Hindi PAPER CODE FORM NUMBER CLASSROOM CONTACT …
Transcript of Hindi PAPER CODE FORM NUMBER CLASSROOM CONTACT …
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)
T M
FORM NUMBER
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)
PAPER CODE
TEST # 02 DATE : 10 - 01 - 2015
0 0 C M 2 1 4 0 0 4
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 [email protected]
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
INSTRUCTIONS ()
www.allen.ac.in
ENTHUSIAST COURSE : PHASE - I
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT
Hindi
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
TEST SYLLABUS : 11th SYLLABUS
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.
Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-1/39Kota/00CM214004
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle of
150° is 10 kg wt, and is perpendicular to one of
the forces. The smaller force is :-
(1) 10 3 kg wt (2) 20 3 kg wt
(3) 20 kg wt (4) 20 / 3 kg wt
2. Two bodies A and B each of mass M are fixed
together by a massless spring. A force F acts on
the mass B as shown in Fig. At the instant shown
the mass A has acceleration a. What is the
acceleration of mass B :-
A B F
(1) (F/M) – a (2) a
(3) – a (4) (F / M)
3. If the potential energy between electron and
proton at a distance r is given by 2
3
keU
3r
.
the force is :-
(1) 2
2
keF
r (2)
2
4
3 keF
4 r
(3) 2
4
keF
r (4)
2keF
r
4. A plane is in the level flight at constant speed and
each of its two wings and has an area of 25 m2.
If the speed 180 km/hr over the lower wing and
234 km/hr over the upper wing surface determine
the plane's mass :- (Take air density to be 1 kgm–3)
(1) 4312 kg (2) 5472 kg
(3) 7289 kg (4) 3169 kg
5. An ideal gas is taken through a process where
dQ = dU – dW. The specific heat of the ideal
gas in this process is (dQ = heat supplied to the
gas, dU = change in internal energy, dW = work
done by gas)
(1) CV
(2) CV +
3
2R
(3) CV – R
(4) the process is impossible
1. 150° 10 :-
(1) 10 3 (2) 20 3
(3) 20 (4) 20 / 3
2. M A B F B A a B :-
A B F
(1) (F/M) – a (2) a
(3) – a (4) (F / M)
3. r
2
3
keU
3r
-
(1) 2
2
keF
r (2)
2
4
3 keF
4 r
(3) 2
4
keF
r (4)
2keF
r
4. 25 m2180 km/hr 234 km/hr :- ( 1 kg m–3)
(1) 4312 kg (2) 5472 kg
(3) 7289 kg (4) 3169 kg
5. dQ = dU – dW
(dQ = dU =
, dW = )(1) C
V
(2) CV +
3
2R
(3) CV – R
(4)
Kota/00CM214004H-2/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
6. Vectors A
and B
can be expressed as
ˆ ˆA 8i 6j
and ˆ ˆB i j
. Component of A
in
the direction of B
is :-
(1) 3 ˆ ˆi j4
(2) 5 ˆ ˆi j2
(3) ˆ ˆi j (4) 1 ˆ ˆi j2
7. Fig. (A), (B) and (C) show three different
situations of the surface of liquid contained in a
vessel that is moving towards right :-
(A) (B) (C)
These figures indicate, respectively, that the
vessel is
(1) moving with uniform speed, accelerating,
decelerating
(2) moving with uniform speed, deceleration,
accelerating
(3) accelerating, decelerating moving with
uniform speed
(4) decelerating, accelerating moving with
uniform speed
8. A rod of length L has non-uniformly distributed
mass along its length. For its mass per unit length
varying with distance x from one end as
02
m
L(L + x). Find the position of centre of mass
of this system.
(1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) 3L/9 (4) 5L/9
9. The velocity of water in a river is 18 km/hr at the
surface. If the river is 5m deep. Find shearing
stress between the horizontal layers of water. The
viscosity of water is 10–3 poiseulli :-
(1) 10–3 Nm–2 (2) 2 × 10–4 Nm–2
(3) 5 × 10–5 Nm–2 (4) None of these
10. A mass M is suspended from a spring of
negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and
then released so that the mass executes SHM of
time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the
time period becomes 5T
3, then the ratio of
m
Mis :-
(1)3
5(2)
25
9(3)
16
9(4)
5
3
6. ˆ ˆA 8i 6j
ˆ ˆB i j
A
B
:-
(1) 3 ˆ ˆi j4
(2) 5 ˆ ˆi j2
(3) ˆ ˆi j (4) 1 ˆ ˆi j2
7. (A), (B) (C) :-
(A) (B) (C)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
8. L
02
m
L(L + x) x
-
(1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) 3L/9 (4) 5L/9
9. 18 km/hr 5m 10–3 :-(1) 10–3 Nm–2 (2) 2 × 10–4 Nm–2
(3) 5 × 10–5 Nm–2 (4) None of these
10. M
T
m 5T
3
m
M
(1)3
5(2)
25
9(3)
16
9(4)
5
3
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-3/39Kota/00CM214004
11. From dimensional consideration which of the
following equations is correct :-
(1) 3T 2 R / GM (2) 3T 2 GM / R
(3) 2T 2 GM / R (4) 2T 2 R / GM
12. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of
weight W and while carrying it on his head;
jumped down from a wall of height h to the
ground. Before he reached ground he experienced
a load of :-
(1) 2W (2) W (3) W/2 (4) zero
13. A bullet of mass m and velocity v passes through
a pendulum of mass M and emerges with velocity
v/2. What is the minimum value of v such that
the pendulum will swing through a complete
cycle-
(1) M
2 gm
(2) 2M
2 gm
(3) M
5 g2m
(4) 2M
5 gm
14. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d
2
(d1 > d
2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet
is heated the distance between the holes will–
d1
d2
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) may either increase or decrease depending on
the positions of the holes on the sheet and
on the ratio 1
2
d
d.
15. Frequency of oscillation of a body is 6 Hz when
force F1 is applied and 8 Hz when F
2 is applied.
If both force F1 and F2 are applied together then
frequency of oscillation is :-
(1) 6 Hz (2) 14 Hz (3) 10 Hz (4) 8 Hz
16. The percentage errors in the measurement of length
and time period of a simple pendulum are 1% and 2%
respectively. Then the maximum error in the
measurement of acceleration due to gravity is :-
(1) 8% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5%
11. :-
(1) 3T 2 R / GM (2) 3T 2 GM / R
(3) 2T 2 GM / R (4) 2T 2 R / GM
12. h :-
(1) 2W (2) W (3) W/2 (4)
13. m M v
v/2 v
(1) M
2 gm
(2) 2M
2 gm
(3) M
5 g2m
(4) 2M
5 gm
14. d1 d
2 (d
1 > d
2)
d1
d2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1
2
d
d
15. F1 6Hz
F2 8 Hz (1) 6 Hz (2) 14 Hz (3) 10 Hz (4) 8 Hz
16. 1% 2%
:-
(1) 8% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5%
Kota/00CM214004H-4/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
17. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force
ˆ ˆF 3i 4 j N
. If its initial velocity at t = 0 is
1ˆ ˆv 6i 12 j ms
, the time at which it will just
have a velocity along the y-axis is :-
(1) never (2) 10 s (3) 2 s (4) 15 s
18. A car is moving a circular horizontal track of
radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/sec.
A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the
car by a light rigid rod of length 1.00 m. The angle
made by the rod with track is
(1) zero (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°
19. Certain perfect gas is found to obey
PVn = constant during adiabatic process. The
volume expansion coefficient at temperature T is
(1)1 n
T
(2)
1
1 n T (3)
n
T(4)
1
nT
20. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The
radius of the circle, the period sense of revolution
and the initial positions are indicated on the figure.
The simple harmonic motion of the x-projection
of the radius vector of the rotating particle P is:-
(1)2 t
x(t) R sin30
RO
x
P(t = 0)
T = 30sec
(2)t
x(t) R cos15
(3)t
x(t) R sin15 2
(4)t
x(t) R cos15 2
21. A particle moving in a straight line has velocity
and displacement equation as
v 4 1 s
where 'v' is in m/s and 's' is in m. The initial
velocity of the particle is :-
(1) 4 m/s (2) 16 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) zero
22. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough horizontal
plank, the coefficient of friction between the plank
and block is 0.3. If the plank is pulled horizontally
with a constant acceleration of 4m/s2, the distance
moved by the block on the plank in 5 second
starting from rest (in m) is: (take g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) 50
17. 5 kg ˆ ˆF 3i 4 j N
t = 0
1ˆ ˆv 6i 12 j ms
y- :-(1) (2) 10 s (3) 2 s (4) 15 s
18. 10 m
10 m/sec 1.00 m
(1) (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°
19. PVn = T
(1)1 n
T
(2)
1
1 n T (3)
n
T(4)
1
nT
20.
P x-
(1)2 t
x(t) R sin30
RO
x
P(t = 0)
T = 30sec
(2)t
x(t) R cos15
(3)t
x(t) R sin15 2
(4)t
x(t) R cos15 2
21.
v 4 1 s
v, (m/s) s, (m) :-(1) 4 m/s (2) 16 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) zero
22. 2 kg 0.3 4m/s2 5 (m ) : (g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) 50
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-5/39Kota/00CM214004
23. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls
without slipping down an inclined plane of length
L and height h. What is the speed of its centre
of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom
(1)3
gh4
(2) 4
gh3
(3) 4gh (4) 2gh
24. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest
specifid heat ? The temperature vs time graph is
shown. Equal heat is supplied to all substances and
the masses of all substances are equal.
B
A
Time(t)
Tem
pera
ture
(t)
C
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) all have equal specific heat
25. A hollow pipe of length 0.8 m is closed at one
end. At its open end a 0.5 m long uniform string
is vibrating in its second harmonic and it resonates
with the fundamental frequency of the pipe. If the
tension in the wire is 50 N and the speed of sound
is 320 ms-1
, the mass of the string is :-
(1) 5 gm (2) 10 gm
(3) 20 gm (4) 40 gm
26. Two bodies move in a straight line towards each
other at initial velocities v1 and v2 and with
constant acceleration a1 and a
2 directed against the
corresponding velocities at the initial instant. The
maximum initial separation max
between the
bodies for which they will meet during the motion
is :-
(1)
2 21 2
1 2
v v
a a (2)
2
1 2
1 2
v v
2 a a
(3) 1 2
1 2
v v
a a (4)
2 21 2
1 2
v v
a a
23. M R L
h
(1)3
gh4
(2) 4
gh3
(3) 4gh (4) 2gh
24. A, B C
B
A
Time(t)
Tem
pera
ture
(t)
C
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4)
25. 0.8
0.5
50
320 , :-
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 40
26. v1
v2 a1 a2
max :-
(1)
2 21 2
1 2
v v
a a (2)
2
1 2
1 2
v v
2 a a
(3) 1 2
1 2
v v
a a (4)
2 21 2
1 2
v v
a a
Kota/00CM214004H-6/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
27. The force between a hollow sphere and a point
mass at P inside it as shown in Fig :-
P
C
(1) Is attractive and constant
(2) Is attractive and depends on the position of
the point with respect to centre C
(3) Is zero
(4) Is repulsive and constant
28. A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the
same mass and made up of same material are allowed
to roll down (from rest) on inclined plane, then
(1) Solid sphere reaches the bottom first
(2) Solid sphere reaches the bottom late
(3) Disc will reach the bottom first
(4) All of them reach the bottom at the same time
29. In the process shown, which of the following
option is correct?
A
B
C
V
P
2V 0 V0
P 0
2P 0
(1) QAB
= +ve, QBC
= +ve, QCA
= +ve
(2) QAB
= +ve, QBC
= ve, QCA
= +ve
(3) QAB
= +ve, CBC
= , dT
ve at BdP
(4) QAB
= +ve, QBC
= ve, QCA
= ve;
dTnot defined at B
dP
30. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ
pipe contain gases of densities 1 and 2
respectively. The compressibility of gases are
equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are
vibrating in their first overtone with same
frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :-
(1) L
3 (2)
4L
3 (3)
1
2
4L
3
(4)
2
1
4L
3
27. P :-
P
C
(1) (2) C
(3) (4)
28. (1) (2) (3) (4)
29.
A
B
C
V
P
2V 0 V0
P 0
2P 0
(1) QAB
= +ve, QBC
= +ve, QCA
= +ve
(2) QAB
= +ve, QBC
= ve, QCA
= +ve
(3) QAB
= +ve, CBC
= , B dT
vedP
(4) QAB
= +ve, QBC
= ve, QCA
= ve B
dT
dP
30. L
1 2
:-
(1) L
3 (2)
4L
3 (3)
1
2
4L
3
(4)
2
1
4L
3
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-7/39Kota/00CM214004
31. It takes one minute for a person standing on an
escalator to reach the top from the ground. If the
escalator is not moving, it takes him 3 minute to
walk on the steps to reach the top. How long will
it take for the person to reach the top if he walks
up the escalator while it is moving :-
(1) 2 minute (2) 1.5 minute
(3) 0.75 minute (4) 1.25 minute
32. If the acceleration due to gravity at earth is 'g' and mass
of earth is 80 times that of moon and radius of earth
is 4 times that of moon, the value of acceleration
due to gravity at the surface of moon will be :-
(1) g (2) g/20 (3) g/5 (4) 320g
33. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless
surface, shown in figure with a transnational
velocity u m/s. I f sp h e re climbs up to
height h then value of u should be
uh
(1)10
gh7
(2) 2gh
(3) 2gh (4) 10
gh7
34. Assume that the entire surface of a burning log
of wood is at the same temperature. Some small
spots on the wood appear brighter than the rest
of the surface. At such a spot–
(1) there is a small cavity in the wood.
(2) there is a small hump (convex portion) in the
wood.
(3) less ash has formed than on the rest of the
wood.
(4) more ash has formed than on the rest of thewood.
35. The equation of a travelling wave is :
y = a sin 2x
pt5
Then the ratio of maximum particle velocity to
wave velocity is :-
(1) a
5
(2) 2 5 a (3)
2 a
5
(4)
2 a
5
31. :-
(1) 2 (2) 1.5
(3) 0.75 (4) 1.25
32. 'g' 80 4 :-
(1) g (2) g/20 (3) g/5 (4) 320g
33. u m/s h u
uh
(1)10
gh7
(2) 2gh
(3) 2gh (4) 10
gh7
34.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
35. :
y = a sin 2x
pt5
:-
(1) a
5
(2) 2 5 a (3)
2 a
5
(4)
2 a
5
Kota/00CM214004H-8/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
36. The speed of a car was 50 km/hr for the first 900 s,
then 40 km/hr for the next 50 km and then the
car decelerated uniformly at 10 km/hr2 till it came
to rest. The average speed of the car was :-
(1) 50 km/hr (2) 7.2 m/s
(3) 30 km/hr (4) 9.0 m/s
37. A satellite moving round the earth in a circular
orbit of radius r and speed v suddenly loses some
of its energy. Then :-
(1) r will increase and v will decrease
(2) both r and v will decrease
(3) both r and v will increase
(4) r will decrease and v will increase
38. The average depth of Indian ocean is about
3000 m. Calculate the fractional compression
V
V
of water at the bottom of the ocean given
that the bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 Nm–2
[take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 1.36 % (2) 5.46 %
(3) 7.35 % (4) 9.2 %
39. A cylindrical tube of uniform cross-sectional area
A is fitted with two air-tight frictionless pistons.
The pistons are connected to each other by a
metallic wire. Initially the pressure of the gas is
P0 and temperature is T
0. Atmospheric pressure
is also P0. Now the temperature of the gas is
increased to 2T0. The tension in the wire will be-
(1) P0
A (2) 2P0
A
(3) 0P A
2(4) 4P
0 A
40. A police car with a siren of frequency 8 kHz is
moving with uniform velocity 36 km/h towards
a tall building which reflects the sound waves.
The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. The
frequency of the siren heard by the car driver is :-
(1) 8.50 kHz (2) 8.25 kHz
(3) 7.75 kHz (4) 7.50 kHz
36. 900 sec 50 km/hr 50km 40 km/hr
10 km/hr2 :-(1) 50 km/hr (2) 7.2 m/s
(3) 30 km/hr (4) 9.0 m/s
37. r v
:-
(1) r v
(2) r v
(3) r v
(4) r v 38. 3000 m
V
V
2.2 × 109 Nm–2
[g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 1.36 % (2) 5.46 %
(3) 7.35 % (4) 9.2 %
39. A
P0 T
0
P02T
0
(1) P0 A (2) 2P
0 A
(3) 0P A
2(4) 4P
0 A
40. 8
36 /320 / :-(1) 8.50 (2) 8.25 (3) 7.75 (4) 7.50
Key Filling
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-9/39Kota/00CM214004
41. A ball of mass M is thrown vertically upwards.
Another ball of mass 2M is thrown at an
angle to vertical. Both of them stay in air for
the same period of time. The heights attained by
the two are in the ratio :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : cos
42. A massless platform is kept on a light elastic
spring as shown in the fig. When sand particles
of 0.1 kg mass are dropped on the pan from a
height of 0.24 m. the particle strikes the pan and
the spring is compressed by 0.01 m. From what
height should the particel be dropped to cause a
compression of 0.04 m-
(1) 0.96 m
(2) 2.96 m
hm
(3) 3.96 m
(4) 0.48 m
43. Two narrow bores of diameters 3.0 mm and
6.0 mm are joined together to form a U-tube open
at both ends. If the U-tube contains water what
is the difference in its levels in the two limbs of
the tube (nearly) :-
[T = 7.3 × 10–2 Nm–1, = 0° density of water
= 103 kg/m3]
(1) 5.0 mm (2) 12.0 mm
(3) 1.25 mm (4) None of these
44. A substance of mass M kg requires a power input
of P watts to remain in the molten state at its
melting point. When the power source is turned
off, the sample completely solidifies in time t
seconds. The specific latent heat of fusion of the
substance is-
(1) Pt (2) Pt
M(3) PtM (4)
PM
t
45. 41 tuning forks are arranged such that every fork
gives 5 beats with the next. The last fork has a
frequency that is double of the first. The frequency
of the first fork is :-
(1) 200 (2) 400
(3) 205 (4) 210
41. M 2M :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : cos
42.
0.24 0.1
0.01
0.04
(1) 0.96
(2) 2.96
hm
(3) 3.96
(4) 0.48
43. 3.0 mm 6.0 mm U U () :-
[= 7.3 × 10–2 Nm–1,= 103 kg/m3]
(1) 5.0 mm (2) 12.0 mm
(3) 1.25 mm (4) None of these
44. M
P
t
(1) Pt (2) Pt
M(3) PtM (4)
PM
t
45. 41 5 :-
(1) 200 (2) 400
(3) 205 (4) 210
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
Kota/00CM214004H-10/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
46. The maximum number of molecules is present
in:-
(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(3) 0.5 g H2 gas
(4) 10 g of O2 gas
47. Which one is not correct for the reaction :-
(CN)2 + H
2O HCN + HOCN
(1) It is an auto redox change
(2) Ox. no. of C in (CN)2, HCN and HOCN are
+2, +3 and +4 respectively
(3) Ox. no.of N in (CN)2, HCN and HOCN are
+3, +2 and + 4 respectively
(4) none
48. In which set both species have d-pbonding :-
(1) 2– –3 3CO , NO (2) 2– –
4 3SO , ClO
(3) 3– –4 3PO , NO (4) 2– 2–
4 3SO , CO
49. Which compound on hydrolysis can give
following polymer :-
CH – Si – O – Si – O – .....3
O O
– O – Si – O – Si – O – Si – O – ...
CH3 CH3 O
CH3
(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2
(3) CH3SiCl3 (4) (CH3)4Si
50. Which is not aromatic :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
O
51. A student wants to prepare a saturated solution
of Ag+ ion. He has got only three samples AgCl
(Ksp
= 1.8 × 10–10), AgBr(Ksp
= 5 × 10–13) and
Ag2 CrO
4 (K
sp = 2.4 × 10–12). Which compound
should have maximum [Ag+] :-
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr
(3) Ag2CrO4 (4) none
52. Number of electrons in 1.8 mL of H2O is :-
(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 0.6022 × 1023 (4) 60.22 × 1023
46. :-(1) STP 15 L H2
(2) STP 5 L N2
(3) 0.5 g H2
(4) 10 g O2
47. :-(CN)
2 + H
2O HCN + HOCN
(1) (2) (CN)2, HCN HOCN C +2, +3 +4
(3) (CN)2, HCN HOCN N
+3, +2 + 4 (4)
48. set d-pbond :-
(1) 2– –3 3CO , NO (2) 2– –
4 3SO , ClO
(3) 3– –4 3PO , NO (4) 2– 2–
4 3SO , CO
49. :-
CH – Si – O – Si – O – .....3
O O
– O – Si – O – Si – O – Si – O – ...
CH3 CH3 O
CH3
(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2
(3) CH3SiCl3 (4) (CH3)4Si
50. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
O
51. Ag+ AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10),
AgBr(Ksp
= 5 × 10–13) Ag2CrO
4 (K
sp = 2.4 × 10–12)
[Ag+] :-
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr
(3) Ag2CrO
4(4)
52. 1.8 mL H2O :-(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 0.6022 × 1023 (4) 60.22 × 1023
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-11/39Kota/00CM214004
53. Which is correct order :-
(1) HOCl > HClO2 (Acidic)
(2) HClO4 > HOCl (Oxidising)
(3) H3PO
2 > H
3PO
3(Reducing)
(4) H3PO
4 > H
2SO
4(Acidic)
54. Which structure has maximum no. of identical
atom in same plane :-
(1) B2H
6(2) Al
2Cl
6
(3) SF6 (4) Same in all
55. Most stable anion is :-
(1)
O
CH2
(2) CH2
(3) HC C (4) CH2
56. An excited hydrogen atom emits a photon of
wavelength in returning to the ground state. If
R is the Rydberg constant than the quantum
number n of the excited state is :-
(1) R (2) R 1
(3) R
R 1
(4) R( R 1)
57. The heat of atomisation of PH3(g) is 228 kcal mol–1
and that P2H
4(g) is 355 kcal mol–1. The energy
of the P – P bond is (in kcal) :-
(1) 102 (2) 51 (3) 26 (4) 204
58. Which is not isoelectronic :-
(1) C6H6, inorganic benzene
(2) N2, CO
(3) NO, F2
(4) SO2, S2
59. Which can react with NH3 :-
(1) HCl (2) BF3
(3) B2H
6(4) All
60. But-1-yne and But-2-yne can be distinguished
by :-
(1) 1% cold dil. 4KMnO / O HΘ
(2) Br2/CCl4
(3) (AgNO3 + NH
4OH)
(4) Cu2Cl
2 + NH
4Cl
61. In which case, a spontaneous reaction is possible
at any temperature :-
(1) H –ve, S + ve (2) H – ve, S – ve
(3) H + ve, S + ve (4) none of these
53. :-(1) HOCl > HClO2 ()
(2) HClO4 > HOCl ()
(3) H3PO
2 > H
3PO
3()
(4) H3PO
4 > H
2SO
4()
54. :-(1) B2
H6
(2) Al2Cl
6
(3) SF6 (4) Same in all
55. :-
(1)
O
CH2
(2) CH2
(3) HC C (4) CH2
56. R
n :-
(1) R (2) R 1
(3) R
R 1
(4) R( R 1)
57. PH3(g) P
2H
4(g)
228 kcal mol–1 355 kcal mol–1 P – P (kcal ) :-(1) 102 (2) 51 (3) 26 (4) 204
58. :-(1) C
6H
6, inorganic benzene
(2) N2, CO
(3) NO, F2
(4) SO2, S2
59. Which can react with NH3 :-
(1) HCl (2) BF3(3) B
2H
6(4) All
60. -1--2- :-
(1) 1% cold dil. 4KMnO / O HΘ
(2) Br2/CCl4
(3) (AgNO3 + NH
4OH)
(4) Cu2Cl
2 + NH
4Cl
61. :-(1) H –ve, S + ve (2) H – ve, S – ve
(3) H + ve, S + ve (4)
Kota/00CM214004H-12/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
62. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital :-
(1) n= 3, = 2, m = –2,s = + 1
2
(2) n= 4, = 4, m = –4,s = – 1
2
(3) n= 4, = 3, m = +1,s = + 1
2
(4) n= 4, = 3, m = +4,s = + 1
263. Which has only one type of bond length?
(1) B2H6 (2) –3NO (3) Al2Cl6 (4) ClF3
64. Which order is correct :-
(1) AlCl3 > AlF3 (Solubility in benzene)
(2) PH3 > PF
3 (Bond angle)
(3) CHF3 > CHCl3 (Acidic character)
(4) R3N O < R3P O (Dipole momant)
65. CH3–CH=CH–CH3
HBr X 3 3(CH ) C OK
Alcoholic
Y
(Major); Y is :-
(1) CH3–CH
2–CH
2–CH
2–OC(CH
3)
3
(2) CH O C(CH ) – – 3 3
H C3
CH CH3 2–
(3) CH3–CH
2–CH=CH
2
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
66. The number of moles of sodium sulphite
(Na2SO
3) needed to react with one mole of
KMnO4 in acidic solution :-
(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2 (3) 1 (4) 3/5
67. The enthalpies of formation of N2O and NO are 28
and 90 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of the
reaction, 2N2O(g) + O2(g) 4NO(g) is equal to:
(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ (3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ
68. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Beryl silicate contain 6 shared and 12 unshared
oxygen
(2) Silicate contains almost 50% ionic and 50%
covalent character which defined high bond
strength and insoluble nature of silicate
minerals.
(3) Ag10Si4O13 is an example of ring silicate
(4) In sheet silicate each silicon is linked with
4 oxygen atom and adjacent tetrahedral units
share a corner
62. 4f- :-
(1) n= 3, = 2, m = –2,s = + 1
2
(2) n= 4, = 4, m = –4,s = – 1
2
(3) n= 4, = 3, m = +1,s = + 1
2
(4) n= 4, = 3, m = +4,s = + 1
263.
(1) B2H6 (2) –3NO (3) Al2Cl6 (4) ClF3
64. :-(1) AlCl3 > AlF3 (Benzene )(2) PH3
> PF3 (Bond angle)
(3) CHF3 > CHCl3 (Acidic character)
(4) R3N O < R3P O (Dipole momant)
65. CH3–CH=CH–CH3 HBr X 3 3(CH ) C OK
Alcoholic
Y
(Major); Y :-(1) CH3
–CH2–CH
2–CH
2–OC(CH
3)
3
(2) CH O C(CH ) – – 3 3
H C3
CH CH3 2–
(3) CH3–CH
2–CH=CH
2
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
66. 1 KMnO4 Na2SO3
:-(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2
(3) 1 (4) 3/5
67. N2O NO 28 90 kJ mol–12N2O(g) + O2(g) 4NO(g) :-(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ (3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ
68. (1) Beryl silicate 6 O 12
oxygen (2) Silicate SiO 50% ionic 50% covalent
(3) Ag10Si4O13 Ring silicate (4) silicate Si 4 O
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-13/39Kota/00CM214004
69. Correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-
O Ac–
COOH
(1) o-Acetoxybenzoic acid
(2) Acetyl salicylic acid
(3) 2-Ethanoyloxybenzoic acid
(4) All
70. Which is correct :-
(1)
OH
NO2
>
OH
>
OH
CH3
(Acidic strength)
(2)
NH2
CH3
>
NH2
CH3
>
NH2
CH3
(Base strength)
(3) C CH= 2
H C3
H C3 > C C=
H
CH3H
CH3
> C C=H
H3C CH3
H (Stability)
(4) All
71. From the following reaction sequences, calculate
the moles of Cl2 needed to produce 100 moles of
KClO4 :-
Cl2 + 2KOH KC + KCO + H
2O ...(i)
3KCO 2KC + KCO3 ...(ii)
4KCO3 3KCO4 + KC ...(iii)
(1) 300 mol (2) 33mol
(3) 400 mol (4) 4 mol
72. 0.1 mole of CH3NH
2 (K
b = 5 × 10–4) is mixed with
0.08 mole of HCl and diluted to one litre. The [H+]
in solution is :-
(1) 8 × 10–2 M (2) 1.3 × 10–10 M
(3) 1.6 × 10–11M (4) 8 × 10–5 M
73. Compound Properties
(A) B2H6, 3H 3C 2e bond
(B) HNO3, H
2SO
4pp bond
(C) AlF3, AlCl
3Hypovalent
(D) NCl3, SbCl
3Equal bond angles
Correct code is :-
(1) A (2) A, C (3) A, D (4) All
69. IUPAC :-
O Ac–
COOH
(1) o-Acetoxybenzoic acid
(2) Acetyl salicylic acid
(3) 2-Ethanoyloxybenzoic acid
(4) All
70. :-
(1)
OH
NO2
>
OH
>
OH
CH3
()
(2)
NH2
CH3
>
NH2
CH3
>
NH2
CH3
()
(3) C CH= 2
H C3
H C3 > C C=
H
CH3H
CH3
> C C=H
H3C CH3
H
()
(4) All
71. 100 KClO4
Cl2 :-
Cl2 + 2KOH KC + KCO + H2O ...(i)
3KCIO 2KC + KCO3 ...(ii)
4KCO3 3KCO4 + KC ...(iii)
(1) 300 mol (2) 33mol
(3) 400 mol (4) 4 mol
72. 0.1 CH3NH
2 (K
b = 5 × 10–4) 0.08 HCl
1 [H+] :-(1) 8 × 10–2 M (2) 1.3 × 10–10 M
(3) 1.6 × 10–11M (4) 8 × 10–5 M
73. Compound Properties
(A) B2H
6,
3H 3C 2e bond
(B) HNO3, H
2SO
4pp bond
(C) AlF3, AlCl3 (D) NCl3, SbCl3 :-(1) A (2) A, C (3) A, D (4) All
Kota/00CM214004H-14/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
74. Ethylbenzene can be best prepared by :-
(1) + CH3–CH2–Cl 3AlCl
(2) CH3
O
Zn Hg
HCl
(3) COOH
(NaOH CaO)
(4)
C CH
2
3
H Pd
CaCO
75. C CH CH CH= – –2 3
H C3
H3C 3
2
(1) O
(2) H O / Zn (X + Y), X
and Y are :-
(1) Position isomers
(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers
76. 40% of a mixture of 0.2 mole of N2 and 0.6 mole
of H2 react to give NH3 according to the equation,
N2(g) + 3H
2(g) 2NH
3(g) at constant
temperature and pressure. Then ratio of the final
volume to the initial volume of gases are :-
(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 7 : 10 (4) 8 : 5
77. Which is correct order :-
(1) F– > F (IP) (2) IP(F) > EA(F)
(3) EA(Cl) > IP(Cl) (4) EA(Cl) > IP (F)
78. How many of the following compounds contain
all atoms in same plane :-
(1) NO2 (2) BF3 (3) NH3 (4) 4NH
(5) SiO2 (6) NH2 – NH2 (7) H2O
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) One
79. Which can show chain, position and functional
group isomerism :-
(1) CH3–CH
2–CH
2–NH–CH
3
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–CH
2–CH
2–CH
2–Cl
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH
3
74. :-
(1) + CH3–CH2–Cl 3AlCl
(2) CH3
O
Zn Hg
HCl
(3) COOH
(NaOH CaO)
(4)
C CH
2
3
H Pd
CaCO
75. C CH CH CH= – –2 3
H C3
H3C 3
2
(1) O
(2) H O / Zn (X + Y) X
Y :-(1) Position isomers
(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers
76. N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
0.2 N2 0.6 H2 40%
NH3
:-(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4
(3) 7 : 10 (4) 8 : 5
77. :-(1) F– > F (IP) (2) IP(F) > EA(F)
(3) EA(Cl) > IP(Cl) (4) EA(Cl) > IP (F)
78. :-
(1) NO2 (2) BF3 (3) NH3 (4) 4NH
(5) SiO2 (6) NH2 – NH2 (7) H2O
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) One
79. :-(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3
(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Cl
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH
3
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-15/39Kota/00CM214004
80. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(1) Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate
(2) Photochemical smog is reducing smog
(3) Mixture of smoke, fog and SO2 form classical
smog
(4) Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and
sunny climate
81. Which have the same number of s-electrons as
the d-electrons in Fe2+ :-
(1) Li (2) Na
(3) N (4) P
82. 2–3
HCO gas(x)
...(1)
3F–
BF ion(y) ...(2)
3HNH ion(z)
...(3)
Change in bond angle in reaction (1), (2) and (3)
(neglecting sign) will be :-
(1) 1 > 3 > 2
(2) 1 > 2 > 3
(3) 2 > 1 > 3
(4) 3 > 2 > 1
83. Which is most reactive with NH3
(1) BCl3
(2) AlCl3
(3) GaCl3
(4) All are equal
84. CH3–CH
2–CH
3 2Cl ,h
Mono Chlorination
(X + Y)
Na
dry ether Product
Which is formed as product :-
(1) CH3–(CH2)4–CH3
(2) (CH3)2CH–CH(CH
3)
2
(3) (CH3)2CH–CH2–CH2–CH3
(4) All
85. True statement is
(1) pH of normal rain water is 5.6
(2) BOD of clean water is 17 ppm
(3) Excessive nitrate (>500 ppm) has laxative
effect
(4) All of these
86. Calculate the maximum work done in expanding
16 g of oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume
of 5dm3 isothermally until the volume becomes
25dm3 :-
(1) 2010 J (2) –2010J
(3) 20.10J (4) –20.10J
80. ?(1) (2) (3) SO
2
(4)
81. Fe2+ d-s- :-(1) Li (2) Na
(3) N (4) P
82. 2–3
HCO gas(x)
...(1)
3F–
BF ion(y) ...(2)
3HNH ion(z)
...(3)
:-(1) 1 > 3 > 2
(2) 1 > 2 > 3
(3) 2 > 1 > 3
(4) 3 > 2 > 1
83. NH3
(1) BCl3
(2) AlCl3
(3) GaCl3
(4) All are equal
84. CH3–CH
2–CH
3 2Cl ,h
Mono Chlorination
(X + Y)
Na
dry ether Product
:-(1) CH3–(CH2)4–CH3
(2) (CH3)2CH–CH(CH
3)
2
(3) (CH3)2CH–CH2–CH2–CH3
(4) All
85. :-(1) pH 5.6 (2) BOD 17 ppm (3) (>500 ppm)
(4) 86. 300 K 16 g O
2 5dm3 25 dm3
:-(1) 2010 J
(2) –2010J
(3) 20.10J
(4) –20.10J
Kota/00CM214004H-16/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
87. Which relation is correct?
P = O,
HO
HO
H
P – OH
HO
HO(a) (b)
(CH ) N = O, (CH ) N – O3 3 3 3
+ –
(a) (b)
H – Cl = O
O
O(a)
H – O – Cl = O
O(b)
Compound Relation
(1) Resonatingstructures
Isomericstructures
Conjugatesacid basepair
(2)
(3)
(4) None of above is correct
88. e– deficient hydride is :-
(1) B2H6 (2) CH4
(3) NH3
(4) All
89. Correct statement for Kalbe's electrolysis of
aqueous solution of sodium acetate is :-
(1) pH of solution increases
(2) Methyl acetate is formed as side product
(3) Ethane is formed at anode
(4) All
90. Indentify the incorrect statement :-
(1) Pyrus and Vitis can metalbolise NO2 therefore
can control photo chemical smog
(2) Peroxyacetyl nitrate is a component of
photochemical smog
(3) UV radiation ( = 255 nm) can cause
melanoma
(4) None of these
87.
P = O,
HO
HO P – OH
HO
HO(a) (b)
(CH ) N = O, (CH ) N – O3 3 3 3
+ –
(a) (b)
H – Cl = O
O
O(a)
H – O – Cl = O
O(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of above is correct
H
88. e– hydride :-
(1) B2H6 (2) CH4
(3) NH3
(4)
89. :-
(1) pH
(2)
(3)
(4)
90. :-
(1) NO2
(2)
(3) ( = 255 nm)
(4)
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-17/39Kota/00CM214004
91. Given below is the diagram of organism identify
the parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the
right option about them :-
A
D
C
B
Part (A) Part (B) Part (C) Part (D)
1 Sporophyte Stalk Leaves Foot
2 Capsule Foot Leaves Gametophyte
3 Sporophyte Stalk Foot Gametophyte
4 Capsule Seta Leaves Gametophyte
92. Choose the incorrect statement :-
(1) Gametophyte of Gymnosperm are always
Dioecious.
(2) Sporophyte of Gymnosperm are always
heterosporous.
(3) Sporophyte of pteridophytes may be
monoecious or dioecious
(4) Gametophyte of pteridophytes may be
monoecious or dioecious.
93. Hemichordata was earlier considered as a sub
phylum under phylum chordata but now it is
placed as a seperate phylum under non-chordata
due to
(1) Absence of notochord
(2) Absence of heart
(3) Absence of dorsal nerve cord
(4) Absence of gillslits
94. In dicotyledonous stem cortical layers below
hypodermis consist of rounded thin walled cells
with conspicuous intercellular spaces.
These cells are
(1) Parenchymatous
(2) Collenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Parenchymatous and sclerenchymatous
91. A, B, C D, :-
A
D
C
B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1
2
3
4
92. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
93.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
94. (1) (2) (3) (4)
Kota/00CM214004H-18/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
95. Which of the following options gives the correct
categorisation of six organs according to the
presence of plasma membrane modification :-
AMicrovilli
BCilia
CSteriocilia
(1) PCT, Gallbladder,Intestine
Trachea, Uterus Epididymis
(2) PCT, Gallbladder
Intestine,Trachea, Uterus
Epididymis
(3) Epididymis,Trachea
PCT, Gallbladder
Intestine,Uterus
(4) PCT, Intestine Gall bladder,Trachea, Uterus
Epididymis
96. Identify the correct and incorrect match about the
respiratory volume and capacities and mark the
correct answer
(A) Expiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Residual volume
(B) Vital capacity = Total lung capacity – Residual volume
(C) Inspiratory capacity = Total lung capacity – Functional residual capacity
(D) Total lung capacity = Vital capacity + functional residual capacity
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect
(2) Correct Correct Incorrect Correct
(3) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect
(4) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct
97. Which cellular structure is commenly present in
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(1) Structure, which is responsible for
arrangement of spindle fibre.
(2) Structure, which was first observed by Camillo
Golgi
(3) Structure, there improved model was proposed
by Singer and Nicolson
(4) Structure, which produce cellular energy in the
form of ATP, hence this are called power
house of the cell
95. :-
A
B
C
(1) PCT, Gallbladder,
(2) PCT, Gallbladder
(3)
PCT, Gallbladder
(4) PCT, Gall bladder,
96. (A) = +
(B) = –
(C) = –
(D) = +
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
97. (1)
(2) (3)
(4) ATP
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-19/39Kota/00CM214004
98. Given below are the structure of two different
amino acids.
COOH
C
CH3
NH2H and
COOH
C
CH OH2
NH2H
These amino acids show which type of nature
respectively :-
(1) Acidic, Alkaline (2) Alkaline, Neutral
(3) Neutral, Neutral (4) Alkaline, Alkaline
99. Vitamin B1 is the part of cofactor of which of the
following ?
(1) Phosphofructokinase
(2) Pyruvic acid kinase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
100. Match the column I, II and III to select the correct
answer :-
Column -I Column- II Column-III
A Glucose (a) Na+ (i) Facilitated diffusion
B Amino acids (b) Fats (ii) Mainly Activetransport
C Chylomicrons (c) Levulose (iii) Diffusion
D Fructose (d) Starch (iv) Active transport orfacilitated diffusion
(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-i
(2) A–a-iv, B-d-ii, C-b-iii, D-c-i
(3) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-c-i, D-b-iii
(4) A–a-i, B-d-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-ii
101. How many terms are related with kingdom protista:
Zygote, Embryo, Cilia, Pili, Pellicle, Water bloom,
Nitrogen fixation, Photosynthesis, Pseudopodia,
Tissue, Heterocyst
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 7
102. Choose the incorrect statement of following :-
(1) Chlorella and Spirullina are protein rich
unicellular algae.
(2) Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and
prevent soil erosion.
(3) In pteridophytes, gametophytic generation is
highly reduced and is confined to only a
limited number of cells.
(4) In gymnosperm, the nucellus is protected by
envelopes and the composite structure is
called an ovule.
98.
COOH
C
CH3
NH2H
COOH
C
CH OH2
NH2H
:-(1) , (2) , (3) , (4) ,
99. B1
?(1) Phosphofructokinase
(2) Pyruvic acid kinase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
100. I, II III :-
-I - II -III
A (a) Na+ (i)
B (b) (ii)
C (c) (iii) D (d) (iv)
(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-i
(2) A–a-iv, B-d-ii, C-b-iii, D-c-i
(3) A–d-ii, B-a-iv, C-c-i, D-b-iii
(4) A–a-i, B-d-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-ii
101. :-, , , , , , , , , ,
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 8 (4) 7
102. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Kota/00CM214004H-20/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
103. In which class, animals have a elongated body
bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration
(1) Cyclostomata (2) Chondrichthyes
(3) Osteichthyes (4) Amphibia
104. Pepo fruit is found in :-
(1) Cruciferae (2) Cucurbitaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Solanaceae
105. Identify the correct match from the column I, II
and III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
1 Simplesquamousepithelium
a Secretion i Trachea
2 Simplecuboidalepithelium
b Filtration ii Acini ofpancreas
3 Simplecolumnarepithelium
c Nucleus atbase
iii Alveoli oflungs
4 PSCGE d Mucussecretion
iv Liver
(1) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–iv, 4–d–i
(2) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i, 4–d–iv
(3) 1–b–iii, 2–a–i, 3–c–ii, 4–d–iv
(4) 1–d–iii, 2–b–i, 3–c–iv, 4–a–ii
106. A drop of each of the following is placed
separately on four slides. Which of them will not
cougulate ?
(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(2) Blood plasma
(3) Blood serum
(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic
system.
107. Which one of the following stage is correctly
described with their event.
(1) Telophase I = The bivalent chromosomes
align on the equatorial plate
(2) Diakinesis = Beginning of dissolution of
synaptonemal complex.
(3) Metaphase = Spindle fibres attach to
kinetochores of chromosomes
(4) Zygotene = Apperance of recombination
nodule
103. (Class) 6-15 (1) (2) (3) (4)
104. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
105. I, II III
-I -II -III
1
a i
2
b ii
3
c
iii
4 PSCGE d
iv
(1) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–iv, 4–d–i
(2) 1–b–iii, 2–a–ii, 3–c–i, 4–d–iv
(3) 1–b–iii, 2–a–i, 3–c–ii, 4–d–iv
(4) 1–d–iii, 2–b–i, 3–c–iv, 4–a–ii
106. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
107.
(1) I =
(2) =
(3) =
(4) =
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-21/39Kota/00CM214004
108. Which of the following biomolecule does not give
iodine test ?
(1) Cellulose (2) Starch
(3) Glycogen (4) Animal starch
109. How many of the essential elements are correctly
matched with their roles ?
(a) PhosphorusConstituent of certainproteins
(b) SulphurConstituent of severalcoenzymes like CoA
(c) Zinc Pollen germination
(d) MolybdenumComponent ofcytochromes
(e) Potassium Anion-cation balance
(1) Three (2) Four (3) One (4) Two
110. Match the columns I, II and III to choose a correct
answer.
Column -I Column- II Column-III
A Peritoneum (a) Thickestlayer
(i) Brunner's gland
B Submucosa (b) Circular andlongitudnalmuscle
(ii) Outer covering
C Muscularis (c) Looseconnectivetissue
(iii) Villi andmicrovilli
D Mucosa (d) Mesothelium (iv) Peristalsis
(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iii, C-b-iv, D-c-i
(2) A–d-ii, B-c-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii
(3) A–c-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-a-iii
(4) A–d-i, B-c-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv
111. Which one of the following structure is found in
prokaryotes but lack in eukaryotes :-
(1) Cell wall (2) Ribosome
(3) Cilia (4) Pili
112. Read the following term carefully
Pyrenoids, Algin, Carrageen, Mannitol, Starch,
Polysiphonia, Dictyota, Fucus, Pear shaped-
Zoospore, Oogamous, Volvox, Chloropohyll 'd',
Fucoxanthin, Ribbon- shaped chloroplast, holdfast
How many terms are related with brown alage. :-
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 8
108. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
109. ?
(a)
(b) CoA
(c)
(d)
(e) -
(1) (2) (3) (4) 110. I, II III
-I - II -III
A (a) (i)
B (b)
(ii)
C (c)
(iii)
D (d) (iv)
(1) A–d-ii, B-a-iii, C-b-iv, D-c-i
(2) A–d-ii, B-c-i, C-b-iv, D-a-iii
(3) A–c-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-a-iii
(4) A–d-i, B-c-ii, C-a-iii, D-b-iv
111. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
112. ,, , , , , , 'd',
, , :-(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 8
Kota/00CM214004H-22/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
113. In Which of the following option all fishes are
bony
(1) Betta, Pterophyllum, Labeo
(2) Labeo, Catla, Trygon
(3) Pristic, Clarias, Trygon
(4) Catla, Labeo, Pristis
114. The hardest part of drupe fruit is :-
(1) Mesocarp
(2) Endocarp
(3) Pericarp
(4) Epicarp
115. Which of the following pairs of structures is
correctly matched with their correct description?
Structure Description
(1) Shoulder jointand elbow joint
Hinge joint
(2) Tibia and fibula Forms parts ofknee joint
(3) 11th and 12th
pairs of ribsFalse ribs andarticulateindirectly withsterunm
(4) Frontal andparietal
Bonus ofcranium
116. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) and
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only ?
(i) Forewings of cockroach are known as
tegmina or elytra.
(ii) Hindwings of cockroach are transperent and
membranous which are helpful in flight.
(iii) Forewings are transperent and light coloured
and used in the body covering during resting
stage.
(iv) Hindwings are long, lethary and narrow
which are helpful in covering of body.
Option :-
(1) Statements (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) Statements (i) & (ii)
(3) Statements (iii) & (iv)
(4) Statements (ii), (iii) & (iv)
113. (1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , ,
114. () :-(1) (2) (3) ()(4)
115.
(1)
(2)
(3) 11 12
(4)
116. (i-iv) (i) "" ""
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:-(1) (i), (ii) (iii)(2) (i) (ii)(3) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) (iv)
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-23/39Kota/00CM214004
117. Mark the mismatched pair :
(1) Plastids Found in plantcells and ineuglenoids
(2) Golgi apparatus Site offormation ofglycoproteinsand glycolipids
(3) Nucleus Duringinterphase ithas highlyextended andelaboratenucleoproteinfibers
(4) Centriole Microtubularorganisation isreferred to asthe 9 + 2 andit forms basalbody of ciliaand flagella
118. How many statements are correct about the given
figure ?
Solute molecule
Water
Semipermeablemembrane
A B
(a) Water potential of chamber B is more negative
(b) Diffusion of solute will take place from
chamber B to chamber A.
(c) Diffusion solvent will take place from
chamber A to chamber B.
(d) Osmotic pressure of chamber A is higher than
chamber B
(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three
119. In presence of which enzyme first six carbon sugar
is formed in Calvin cycle.
(1) Transketolase (2) RuBisCO
(3) PEPCase (4) Aldolase
117. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 9+ 2
118.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 119.
(1) Transketolase (2) RuBisCO
(3) PEPCase (4) Aldolase
Kota/00CM214004H-24/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
120. Choose the incorrect match regarding the
secretion, their site of secretion and function.
Secretion site of secretion Function
(1) Salivaryamylase
Buccal cavity Hydrolysis ofstarch
(2) Trypsin Jejunum Hydrolysis ofprotein andactivatetrypsinogen
(3) HCl Stomach Formation ofchyme
(4) Lipase Stomach andsmall intestine
Hydrolysis offats
121. Which of the following is true for alternation of
generation?
(1) The sporophyte, undergoes syngamy to
produce spores.
(2) The gametophyte, undergoes syngamy to
produce spores.
(3) The sporophyte, undergoes meiosis to produce
spores.
(4) The gametophyte, undergoes meiosis to
produce gametes.
122. Choose the incorrect match from following :-
(1) Cycas - branched stem
(2) Salvinia - heterosporous sporophyte
(3) Marchantia - Gemmae (Asexual reproductive
structure)
(4) Chlorella - used by space travellers
123. In which of the following reptile, heart is three
chambered :
(1) Frog (2) Salamender
(3) Chelone (4) Crocodile
124. Leguminous plants possess :-
(1) Napiform roots (2) Nodulated roots
(3) Tuberous roots (4) Fusiform roots
125. The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve willshow a right shift in case of :-(1) High pCO
2
(2) High pO2
(3) Low temperature(4) Low H+ concentration
126. In cockroach, how many fertilized eggs containin each ootheca ?(1) 8-10 eggs (2) 9-10 eggs(3) 14-16 eggs (4) 28-30 eggs
120. :-
(1)
(2)
(3) HCl
(4)
121. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
122. :-(1) - (2) - (3) - ()(4) -
123. :(1) (2) (3) (4)
124. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
125. :-(1) pCO
2
(2) pO2
(3) (4) H+
126. (1) 8-10 (2) 9-10 (3) 14-16 (4) 28-30
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-25/39Kota/00CM214004
127. Read the following statements (A-D):-
(A) DNA is a acidic substance.
(B) The two chains of DNA have anti parallel
polarity
(C) 5-methyl uracil is another chemical name of
thymine.
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right
handed fashion.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
128. How many of the following functions/effects are
related the cytokinins ?
Bolting, lateral shoot growth, nutrient
mobilisation, apical dominance, internode
elongation, delay of leaf senscence, breaking seed
dormancy.
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
129.
a b c
Pea seedlingsgrowth
The above figure shows certain features in pea
seedlings growth representing decrease in vertical
growth, increase in horizontal growth and increase
in girth. The factor responsible for such effect
must be :-
(1) Light (2) CO2
(3) Auxin (4) Ethylene
130. Which of the following is incorrect match
regarding site of digestion along with it's site and
pH ?
Proteins Pepsin
Dipeptides
Site of digestion
Buccal cavity
Starch maltose
Digestion pH during the digestion
Stomach
Small intestine
Pancreas
pH = 1.8
pH = 6.8
pH = 7.4
pH = 8.0
Dipeptides
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Trypsinogen
Dipeptidase
Salivary
amylase
Maltase
Lactase
Sucrase
entrokinase
Amino acid
Glucose + Glucose
Glucose + Galactose
Glucose + Fructose
Trypsin
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
127. (A-D):-
(A) DNA (B) DNA (C) 5-
(D) B-DNA
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
128. ?, , , , , ,(1) (2) (3) (4)
129.
a b c
Pea seedlingsgrowth
:-
(1) (2) CO2
(3) (4) 130.
pH ?
pH
pH = 1.8
pH = 6.8
pH = 7.4
pH = 8.0
+
+
+
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
Kota/00CM214004H-26/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
Time Management is Life Management
131. Mad cow disease (Bovine spongiform
encephalopathy), potato spindle tuber disease,
Aster yellow disease of sun flower and tungro
disease of rice are respectively, caused by :-
(1) Prions, Virus, Mycoplasma, Viroids
(2) Viroids, Prions, Mycoplasma, Virus
(3) Virus, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Prions
(4) Prions, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Virus
132. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select
the option which include all the correct ones only :-
(a) In radial symmetry, the body of an animal can
be divided into identical left and right halves
in only one plane.
(b) In platyhelminthes, an undifferentiated layer
mesoglea, is present in between the ectoderm
and the endoderm.
(c) Organ level is exhibited by members of
platyhelminthes.
(d) Coellentrates, Ctenophores and echinoderms
have radial symmetry.
Options :
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a) and (b)
(3) Statements (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
133. What is common in Macropus, Corvus and Calotes
(1) Pinna
(2) Oviparous
(3) Homoiothermous
(4) Internal fertilisation
134. Large green or coloured bract in spadix is known
as:-
(1) Epicalyx (2) Spathe
(3) Involucre (4) Involucel
135. Which of the following options is incorrect?
(1) Hinge joint Between humerus andpectorol girdle
(2) Pivot joint Between atlas and axis
(3) Gliding joint Between the carpals
(4) Saddle joint Between carpal andmetacarpals of thumb
131. (), ,
:-
(1) , , ,
(2) , ,
(3) , , ,
(4) , , , 132. (a-d)
:-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:(1) (b), (c) (d)
(2) (a) (b)
(3) (c) (d)
(4) (a), (c) (d)
133. (1) (2) (3) (4)
134. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
135.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-27/39Kota/00CM214004
136. The three events (A,B,C) of cell divisions are
given below in systematic way. Select the correct
option which is suit for step B.
(A) Breakdown of nuclear envelope
(C) Chromatids move to opposite poles
(B)
Option :-
(1) Condensation of chromation start
(2) Nucleolus reform
(3) Arrargement of chromosomes at equator
(4) DNA replication
137. Among the following, how many compound are
nitrogenous base ?
Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil, Melanine,
Glycine, Adenosine, Thymidine
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3
138. Identify the correct labeling.
C
Soil 'N' Pool
Biological N fixation2
B
A NO2
– NO3
–
(Uptake)
Atmospheric N2
A B C
(1) N2
Nitrification Ammonification
(2) NH3
Electrical N2
fixationAmmonification
(3) NO3– Denitrification
Electrical N2
fixation
(4) NH3
DenitrificationElectrical N
2
fixation
136. (A,B,C) B
(A)
(C)
(B)
:-(1) (2) (3) (4) DNA
137. ?
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 3
138.
C
'N'
N2B
A NO2
– NO3
–
( )
N2
A B C
(1) N2
(2) NH3
N2
(3) NO3–
N2
(4) NH3
N2
Kota/00CM214004H-28/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
139. Take a small soft-stemmed plant and on a day
when there is plenty of atmospheric moisture, cut
the stem horizontally near the base with a sharp
blade, early in the morning. You will soon see
drops of solution ooze out of the cut stem; this
comes out due to the :-
(1) Transpiration pull
(2) Capillary action
(3) Root pressure
(4) Cohesive and adhesive forces
140. Read the following statements (A-D).
(A) Transmission of an impulse across electrical
synapses is very similar to impulse conduction
along a single axon.
(B) Action potential is infact termed as nerve
impulse.
(C) Electrical current can flow directly from one
neuron to another neuron across chemical
synapse.
(D) At electrical synapses the membranes of pre
and post synaptic neurons are in very close
proximity.
How many of the above statements are true :-
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
141. Which one of the following is not a ecological
importance of moss plants :-
(1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous
mammals, birds and other animals
(2) Very high water holding capacity of mosses
is useful for trans-shipment of living materials
(3) Mosses along with lichens are the pioneering
organism to colonise rocks
(4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and reduce
the impact of falling rain
142. Find out the correct match from the following table
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) Petromyzon Hag fish Cyclostomata
(ii) Trygon Sting ray Osteichthyes
(iii) Pterophyllum Angel fish Osteichthyes
(1) i only (2) i and ii
(3) iii only (4) ii and iii
139.
:-
(1)
(2) (3) (4) -
140. (A-D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
:-
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
141. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
142.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) i (2) i ii(3) iii (4) ii iii
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-29/39Kota/00CM214004
143. The digestive tract of which vertebrate has
additional chambers, the crop and gizzard.
(1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach
(3) Frog (4) Pigeon
144. Inflorescence in Musa paradisiaca (banana) is
a :-
(1) Raceme (2) Catkin
(3) Mixed Spadix (4) Verticillaster
145. Find the correct match
b d
ac
(1) a Pulmonaryartery
(i) Carry oxygenatedblood to lungs
(2) b Pulmonaryvein
(ii) Carry deoxygenatedblood to heart
(3) c Systemicveins
(iii) Carry deoxygenatedblood
(4) d Systemicarteries
(iv) Carry oxygenatedblood to heart
146. A few statements are made about the
characteristics of cells. How many statements are
correct.
(A) The prokaryotic bacteria possess flagella but
these are structurally different from that of the
eukaryotic flagella.
(B) Central part of the centriole is proteineceous
called the hub.
(C) A single human cell has approximately two
metre long thread of DNA distributed in one
chromosomes.
(D) RER is extensive and continuous with the
outer membrane of the nucleus.
(1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four
143. (1) (2) (3) (4)
144. () :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
145.
b d
ac
(1) a
(i)
(2) b
(ii)
(3) c
(iii)
(4) d
(iv)
146.
(A)
(B)
(C) DNA
(D) RER
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Kota/00CM214004H-30/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
147. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which include all the correct ones
only.
(a) Transcription and translation can be coupled
in bacteria.
(b) The split gene arrangements represents the
advanced feature of the genome.
(c) The process of splicing represents dominance
of RNA-world.
(d) The presence of introns in split gene is
reminiscent of antiquity.
(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) b, c and d
148. Calvin cycle occurs in which types of cells in C4
and CAM plants respectively ?
(1) Mesophyll cells, bundle sheath cells
(2) Mesophyll cells only
(3) Bundle sheath cells only
(4) Bundle sheath cells, mesophyll cells
149. The appearance of brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins is the prominent symptom of :-
(1) Copper deficiency
(2) Molybdenum deficiency
(3) Magnesium toxicity
(4) Manganese toxicity
150. In the given list how many hormones are included
in steroid hormones.
Insulin, Cortisol, Estradiol, Glucagon, Progesterone
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
151. The predominant stage of the life cycle of Moss
is gametophyte, which consists of two stages they
are respectively :-
(1) Protonema, Prothallus
(2) Spore mother cell, protonema
(3) Protonema, leafy stage
(4) Protonema, zygote
147. (a-d)
:-
(a)
(b)
(c) 'RNA-'
(d)
(1) a, b d
(2) a, b c
(3) a, c d
(4) b, c d
148. C4 CAM
?
(1) ,
(2)
(3)
(4) ,
149. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
150.
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
151.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-31/39Kota/00CM214004
152. Identify the given animal below as well as the
related character and select the right option for the
two together
Animal Character
(1) Chameleon External Fertilisation
(2) Chameleon Internal fertilisation
(3) Salamandra Skin is without scales
(4) Crocodilus Sheds their scales asskin cast
153. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched ?
(1) Gymnosperms–Albuminous cells and sieve
cells.
(2) Flowering plants–Tracheids and vessels
(3) Angiosperms–Sieve tube elements and
companion cells
(4) Gymnosperms – Tracheids and vessels
154. Which one of the following options gives the
correct categorisation of six plants according to
the type of vascular bundles (A,B,C), they
possess:-
A
CONJOINTCOLLATERAL
BRADIAL
CCONJOINT
BICOLLATERAL
(1) Sunflower stem,maize stem
Cucurbitastem,Cucumberstem
Fern root, maize root
(2) Sunflower stem,maize stem
Fern root,maize root
Cucurbita stem,Cucumber stem
(3) Fern root, maizeroot
Sunflowerstem, maizestem
Cucurbita stem,Cucumber stem
(4) Cucurbita stem,Cucumber stem
Fern root,maize root
Sunflower stem,maize stem
152.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
153.
?
(1)
(2)
(3) –
(4) – 154.
(A,B,C) :-
A
B
C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Kota/00CM214004H-32/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
155. The course of blood from heart to the lungs and
back to the heart is called :-
(1) Systemic circulation
(2) Pulmonary circulation
(3) Blood circulation
(4) Single circuit circulation
156. Three of the following statements are correct
while one is incorrect. Which one is incorrect:-
(1) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular
activity.
(2) Stroma of the chloroplast contain enzymes
required for the synthesis of protein.
(3) During prophase chromosomes lose their
identity as discrete elements
(4) In human beings the membrane of erythrocytes
has approximately 52 percent protein
157. During DNA replication the average rate of
polymerisation in E.coli is :-
(1) 4000 bp/second (2) 20000 bp/second
(3) 100 bp/second (4) 2000 bp/second
158. While the membrane or lamellae of the grana have
__A__ the stroma lamellae membrane lacks
__B__.
A B
(1) PS-II PS-II and PS-I
(2)Both PS-I andPS-II
PS-I
(3)Both PS-I andPS-II
PS-II andNADP reductase
(4)PS-II andNADP reductase
PS-I and NADPreductase
159. Consider the following statements and select the
option which includes all correct statements.
(a) In alcoholic fermentation triose-P is the donor
of hydrogen and pyruvic acid is the acceptor.
(b) In aerobic respiration O2 is not directly used
in Krebs cycle but it is regarded as aerobic
pathway.
(c) Krebs cycle is the common oxidation pathway
for complete breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
and amino acids.
(d) Hexokinase is allosterically inhibited by high
conc. of ATP.
(1) a, b & c (2) b & c
(3) b, c & d (4) c & d
155. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
156. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 52
157. DNA E.coli :-(1) 4000 bp/second (2) 20000 bp/second
(3) 100 bp/second (4) 2000 bp/second
158. __A__ __B__
A B
(1) PS-II PS-II and PS-I
(2)PS-I PS-II
PS-I
(3)PS-I PS-II
PS-II NADPreductase
(4)PS-II NADP reductase
PS-I NADPreductase
159. (a) -
(b) O2
(c)
(d) ATP
(1) a, b & c
(2) b & c
(3) b, c & d
(4) c & d
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-33/39Kota/00CM214004
160.
A
B
C
D
Indentify A, B, C, D in the given figure.
A B C D
(1) Scalavestibuli
Scalatympani
Reissner'smembrane
Basilarmembrane
(2) Scalatympani
Scalavectibuli
Basilarmembrane
Reissner'smembrane
(3) Scalatympani
Scalavestibuli
Reissner'smembrane
Basilarmembrane
(4) Scalavestibuli
Scalatympani
Basilarmembrane
Reissner'smembrane
161. Euglena, Nostoc, Chlorella, Sphagnum, Cycasselect the correct statement with respect to aboveorganisms :-(1) All are unicellular(2) All belong to kingdom plantae according to
five kingdom(3) All are photosynthetic and act as producer in
nature.(4) All have cell wall
162. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given representfour different animals which one of these iscorrectly identified in the option given along withits habitat and phylum :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Animal Habitat Phylum
(1) D Obelia Marine Coelentrata
(2) A Spongilla Marine Porifera
(3) B Euspongia Marine Porifera
(4) C Sycon Fresh water Porifera
160.
A
B
C
D
A, B, C, D
A B C D
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
161. :-(1) (2) (3)
(4) 162. (A, B, C D)
:-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) D
(2) A
(3) B
(4) C
Kota/00CM214004H-34/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
163. How many meristems in the list given below are
responsible for producing the secondary tissues?
Apical meristem, Fascicular vascular cambium,
Interfascicular cambium, Intercalary meristem,
Marginal meristem, cork cambium.
(1) Five (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
164. Identify the correct match from the columns I,II,
III :-Column I Column II Column III
1. Sunflower stem
a. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
i. Dictyostele
2. Maize stem
b. Hypodermis absent ii. Mechanical tissuesabsent
3. Sunflower root
c. Collenchymatous hypodermis
iii. Lignin deposition
4. Fern rhizome
d. Mesarch xylem iv. Pectin deposition
Options :
(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii(4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i
165. The main difference in the structure of arteriesand vein is :-
(1) Tunica interna made up of simple squamousepithelium
(2) Tunica media less developed in veins(3) Tunica externa is less developed in veins
(4) Tunica externa is well developed in arteries166. Given below are four statements (A–D) each with
one blanks. Select the option which correctly fillup the blank in two statements.
(A) Materials to be packaged in the form ofvesicles from the ER fuse with the........Face
of the golgi appratus.(B) Majority of the chloroplasts of the green
plants are found in the.........cells of leaves.(C) Nucleolus is a site for active.......synthesis
(D) During zygotene chromosomes start pairingtogether and this process of association is
called........(1) (A) Maturing
(B) Mesophyll(2) (B) Mesophyll
(C) Ribosomal protein(3) (C) Transfer RNA
(D) Chiasmata(4) (D) Synapsis
(A) Forming
163.
?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 164. I,II III :-
I II III
1.
a.
i.
2. b.
ii.
3. c.
iii.
4.
d.
iv.
:(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii(4) 2-a-iii, i-c-iv, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i
165. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
166. (A–D) (A)
(B)
(C) (D)
(1) (A) (B)
(2) (B) (C)
(3) (C) RNA(D)
(4) (D) (A)
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-35/39Kota/00CM214004
167. In the ring structure of glucose how many chirale
carbon are present ?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
168. The reaction given below is related to which
process ?
R –C–COO + R –C OO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2
– – – ––C
H
NH3
+ O
H
O NH3
+
(1) Nitrogen fixation
(2) Amino acid synthesis by reductive amination
(3) Nitrification
(4) Amino acid synthesis by transamination
169. Find out the correct match from the following
table with respect to photosynthetic pathways.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) Maize PEPCase OAA
(ii) Wheat RuBisCO OAA
(iii) C4 cycle
Kranzanatomy
Photorespirationabsent
(iv)CAMpathway
Kranzanatomy
Malate storage
(1) i, iii & iv (2) ii & iii
(3) ii, iii & iv (4) i & iii
170. Which of the following statement is false :-
(1) Above the rows of the hair cells is a thin elastic
membrane called tectorial membrane.
(2) The fovea is a thinned out portion of the retina
where only the cones are densely packed.
(3) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in
order to provide the additional space for many
more neurons.
(4) At the base of the cochlea, the scala tympani
ends at the oval window.
171. Which of the following statement is correct :-
(1) Capsule of moss and roots of club moss are
diploid.
(2) Rhizoids of moss and roots of horse tails are
diploid.
(3) Fronds of fern and protonema of moss are
haploid.
(4) Leaves and endosperm of gymnosperm are
diploid.
167. ?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
168. ?
R –C–COO + R –C OO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2
– – – ––C
H
NH3
+O
H
O NH3
+
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 169.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) Maize PEPCase OAA
(ii) Wheat RuBisCO OAA
(iii) C4 cycle
Kranzanatomy
Photorespirationabsent
(iv)CAMpathway
Kranzanatomy
Malate storage
(1) i, iii & iv (2) ii & iii
(3) ii, iii & iv (4) i & iii
170. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
171. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Kota/00CM214004H-36/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
172. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only
(a) Round worms have organ system level of
body organisation.
(b) Plannaria Possess high regeneration capacitiy.
(c) In ctenophores, sexes are seperate.
(d) Flat worms psuedocoelomate animal.
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statement (a), (b)
(3) Statement (c), (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
173. Which one of the following characters in not found
in the monocotyledonous stem ?
(1) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath around
vascular bundles.
(2) Absence of phloem parenchyma
(3) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(4) Presence of starch sheath
174. The figure below (A,B,C,D) types of placentation.
Select the option giving correct identification
together with what it represents ?
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
Options :-
(1) C – Represents free central placentation
(2) A – Represents parietal placentation
(3) B – Represents axile plancentation
(4) D – Represents basal placentation
172. (a-d) (a)
(b)
(c) (d) (1) (b), (c) (d)
(2) (a), (b)
(3) (c), (d)
(4) (a), (c) (d)
173. ?(1)
(2) (3) (4)
174. (A,B,C,D) ?
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
:-(1) C –
(2) A – (3) B – (4) D –
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-37/39Kota/00CM214004
175. Which among the following is correct during each
cardiac cycle?
(1) The volume of blood pumped out by the right
and left ventricle is different.
(2) The volume of blood pumped out by the right
and left ventricle is same.
(3) The volume of blood received by each atrium
is different.
(4) The volume of blood received by the aorta and
pulmonary artery is different.
176. In the given below structure of mitochondria how
many labelling are mismatched ?Outermembrane
Innermembrane
Matrix Grana
Thylakoidal space
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
177. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) During DNA-replication, deoxyribonucleotide
triphophate serve dual purposes.
(2) DNA depended-DNA polymerase catalyse the
Polymerisation only in one direction i.e., 5'-3'.
(3) A failure, in cell division after DNA
replication results into polyploidy.
(4) In DNA of E.coli only 4.6 × 106 bp are present.
178. For aerobic respiration to take place within themitochondria, the final product of glycolysis,pyruvate is transported from the cytoplasm intothe mitochondria. The crucial events in aerobicrespiration are :-• The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the
stepwise removal of all the __A__ leavingthree molecules of __B__.
• The passing on of the electrons removed asthe part of the __C__ to __D__ with
simultaneous synthesis of ATP.
A B C D
(1)Oxygenatoms
CO2
Hydrogenatoms
MolecularO
2
(2)Hydrogenatoms
CO2
Hydrogenatoms
MolecularO
2
(3) CO2
H2O O
2
Hydrogenatoms
(4) CO2
O2
Hydrogenatoms
H2O
175. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
176.
(1) (2) (3) (4) 177. ?
(1) DNA-
(2) DNA--DNA 5'-3'
(3) DNA-
(4) E.coli DNA 4.6 × 106 bp
178. :-• __A__ 3 __B__
• __C__ __D__ ATP
A B C D
(1) CO
2
(2) CO
2
(3) CO2
H2O O
2
(4) CO2
O2
H
2O
Kota/00CM214004H-38/39
Target : Pre-Medical 2015/Major/10-01-2015
179. Match the following to select the correct match:-
Organ Coverings Anatomicaldescription
A Oesophagus (a) Capsule andfascia
(i) J-shaped organ
B Stomach (b) Glisson'scapsule
(ii) Cortex andmedulla
C Kidney (c) Nomesothelium
(iii) Bilobed organ
D Liver (d) Peritoneumand adiposetissue
(iv) Cervical,thoracicand abdominalparts
(1) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iii
(2) A–d-i, B-c-iv, C-b-iii, D-a-ii
(3) A–c-i, B-d-iv, C-a-ii, D-b-iii
(4) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-iii, D-b-ii
180. Which of the following disease occurs due to
hyposecretion of dopamine causing rigidity in
muscles :-
(1) Huntington's chorea
(2) Alzheimer's disease
(3) Parkinson's disease
(4) Stroke
179. Match the following to select the correct match:-
A (a)
(i) J-
B (b) (ii)
C (c)
(iii)
D (d)
(iv)
(1) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iii
(2) A–d-i, B-c-iv, C-b-iii, D-a-ii
(3) A–c-i, B-d-iv, C-a-ii, D-b-iii
(4) A–c-iv, B-d-i, C-a-iii, D-b-ii
180. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015
Your moral duty
is to prove that is
Pre-Medical : Enthusiast Course/Phase-I/10-01-2015
H-39/39Kota/00CM214004
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /