Hindi PAPER CODE KOTA (RAJASTHAN) FORM …...weighed by a spring balance). While the metal is...

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CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

PAPER CODE

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 06 - 04 - 2015

0 1 C M 3 1 4 2 4 1

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

INSTRUCTIONS ()

www.allen.ac.in

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT

Hindi

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 3 & 4

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

1 4

(Phase - MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE, MLF, MLG, MAW, MAX & MAY)

LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD,MLE, MLF, MLG, MAW, MAX & MAY)

PHYSICS : Gravitation, Electrostatics and Capacitors, Current electricity, Magnetic

effect of current and Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating

current, Electromagnetic Waves

OPTICS :

(i) Ray optics & optical Instruments, (ii) Wave optics: Nature of Light,

Interference, Diffraction & Polarization), Modern Physics (Dual Nature of

Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei), Electronic Devices

CHEMISTRY : Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques,

Hydrocarbons, Haloalkanes and Haloarens, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers,

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Organic Compounds Containing

Nitrogen(Amines), Redox Reactions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics,

Surface Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of

Elements, Coordination Compounds, Environmental Chemistry,

Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life

BIOLOGY : Reproduction : (i) Reproduction in Organisms, (ii) Sexual Reproduction

in Flowering Plants, (iii) Human Reproduction, (iv) Reproductive Health

Genetics and Evolution : (i) Principles of inheritance and Variation,

(ii) Evolution

Biology in Human Welfare : (i) Microbes in Human Welfare

Biotechnology : (i) Biotechnology : Principles and Processes,

(ii) Biotechnology and its Applications

Biology in Human Welfare : (i) Human Health and Disease, (ii) Strategies

for Enhancement in Food Production (Domestication of Plants & Animals)

Ecology : (i) Organisms and Populations, (ii) Ecosystem, (iii) Biodiversity

and Conservation, (iv) Environmental Issues

ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 06 - 04 - 2015

SYLLABUS – 3 & 4

Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/06-04-2015

H-1/39Kota/01CM314241

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. In an earth's satellite moving in a circular orbit

(a piece of metal weighing 16 g (on the earth) is

weighed by a spring balance). While the metal is

suspended in water. If the relative density of the

metal is 8, what weight will be recorded :-

(1) Zero (2) 2 g

(3) –2g (4) 14 g

2. In the circuit shown, some potential difference is

applied between A and B. If C is joined to D with

a conducting wire then

A B

C

D

3 F 6 F

12 F6 F

(1) no charge will flow between C and D

(2) some charge will flow between C and D

(3) the equivalent capacitance between A and B

will not be effected

(4) Both (1) & (3)

3. A charge q move in a circle of radius 'r' with

angular frequency ''. The magnetic field

produces at the centre of circle 'B', then radius of

circle is directly proportional to –

(1) B

(2)

B

(3) B (4) B

4. The magnetic field in the plane of elctromagnetic

wave is given by

By = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)T

The expression for electric field may be

(1) Ey = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

(2) Ex = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

(3) Ey = 60 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

(4) Ex = 60 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

1. (16 g ) 8 :-(1) Zero (2) 2 g

(3) –2g (4) 14 g

2. A B

C D

A B

C

D

3 F 6 F

12 F6 F

(1) C D

(2) C D

(3) A B

(4) (1) (3)

3. q '' r 'B' –

(1) B

(2)

B

(3) B (4) B

4. By = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)T

(1) Ey = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

(2) Ex = 2 × 10–7 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

(3) Ey = 60 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

(4) Ex = 60 sin(0.5 × 103z + 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

Kota/01CM314241H-2/39

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/06-04-2015

5. A photon of energy 8 eV is incident on a metal

surface of threshold frequency 1.6 × 1015 Hz, then

the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons

emitted is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) :-

(1) 4.8 eV (2) 2.4 eV

(3) 1.4 eV (4) 0.8 eV

6. A satellite is orbiting a planet at a certain height

in a circular orbit. If the mass of the planet is

suddenly reduced to half, the satellite would :-

(1) Continue to revolve around the planet at the

same speed.

(2) Falls freely on the planet.

(3) Orbit the planet at lesser speed.

(4) Escape from the planet.

7. The space between the plates of a parallel plate

capacitor is filled with two dielectrics of thickness

d1 and d2 and relative permittivities 1 and 2

respectively. If a single dielectric of the total

thickness (d1 + d

2) is to replace the two,

effectively to get the same capacitance then its

relative permittivity should be

(1) 1 1 2 2

1 2

d d

d d

(2) 1 2 2 1

1 2

d d

d d

(3) 1 2 1 1

1 1 2 2

(d d )

d d

(4)

1 2 1 2

1 2 2 1

(d d )

d d

8. An electron moves along circular path of radius

'r' in uniform transverse megnetic field 'B' then

de-broglie wave length associated with it –

(1) h

Br(2)

h e

Br(3)

h

eBr(4)

hB

er

9. The r.m.s. value of the electric field of the light

coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total

energy density of E.M. wave is :-

(1) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3 (2) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3

(3) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3 (4) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3

10. A radioactive sample S1 having the activity A

1 has

twice the number of nuclei as another sample S2

of activity A2. If A

2 = 2A

1, then the ratio of half

life of S1 to the life of S2 is :-

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75

5. 1.6 × 1015 Hz 8 eV (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) :-

(1) 4.8 eV (2) 2.4 eV

(3) 1.4 eV (4) 0.8 eV

6.

:-

(1)

(2) (3) (4)

7. d1 d2

1 2

(d1 + d2)

(1) 1 1 2 2

1 2

d d

d d

(2) 1 2 2 1

1 2

d d

d d

(3) 1 2 1 1

1 1 2 2

(d d )

d d

(4)

1 2 1 2

1 2 2 1

(d d )

d d

8. 'r' 'B'

–

(1) h

Br(2)

h e

Br(3)

h

eBr(4)

hB

er

9. rms

720 N/C. :-(1) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3 (2) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3

(3) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3 (4) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3

10. S1 A

1

A2 S2

A2 = 2A

1, S

1 S

2

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75


H-3/39Kota/01CM314241

11. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of

mass m from the earth's surface (radius R) to

infinite is :-

(1) mgR (2) mgR

2(3) 2mgR (4)

mgR

4

12. The magnitude of I (in ampere) is :-

1amp 1ampI

60

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.6 (4) 0.4

13. A dip needle vibrates in a vertical plane

perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. The time

period of vibrations found to be 2 sec. The same

needle is then allowed to vibrate in the horizontal

plane and the time period is again found to be 2sec,

the angle of dip is -

(1) 0° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 90°

14. The distance between a convex lens and a plane

mirror is 15 cm. The parallel rays incident on the

convex lens, after reflection from the mirror, form

image at the optical centre of the lens. Find out

focal length of lens :–

(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm

15. The half-life of a sample of a radioactive

substance is 1 hour. If 8 × 1010 atoms are present

at t = 0, then the number of atoms decayed in the

duration t = 2 hour to t = 4 hour will be :-

(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 1.5 × 1010

(3) Zero (4) Infinity

16. The radius of the earth is 6400 km and

g = 9.8 m/s2. If the body placed at the equator has

to become weightless. The earth should make one

complete rotation in :-

(1) 12 hrs (2) 24 hrs

(3) 6 hrs (4) 1.4 hrs

11. m

:-

(1) mgr (2) mgR

2(3) 2mgR (4)

mgR

4

12. I :-

1I

60

1

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.6 (4) 0.4

13.

2

2

–(1) 0° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 90°

14. 15

:–

(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm

15. 1

t = 0 8 × 1010 t = 2 t = 4 :-(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 1.5 × 1010

(3) (4) 16. 6400 km

9.8 m/s2 :-(1) 12 hrs (2) 24 hrs

(3) 6 hrs (4) 1.4 hrs

Key Filling

Kota/01CM314241H-4/39


17. Find the current through 2 :-

20V5

10V2

10

(1) zero (2) 1 amp

(3) 2 amp (4) 4 amp

18. An infinite long current carrying wire is placed

perpendicular to the plane of the paper carrying

current outwards then which of the following

statement is correct for the given figure :-

(a) Net force on the loop is zero

(b) Net torque on the loop is zero

(c) Loop will rotates clockwise about OO' when

seen from O

(d) Loop will rotates anticlockwise about OO' seen

from O

(1) a, b (2) c, d

(3) a, d (4) b, c

19. A glass prism has a refracting angle of 60°. The

angle of minimum deviation is 30°. If velocity of

light in vaccum is 3 × 108 m/sec, calculate velocity

of light in glass :–

(1) 5.2 × 108 m/sec (2) 1.5 m/sec

(3) 108 m/sec (4) 2.12 × 108 m/sec

20. Which shows radioactivity :-

(1) Protium (2) Deuterium

(3) Tritium (4) None of these

21. Six charges are placed at A B

CF

E D

–2q

–q 4q

–2q

q 2q

O

the corner of a regular

hexagon as shown. If an

electron is placed at its

centre O, force on it will

be :

(1) Zero (2) Along OF

(3) Along OC (4) None of these

17. 2 :-

20V5

10V2

10

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 4 18.

:-

(a) (b) (c) O OO'

(d) O OO'

(1) a, b (2) c, d

(3) a, d (4) b, c

19. 60°

30°

3 × 108 :–

(1) 5.2 × 108 m/sec (2) 1.5 m/sec

(3) 108 m/sec (4) 2.12 × 108 m/sec

20. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

21. A B

CF

E D

–2q

–q 4q

–2q

q 2q

O

O

:(1) (2) OF (3) OC (4)


H-5/39Kota/01CM314241

22. In the adjoining circuit, E = 6.0 V, R1 = 100 ohm,

R2 = R3 = 50 ohm, R4 = 75 ohm. The equivalent

resistance of the circuit (in ohm) is :-

E

I

R1

R2

R4

R3

(1) 11.875 (2) 26.31

(3) 118.75 (4) none of these

23. Two different coils have self-inductance

L1 = 8 mH, L2 = 2 mH. The current in one coil

is increased at a constant rate. The current in the

second coil is also increased at the same rate. At

a certain instant of time, the power given to the

two coils is the same. At that time the current the

flux linked, the induced voltage and the energy

stored in the first coil are i1, 1, V1 and W1

respectively. Corresponding values for the second

coil at the same instant are i2, 2, V2 and W2

respectively. Then choose the incorrect relation:-

(1) 1

2

1

1

(2) 1

2

i 1

i 8

(3) 2

1

W4

W (4) 2

1

V 1

V 4

24. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-piece

of a compound microscope are 4 cm and 6 cm

respectively. If any object is placed at a distance

of 6cm from the objective, what is the

magnification produced by the microscope ?

Distance of distinct vision = 25 cm :–

(1) 10.33 (2) 7.2

(3) 1.2 (4) 20

25. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments

which fly off with velocities in the ratio 8 : 1. The

ratio of radii of the fragments is :-

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

22. E = 6.0 , R1 = 100 ,

R2 = R

3 = 50 , R

4 = 75

E

I

R1

R2

R4

R3

:-(1) 11.875 (2) 26.31

(3) 118.75 (4) 23. L1

= 8 mH, L2 = 2 mH

i1, 1, V1 W1

i2, 2, V2 W2 :-

(1) 1

2

1

1

(2) 1

2

i 1

i 8

(3) 2

1

W4

W (4) 2

1

V 1

V 4

24.

4 6

6

= 25 :–(1) 10.33 (2) 7.2

(3) 1.2 (4) 20

25.

8 : 1

:-(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

Kota/01CM314241H-6/39


26. In electric field, a 6.75 C charge experiences

2.5 N force, when placed at distance of 5 m from

the origin. Then potential gradient at this point

will be - (in M.K.S.)

(1) 5.71 × 105 (2) 3.70 × 105

(3) 18.81 × 105 (4) 1.881 × 105

27. In the adjoining circuit, the value of I (in ampere)is :-

4

4

44

1.6

I

+ –4V

(1) 1 (2) 0.69(3) 0.4 (4) 1.5

28. The current in a LR circuit builds up to 3/4th of

its steady state value in 4s. The time constant of

this circuit is :-

(1) 1

sln 2

(2) 2

sln 2

(3) 3

sln 2

(4) 4

sln 2

29. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water

interface at an angle i. If it emerges finally parallel

to the surface of water, then the value of µg would

be :–

water

glassi

rw=4/3

g

(1) 4

3

sin i (2) 1

sin i

(3) 4

3(4) 1

30. If A & B are inputs & C is output waveforms of a

logic gate then logic gate is :-

A

B

C

(1) OR (2) AND

(3) NAND (4) NOR

26. 6.75 C 2.5 N 5 m -

(M.K.S. ) (1) 5.71 × 105 (2) 3.70 × 105

(3) 18.81 × 105 (4) 1.881 × 105

27. I :-4

4

44

1.6

I

+ –4V

(1) 1 (2) 0.69

(3) 0.4 (4) 1.5

28. LR 3/4 4s :-

(1) 1

sln 2

(2) 2

sln 2

(3) 3

sln 2

(4) 4

sln 2

29. i

g

:–

water

glassi

rw=4/3

g

(1) 4

3

sin i (2) 1

sin i

(3) 4

3(4) 1

30. A B C :-

A

B

C

(1) OR (2) AND

(3) NAND (4) NOR


H-7/39Kota/01CM314241

31. Four equal charges, each +q are placed at the

corners of a square of side a. Then the colulomb

force experienced by one charge due to the rest

of three is :

(1)2 2(2 2 1)Kq / 2a (2) 3 Kq2/a2

(3) 2 22 2Kq / a (4) zero

32. All bulbs in the figure are identical. Which bulb(s)

light(s) most brightly ?

1

2

5

3 4

(1) 1 only (2) 3 and 4 only

(3) 2 only (4) 1 and 5 only

33. The current i in an induction coil varies with time

t according to the graph shown in figure.

O

i

t

Which of the following graphs shows the induced

emf (e) in the coil with time :-

(1)

O

E

t

(2) v

O

E

t

(3)

O

E

t

(4)

O

E

t

34. Interference occurs in which of the following to

waves?

(1) Longitudinal (2) Transverse

(3) Electromagnetic (4) All of these

31. +q, a

:

(1) 2 2(2 2 1)Kq / 2a (2) 3 Kq2/a2

(3) 2 22 2Kq / a (4)

32.

1

2

5

3 4

(1) 1 (2) 3 4

(3) 2 (4) 1 5 33. i t

O

i

t

:-

(1)

O

E

t

(2) v

O

E

t

(3)

O

E

t

(4)

O

E

t

34. (1) (2) (3) (4)

Kota/01CM314241H-8/39


35. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor

increase when electromagnetic radiation of

wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on

it. The band gap for the semiconductor is :-

(1) 0.5 eV (2) 0.7 eV

(3) 0.9 eV (4) 1.1 eV

36. Electric charges are distributed in a small volume.

The flux of the electric field through a spherical

surface of radius 10 cm surrounding the total

charge is 25 V-m. The flux over a concentric

sphere of radius 20 cm will be :

(1) 25 V-m (2) 50 V-m

(3) 100 V-m (4) 200 V-m

37. A charge particle is projected at an angle 60° fromexternal uniform magnetic field direction thenpitch of path of charge is 'p'. If same charge isprojected with same speed at an angle 45° fromthe same field direction then pitch of path ofcharge is :-

(1) 2 P (2) P (3) P

2(4) 2P

38. An ac source of angular frequency is fed across

a resistor r and a capacitor C in series. The current

registered is I. If the frequency of source is

changed to /3 (maintaining the same voltage),

the current in the circuit is found to be halved.

Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at

the original frequency :-

(1) 3

5(2)

2

5(3)

1

5(4)

4

5

39. In double slit experiment shown in figure, when

light of wavelength is used, dark fringe is

observed at P. Find the minimum distance

between the slites S1 and S2

S P

D D

S1

S2

d

(1) D (2) D

2

(3)D

4

(4) 2 D

35. 2480 nm

:-

(1) 0.5 eV (2) 0.7 eV

(3) 0.9 eV (4) 1.1 eV

36.

10 cm

25 V-m 20 cm

:

(1) 25 V-m (2) 50 V-m

(3) 100 V-m (4) 200 V-m

37. 60° 'p' 45° :-

(1) 2 P (2) P (3) P

2(4) 2P

38. r C

ac

I ac

/3 ( )

:-

(1) 3

5(2)

2

5(3)

1

5(4)

4

5

39. P S1

S2

S P

D D

S1

S2

d

(1) D (2) D

2

(3)D

4

(4) 2 D


H-9/39Kota/01CM314241

40. The diode use in the circuit has a constant voltage

drop at 0.5 V at all current and a maximum power

rating of 100 mW. What should be the value of

the resistance R, connected in series with diode

for obtaining maximum current :-R D

1.5V(1) 6.76 (2) 20

(3) 5 (4) 5.6

41. A positive point charge q is carried from a pointB to a point A in the electric field of a point charge+Q at O. If the permittivity of free space is 0,the work done in the process is given by(where a = OA and b = OB) -

(1)0

qQ 1 1

4 a b

(2)

0

qQ 1 1

4 a b

(3)2 2

0

qQ 1 1

4 a b

(4)

2 20

qQ 1 1

4 a b

42. An infinite long horizontal current carrying wire is

tightly fitted to a rigid support. An another horizontal

current carrying wire is in equillibrium below to the

fixed wire. If magnitude of current becomes one third

in any one wire then instanteous acceleration of free

wire is –

(1) g/3 (2) 2g/3 (3) g/9 (4) 2g/9

43. Which of the following plots may represent the

reactance of a series LC combination :-a

b

d

c

Frequency

Rea

ctan

ce

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

44. The maximum velocity of electrons emitted from

a metal surface is V when frequency of light

falling on it is f. The maximum velocity when

frequency becomes 4f is :-

(1) 2V (2) > 2V

(3) < 2V (4) Between 3V and 4V

45. Two amplifiers are connected in series. The first

amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and the second

amplifier has a voltage gain of 20. If the input

signal voltage is 0.1 V then output voltage is :-

(1) 2 V (2) 3 V (3) 20 V (4) 30V

40.

0.5 V 100 mW

R :-R D

1.5V(1) 6.76 (2) 20

(3) 5 (4) 5.6

41. q, O +Q B A 0

( a = OA b = OB)-

(1)0

qQ 1 1

4 a b

(2)

0

qQ 1 1

4 a b

(3)2 2

0

qQ 1 1

4 a b

(4)

2 20

qQ 1 1

4 a b

42. g (1) g/3 (2) 2g/3 (3) g/9 (4) 2g/9

43. LC :-

a

b

d

c

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

44.

V

f 4f :-(1) 2V (2) > 2V

(3) < 2V (4) 3V 4V

45.

10 20

0.1 V :-(1) 2 V (2) 3 V (3) 20 V (4) 30V

Kota/01CM314241H-10/39


46. Synergic bonding is absent in :-

(1) [Mo(CO)6] (2) [Cr(CO)6]

(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) [Sc(CO)

6]+3

47. Arrange them in increasing bond dissociation

energy of C–H bond :-

H

HH

H4

1

23

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

(3) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 (4) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

48. Which is optically active :-

(1)

H

CH3 H

Br

Br

CH3

(2)

CH3

CH3

CH3

(3)

Br

HH

Br

H

H(4)

Br

CH3

BrH

CH3 H

49. NO3– N2, Find equivelent weight of N2 :-

(1) 14 (2) 4 (3) 2.8 (4) 1.7

50. For reaction 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2 rate constant and

rate are 3.4 × 10–5 s–1 and 1.02 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1

respectively at this time concentration of N2O5 is

(1) 1.732 mol L–1

(2) 3 mol L–1

(3) 1.02 × 10–4 mol L–1

(4) 3.4 × 10–5 mol L–1

51. Formation of Ni(CO)4 and subsequent its

decomposition into Ni and CO makes basis of

Mond's process :-

Ni + 4CO 1T Ni(CO)4 2TNi + 4CO;

T1 and T

2 are :

(1) 100ºC, 50ºC (2) 50ºC, 40ºC

(3) 50ºC, 230ºC (4) 230ºC, 50ºC

46. :-(1) [Mo(CO)6] (2) [Cr(CO)6]

(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) [Sc(CO)

6]+3

47. C–H :-

H

HH

H4

1

23

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

(3) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 (4) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

48. :-

(1)

H

CH3 H

Br

Br

CH3

(2)

CH3

CH3

CH3

(3)

Br

HH

Br

H

H(4)

Br

CH3

BrH

CH3 H

49. NO3– N2 N2

(1) 14 (2) 4 (3) 2.8 (4) 1.7

50. 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2 3.4 × 10–5 s–1 1.02 × 10–4 mol L–1 S–1

N2O5 (1) 1.732 mol L–1

(2) 3 mol L–1

(3) 1.02 × 10–4 mol L–1

(4) 3.4 × 10–5 mol L–1

51. Ni(CO)4 Ni CO

:-

Ni + 4CO 1T Ni(CO)4 2TNi + 4CO;

T1 T2

-

(1) 100ºC, 50ºC (2) 50ºC, 40ºC

(3) 50ºC, 230ºC (4) 230ºC, 50ºC

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


H-11/39Kota/01CM314241

52. In the given reaction, the intermediate formed and

name of the reaction is :-

+ CH3 C Cl

CH3

CH3

AlCl3

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

(1) Free Radical, Friedal craft alkylation

(2) Carbocation, Friedal craft alkylation

(3) Carbocation, Friedal craft acylation

(4) Carbanion, Friedal craft alkylation

53. CH –C–CH –C–H3 2–CH –CH –CH2 2 2= =

O O

OH

Θ

final product is :-

(1)

OH

COCH3

(2)

COCH3

(3)

COCH3

(4)

COCH3

OH

54. The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions

Na+, Al3+ and Ba2+ for aresenic sulphide solution

in increasing order is

(1) Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+

(2) Al3+ < Na+ < Ba2+

(3) Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+

(4) Ba2+ < Na+ < Al3+

55. Which statement is incorrect in following :-

(1) Glucose does not give 2,4-DNP test.

(2) Cane sugar gives nonequimolar mixture of

D-(+)-glucose and D-(–)-fructose.

(3) Cellulose does not give reaction with Tollne's

Reagent.

(4) None of these

56. No. of 5 membered ring in [Ca(EDTA)]2– is :-

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8

52. :-

+ CH3 C Cl

CH3

CH3

AlCl3

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

(1) ,

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4) ,

53. CH –C–CH –C–H3 2–CH –CH –CH2 2 2= =

O O

OH

Θ

:-

(1)

OH

COCH3

(2)

COCH3

(3)

COCH3

(4)

COCH3

OH

54. Na+, Al3+ Ba2+

(1) Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+

(2) Al3+ < Na+ < Ba2+

(3) Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+

(4) Ba2+ < Na+ < Al3+

55. :-

(1) 2,4-DNP

(2) D-(+)-D-(–)-

(3)

(4)

56. [Ca(EDTA)]2– :-

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8

Kota/01CM314241H-12/39


57. An organic compound react with aq. HNO2

to

produce an oily nitrosoamine. The compound is :-

(1) CH3–NH

2

(2) CH3CH

2 NH

2

(3) CH3CH2NHCH2CH3

(4) CH CH –N–CH CH3 2 2 3

CH CH2 3

58.

Cl

Br

aq. KOH

DMF major product is :-

(1)

Cl

OH

(2)

OH

Br

(3)

Cl

OH

(4)

OH

OH

59. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid

depends on

(1) The nature of gas

(2) Pressure of gas

(3) Surface area of solid

(4) All

60. Which one of the following sets form's the

biodegradable polymer ?

(1) H2N–(CH2)6–NH2 and HO–C–(CH ) –C–OH2 4

O O

(2) HO–CH2–CH2–OH and

COOH

COOH

(3) CH –CH–CH –C–OH3 2

OH

O

and CH –CH –CH–CH –C–OH3 2 2

OH

O

(4)

OH

and H–C–H

O

57. HNO2

:-

(1) CH3–NH

2

(2) CH3CH

2 NH

2

(3) CH3CH2NHCH2CH3

(4) CH CH –N–CH CH3 2 2 3

CH CH2 3

58.

Cl

Br

aq. KOH

DMF :-

(1)

Cl

OH

(2)

OH

Br

(3)

Cl

OH

(4)

OH

OH

59.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60. ?

(1) H2N–(CH2)6–NH2 HO–C–(CH ) –C–OH2 4

O O

(2) HO–CH2–CH2–OH

COOH

COOH

(3) CH –CH–CH –C–OH3 2

OH

O

CH –CH –CH–CH –C–OH3 2 2

OH

O

(4)

OH

H–C–H

O


H-13/39Kota/01CM314241

61. Choose incorrect stability order :-

(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ < [Cu(en)2]

2+ < [Cu(trien)]2+

(2) [Fe(H2O)

6]3+ < [Fe(NO

2)6]3– < [Fe(NH

3)

6]3+

(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Rh(H2O)6]

3+ < [Ir(H2O)6]3+

(4) [Cr(NH3)6]1+ < [Cr(NH

3)

6]2+ < [Cr(NH

3)

6]3+

62. Which of the following have max. Ka2 value :-

(1) 3 2 2 3NH — CH — CH — NH

(2) HO–CH2–CH

2–COOH

(3)HO–C–CH –2 CH –NH2 3

O

(4) HO–CH2–CH

2–OH

63. The total number of basic groups in the following

form of lysine is :-

CH–CNH –CH –CH –CH –CH3 2 2 2 2

NH2 O

O

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

64. The time required to remove electrolytically one

fourth of Ag from 0.2 litre of 0.1 M AgCl solution

by a current of 0.1 amp. is approximately

(1) 110 min (2) 140 min

(3) 53.2 min (4) 80.4 min

65. Which of the following sets contains only

tranquilizer drugs :-

(1) Phenelzine, Promethazine

(2) Phenelzine, Terfenadine

(3) Iproniazid, Phenelzine

(4) Iproniazid, Rupatidine

66. In which of the following metallurgy, self

reduction is not possible :-

(1) ZnS Zinc (2) PbS Lead

(3) Cu2S Cu (4) HgS Hg

67. Calculate the no. of stereoisomerism for

Br

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 6

61. :-

(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ < [Cu(en)2]

2+ < [Cu(trien)]2+

(2) [Fe(H2O)

6]3+ < [Fe(NO

2)6]3– < [Fe(NH

3)

6]3+

(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Rh(H2O)6]

3+ < [Ir(H2O)6]3+

(4) [Cr(NH3)

6]1+ < [Cr(NH

3)

6]2+ < [Cr(NH

3)

6]3+

62. Ka2 :-

(1) 3 2 2 3NH — CH — CH — NH

(2) HO–CH2–CH

2–COOH

(3)HO–C–CH –2 CH –NH2 3

O

(4) HO–CH2–CH

2–OH

63. :-

CH–CNH –CH –CH –CH –CH3 2 2 2 2

NH2 O

O

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

64. 0.1 M AgCl 0.2 0.1 Ag Ag (1) 110 min (2) 140 min

(3) 53.2 min (4) 80.4 min

65. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

66. :-(1) ZnS Zinc (2) PbS Lead

(3) Cu2S Co (4) HgS Hg

67.

Br

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 6

Kota/01CM314241H-14/39


68. Which of the following is an example of

condensation polymer :-

(1) Teflon (2) Orlon

(3) Nylon–66 (4) Neoprene

69. At 25°C for cell

T1|T1+ (0.001 M)||Cu2+(0.1 M)|Cu : E°cell = 0.83 V

Ecell increase if

(1) [Cu2+] decrease (2) [Cu2+] increase

(3) [T1+] increase (4) None

70. Which one of the following is not a condensation

polymer :-

(1) Nylon 2–nylon–6 (2) PHBV

(3) Nylon–6 (4) Acrilan

71. Which of the following is most stable cation :-

(1)

O

(2)

O

(3)

O

(4)

O

72. HCl Major product :-

(1)

CH –CH –Cl2 2

(2)

Cl

(3)

Cl

(4)

Cl

73. Which of the following statement is/are not true:-

(I) All ortho and para directing groups activate

the benzene ring

(II) Meta directing groups increase electron

density at meta position

(III) All meta directing groups have bond on

the atom directly attached to the ring

(1) I, III (2) I, II

(3) II, III (4) I, II and III

74. Limiting molar conductance of CH3COO– and H+

ions are 40 and 344 respectively. Molar conductance

of 0.008 M CH3COOH is 48. What will be the value

of dissociation constant for CH3COOH

(1) 2 × 10–6 (2) 3.4 × 10–2

(3) 1.3 × 10–4 (4) 7.1 × 10–6

68. :-

(1) (2)

(3) –66 (4)

69. 25°C T1|T1+ (0.001 M)||Cu2+(0.1 M)|Cu E° = 0.83 V

E (1) [Cu2+] (2) [Cu2+] (3) [T1+] (4)

70. :-

(1) 2––6 (2) PHBV

(3) –6 (4)

71. :-

(1)

O

(2)

O

(3)

O

(4)

O

72. HCl :

(1)

CH –CH –Cl2 2

(2)

Cl

(3)

Cl

(4)

Cl

73. :-(I)

(II)

(III)

(1) I, III (2) I, II

(3) II, III (4) I, II and III

74. CH3COO– H+ 40 344 0.008 M CH3COOH 48 CH3COOH Ka (1) 2 × 10–6 (2) 3.4 × 10–2

(3) 1.3 × 10–4 (4) 7.1 × 10–6


H-15/39Kota/01CM314241

75. Lead is considered as :-

(1) Water pollutant

(2) Soil pollutant

(3) Air pollutant

(4) Radioactive pollutant

76. Arrange the following compound in decreasing

order of their boiling point :-

(A) CH3OH

(B) CH3SH

(C) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

(D) CH3CH

2–S–CH

2CH

3

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > C > B > D

(3) A > B > D > C

(4) D > C > B > A

77. CH3–CN 3

(i) DIBAL H

(ii) H O

X 2SeO

Y

OH

Θ

Z,

Z is :-

(1) 2CH (OH) COO Θ

(2) 3CH COO Θ

(3) OOC COOΘ Θ

(4) CH2(OH)–CH

2(OH)

78. The best method for the separation of naphthalene

and benzoic acid from their mixture is :-

(1) Sublimation

(2) Chromatography

(3) Crystallisation

(4) Distillation

79. Which of the following solution can kept in copper

vessel

(1) ZnSO4 (2) AgNO3

(3) AuCl (4) All

80. Chloroamphenicol is an :-

(1) Antibiotic narrow spectrum

(2) Antibiotic limited spectrum

(3) Antibiotic broad spectrum

(4) Antiseptic

75. (Lead) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

76. :-

(A) CH3OH

(B) CH3SH

(C) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

(D) CH3CH

2–S–CH

2CH

3

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > C > B > D

(3) A > B > D > C

(4) D > C > B > A

77. CH3–CN 3

(i) DIBAL H

(ii) H O

X 2SeO

Y

OH

Θ

Z,

Z :-

(1) 2CH (OH) COO Θ

(2) 3CH COO Θ

(3) OOC COOΘ Θ

(4) CH2(OH)–CH

2(OH)

78. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

79.

(1) ZnSO4 (2) AgNO3

(3) AuCl (4) All

80. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Kota/01CM314241H-16/39


81. The isomerism exist between them is :-

O OCH3

andCH3

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Position

(3) Metamerism

(4) Functional group isomerism

82.

NH2

CH –C–Cl3

O

X Br2

AlBr3

Y

(major)

H3O

Z, Z is

(1)

NH2

Br

(2)

OH

Br

(3)

C–NH2

Br

O

(4)

NH2

BrBr

Br

83. Which one of the following is empolyed as

Antihistamine ?

(1) Chloramphenicol

(2) Diphenyl hydramine

(3) Norothindrone

(4) Omeparazole

84. In a certain gaseous reaction between A and B

A + 3B AB3. The initial rates are reported

as following

[B] [A] Rate

0.1 M 0.1M 0.002 Ms–1

0.1 M 0.2M 0.002 Ms–1

0.2 M 0.3M 0.008 Ms–1

0.3 M 0.4M 0.018 Ms–1

The rate law is

(1) r = K[A][B]3 (2) r = K[A]0[B]2

(3) r = K[A][B] (4) r = [A]0[B]3

81. :-

O OCH3

CH3

(1) (2) (3) (4)

82.

NH2

CH –C–Cl3

O

X Br2

AlBr3

Y

(major)

H3O

Z, Z

(1)

NH2

Br

(2)

OH

Br

(3)

C–NH2

Br

O

(4)

NH2

BrBr

Br

83.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

84. A B A + 3B AB3

[B] [A] Rate

0.1 M 0.1M 0.002 Ms–1

0.1 M 0.2M 0.002 Ms–1

0.2 M 0.3M 0.008 Ms–1

0.3 M 0.4M 0.018 Ms–1

(1) r = K[A][B]3 (2) r = K[A]0[B]2

(3) r = K[A][B] (4) r = [A]0[B]3


H-17/39Kota/01CM314241

85. Which of the following is reducing sugar :-

(1) Sucrose (2) Amylose

(3) Lactose (4) Cellulose

86. Arrange the following compound for SN1

reactivity order :-

(I)

I

O (II)

Cl

O

(III)

Br

O (IV)

Cl

O

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV

(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > IV > III > I

87.

Cl Cl

has the IUPAC name :-

(1) 1, 7-Dichloro-2, 6-dimethyl heptane

(2) 2, 6-bis(chloromethyl) heptane

(3) 1-chloro-6-(chloromethyl)-2-methyl heptane

(4) 1, 5-bis (chloromethyl)-1, 5-dimethyl pentane

88. Following compounds are given :

(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3COCH3

(c) CH –CHOH3 –

CH3

(d) CH3OH

Which of the above compound(s), on being

warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give

iodoform?

Option :

(1) Only (a) (2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (c) and (d)

89. For a first order half life at [A] = 0.1 M is

5 min. If conc. of A is doulbed then half

life.

(1) Becomes double (2) Become Half

(3) 10 times (4) Unchanged

90. Glucose on oxidation with nitric acid give :-

(1) Gluconic acid (2) Saccharic acid

(3) Sorbic acid (4) Aldonic acid

85. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

86. SN1 :-

(I)

I

O (II)

Cl

O

(III)

Br

O (IV)

Cl

O

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV

(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > IV > III > I

87.

Cl Cl

IUPAC :-

(1) 1, 7--2, 6-

(2) 2, 6-

(3) 1--6-()-2-

(4) 1, 5-()-1,5-

88. :

(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3COCH3

(c) CH –CHOH3 –

CH3

(d) CH3OH

NaOH

?

:

(1) (b) (2) (a), (b) (c)

(3) (a) (b) (4) (a), (c) (d)

89. [A] = 0.1 M 5 A

(1) (2)

(3) 10 (4)

90. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Kota/01CM314241H-18/39


91. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 32

92. ?

(1) Nim – 76 (2) LNG – 20

(3) Lippes loop (4) Multiload – 375

93. ?

I -

II -

III -

IV -

V -

(1) I, II, III only (2) IV and V only

(3) II and III only (4) Only IV

94. -A :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95. :–

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

96. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

91. Select incorrect statement :–

(1) Chalaza representing basal part of ovule

(2) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction

that mimics sexual reproduction

(3) Leaf buds of Bryophyllum and offset of water

hyacinth are vegetative propagules

(4) Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in 32

years

92. Which of the following contraceptive devices

makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and

the cervix hostile to the sperms ?

(1) Nim – 76 (2) LNG – 20

(3) Lippes loop (4) Multiload – 375

93. For which of the following pedigree analysis can

be done ?

I - Tuber culosis

II - AIDS

III - Leprosy

IV - Cystic fibrosis

V - Down's systrome

(1) I, II, III only (2) IV and V only

(3) II and III only (4) Only IV

94. Which of the following is the use of cyclosporin-A.

It is used as a :–

(1) Immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant

patient

(2) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

(3) Clot buster

(4) treatment of AIDS

95. If a genetic disease is trasferred from a

phenotypically normal but carrier female to only

some of the male progeny, the disease is :–

(1) Hutington chorea (2) Cystic fibrosis

(3) Pseudo ricketes (4) Colourblindness

96. Which of the following are not analogous

organs :-

(1) Fins of fishes and flippers of whales

(2) Stings of honey bee and scorpion

(3) Thorns of bougainville a and tendrils of

cucurbtta

(4) Wings of insects and wings of bird


H-19/39Kota/01CM314241

97. :-

(i) 4

(ii)

(iii) GABA

(iv)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

98. (a)

(b)

(c)

(1) (a) – , (b) – , (c) – 21

(2) (a) – , (b) – 21 ,

(c) –

(3) (a) – , (b) – , (c) –

(4) (a) – 21 , (b) – ,

(c) –

99.

(a) A

A

A

A

B

C(b)

A

A

B

B

C

C

(c) A

A

X

X

1

1(d)

A

A

A

X

1

1

A, B, C X 1

:-

(1) b c

(2) a, b c

(3) c

(4) d

97. How many statements are true for 'Huntington

chorea' ?

(i) It is an Autosomal dominant disorder related

to 4th chromosome.

(ii) Dancing Neck feature found due to involuntary

movements of voluntary muscles

(iii) Deficiency of neurotransmitter GABA.

(iv) -Amyloid proteins accumulation found in

different parts of brain.

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Zero

98. (a) Most common cause of hypogonadism in male ?

(b) Most common cause of mental retardation in

children ?

(c) Most common sex aneuploidy ?

(1) (a) – Down syndrome, (b) – Turner syndrome,

(c) – 21 trisomy

(2) (a) – Klinefelter syndrome, (b) – 21 trisomy,

(c) – Klienfelter syndrome

(3) (a) – Turner syndrome, (b) – Down syndrom,

(c) – Jacob syndrome

(4) (a) – 21 trisomy, (b) – Down syndrome,

(c) – Klienfelter syndrome

99. Study the following diagram carefully :-

(a) A

A

A

A

B

C(b)

A

A

B

B

C

C

(c) A

A

X

X

1

1(d)

A

A

A

X

1

1

In above diagram A, B, C are bird, X is a

mammalian species and 1 is plant species, choose

the incorrect statement :-

(1) b and c are equivalent

(2) a, b and c have same species richness

(3) c is most diverse area

(4) d is most diverse area

Kota/01CM314241H-20/39


100. I, II, III, IV

I II III IV

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a

(2) b c (3) a b c

(4) a d 101. :–

(a) (b)

(c)

(d) (e)

(f) :–

(1) (2) (3) (4) 102.

?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

103.

:–(1)

(2) (3)

(4)

100. Match the column I, II, III and IV choose the

correct option for resources.

I II III IV

Conventional Nonconventional Renewable Nonrenewable

(a) Coal Wind energy Water Species

(b) Solar energy Wind energy Plant Coal

(c) Solar energy Coal Species Natural gas

(d) Hydropower Solar energy Wild life Minerals

(1) Only a is correct

(2) b and c are correct

(3) a, b, c are correct

(4) a and d are correct

101. Consider the following statements :–

(a) Isogametes of Cladophora are biflagellated

(b) Several organisms belonging to monera, fungi,

algae and bryophytes have haploid body.

(c) Cells which produce microspore tetrads are

diploid

(d) Pollination by wind is quite common in grasses

(e) Gametophytic generation is completely absent

in case of adventive embryony.

(f) Cells of perisperms are haploid

How many above statements is/are incorrect :–

(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three

102. Which of the following can not be detected in a

developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(1) Sex of foetus (2) Jaundice

(3) Metabolic disorder (4) Down syndrome

103.

In Pedigree inheritance of which type of disease

is possible :–

(1) Colourblindness

(2) Pseudoricketes

(3) Myotonic dystrophy

(4) Sickle cell Anaemia


H-21/39Kota/01CM314241

104. :–

(1)

(2) RNA

(3) DNA

(4) DNA

105. 'A' 'B' F

1

(aabb) :–

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

106. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

107. A B :–

- A - B

(i) (a)

(ii)

(b)

(iii) (c)

(iv) (d)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (d) (c) (b) (a)

(2) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) (d) (b) (c) (a)

(4) (a) (c) (b) (d)

108. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (SARS)

104. What is the normal role of restriction endonuclease

in bacterial cell :–

(1) To degrade the bacterial chromosome in to

small pieces during replication

(2) To produce RNA primer for replication

(3) To degrade invading phage DNA

(4) To produce DNA primer during replication

105. Two genes 'A' and 'B' are completely linked. In

a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the

F1 heterozygote is crossed with homozygous

recessive parental type (aabb). What would be the

ratio of offspring in the next generation :–

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

106. Raw material for natural selection is :-

(1) Variations (2) Branching descent

(3) Adaptation (4) Competition

107. Match the following column A & B :–

Column - A Column - B

(i) Erection ofpenis

(a) Parasympatheticsystem

(ii) Acceleration ofBMR

(b) Vagus Nervestimulation

(iii) Bradycardia (c) Thyroxine

(iv) Rage & anger (d) Limbic system

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (d) (c) (b) (a)

(2) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) (d) (b) (c) (a)

(4) (a) (c) (b) (d)

108. Pneumonia like symptoms not found in ?

(1) Common cold

(2) Bird flu

(3) Swine flu

(4) SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)

Kota/01CM314241H-22/39


109. (1 2) 1 2

Species 1

Nu

mb

er o

f in

div

dua

ls

Time

With species 2

Alone

Species 2

Nu

mb

er o

f in

div

dua

ls

Time

With species 1

Alone

(1)

(2)

1

(3)

2

(4)

110. -I -II :-

lkj.kh-I lkj.kh-II

(i) leqæ ry (a) iw.kZ ikfjra=k

(ii) o"kkZ ty

rky (b) mRiknd jfgr

(iii) ou (c) miHkksDrk jfgr

(iv) ekuo }kjk

iks"kd izokg(d) d̀f"k ifjra=k

(1) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – a, (iv) – d

(2) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – d, (iv) – a

(3) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – a, (iv) – d

(4) (i) – a, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – b

111. :–(A) — (B) — (C) —

(1) A (2) C

(3) A B (4) A C

109. In laboratory experiments, two species of the

protist Paramecium (species 1 and 2) were grown

alone and in the presence of the other species. The

following graphs show growth of species 1 and 2,

both alone and when in mixed culture with the

other species.

Species 1

Nu

mb

er o

f in

div

dua

ls

Time

With species 2

Alone

Species 2N

um

ber

of

ind

ivd

uals

Time

With species 1

Alone

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn

from the graphs ?

(1) Competitive exclusion occurred in these

experiments.

(2) Both species are affected by interspecific

competition but species 1 is affected less.

(3) Both species are affected by interspecific

competition but species 2 is affected less.

(4) Both species are affected equally by

interspecific competition

110. Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Sea bottom (a) Complete ecosystem

(ii) Rain water

pond(b) Without producer

(iii) Forest (c) Without Consumer

(iv) Nutrients Input

by man(d) Agro ecosystem

(1) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – a, (iv) – d

(2) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – d, (iv) – a

(3) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – a, (iv) – d

(4) (i) – a, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – b

111. Select correctly matched pair/s :–

(A) Somatic apospory — Hieracium

(B) Vallisneria — Dioelious

(C) Endospermic seed — Castor

(1) Only A (2) Only C

(3) Only A & B (4) All A to C


H-23/39Kota/01CM314241

112. I, II III :-

-I()

-II()

-III()

A a i

B b ii

C c iii

(1) A b iii; B c i; C a ii

(2) A b ii; B c iii; C a i

(3) A c i; B a ii; C b iii

(4) A b ii; B c i; C a iii

113.

(1) A B

(2) A B

(3) A B

(4) A B

114. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

115. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) DNA

112. Identify the correct match from the columns I, II

and III :-

Column-I(Types of egg

mebrane)

Column-II(Origin)

Column-III(Example)

A Primary a Oviduct i Corona radiata

B Secondary b Oocyte ii Zona pellucida

C Tertiary c Ovary iii Shell membrane

(1) A b iii; B c i; C a ii

(2) A b ii; B c iii; C a i

(3) A c i; B a ii; C b iii

(4) A b ii; B c i; C a iii

113.

Find out correct statements

(1) Cross A and B produce same result because

gene is sex linked

(2) Cross A and B produce different results

because gene is autosomal

(3) Cross A and B produce same results because

gene is autosomal

(4) Cross A and B produce different result because

gene is lethal

114. Proinsulin composed of :–

(1) Two peptide chain

(2) Three peptide chain

(3) Four peptide chain

(4) None of these

115. Which of the following statement does not hold

true for restriction enzyme:–

(1) It recognises a palindromic

(2) It is an endonuclease

(3) It is isolated from bacteria

(4) It produces the different kind of sticky ends

in different DNA molecule

Kota/01CM314241H-24/39


116. :-(1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4)

117. (1) (2) (3) (4)

118. (1) ELISA (2) PCR

(3) (4) 119. (a), (b), (c) (d)

(b)

(a)

(c)

(d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

120. A, B, C :-

B

C

A

A B C

(1) P/R = 0 P/R > 1 P/R < 1

(2) P/R > 1 P/R < 1 P/R = 1

(3) P/R = 1 P/R > 1 P/R < 1

(4) P/R = 1 P/R < 1 P/R > 1

116. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence within

a gene are :-

(1) Frame shift mutations

(2) Base pair change

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Chromosomal aberration

117. Type of neuron found in 'Dorsal root ganglia of

spinal cord' ?

(1) Pseudounipolar (2) Bipolar

(3) Unipolar (4) Multipolar

118. Confirmatory test for AIDS is :–

(1) ELISA (2) PCR

(3) Western blot (4) T-lymphocyte count

119. Identify the organism (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the

food web shown below ?

Rabbit

(b)

Goat

(a)

Frog

Wolf

Lion

Snake PeacockProducers/vegetation

Mice (c) Dog

Deer (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Rat Crow Deer Lizard

(2) Fox Insect Cat Wolf

(3) Insect Crow Wolf Lizard

(4) Rat Crow Deer Wolf

120. Identify the place A, B, C of lake and choose

correct option :-

B

C

A

A B C

(1) P/R = 0 P/R > 1 P/R < 1

(2) P/R > 1 P/R < 1 P/R = 1

(3) P/R = 1 P/R > 1 P/R < 1

(4) P/R = 1 P/R < 1 P/R > 1


H-25/39Kota/01CM314241

121. :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

122. :-

xHkZfujks/ kd ; qfDr vUr'k s Zi dk LFky

(1) LNG – 20 fu"kspu ufydk

(2) Lippes loop xHkk Z'k; fHkfÙk

(3) Implants lcD;wVsfu;l

(4) Multiload 375 xHkk Z'k; fHkfÙk

123. A, B C :–

A

B

C

(1) A – Gg, B – Gg, C – gg

(2) A – GG, B – Gg, C – gg

(3) A – GG, B – GG, C – gg

(4) A – Gg, B – GG, C – gg

121. Which of the following type of ovule is also called

resupinate ovule :–

(1) Orthrotropous ovule

(2) Anatropous ovule

(3) Hemianatropous

(4) Campylotropous

122. Identify the contraceptive device shown below as

well as the related right place of its implantation

into a woman and select the correct option for the

two together :

Contraceptive device Site of implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implants Subcutanceous

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

123. Given Pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal

dominant trait then. Find out genotype of A, B and

C :–

A

B

C

(1) A – Gg, B – Gg, C – gg

(2) A – GG, B – Gg, C – gg

(3) A – GG, B – GG, C – gg

(4) A – Gg, B – GG, C – gg

Kota/01CM314241H-26/39


124. PCR - Taq- :–

(1) DNA

(2)

DNA

tempelate

(3) DNA

(4)

125.

AB

CD

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

1

2

3

4

126. :-

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) i only (2) ii and iii

(3) i and ii (4) i, ii and iii

124. In PCR - technique, what is the function of

Taq-polymerase ?

(1) This enzyme separates two strands of DNA

(2) This enzyme extends the primers using the

nucleotides provided in the reaction and the

genomic DNA as template

(3) This enzyme is responsible for joining of

primers to DNA template

(4) None of these

125.

AB

CD


1 Triceratops Tyrannosaurus Stegosaurus Brachiosaurus

2 Tyrannosaurus Triceratops Stegosaurus Brachiosaurus

3 Stegosaurus Triceratops Tyrannosaurus Brachiosaurus

4 Tyrannosaurs Stegosaurus Triceratops Brachiosaurus

126. Which of the following statements is/are correct :-

(i) Homology is based on divergent evolution

where as analogy refers to a situation exactly

opposite

(ii) Analogous structures result due to convergent

evolution

(iii)Analogy is based on divergent evolution

(iv) Homology is based on convergent evolution

where as analogy refers to a situation exactly

opposite

(1) i only (2) ii and iii

(3) i and ii (4) i, ii and iii


H-27/39Kota/01CM314241

127. (1) (2)

(3)

(4) 128. (A, B, C D)

(A)

T4

T3

T2

T1

3

354000

708000

5842000

TC

SC

PC

PP

(B) PC 21

4PP

(C) T4

T3

T2

T1

10 J

100 J

1000 J

10000 J

TC

SC

PC

PP

(D) T4

T3

T2

T1

1.5 Kg

11 Kg

37 Kg

809 Kg

TC

SC

PC

PP

:-

(1) (A)

(2) (B)

(3) (C)

(4) (D)

127. Saltatory conduction of nerve impulse are having

following advantages except :–

(1) No need to generate action potential

(2) Action potential jumps from node to node

(3) Leakage of ions is less and only at node of

Ranvier

(4) Less energy is required

128. The four pyramids (A, B, C and D) given below

represent four different type of ecosystem

ecological pyramids, which one of these is

correctly identified in the options given, along

with its correct ecosystem & type of pyramid.

(A)

T4

T3

T2

T1

3

354000

708000

5842000

TC

SC

PC

PP

(B) PC 21

4PP

(C) T4

T3

T2

T1

10 J

100 J

1000 J

10000 J

TC

SC

PC

PP

(D) T4

T3

T2

T1

1.5 Kg

11 Kg

37 Kg

809 Kg

TC

SC

PC

PP

Options :-

Type of pyramid Ecosystem

(1) (A) Pyramid ofnumber

Treeecosystem

(2) (B) Pyramid ofBiomass

Grasslandecosystem

(3) (C) Pyramid of energy Grasslandecosystem

(4) (D) Pyramid ofBiomass

Seaecosystem

Kota/01CM314241H-28/39


129. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

130.

–15–10–505

1015202530

50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450

(°C

)

E F

D

C

BA

A, B, C, D, E, F

A B C D E F

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

131. :–(1) (2) (3) (4)

132. ?

(1) MOET

(2) (3) (4)

133. (AaBbCc)(aabbcc) :–(1) -7 -27

(2) -4 -8(3) -4 -4(4) - 8 -8

129. Large body size, cyclomorphosis are example of:-

(1) Physiological adaptation and morphological

adaptation

(2) Morphological adaptation

(3) Behavioural adaptation

(4) Physiological adaptation

130.

–15–10–505

1015202530

50 100 150 200 250 300 350 400 450

Mea

n a

nnu

al t

emper

ature

(°C

)

Mean annual precipitation (cm)

E F

D

C

BA

Identify the biome A, B, C, D, E, F from above

graph.

A B C D E F

(1) Rainforst

Coniferous Desert Grassland Tundra Temperatedeciduous

(2) Tundra Temperatedeciduous

Coniferous Desert Grassland Rain forest

(3) Rainforest

Temperatedeciduous

Coniferous Tundra Desert Grassland

(4) Rainforst

Coniferous Temperatedeciduous

Tundra Grassland Desert

131. Sometimes fern prothallus cell gives rise to fern

plant. Such a phenomenon is called :–

(1) Apogamy

(2) Diploid parthenogenesis

(3) Apospory

(4) Adventive embryony

132. Which of the following technologies is used for

induced breeding in fishes ?

(1) MOET

(2) Hypophysation

(3) Intra uterine insemination

(4) Artifical Insemination

133. If a mullato (AaBbCc) man marries with white

(aabbcc) female, then How many different

phenotype and genotype will be obtained:–

(1) Phenotype -7 genotype -27

(2) Phenotype -4 Genotype -8

(3) Phenotype -4 Genotype -4

(4) Phenotype - 8 Genotype -8


H-29/39Kota/01CM314241

134. PCR (Taq-polymerase) :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135.

B

D

C

A

A,B,C D


1

2

3

4

136. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

134. In PCR technique, which step requires thermostable

enzyme (Taq-polymerase) :–

(1) Denaturation only

(2) Annealing and Extension

(3) Only Extension

(4) Denaturation and extension

135.

B

D

C

A

Find A,B,C and D and select the right option about

them :-


1 Wombat KoalaMarsupialmole

Bandicoot

2 Koala WombatMarsupialmole

Bandicoot

3 Bandicoot WombatMarsupialmole

Koala

4 Wombat BandicootMarsupialmole

Koala

136. According to Hugo de Vries, evolution is caused

by the :-

(1) Random and directional mutation

(2) Random and non-directional mutation

(3) Small and directional mutation

(4) Large and directional mutation

Kota/01CM314241H-30/39


137. Non-phagocytic cells those takes part in immunity

is/are ?

(1) NK cells (Natural killer)

(2) T-killer cells

(3) Goblet cells of mucosa

(4) All

138. Which of the following options gives the correct

categorisation of six animals according to the type

of feeding habits (A, B, C) :-

(A)Scavenger

(B)Predator

(C)Omnivorous

i Vulture, Snake Lion, Shark Peacock,man

ii Vulture,Earthworm

Wolf, Sparrow Man, crow

iii Fox, Ant Hunting Dog,Rabbit

Vulture,Hawk

iv Decomposerbacteria & fungi

Sparrow, goat Man,Peacock

(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii)

(3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (ii) & (iv)

139. Match the column I with Column II ?

Column-I Column-II

(i) Dachigam (a) Snow leopard

(ii) Periyar (b) Four horned deer

(iii) Sikkim (c) Hangul

(iv) Kanha (d) Elephant

(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) b (iv) d

(2) (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) b

(3) (i) d (ii) a (iii) c (iv) b

(4) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a

140. In the map given below the shaded part indicates

the former and the present distribution of an

animal. Which animal could it be :-

(1) Wild ass.

(2) Nilgai

(3) Black buck

(4) Lion

137. ?

(1) NK ( )

(2)

(3)

(4)

138. (A, B, C)

(A)

(B)

(C)

i

ii

iii

iv

(1) (i) (2) (ii)

(3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (ii) & (iv)

139. I II ?

-I -II

(i) (a)

(ii) (b)

(iii) (c)

(iv) (d)

(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) b (iv) d

(2) (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) b

(3) (i) d (ii) a (iii) c (iv) b

(4) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a

140.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-31/39Kota/01CM314241

141. Match the column-I with column-II and choose

correct option :–

Column-IName of animals

Column-IIApproximate life span

(A) Crocodile (i) 140 Years

(B) Carp (ii) 47 Years

(C) Butter-fly (iii) 1-2 Weeks

(D) Parrot (iv) 60 Years

(E) May-fly (v) 1 Day

A B C D E

(1) ii iii iv v i

(2) iv ii iii i v

(3) iv iii ii v i

(4) iii ii iv i v

142. Read the following four statements (a-d) :-

(a) It is estimated that more than 70% of the world

live stock population is in India and China.

(b) Animal husbandry is the agriculture practice

of breeding and raising live stock

(c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the

quality of breeds in the farm

(d) Inbreeding increases heterozygosity

How many of above statement is/are correct :-

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

143. If genotype of both parents is Hh – IAIB, then

what will be proportion of progeny with

genotype – hh – IAIB :–

(1) 4/16 (2) 2/16 (3) 1/16 (4) 1/1

144. In RNA interference (RNA i) :–

(1) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to a

complementary ds RNA molecule that binds

to and prevent translation of the m-RNA

(2) The silencing of a specific m-RNA due to

ds-DNA

(3) The silencing of a specific m-RNA due to

t-RNA

(4) All the above

141. -I -II :–

-I

-II

(A) (i) 140

(B) (ii) 47

(C) (iii) 1-2

(D) (iv) 60

(E) (v) 1

A B C D E

(1) ii iii iv v i

(2) iv ii iii i v

(3) iv iii ii v i

(4) iii ii iv i v

142. (a-d) :-

(a) 70%

(b)

(c)

(d)

:-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

143. Hh – IAIB , – hh – IAIB :–

(1) 4/16 (2) 2/16 (3) 1/16 (4) 1/1

144. RNA :–

(1) m-RNA RNA m-RNA

(2) DNA m-RNA

(3) t-RNA m-RNA

(4)

Kota/01CM314241H-32/39


145. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Five factors are known to affect Hardy-

Weinberg equilibrium

(B) Due to migration in population, gene

frequencies changed

(C) Genetic drift is a random phenomenon

(D) 'Founders effect' operates in small population.

How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three

146. Which of the following statements is true for

Neanderthal man :-

(1) Brain size of 1400c.c and lived near east and

central Asia

(2) Brain size of 1400c.c and lived in east Africa

(3) Brain size of 1200c.c and lived in central asia

(4) Brain size of 900c.c and lived near east and

central Asia

147. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

constitutes about % of the lymphoid tissue

in human body :–

(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 20

148. How many statement is/are incorrect about food

chain:

(a) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in

aquatic ecosystem

(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not

directly sun

(c) Detritus food chain may be connected to

grazing food chain somewhere

(d) In grazing food chain size of organisms

commmonly decreases at higher level

(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

149. National forest policy (1988) of india has

recommended ........ % of forest cover for the

plains and ......... % for the hills :-

(1) 33; 19.4 (2) 33; 67

(3) 19.4; 33 (4) 33, 100

150. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation

approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial

radiation –

(1) 42½ ° North and South

(2) 22½ ° North and South

(3) 40° North and South

(4) 66° North and South

145. (A-D) :-

(A)

(B)

(C) (D) ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

146. :-(1) 1400c.c

(2) 1400c.c (3) 1200c.c

(4) 900 c c

147. (MALT) % :–

(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 20

148. :-(a) GFC

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (2) (3) (4) 149. (1988)

........ % ......... % :-(1) 33; 19.4 (2) 33; 67

(3) 19.4; 33 (4) 33, 100

150. –

(1) 42½ ° (2) 22½ ° (3) 40° (4) 66°

Time Management is Life Management


H-33/39Kota/01CM314241

151. A structural and functional unit between developing

embryo (foetus) and maternal body called -

(1) Umbilical cord (2) Allantois

(3) Yolk sac (4) Placenta

152. It is a diagrammatic sectional view of female

reproductive system. At what site the embryo

derelops :-

C

D

A

B

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. Which of the following is correct for lac operon :–

I. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred

to as negative regulation

II. Glucose and galactose act as inducer for lac

operon

III. Polycistronic structural gene is regulated by

a different promoter and regulator genes

IV. -galactosidase is also responsible for

isomeric changes of lactose in to allolactose

(1) only I and II (2) I, II and III

(3) only I and IV (4) only I

154. Transgenic animals produce biological

product such as -1-antitrypsin which is used to

treat :–

(1) Emphysema (2) Cystic fibrosis

(3) Phenyl ketonuria (4) Sickle cell anaemia

155. Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Chemical mutagens are less harmful than

radiations because the body is protected

against chemicals.

(2) Australopithecus first showed bipedal

locomotion

(3) Tree shrews were first real primates

(4) Apes have less dense hair than humans.

156. According to Haeckel's biogenetic law :-

(1) Development of individual metazoan,

shows embryonic characters of ancestors

(2) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

(3) Phylogeny recapitulate ontogeny

(4) Geumplasm is immortal

151. -

(1) (2) (3) (4)

152. :-

C

D

A

B

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. :–I.

II.

III.

IV. -

(1) I II (2) I, II III

(3) I IV (4) I

154. -1- :–(1) (2) (3) (4)

155. (1)

(2) (3) (4)

156. :-(1)

(2) (3)

(4)

Kota/01CM314241H-34/39


157. Every antibody is specific because ?

(1) Specific type of bonds found in each antibody

(2) There are only five type of antigens

stimulates to form only 5 types of antibodies

(IgG, A, M, D, E)

(3) Fc segment is different for each antibody

(4) Parotope is specifically designed for each type

of epitope in every antibody

158. In the list given below how many areas represent

the examples of primary succession.

Abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forest, newly

cooled lava, lands that have been flooded, bare

rock, newly created pond.

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

159. Which of the following is not a method of

physiological adaptation :-

(1) Internal fat oxidation for water in kangaroo

rat

(2) Increased heart pulsation on high altitude

(3) Urine concentration in kangaroo rat

(4) Anti freezing protein in fish to tolerate cold

160. In which one of the following the BOD

(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S),

distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE)

and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged

in ascending order ?

(1) S < DE< PE < SE

(2) SE < S < PE < DE

(3) SE < PE < S < DE

(4) PE < S < SE < DE

161. Which type of cells have the potency to give rise

to all the tissue and organs in embryo ?

(1) Trophoblast

(2) Amniogenic cells

(3) Inner cell mass

(4) Extra embryonic mesoderm

162. In which of the following case the F1 generation

resembles both the parents ?

(1) Co dominance

(2) Incomplete dominance

(3) Dominance

(4) Inheritance of one gene

157.

(1)

(2)

(IgG, A, M, D, E)

(3) Fc

(4)

158.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

159. (1)

(2)

(3) (4)

160. (S), (DE), (PE)

(SE) BOD

(1) S < DE< PE < SE

(2) SE < S < PE < DE

(3) SE < PE < S < DE

(4) PE < S < SE < DE

161. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

162. F1

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


H-35/39Kota/01CM314241

163. Match the column I with column II :–

Mendelian

character

Chromosome No.

(A) seed shape (i) Chromosome No I

(B) Fruit colour (ii) Chromosome No IV

(C) Flower

position

(iii) Chromosome No V

(D) Seed colour (iv) Chromosome No VII

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii,D-iii

(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

164. Which statement is incorrect for VNTR sequence:–

(i) VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA

referred to as microsatellite

(ii) Copy number of VNTR varies from

chromosome to chromosome in an indiviual

(iii) The size of VNTR varies in size from 0.1 to

20 kb

(iv) The number of repeat of VNTR show very

low degree of polymorphism

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)

165. Praying mantis is a good example of :-

(1) mullerian mimicry

(2) warning colouration

(3) social insects

(4) camouflage

166. Nissil's granules are absent in all, except ?

(1) White matter of brain

(2) Axons of non-myelinated nerve fibres

(3) Gray matter of spinal cord

(4) Cortex part of spinal cord

167. Short term graft rejection is due to ?

(1) MHC-I mismatching & T-killer cells attacks

transplanted cells.

(2) MHC-II mismatching & T-helper gets

activated

(3) MHC-I matched but MHC-II not matched

(4) No relation with MHC

163. I II :–

(A)

(i) I

(B) (ii) IV

(C) (iii) V

(D) (iv) VII

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii,D-iii

(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

164. VNTR :–

(i) VNTR DNA

(ii) VNTR

(iii) VNTR 0.1 20 kb

(iv) VNTR

(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) (4) (i) (iv)

165. :-(1) (2)

(3) (4)

166. (1)

(2) (3) (4)

167. (1) MHC-I

(2) MHC-II

(3) MHC-I MHC-II

(4) MHC

Kota/01CM314241H-36/39


168. Given below are some of the stages of hydrach

(A) Marsh meadow stage

(B) Reed swamp stage

(C) Submerged plant stage

(D) Phytoplankton stage

(E) Free floating stage

Select the option that represents the correct

sequence of these stages :-

(1) D, C, E, B and A (2) C, E, A, B and D

(3) B, D, C, A and E (4) D,E,C,B and A

169. (i) Sacred groves (ii) Hot spots.

(iii)National park (iv) Wild life safari park

(v) Seed bank (vi) Biosphere Reserve

(a) i, ii, iii, vi are the example of insitu conservation.

(b) iv, v are the example of Ex-situ conservation

(c) ii, iv, v are the example of exsitu conservation

(d) ii, iv, v, are the example of insitu conservation.

(1) a,b is correct (2) Only b is correct

(3) c,d is correct (4) a,d is correct

170. Gases that are commonly known as green house

gases :-

(1) CO2 and CH

4

(2) CO2 and CFC

(3) N2O and CFC

(4) N2O and CH

4

171. Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the

option which includes all the correct ones only :

(a) Parturition is induced by a complex neuro-

endocrine mechanism

(b) During parturition, secretion of progesterone

decreases but secretion of estrogen increases

from placenta

(c) Progesteron, hCG, hPL and estrogens are

produced in women only during pregnancy

(d) The first movement of the foetus and

appearance of hairs on the head are usually

observed during the third month of pregnancy

(1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)

(3) Only (a) and (b)

(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

168.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

:-

(1) D, C, E, B A (2) C, E, A, B D

(3) B, D, C, A E (4) D,E,C,B A

169. (i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v) (vi)

(a) i, ii, iii, vi

(b) iv, v

(c) ii, iv, v

(d) ii, iv, v

(1) a,b (2) b

(3) c,d (4) a,d

170. :-

(1) CO2 CH

4

(2) CO2 CFC

(3) N2O CFC

(4) N2O CH

4

171. (a-d)

:

(a)

(b)

(c) hCG,

hPL

(d)

(1) (a), (c) (d)

(2) (a), (b) (c)

(3) (a) (b)

(4) (a), (b), (c) (d)


H-37/39Kota/01CM314241

172. Which of the following cross produce four types

of progenies in ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

A = AABB × aaBB

B = AaBb × aabb

C = AaBB × aabb

D = Aabb × aaBb

(1) A, B and C (2) B and D

(3) B, C and D (4) A, B, C and D

173. Some crop varities breed by hybridization and

slection, for disease resistance to fungi, bacteria

and viral disease are released and given in the

following table. Fill up the blanks A and B :–

Crop Varieties Resistance to disease

Wheat A-----

Leaf and stripe rust,

hill bunt

Chilli B-----

Chilly mosaic virus,

tobacco mosaic virus

(1) A- Himgiri, B- Pusa komal

(2) A- Himgiri, B- Pusa sadabahar

(3) A- Pusa komal, B- Himgiri

(4) A- Pusa swarnim, B- Pusa komal

174. A female is carrier for both albinism and colour

blindness. She marries a man, who is carrier for

albinism but colourblind. What percentage of her

daughter will be albino and colourblind :–

(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5%

175. Which one of the following is incorrect about the

characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and

microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin

of life :-

(1) They were partially isolated from the

surroundings

(2) They could maintain an internal environment

(3) They were able to reproduce

(4) They could separate combinations of molecules

from the surrounding

176. Ganglioside

??

Myelinogenesis sphingomyelin.

In central nervous system, above reaction is

performed by enzyme & this enzyme

found in cells :–

(1) -N-acetyl hexoseaminidase, oligodendrocytes

(2) Myelinase, schwann cells

(3) lipase, oligodendrocytes

(4) -N-acetye hexoseaminidase, schwann cells

172. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 A = AABB × aaBB

B = AaBb × aabb

C = AaBB × aabb

D = Aabb × aaBb

(1) A, B and C (2) B and D

(3) B, C and D (4) A, B, C and D

173. A B :–

A-----

B-----

(1) A- , B- (2) A- , B- (3) A- , B- (4) A- , B-

174. :–(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 12.5% (4) 37.5%

175. :-(1) (2)

(3) (4)

176. ??

(1) -N-

(2)

(3)

(4) -N-

Kota/01CM314241H-38/39


177. Pernicious Anaemia is caused due to ?

(1) Formation of autoantibodies against Castle's

intrinsic factor

(2) Dietary deficiency of vitamin B12

(3) Deficiency of tyrosine

(4) (1) & (2) both

178. Which of the following part of lake receives

maximum light above light compensation

point :-

(1) Euphotic zone

(2) Benthic zone

(3) Disphotic zone

(4) Profundal zone

179. Why some plant produce Nicotine, Caffeine,

Quinine, strychinine.

(a) Because these substance are extract by

humans for commercial benifit

(b) For defences against grazers and browsers

(c) These play a major role in many ecosystem

services that nature provides.

(d) To attract pollenators

(1) a,b,c (2) Only b,d

(3) b,c (4) Ony b

180. What shall be the effect of destruction of wild

life :–

(1) Wild gene of disease resistance will not be

obtained

(2) Soil erosion

(3) Floods

(4) Green house effect

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Your moral duty

is to prove that is

177. ?

(1) Castle Intrinsic factor

(2) B12

(3) (4) (1) (2)

178. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

179. (a)

(b) (c)

(d) (1) a,b,c (2) b,d

(3) b,c (4) b

180.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


H-39/39Kota/01CM314241

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