribe

(3) Division (4) Sub-family99. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. Mycoplasma

(1) Absence of flagella

(2) Smallest living organism(3) Can not survive without oxygen

(4) Insensitive to penicillin attack100. Asexual spores are generally absent in

(1) Phycomycetes(2) Ascomycetes

(3) Basidiomycetes(4) Deuteromycetes

101. Fungal partner in ectomycorrhiza generally belongsto(1) Oomycetes (2) Zygomycetes

(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Ascomycetes102. Viroids have

(1) Infectious proteinaceous particle(2) Larger capsid of another virus(3) Infectious RNA particle without protein coat

(4) RNA having high molecular weight

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Complete Syllabus Test - 29

103. Select the odd one w.r.t. cymose (basipetal order)inflorescence

(1) Dianthus (2) Potato

(3) Lupin (4) Teak

104. Mark the odd one w.r.t. stem

(1) Phylloclade is modification of stem in Opuntia

(2) Phyllode is modification of petiole

(3) Cladode refers to phylloclade with only oneinternode

(4) Both (1) and (3)

105. All of the following are involved in increase in girthor thickness, except(1) Fascicular cambium

(2) Interfascicular cambium

(3) Intercalary meristem

(4) Cork cambium

106. Statement A : Parenchyma forms bulk of theprimary plant body

Statement B : Ground tissue system forms bulkof the primary plant body

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(2) Only statement A is correct

(3) Only statement B is correct

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

107. Which of the following is not incorrect w.r.t.imbibition ?

(1) Imbibition is a special case of diffusion in whichmovement requires energy

(2) It is a irreversible process

(3) Affinity between the adsorbant and the liquid isnot a pre-requisite

(4) Increase in volume takes place

108. Ascent of sap depends on all of the given, except(1) Cohesion

(2) Adhesion

(3) Surface tension

(4) Only water potential

109. Which of the following is zero in a fully turgid cell ?

(1) Wall pressure

(2) Osmotic pressure

(3) Diffusion pressure deficit

(4) Both (1) and (2)

110. Hydroponics has been successfully employed as atechnique for the commercial production of all ofthe given, except(1) Tomato(2) Seedless cucumber(3) Lettuce(4) Paddy crop

111. Number of ATP and NADPH required to reduce onemolecule of CO2 into glucose in C3 plants will be(1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH(2) 30 ATP and 12 NADPH(3) 18 ATP and 18 NADPH(4) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH

112. ‘Kranz’ anatomy is the characteristic feature of(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants(3) CAM plants (4) Both (1) and (2)

113. R.Q. value of tripalmitin is(1) 0.9 (2) 0.4(3) 0.09 (4) 0.7

114. Which of the following is the example of non-degenerate codon?(1) GAG (2) UUU(3) AUG (4) UAA

115. Mark the odd one w.r.t. phase of elongation(1) Increased vacuolation(2) Cell enlargement(3) Deposition of new cell wall material(4) Structural differentiation

116. Find out the incorrect match(1) Auxin = Apical growth(2) Cytokinin = Richmond-Lang effect(3) Ethylene = Triple response test(4) Gibberellin = Dormancy inducing hormone

117. Regulator gene in Lac-operom(1) Give site for RNA polymerase attachment(2) Prevents transcription of a structural gene(3) Give site for DNA polymerase attachment(4) Acts as code for repressor protein

118. Nourishment, Coenocytic, Dense Cytoplasm,Low content of DNA

How many of the above features are related withtapetum?(1) 4 (2) 3(3) 2 (4) 1

(12)

Complete Syllabus Test - 29

119. Find the incorrect match(1) Vegetative cell – Abundant food reserve(2) Generative cell – Spindle shaped(3) Exine – Degradable(4) Intine – Pecto-cellulosic in nature

120. DNA is considered as a stable genetic materialbecause of(1) Presence of free 2’OH group(2) Presence of 5-Methyl uracil(3) Presence of uracil(4) DNA is more labile than RNA

121. Statement A : Monoecious condition preventsautogamyStatement B : Dioecious condition can preventautogamy(1) Both A and B are correct(2) Only A is correct(3) Only B is correct(4) Both A and B are incorrect

122. Mendelian trait which does not appear inheterozygous condition(1) Inflated pod shape (2) Green pod colour(3) Round seed (4) Terminal flower

123. Which of the following laws of inheritance isgenerally considered as universal ?(1) Law of dominance(2) Law of segregation(3) Law of independent assortment(4) All of these

124. What will be the number of different genotypes fora character which is controlled by three alleles ?(1) 6 (2) 8(3) 9 (4) 12

125. Nascent mRNA is synthesized by which of thefollowing RNA polymerase?(1) RNA polymerase I and II(2) RNA polymerase II only(3) RNA polymerase III only(4) All three types of RNA polymerase (I, II, III)

126. Which one of the following is given to myocardialinfaction patient immediately ?(1) Penicillin(2) Cyclosporin A(3) Statin(4) Streptokinase

127. Read the following statementsA. Made up of two polynucleotide chainsB. Two chains have anti-parallel polarity

C. Two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion

D. Pitch of helix is 3.4 nm

How many of the above statements is/are correctw.r.t. DNA ?(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

128. A typical nucleosome contains ________ base pair.

(1) 60 (2) 80

(3) 100 (4) 200

129. Main enzyme involved in DNA replication inprokaryotes is

(1) DNA polymerase - I(2) DNA polymerase - II

(3) DNA polymerase - III

(4) Primase

130. Transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by allof the given, except(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene

(3) Terminator (4) Rho-factor

131. Agriculture accounts for approximately ___A___percent of India’s GDP and employs nearly___B___ percent of the population respectively(1) A - 62, B - 33 (2) A - 33, B - 62

(3) A - 25, B - 75 (4) A - 75, B - 25

132. The amount of oxygen that would be consumed ifall the organic matter in one litre of water wereoxidised by bacteria refers to

(1) BOD (2) COD

(3) Sludge (4) Flocs

133. Which of the given pollutants cause Hay fever?(1) Oxides of sulphur (2) Smoke

(3) Dust (4) Pollen

134. A scientist studied rat population. He found that theaverage natality was 350, average mortality 340,immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increasein population is–

(1) 5 (2) 50

(3) 0 (4) 100

135. How many hotspots are identified in India ?(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 5

(13)

Complete Syllabus Test - 29

ZOOLOGY

136. Excretion in cockroach takes place by(1) Nephridia(2) Flame cell(3) Coxal gland(4) Malpighian tubules

137. Which one of the following is not a primarylymphoid organ ?(1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus(3) Peyer’s patch (4) Bursa of Fabricius

138. Statement A : Animals with organ-system level ofbody organisation present tube-within-a-tube planStatement B : Pseudosegmentation is present inall platyhelminthes(1) Both statement A and statement B are correct(2) Both statement A and statement B are

incorrect(3) Only statement A is correct(4) Only statement B is correct

139. Which of the following cell type is capable of givingrise to other cell types in sponges ?(1) Archaeocytes (2) Pinacocytes(3) Choanocytes (4) Colloblasts

140. Find out incorrect match(1) Hilsa – Anadromous migration(2) Bombyx mori – Mulberry silk(3) Worker bee – Sterile female(4) Rinderpest – Protozoan disease of cattle

141. Which of the following represents uridylic acid ?(1) Uracil + Ribose(2) Uridine + Phosphoric acid(3) Uracil + Phosphoric acid(4) Uridine + Ribose + Phosphoric acid

142. Select the incorrect statement(1) All biocatalysts are protein in nature(2) Glycine is the simplest amino acid(3) Lecithin works as pulmonary surfactant(4) Changes in pH can alter rate of activity of

enzymes143. Enzymes having slightly different molecular

structure but performing identical activity are(1) Holoenzymes (2) Isoenzymes(3) Apoenzymes (4) Coenzymes

144. Lactose is composed of(1) Glucose + Glucose(2) Glucose + Fructose

(3) Fructose + Galactose(4) Glucose + Galactose

145. Phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrates(1) Natural selection

(2) Induced mutation(3) Geographical isolation(4) Convergent evolution

146. Genetic drift operates only in

(1) Human population(2) Island population(3) Smaller population(4) Larger population

147. The correct sequence of stages in the evolution ofmodern man (Homo sapiens), is(1) Homo erectus Australopithecus

Neanderthal man Cro-Magnon man Modern man

(2) Australopithecus Homo erectus Neanderthal man Cro-Magnon man Modern man

(3) Neanderthal man Australopithecus Cro-magnon man Homo erectus Modernman

(4) Australopithecus Neanderthal man Cro-magnon man Homo erectus Modern man

148. At a particular locus, frequency of allele ‘A’ is 0.6and that of allele ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be thefrequency of heterozygous in a random matingpopulation at equilibrium ?(1) 0.36(2) 0.16(3) 0.24

(4) 0.48149. Restriction enzymes

(1) Are endonucleases which cleave DNA atspecific sites

(2) Make DNA complementary to an existing DNAor RNA

(3) Cut or join DNA fragments(4) Are required in vectorless direct gene transfer

(14)

Complete Syllabus Test - 29

150. The palindromic sequence recognized by EcoRI is

(1)5 – C G T A T G – 3

3 – G C A T A C – 5

(2)5 – C G A A T G – 3

3 – C G A A T G – 5

(3)5 – G A A T T C – 3

3 – C T T A A G – 5

(4)5 – G A C T A C – 3

3 – T A C G A C – 5 151. An example of gene therapy is

(1) Production of injectable hepatitis - B vaccine(2) Production of vaccines in food crops like

potatoes which can be eaten(3) Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase

in person suffering from severe combinedimmunodeficiency disorder (SCID)

(4) Production of test tube babies by artificialinsemination and implantation of fertilized eggs

152. Recombinant DNA technology involves severalsteps in which initial step is isolation of the DNA.Select the enzymes used in the process to breakdown fungal cell wall, plant cell wall, and bacterialcell wall, respectively(1) Lysozyme, lipase, trypsin(2) Chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme(3) Chitinase, cellulase, trypsin(4) Trypsin, lipase, cellulase

153. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?(1) “Bt” in “Bt cotton” indicates that i t is a

genetically modified organism produced throughbiotechnology

(2) Classical plant breeding involves fusion of twosomatic cells carrying desired genes

(3) The anticoagulant hirudin is being producedfrom transgenic Brassica napus seeds

(4) Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice richin vitamin - E

154. Which one of the following options gives thecorrect matching of a disease with its causativeorganism and mode of infection?

Disease Causativeorganism

Mode of Infection

(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereriabancrofti

with infected water and food

(2) Malaria Plasmodiumvivax

Bite of male mosquito

Anopheles

(3) Typhoid Salmonellatyphi

with inspired air

(4) Pneumonia Streptococcuspneumoniae

droplet infection

155. Genetically engineered ‘Round up ready’ crops areresistant to

(1) Glyphosate (2) Nematodes

(3) Fungus (4) Stress

156. To which type of barrier do the saliva in the mouthand the tears from the eyes belong ?

(1) Physical barriers

(2) Cytokine barriers

(3) Cellular barriers

(4) Physiological barriers

157. Find out the incorrect statement

(1) LSD is a hallucinogen

(2) HIV selectively destroys T-helper cells

(3) Widal test is helpful in the diagnosis of typhoid

(4) IgM can cross placental barrier

158. An oocyte is released from ovary under theinfluence of LH

(1) after completing meiosis and before release ofpolar bodies

(2) after completing meiosis-I and before release ofpolar bodies

(3) after completing meiosis

(4) after completing meiosis-I and after release ofpolar bodies

159. Developing sperms receive nutrition from

(1) Stem cells (2) Leydig’s cells

(3) Germ cells (4) Sertoli cells

160. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose thecorrect option

Column A Column B(A) Periodic (i) Implant

abstinence contraceptive

(B) Depo-provera (ii) Hormonal IUD

(C) LNG - 20 (iii) Injectable contraceptive

(D) Norplant (iv) Natural method

(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)

(2) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)

(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (i)

(4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)

161. Which of the following STD does not occur due toviral infection ?

(1) Genital warts (2) Genital herpes

(3) AIDS (4) Chancroid

(15)

Complete Syllabus Test - 29162. Choose the correct option

(a) MTP is considered relatively safe upto 12weeks

(b) Progesterone is the most important componentof contraceptive preparations

(c) According to the 2011 census report thepopulation growth rate was more than 2.7percent in India

(1) Only a is correct(2) Both a and b are correct(3) Only c is correct(4) All a, b and c are correct

163. Which of the following does not produce anydigestive enzyme ?(1) Pancreas (2) Buccal cavity(3) Stomach (4) Liver

164. In mammals, the digestion of starch starts from(1) Oesophagus (2) Mouth(3) Duodenum (4) Stomach

165. Patents are supposed to satisfy(a) Novelty (b) Utility(c) Non-obviousness(1) a only (2) b only(3) a and b only (4) a, b and c

166. Which of the following match is correct ?(1) Emphysema : reduction in surface

area of alveoli due tochronic smoking

(2) Pneumonia : occupationalpulmonary disorder

(3) Silicosis : inflammation of alveoli(4) Asthma : alveolar collapse due

to lack of surfactant167. Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?

(1) Blood group ‘O’ person have anti-A and anti-Bantibodies in blood plasma

(2) Eosinophils prevent allergic reactions(3) RBC contains carbonic anhydrase (CA)

enzyme(4) SA-node is called “pace setter”

168. Which one is correct regarding ECG ?(1) P-wave represents the electrical excitation of

the ventricle(2) QRS complex represents repolarisation of the

ventricles(3) T-wave represents repolarisation of the atria(4) By counting the number of QRS-complex, one

can determine the pulse rate

169. Which nitrogenous excretory product is the endproduct of purine metabolism ?

(1) Ammonia (2) Urea

(3) Uric acid (4) Allantoin

170. Which part of the nephron is impermeable towater?

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule

(2) Distal convoluted tubule

(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle

(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle

171. If a stimulus, several times greater than thethreshold stimulus, is provided to a muscle fibre, itwill

(1) Contact with a larger force

(2) Contract with a smaller force

(3) Contract with the same force

(4) Undergo tetany

172. Ligation of alien DNA in the pBR322 by usingBamHI RE leads to insertional inactivation of whichgene?

(1) Tetracycline resistance gene

(2) Ampicillin resistance gene

(3) Ketamycin resistance gene

(4) Lac Z gene

173. Which of the following functions is not associatedwith medulla oblongata ?

(1) Respiratory rhythm (2) Vomiting

(3) Cardiac activity (4) Thermoregulation174. Select the incorrect match

(1) Saliva secretion – Stimulates

(2) Pupil of eye Dilate Constrict

(3) Heart rate Increases Decreases

Intestinal (4) Stimulates Inhibitsperistalsis

Sympathetic Parasympathetic Feature nervous system nervous system

175. Which of the following pair of hormones can easilypass through the cell membrane and binds to areceptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus) ?

(1) Insulin, Glucagon

(2) Thyroxine, Insulin

(3) Somatostatin, Oxytocin

(4) Cortisol, Testosterone

(16)

Complete Syllabus Test - 29

176. Which of the following match is correct ?Hormone Effect

(1) Oxytocin Milk ejection hormone(2) Glucagon Decreases blood sugar level(3) Adrenaline Decreases heart rate(4) Thyroxine Decreases BMR

177. Identify the correct pair for analogus organs inorganisms ?

(1) Thorns and tendrils

(2) Sweet potato and potato leaf

(3) Flippers of Dolphin and forearm of man

(4) Wings of birds and wings of insects

178 Glucose absorption by the cell and prevention ofketoacidosis is under the action of whichhormone ?

(1) Glucagon

(2) Somatostatin

(3) Follicle-stimulating hormone

(4) Insulin

179. Which layer of epidermis in man provides providesprotection against water loss from body and theentry of pathogens?

(1) Stratum basale

(2) Stratum spinosum

(3) Stratum germinativum

(4) Stratum corneum

180. Gravidex test in the first trimester is possible withhCG from

(1) Zona pellucida

(2) Corona radiata

(3) Inner cell mass

(4) Trophoblast

Complete Syllabus Test - 29

(17)

1. (1)2. (2)3. (4)4. (4)5. (1)6. (2)7. (3)8. (4)9. (3)10. (3)11. (4)12. (1)13. (2)14. (3)15. (1)16. (1)17. (1)18. (2)19. (3)20. (4)21. (3)22. (1)23. (3)24. (3)25. (4)26. (4)27. (4)28. (4)29. (4)30. (2)31. (2)32. (3)33. (3)34. (2)35. (4)36. (4)

37. (2)38. (1)39. (1)40. (4)41. (3)42. (4)43. (2)44. (3)45. (4)46. (4)47. (2)48. (2)49. (1)50. (4)51. (1)52. (4)53. (2)54. (3)55. (3)56. (3)57. (4)58. (2)59. (1)60. (2)61. (2)62. (1)63. (2)64. (4)65. (3)66. (2)67. (3)68. (1)69. (3)70. (2)71. (4)72. (1)

73. (2)74. (4)75. (2)76. (1)77. (1)78. (2)79. (2)80. (3)81. (3)82. (2)83. (2)84. (2)85. (3)86. (2)87. (3)88. (3)89. (2)90. (2)91. (3)92. (3)93. (3)94. (4)95. (1)96. (4)97. (1)98. (3)99. (3)100. (3)101. (3)102. (3)103. (2)104. (2)105. (3)106. (1)107. (4)108. (4)

109. (3)110. (4)111. (4)112. (2)113. (4)114. (3)115. (4)116. (4)117. (4)118. (2)119. (3)120. (2)121. (3)122. (4)123. (2)124. (1)125. (2)126. (4)127. (1)128. (4)129. (3)130. (4)131. (2)132. (1)133. (4)134. (3)135. (2)136. (4)137. (3)138. (3)139. (1)140. (4)141. (2)142. (1)143. (2)144. (4)

145. (1)146. (3)147. (2)148. (4)149. (1)150. (3)151. (3)152. (2)153. (3)154. (4)155. (1)156. (4)157. (4)158. (2)159. (4)160. (2)161. (4)162. (2)163. (4)164. (2)165. (4)166. (1)167. (4)168. (4)169. (3)170. (3)171. (3)172. (1)173. (4)174. (4)175. (4)176. (1)177. (4)178. (4)179. (4)180. (4)

ANSWERS

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 29

(1)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

HINTSOF

Home Assignment-29 (CST-29)

CST-29

PHYSICS

1. P

0 0 0z M L Tk

P

0 0 0M L T kz

2

1 2

MLT

ML T

2 2 1ML TL

0 2 0M L T 2 0MLT

2. ˆ ˆ ˆs 3i 4 j 5k

2 2 2| s | 3 4 5

9 16 25

N y

x

S

WE

50

5 2 m

3. y = a – b= 5 – 3= 2m

2 10a 5 0.1100 100

3 9b 3 0.09100 100

y a b

= 0.10 + 0.09= 0.19

y 0.19100 100y 2

192

= 9.5%

4.h

h2

h1

t = 3 sec

t = 0 21h gt2

21 10 52

2

22htg

2 8010

164 sec

= 125 m

21

1h 10 32

= 45 mh2 = 125 – 45= 80 m

5. 2 2v u 2as

22u u 2 a 3

2

22u u 6a

4

22 u6a u

4

23u6a4

2ua8

Again :v2 = u2 + 2as

2 22 u uO 2 s

2 8

2 2u us4 4

s = 1cm

(2)

6. v = 5km/h

u = ?

d = 1km

15 1t 15m in hr60 4

2 2

dtv u

2 2

1 14 5 u

2 25 u 4

or, 52 – u2 = 16

u2 = 52 – 16 = 25 – 16 = 9

u 9 3km / h

7. k = 1Ncm–1

T = 3kg = 30N

kx = 30

30 30x 3cmk 10

8. Factual

9. v = u + at Work done = kf – ki

v = o + at21 vm T 0

2 t

vat

2

22

mv T2t

Velocity after time T

vv u aT o Tt

10.dpFdt

dpdt is maxm at R

11. = 30°

2

2 2

1ggsin gsin30 g2a2 4mR1 1mR mR

12. Factual

13. T.M.Ei = T.M.Ef

23

4GMm 1 2GM GMmmR 2 R R h

GMm 1 9 2GMm GMmR 2 16 R R h

1 9 1R 16R R h

16 9 116R R h

7 116R R h

7R + 7h = 16R

7h = 9R

9Rh7

14. 2 3T r

Time period of satellite is independent of mass ofsatellite

15. W = B1 + B2

L 3LA L D g A 2d g A d g4 4

2d 3d 5dD4 4 4

16. h2 = H – h1

h1 + h2 = H

17.FAY

2F 2 Fy y4AY AY

FyAY

(3)

18. Tmg 6 nrv

Tmgv

6 nr

Tmvr

19. m 3mk

1 2

1 2

m mm m

2m 3m 3m 3mm 3m 4m 4

T 2k

3m24k

3mk

20. x A sin wt

A A sin2

1sin2

5,6 6 6

5 4 26 6 6 3

21. k 0.5

2 0.5

2 4cm0.5

w 200

2 f 200

f = 100Hz

22. f T

2 2

1 1

f Tf T

1T mg vg

2T mg B

vg vg

2f vg vg260 vg

1

1.211.8

213

13

2260f Hz

3

= 150Hz23.

10gice

10gice

–20°C 0°CQ1

10gWater

10°C 0°CQ2 10g

Water

1Q ms T

= 10g × 0.5 × 20= 100cal

2Q ms T

= 10g × 1 × 10= 100 cal

mixture will contain 10g ice and 10g water

24. 3 34v R a3

1/31/33vR , a v

4

41 1 1

42 22

E A T AE AA T

2

24 R6a

2/3302 43 v

2/32 33 4

1/3

22 2 2 93 3 3 16

= 1/3

6

(4)

25. Constant volume

1 1 1

2 1 2

P ,V ,T

P ,V ,T

P2 = 2P1, T2 = 2T1As pressure is constant.

1 1 1 1 3 3Heat2P ,V ,2T 2P ,V ,T

3 1 3 1 1V 2V ,T 2 2T 4T

For 1st process

1 vnc T

v 1 1 v 1nc 2T T nc T

For 2nd process

2 pnc T

p 12nc T

1 11 2

1 1

5r 7Rn T 2n T 19R2 2Cn. T 4T T 6

26.2kE sinR 2

q ,R

y

x

E 0

sin / 21 qE 2 . .4 R R

2 20

q2 R

2 20

q ˆE j2 R

27. 2 2cW cv v2

23 cv2

28. K.V.L. in loop ...... (1)

15 10 2 0

15 10 10 2 0

11

2

5V

2V

I

P I1

I–I11

2

Q

112 10 5 ......(i)In loop .... (2)

1 12 10 1 0

1 12 10 10 0

110 11 2 ....... (ii)

Solving equation (i) and (ii)

75 A32

174 A32

175 74 0.03A32 32

29. Conceptual

30.mv 2kmRqB qB

R m

me < mpRe < Rp

31. 0B2R 2

0

4 R

32. v

H

BtanB

Given Bv = BH

tan 1 , = 45°33. Factual34. By Lenz,s law

35. 78

100F 3.3 10 N3 10

36.

Wall

1.5 x

Candle

1 1 1 1 1 1v u f 1.5 x x 1

x 1.5 x 1x 1.5 x

22x 1.5 1.5x x

2x 0.5x 1.5 0

210x 5x 15 0

5 25 600x20

3x 1.5m2

(5)

37. i = 60°, t = 12cm

1 2sini sinr

1 sin60 3 sinr

3 3 sinr2

or, 1sinr2

r 30

t sin i rd

cosr

12 sin 60 30cos30

12 .sin30 12tan30cos30

12 cm 4 3cm 7cm3

38. x dsin

2 x

21.57 dsin

1.57sin2 d

1.572 3.14 d

4d

1sin4d

39.I0 I0

2I0

2 cos 30°2

20 cos 302

20 32 2

038

= 0.375I0

0100 37.5%

40.24.89 Å

T for neutrons

41. 0 4.0 eV

0hc

1240 eV nm4 eV

310nm

42. 1 2t t1 0 2 0N N e N N e

1

2

t01

t2 0

N eNN N e

10 t9 t

t1 e ee e

1 9 te e

9 t

1t9

43. 0V 200V

0rms

V 200V 100V2 2

44. Power gain = Voltage gain × current gain

5050200100

50 502

= 1250

45. Based on theory

(6)

CHEMISTRY

46.

COOHO

47. PhNCO (See Mechanism)48. Na2S4O6 is sodium tetrathionate49. With more nuclear charge, 2s-orbital is more

stabilised50. Comproportionation reaction-option (4)

51. revsys

qST

U q w

q w U 0 (Isothermal)

exP V 2 5 10L bar

= 1000J

revsurg

q 1000S 3.33JT 300

52. The main components of photochemical smog arenitrogen oxides, volatile organic compounds,tropospheric ozone and PAN

53. G nFE

356 10 2 96500 E

E 0.29V

54. It’s sucralose stands at high temperature. Alitameis not stable at cooking temperature

55. Pyridine–CrO3 in HCl oxidises P–alcohol toaldehyde

57. NI3 has been isolated as ammoniated only. ForPb, +2 oxidation state is more stable than +4

59. CO, NO+, CN–, N2 Isoelectronic speciesB.O. = 3For NO–, Bond order is 2

60. e5 5Ar 3d 4s Ar 3d Half f i l led next ‘e’

removal is not energetically formed61. Elastomers < Thermoplastic < Fibres

(Order of force of pettraction)Nylon – 6, 6 FibreBuma–N, Buna_S ElastomersPVC Thermoplastic

62. pH = 10 ; pOH = 4Mg(OH)2 2[OH–] = 2s = 10–4M

[OH–] 410

2

S(in moles/L)

Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 4S3 = 5 × 10–13

Solubility in 0.1M NaOHKsp = S × (0.1)2 = 5 × 10–13

S = 5 × 10–11 mol/L

63. 0 0

t 0

a a1 1 1t n n n 8k a k 0.125a k

n2 2.079t 3k k

65. It passes through benzyne mechanism – option(3)

66. +ve deviation from Raoult’s law – (Eton + H2O)

67. 3 2 25Br BrO 6H 3Br 3H O

d Br d H1 15 dt 6 dt

d Br d H5dt 6 dt

68. SnO2 is amphoteric. B2O3 and CrO3 are acidicand Na2O is basic

69. Number of mole left :

2 2 31SO O SO2

30 15 30

70.

+ AgNO 3 (Anti aromatic)

Cl

So it does not furnish Cl– ions71. H2O + HNO3 –ve deviation

mix mixH , V and mixG 0

mixS 0

73. Lower the coagulating power, higher will be thecoagulating value.

74. Salvarsan is an antibiotic

75.

OH

2NaOH

Iodoform test (+ve)

(C H O)5 12

(A)

HBr

Br–

Br

Considering(Optically active alcohol)

(7)

76. F is weak field ligand

77. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to reduction andis temporary

78. 20m-mole Na2CO3 and 10m-mole HCl will give10m-mole NaHCO3 and 10m-mole of Na2CO4 willbe left behind. Together they form acidic buffer

79. The compound in the question isN

H

O not

N O as written. In LiAlH4, it changes to a

secondary amine. Which condenses withCH3CHO

81. SO2 and SO3 has one P – P bond each. 2NO

has also one P – Pbond.

82. With six chlorine atoms, ‘S’ can promote two of itsp-electrons to d-orbital to expand its valency to 6

83. 3 2o ocr /cr Ni /NiE E E 0.49V

onFE RT nkn = 6

106F 0.49 log k

RT 2.303

106 100 0.49 log kk = 1049 (approx)

85. Anions form the ccp and 4 cations in tetrahedralvoids

86. Ionisation of NaCl involves increase in entropy87. 1 to 3 energy gap is largest amongst the given

options89. ZnCO3 is known as calamine90. Note that in aqueous solution

Me2NH > MeNH2 > Me3N (Basicity order)

And,

N

NH2

N

HAlso, Amides are so less basic that their ‘O’ atomis preferentially protonated over ‘N’

91. Rudolf virchow first explained that cells divide andnew cells are formed from pre-existing cells

92. Meristematic cells have only primary cell wallwhich is thin and flexible (elastic), made up ofcellulose. Secondary cell wall is absent

93. Nuclear pore – Transport of proteins andRNA

Nucleolus – r-RNA synthesisGolgi complex – Packaging of materialsTonoplast – Transport of materials

against concentrationgradient

94. Cytoskeletons are involved in many functionssuch as mechanical support, moti l i ty andmaintenance of the shape of cell

95. In G1-phase of the cell cycle most of the cellorganelles get duplicated

96. Total number of mitotic divisions required toproduce ‘n’ number of cells = n – 1

97. Growth is not a defining property of living beings98. Division is a obligate category in taxonomic

hierarchy99. Mycoplasma is facultative anaerobe100. In Basidiomycetes the asexual spores are

generally not found

BOTANY

101. Fungal partner in ectomycorrhiza generallybelongs to Bisidiomycetes

102. Viroids are naked nucleic acids only103. In cymose the development of flowers is basipetal

i.e., oldest above and youngest below104. Phyllode is modifications of petiole105. Intercalary meristem contribute to the formation of

the primary plant body and also helps the plant toincrease in length

106. Parenchyma forms bulk of the primary plant bodyand ground tissue system forms bulk of the plantbody, largest tissue system in plant

107. Volume of the system increases during imbibitions108. The transpiration driven ascent of sap depends

mainly on the cohesion, Adhesion and surfacetension.

109. In a fully turgid cell DPD is zero110. Hydroponics can be employed as a technique for

commercial production of vegetables such astomato, seedless Cucumber, Lettuce etc

111. In C3 plants 3ATP and 2NADPH required toreduce one molecule of CO2 into glucose

112. ‘Kranz’ anatomy is the characteristic feature of C4plants only

113. R.Q. value of tripalmitin is 0.7

(8)

137. Peyer’s patches of small intestine is MALT andbelong to secondary lymphoid organ

139. Archaeocytes are totipotent cells of sponges

143. Isoenzymes are isomer molecules with dissimilarstructure but similar function

145. In industrial melanism peak of population movesin one direction so, it is directional naturalselection

146. Genetic drift explained by Sewall wright isapplication to small population in which genefrequency changes purely by chance

148. p = 0.6, q = 0.4

So, 2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48

155. Glyphosate is herbicide and acts on broad leafplant and some grasses. It is used to removeweeds without manual labour. Crop has beenengineered which are resistant to glyphosate. Firstcrop was soyabeen.

ZOOLOGY

157. Only IgG crosses placenta.

158. During ovulation, secondary Oocyte is releasedwhich remain arrested at Metaphase-II.

161. Chancroid is caused by bacterium Haemophilusducreyi

172. Bam HI site is present within tetR gene

So, this gene will became inactive.

175. Steroid hormone crosses plasma membrane.Cortisol, aldosterone, sex hormones are steroid.

178. Insulin inhances glucose uptake by cell

So, ketone bodies are not produced.

179. Stratum corneum is outermost layer of skin whichhas keratin protein and water impervious

180. Gravidex test is based on presence of hCG in urine.This hormone is released f rom placenta /trophoblast.

114. AUG is non-degenerate codon115. Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new

cell wall deposition are the characteristics of thecells in phase of elongation

116. Dormancy is inhibited by gibberellins117. In Lac operon regulator gene code for repressor

protein118. Features of tapetum are coenocytic, Dense

cytoplasm and nourishment119 Exine is nondegradable120. DNA is stable genetic material because of 5-

methyl uracil (Thymine)121. Monoecious condition prevents autogamy but not

geitonogamy and dioecious condition can preventautogamy but not xenogamy

122. Recessive trait does not appear in heterozygouscondition

123. Law of segregation is considered as universal

124. Number of genotype n n 12

125. Nascent mRNA is synthesised by RNApolymerase II only

126. Streptokinase is used as ‘clotbuster’127. All the above statements are correct w.r.t. DNA

128. A nucleosome contains 200BP129. DNA polymerase-III is the main enzyme in DNA

replication in prokaryote130. A transcription unit has three regions : Promoter,

structural gene and Terminator131. Agriculture contributes about 33% of India’s GDP

and gives employment to nearly 62% of thepopulation

132. BOD is a measure of O2 required by aerobicdecomposers

133. Hay fever is caused by pollens of anemophillousflowers

134.

Natality (B)

+Population

Density(N)

– Mortality(D)

Emigration(E)

Immigration(I)

+

135. Three hotspots are identified in India