Higher Human Biology Revision

UNIT 1

Question 1

• Two classes of proteins are fibrous protein and conjugated protein. What is the third class?

• A. Globulating Protein

• B. Transferrin Protein

• C. Globular Protein

Question 2

• Keratin, collagen, actin and myosin all belong to which class of protein?

• A. Fibrous Protein

• B. Congugated Protein

• C. Globular Protein

Question 3

• An example of a conjugated protein would be

• A. Insulin

• B. Antibodies

• C. Mucus

Question 4

• What part of an enzyme is destroyed at high temperature

• A. the active site

• B. the optimum site

• C. the specific site

Question 5

• The name of the enzyme that is involved in the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide is

• A. Manganese oxide

• B. Catalase

• C. Amylase

Question 6

• A competitive inhibitor is one which

• A. attaches itself to the active site of an enzyme and blocks it

• B. attaches itself to another part of the enzyme away from the active site

• C. attaches itself to the substrate and prevents it joining with the enzyme

Question 7

• An example of a non-competitive inhibitor would be

• A. Sugar

• B. Cyanide

• C. Nitrogen

Question 8

• Many co-enzymes contain which substance as the main part of their molecular structure?

• A. Fat

• B. Water

• C. Vitamins

Question 9

• Trypsin and enteropeptidase are examples of

• A. co- factors

• B. co- enzymes

• C. enzyme activators

Question 10

• The three parts that make up a DNA nucleotide are

• A. Base, deoxyribose sugar, guanine

• B. Phosphate, ribose sugar, base

• C. Deoxyribose sugar, base, phosphate

Question 11

• The types of bonds that are present in DNA are

• A. Hydrogen and peptide bonds

• B. Hydrogen and chemical bonds

• C. Chemical and peptide bonds

Question 12

• RNA is different from DNA in that it

• A. contains ribose, thymine and is single stranded

• B. contains ribose, is single stranded and contains uracil

• C. contains ribose, uracil and is double stranded

Question 13

• The process of transcription involves

• A. the synthesis of a m-RNA from a t-RNA

• B. the synthesis of a t-RNA from a m-RNA

• C. the synthesis of a m-RNA from a DNA

Question 14

• The process of translation takes place at

• A. a ribosome

• B. a golgi body

• C. a nucleus

Question 15

• The three bases that are found in a t-RNA strand are

• A. Codons

• B. Anti-codons

• C. Antibodies

Question 16

• The molecule attached to an anticodon is an

• A. ribosome

• B. polypeptide

• C. amino acid

Question 17

• The cell structure that is responsible for packaging and processing a protein ready for secretion is

• A. Endoplasmic reticulum

• B. Golgi apparatus

• C. Vesicles

Question 18

• Adenosine joined to 3 inorganic phosphates is the make up of

• A. ATP

• B. ADP

• C. ADH

Question 19

• The first stage of respiration is

• A. Krebs Cycle and occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria

• B. Glycolysis and occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria

• C. Glycolysis and occurs in the cytoplasm

Question 20

• The number of ATP molecules needed to start the process of glycolysis off is

• A. 4 ATPs

• B. 2 ATPs

• C.36ATPs

Question 21

• The Krebs Cycle occurs

• A. in the matrix of the mitochondria and breaks down citric acid in a series of enzyme-controlled reactions.

• B. in the cristae of the mitochondria and builds up citric acid.

• C. in the cytoplasm and breaks down citric acid in a series of enzyme-controlled reactions.

Question 22

• The total number of ATPs made from the complete breakdown of glucose during aerobic respiration is

• A. 36 ATPs

• B. 38ATPs

• C. 2 ATPs

Question 23

• The final product/s of anaerobic respiration in animal cells is/are

• A. Lactic Acid

• B. Lactic Acid and Ethanol

• C. Lactic Acid and Carbon Dioxide

Question 24

• Maltose and Glucose sugar can be described respectively as a

• A. Monosaccharide and disaccharide

• B. Polysaccharide and disaccharide

• C. Disaccharide and Monosaccharide

Question 25

• The colour that iodine turns in the presence of glycogen is

• A. Blue-black

• B. Brick red

• C. Purple-red

Question 26

• A phospholipid is made up of

• A. three fatty acids and a glycerol

• B. two fatty acids, a glycerol and a phosphate

• C. three fatty acids, a glycerol and a phosphate

Question 27

• Cholesterol, bile and sex hormones are all examples of

• A. Phospholipids

• B. Triglycerides

• C. Steroids

Question 28

• The stores of fat around the kidneys and on the palms of the hands are known as

• A. Fat pads

• B. Fat deposits

• C. Fat bits

Question 29

• The process of breakdown of excess amino acids

• A. Occurs in the kidneys and is known as deamination

• B. Occurs in the liver and is known as acid hydrolysis

• C. Occurs in the liver and is known as deamination

Question 30

• During the first few minutes of marathon running an athlete will

• A. Use glucose then glycogen and fatty acids over the next half hour

• B. Use glycogen then glucose and fatty acids over the next half hour

• C. Use fatty acids then glucose and fatty acids over the next half hour

Question 31

• The two molecules that make up the cell membrane and can be represented by the fluid mosaic model are

• A. Protein and phospholipid

• B. Protein and steroid

• C. Protein and triglyceride

Question 32

• Diffusion and osmosis are described as

• A. Passive processes

• B. Active processes

• C. Inactive processes

Question 33

• Active transport requires energy to pass materials from

• A. A low to high concentration, against a concentration gradient

• B. A high to low concentration, against a concentration gradient

• C. A low to high concentration, down a concentration gradient

Question 34

• The process of phagocytosis can be described as

• A. Exocytosis

• B. Ectocytosis

• C. Endocytosis

Question 35

• The type of immunity that is described as inborn and unchanging is

• A. Acquired Immunity

• B. Passive Immunity

• C. Innate Immunity

Question 36

• The production of antibodies by the B-lymphocytes is described as

• A. a humoral response

• B. a cell-mediated response

• C. a quick response

Question 37

• Lymphocytes known as T-lymphocytes are produced in

• A. the bone marrow

• B. the liver

• C. the thymus

Question 38

• A mother passing antibodies to a baby through breast milk is an example of

• A. Active natural immunity

• B. Active acquired immunity

• C. Passive natural immunity

Question 39

• During an allergic reaction, the name of the substance produced by the body which results in nasal congestion, runny nose and blocked airways is

• A. Anti-histamine

• B. Histamine

• C. Dopamine

Question 40

• People with blood group AB have

• A. anti A and anti B antibodies

• B. neither anti A nor anti B antibodies

• C. Anti A antibodies

Question 41

• People with the blood group A can receive blood from groups

• A. B and O

• B. A, B, AB

• C. A and O

Question 42

• The order in which virus replication occurs is

• A. Attachment, DNA replication, protein synthesis, assembly of the protein coat, lysis of the host cell

• B. DNA replication, assembly of the protein coat, protein synthesis, attachment, lysis of the host cell

• C. DNA replication. protein synthesis, attachment, assembly of the protein coat,lysis of the host cell

Question 43

• A virus that has been rendered harmless by chemical or heat treatment is described as

• A. Weakened

• B. Retrovirus

• C. Attenuated

Question 44

• Each species has a unique number of chromosomes present in the nucleus of each of its cells. This is known as

• A. Homologous pairs

• B. Chromosome compliment

• C. Autosomal number

Question 45

• Following Meiosis

• A. 2 diploid gametes are produced

• B. 4 diploid gametes are produced

• C. 4 haploid gametes are produced

Question 46

• For DNA replication to occur

• A. enzymes, ATP, nucleotides and an RNA strand is needed

• B. enzymes, ATP, nucleotides and a DNA strand is needed

• C. RNA nucleotides, DNA polymerase, ATP and a DNA strand is needed

Question 47

• The points where crossing over occurs during meiosis are called

• A. Chiasma

• B. Crossover points

• C. Equators

Question 48

• During meiosis new combinations of alleles arise by

• A. Crossing over

• B. Independent Assortment

• C. Crossing over and Independent Assortment

Question 49

• In a monohybrid cross, the F2 ratio is usually

• A. 9:1

• B. 2:1

• C. 3:1

Question 50

• The way an organism looks based on the genes it possesses is called

• A. Phenotype

• B. Genotype

• C. Karlotype

Question 51

• Lack of understanding that the probability of a particular outcome is always the same regardless of the result that came before it is called

• A. Principle of Segregation

• B. Stupidity

• C. Gambler’s Fallacy

Question 52

• People who possess the antigen D on the surface of their red blood cells are said to be

• A. Rhesus positive

• B. Rhesus negative

• C. Sensitised

Question 53

• A condition that is a disorder of the mucus-secreting glands and causes sufferers to die at an early age is

• A. Huntington’s Chorea

• B. Cystic Fibrosis

• C. Phenylketonuria

Question 54

• The condition that causes degeneration of the nervous system, can only be diagnosed in the sufferer’s late 30’s and is caused by a dominant allele is

• A. Phenylketonuria

• B. Huntington’s Chorea

• C. Sickle Cell trait

Question 55

• Red-green colourblindness, Duchenne muscular dystrophy and haemophilia are examples of

• A. Autosomal dominant conditions

• B. Autosomal recessive conditions

• C. Sex- linked conditions caused by a recessive allele

Question 56

• When a characteristic is controlled by several genes this is an example of

• A. Polygenic inheritance

• B. Additive inheritance

• C. Multigenic inheritance

Question 57

• The gene mutations substitution and inversion are described as

• A. Frameshift Mutations

• B. Point Mutations

• C. Minor Mutations

Question 58

• The condition where a person has suffered an inborn error of metabolism and is unable to convert phenylalanine into tyrosine is

• A. Cystic fibrosis

• B. Albinism

• C. Phenylketonuria

Question 59

• The condition where a person is unable to make melanin and is sensitive to UV light is called

• A. Phenylketonuria

• B. Albinism

• C. Cystic Fibrosis

Question 60

• An example of a mutagenic agent is

• A. X-rays

• B. Mustard

• C. Tea

Question 61

• The failure of spindle fibres to separate during meiosis is called

• A. Non- separation

• B. Non-disjunction

• C. Homologous chromosomes

Question 62

• The condition caused by spindle fibres failing to separate at chromosome 21 is

• A. Turner’s syndrome

• B. Down’s syndrome

• C. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Question 63

• A person with the chromosome compliment 44 + XO (where O denotes a missing sex chromosome) has the condition known as

• A. Turner’s Syndrome

• B. Down’s Syndrome

• C. Kleinfelter’s Syndrome

Question 64

• A person with the condition Kleinfelter’s Syndrome will have the chromosome compliment

• A. 44 + XXY

• B. 44 + XYY

• C. 45 + XXY

Question 65

• An example of an autosomal recessive disorder would be

• A. Albinism

• B. Cystic Fibrosis

• C. Phenylketonuria

Question 66

• A condition that shows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance is

• A. Cystic Fibrosis

• B. Haemophilia

• C. Huntington’s Chorea

Question 67

• An example of a sex-linked condition caused by a recessive allele would be

• A. Cystic Fibrosis

• B. Haemophilia

• C. Huntington’s Chorea

Question 68

• The main aim of genetic counselling is to

• A. Advise couples on how many children to have

• B. Assess the risk of a faulty allele being passed in a family and help people to make informed decisions

• C. Advise people to have amniocentesis

Question 69

• A procedure that can be carried out around the 18th week of pregnancy is

• A. Chorionic Villus Sampling

• B. Post-Natal Screening

• C. Amniocentesis

Question 70

• A disorder that can be diagnosed through post-natal screening using the Guthrie Test is

• A. Phenylketonuria

• B. Huntington’s Chorea

• C. Albinism