General Instructions: 100. 90 Minutes. Section Name Number …sihfwrajasthan.com/Answer...

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General Instructions: • Total Questions in the Test are 100. • Total Test Duration is 90 Minutes. • You can submit your test whenever you have completed. However, if the test time elapses the system will automatically submit your test. • Do not close any Window directly when you are taking the test. Below is the list of section names and number of questions, Section Name Number of questions Professional Knowledge 60 General Knowledge and Aptitude 40 NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUCTIONS: • Select the best answer for each question. Then click “Next” button to move to the Next Question. • Click on “Previous” button to move to the Previous Question. • You can Bookmark any number of Questions by clicking on “Mark” button; vice versa you can remove the Bookmark. • You can change your response for any question before submitting the test by marking the new response (Radio Button). You can clear your response for any question by using the “Clear” button to mark the Question unanswered. • Every time you select an option or a particular question, following changes can be seen on screen Attempted questions will be displayed in “GREEN” color, Questions that are not attempted will be displayed in “WHITE’’ color, Question that are attempted and bookmarked will be displayed in “BLUE” color with a tag. Questions which are not attempted and bookmarked will be displayed in “ORANGE” color. • After completion of your test, click “End Test” button to submit the test. Submit button will be visible ONLY in the “Last Question”. • Your “Test Summary” will be displayed once you clicked on “End Test”. • Keep a watch on the “Clock” on the Top Right Hand Corner of the Exam Window for Time Remaining. • Click “Start Exam” button below to start the test.

Transcript of General Instructions: 100. 90 Minutes. Section Name Number …sihfwrajasthan.com/Answer...

General Instructions: • Total Questions in the Test are 100. • Total Test Duration is 90 Minutes. • You can submit your test whenever you have completed. However, if the test time elapses the system will automatically submit your test. • Do not close any Window directly when you are taking the test. Below is the list of section names and number of questions,

Section Name Number of questions Professional Knowledge 60

General Knowledge and Aptitude 40 NAVIGATIONAL INSTRUCTIONS:  • Select the best answer for each question. Then click “Next” button to move to the Next Question. • Click on “Previous” button to move to the Previous Question. • You can Bookmark any number of Questions by clicking on “Mark” button; vice versa you can remove the Bookmark. • You can change your response for any question before submitting the test by marking the new response (Radio Button). You can clear your response for any question by using the “Clear” button to mark the Question unanswered. • Every time you select an option or a particular question, following changes can be seen on screen  Attempted questions will be displayed in “GREEN” color, Questions that are not attempted will be displayed in “WHITE’’ color,  Question that are attempted and bookmarked will be displayed in “BLUE” color with a tag.  Questions which are not attempted and bookmarked will be displayed in “ORANGE” color.  • After completion of your test, click “End Test” button to submit the test. Submit button will be visible ONLY in the “Last Question”. • Your “Test Summary” will be displayed once you clicked on “End Test”.  • Keep a watch on the “Clock” on the Top Right Hand Corner of the Exam Window for Time Remaining. • Click “Start Exam” button below to start the test. 

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Physiotherapist- Exam held on 09th March 2016

Section 1 - Professional Knowledge

1) Which is the most important muscle to produce upwards rotation of the scapula?

A) Serratus anterior

B) Trapezius

C) Levator Scapulae

D) Deltoid

2) Therapeutic frequency of SWD is………………………..

A) 27.12 KHz

B) 27.12 MHz

C) 27.12 GHz

D) None of the above

3) In case of AK amputee prosthetic knee stabilization can be achieved by………………..

A) Action of gluteus maximus

B) Trochanteric knee alignment

C) Extension aid

D) All of the above

4) Locking position of shoulder joint is

A) Flexion, abduction and internal rotation

B) External rotation, abduction and internal rotation

C) Extension, abduction, external rotation

D) Flexion, abduction, external rotation

5) The commonest deformity at hip in post polio residual paralysis is:

A) Flexion deformity

B) Extension deformity

C) Flexion adduction deformity

D) Flexion abduction deformity

6) Proper position of the affected area is essential for patient with burns. Proper positioning should be maintained

A) Not less than twelve hours per day

B) Until skin grafts have been performed

C) Only when the patient is sleeping

D) Consistently throughout the day

7) Physiotherapy management of Spondylolisthesis excludes

A) Stretching of hip flexors, hamstrings

B) Back extension exercises

C) Spinal flexion exercises

D) Spinal stabilization exercises

8) Gutter crutches are indicated for the persons with………………………….

A) Strong upper extremities and strong trunk

B) Strong upper extremities and weak trunk

C) Strong upper extremities but problems in forearm/wrist and hand and strong trunk

D) Strong upper extremities but problems in forearm/wrist and hand and weak trunk

9) Dysdiadokokinesia is feature of ………………………..

A) Cerebellar lesion

B) Basal ganglia lesion

C) Cortical lesion

D) None of the above

10) Which of the following exercises are useful for periarthritis shoulder patient

A) Isometric neck exercises

B) Finger ladder exercises

C) Wand exercises

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D) Codman’s exercises

11) Short wave diathermy is used for all of the following except

A) Back pain

B) Hemophiliac joint

C) Osteoarthritis

D) Sprain

12) “ Whip-lash” injuries is caused due to

A) A fall from a height

B) Acute hyperextension of the spine

C) A blow on top to head

D) Acute hyperflexion of the spine

13) Anterior pelvic tilt is produced by ……………………..

A) Hip extensors and abdominals

B) Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

C) Hip adductors and trunk side flexors

D) None of the above

14) Cobb’s angle is used to quantify the magnitude of deformity of

A) Hip

B) Spinal column

C) Elbow

D) Knee

15) In fracture neck of femur the blood supply to the head of the femur is retained by…………………..

A) Circumflex artery

B) Nutrient artery

C) Artery to ligament of the head of femur

D) Femoral artery

16) The end feel of loose body inside the joint is ……………………………

A) Elastic

B) Hard

C) Leathery

D) Springy rebound

17) Range of Glenohumeral abduction is about………………..

A) 180

B) 160

C) 100-110

D) 90

18) Prosthetic foot wear are classified as………………………..

A) Articulated

B) Non- articulated

C) Very short stump

D) Very long stump

19) SOMI brace is

A) Sternal Occipital Mandibular Immobilizer

B) Scapulo Occipital Manubrium Immobilization

C) Supra Obturator Muscle Immobilization

D) Scapulo Occipital Manipulation Instrument

20) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is seen in

A) Dislocation of elbow

B) Cubitus varus

C) Cubitus valgus

D) Suprascondylar fracture of humerus

21) Which of the following HLA is positive in Ankylosing Spondylitis

A) HLA DR3

B) HLA DR4

C) HLA B27

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D) HLA DW

22) Valsalva Maneuver should be avoided for……………………

A) Patients with hypertension

B) Geriatric patients

C) Patients who have undergone abdominal surgery

D) All of the above

23) Thomas test is one of indication of

A) Fixed adduction deformity of hip

B) Fixed abduction deformity of hip

C) Fixed flexion deformity of hip

D) Fixed flexion deformity of knee

24) Pump handle movement is a feature of

A) Ribs

B) Vertebra

C) Skull

D) Hand

25) Normally in the standing position the centre of gravity lies

A) 5 cms anterior to second sacral vertebra

B) 5 cms posterior to second sacral vertebra

C) Around umbilicus

D) 5 cms anterior to second lumbar vertebra

26) Trick movement for weak quadriceps is……………………….

A) Hip extension by Gluteus maximus, which extends the knee through ITB

B) Hip flexion TFL, which extends the knee through ITB

C) Both 1 and 2

D) None of the above

27) EMG is used to record electrical activity produced by………………..

A) Skeletal Muscles

B) Motor unit

C) Nerve fiber

D) None of the above

28) Greenstick fracture generally occurs in

A) Children

B) Osteoporosis

C) Very old persons

D) Infected bones

29) Which orthotic device is for a permanent common peroneal nerve injury

A) KFO

B) HKFO

C) AO

D) AFO

30) The resting nerve is

A) Negative inside and positive outside

B) Negative outside and positive inside

C) Positive inside and Positive outside

D) Negative inside and Negative outside

31) To clear secretions after performing postural drainage techniques, what position would allow the patient to produce the most forceful cough

A) Prone

B) Sidelying

C) Supine

D) Upright sitting

32) Milwaukee brace is used in

A) Scoliosis

B) Fracture skull

C) Fracture tibia

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D) CTEV

33) What is normal grading of reflex?

A) +

B) ++

C) +++

D) –

34) The appropriate current to know tendon rupture……………….

A) Faradic current

B) TENS

C) Galvanic current

D) None of the above

35) …………………………. order level is the lever of speed.

A) 1st

B) 2nd

C) 3rd

D) All

36) Eccentric muscle work refers to……………….

A) Lengthening and narrowing of muscle

B) Antagonistic group of muscles work to control the movement

C) Physiological cost is less, consume less oxygen, so efficient

D) All of the above

37) The depth of penetration of Microwaves is ………………………………………….

A) Greater than Short waves

B) Lesser than Infrared

C) Greater than Infrared and lesser than Short waves

D) None of the above

38) The following one is superficial modality, except

A) Hydrocollator packs

B) Therapeutic ultrasound

C) Paraffin

D) Infrared radiation

39) Normalize tone, movement, posture is the assumption of………………….. approach?

A) Bobath

B) Brunstorm

C) Rood’s

D) Motor relearning

40) PID is more common during ………………. Years of age

A) 20-30

B) 30-40

C) 40-50

D) Any age

41) Language disorder is…………………….

A) Alexia

B) Aphasia

C) Dyslexia

D) Broca’s aphasia

42) U.S. may not be effective in…………….

A) Soft tissue injury

B) Bony injury

C) Improving muscle blood flow

D) Chronic pain

43) Sausage fingers are found in……………………….

A) Rheumatoid arthritis

B) Scleroderma

C) Psoriatic arthritis

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D) Gout

44) Spirometry does not determine the

A) Tidal volume

B) Inspiratory reserve volume

C) Vital capacity

D) Residual volume

45) The number of spinal nerves that emerge from spinal cord is………………….

A) 33 pairs

B) 32 pairs

C) 31 pairs

D) None of the above

46) Deep tendon reflex is exaggerated in lesion…………………..

A) Upper motor neuron

B) Lower motor neuron

C) Peripheral nerve injury

D) None of the above

47) Drop of QRS complex is found in

A) 1st degree heart block

B) 2nd degree heart block

C) 3rd degree heart block

D) Both 1 and 2

48) Charcoat joints are

A) Ankylosed joint

B) Progressively degenerating joints

C) Infective joint

D) Painless arthritis joint

49) Meralgia parasthetica occurs in ………………….. nerve.

A) Sciatic

B) Superficial peroneal

C) Lateral femoral cutaneous

D) Sural

50) In parkinsonism, the lesion is due to

A) Lateral thalamus

B) Substantia nigra

C) Caudate nucleus

D) Subthalamic nucleus

51) The mode of heat transfer by hot pack, whirl pool bath, paraffin wax bath is…………….:

A) Conduction and radiation

B) Conduction and convection

C) Radiation and convection

D) Conduction, radiation and convection

52) Most common nerve damage in shoulder dislocation

A) Radial nerve

B) Axillary nerve

C) Flexion

D) Extension

53) Damage to Nerve of Bell results in

A) CTEV

B) Winging of the scapula

C) Claw hand

D) Policeman’s tip hand

54) Tenodesis grip is important for………………………. Level SCI patient.

A) C5

B) C6

C) C8

D) T1

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55) Polymyositis is……………………

A) Infective myopathy

B) Muscle degenerating disease

C) Not myopathy

D) Inflammatory myopathy

56) ………………………….. is a device for storing an electric charge

A) Capacitor

B) Auto transformer

C) Semi conductors

D) Triode valve

57) Which is not an effect of strengthening of CVS

A) Increased heart rate

B) Decreased systolic BP

C) Increased cardiac BP

D) Decreased cholesterol

58) Motor supply of diaphragm is

A) Thoraco dorsal

B) Intercostal nerves

C) Phrenic nerve

D) Symphathetic

59) Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is due to:

A) Cubitus valgus

B) Fixation of nerve in the groove by osteoarthritis

C) Excision of elbow joint

D) Fracture of internal condyle

60) Burst fracture is seen in ……………………….

A) Talus fracture

B) Vertebral fracture

C) Femoral head fracture

D) Scaphoid

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Section 2 - General Knowledge and Aptitude

61) Under JSY duties of ASHA is/are

ts-,l-okbZ- ds vUrZxr vk’kk dk drZO; gS

A) Timely registration of beneficiary

ykHkkFkhZ dk le; ij iathdj.k djokuk

B) Arranging referral transport

jsQjy ifjogu dh O;oLFkk djokuk

C) Post-natal check up

izlo i'pkr tkap djokuk

D) All the above

mijksDr lHkh

62) Eradication of disease from a particular geographic region is called

fdlh fo’ks"k HkkSxksfyd {ks= ls chekjh dk mUewyu dgykrk gS

A) Elimination

,yhehus’ku

B) Transmission

VªkLeh’ku

C) Surveillance

lohZyh,Ul

D) Infestation

buQsLVs’ku

63) Which of the following number has been proposed by TRAI as common emergency number across the country

fuEukafdr esa ls dkSulk uEcj VªkbZ }kjk lEiw.kZ ns’k esa lkekU;

vkikrdkyhu uEcj d¢ r©j ij izLrkfor fd;k x;k

A) 111

B) 108

C) 104

D) 112

64) Maternal death is

ekr` e`R;q gS

A) Death of a female between the day of her conception to 42 days of her delivery due to any cause related to pregnancy or delivery

xHkZ/kkj.k ds izFke fnu ls izlo ds ckn 42oas fnu rd fdlh

efgyk dh xHkkZoLFkk ,oa izlo laca/kh dkj.kksa ls gqbZ eR;q

B) Ratio of deaths of Women to Men

efgyk o iq:"k dh e`R;q dk vuqikr

C) Rate of deaths of pregnant women during labor

izlo ds nkSjku xHkZorh efgykvksa dh eR;q nj

D) All of the above

mijksDr lHkh

65) What is the color of the coat of Yashoda

;’kksnk dk dksV fdl jax dk gksrk gS

A) Blue

uhyk

B) Pink

xqykch

C) Green

gjk

D) Yellow

ihyk

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66) Police commando training Institute is situated in the state at

izns’k esa iqfyl dek.Mks Vsªfuax Ldwy dgkW ij fLFkr gS

A) Jodhpur

tks/kiqj

B) Mount Abu

ekÅaV vkcw

C) Kishan Garh

fd’kux<+

D) Jaipur

t;iqj

67) Central Government has launched a program for eradication of which disease from India on April 23, 2015

dsUnz ljdkj }kjk fdl jksx ds mUewyu ds fy, 23 vizsy 2015

dks ,d dk;ZØe dh 'kq:vkr dh xbZ

A) Tuberculosis

{k; jksx

B) Measles

[kljk

C) Polio

iksfy;ks

D) Leprosy

dq"B jksx

68) Objective of Community based monitoring is

leqnk; vk/kkfjr fuxjkuh ds eq[; mís’; gS

A) Creating community ownership

leqnkf;d fefYd;r iSnk djuk

B) Knowing community need

Lkeqnk; dh vko’;drkvksa dks tkuuk

C) Providing feedback

QhMcSd nsuk

D) All of the above

mijksDr lHkh

69) At the community level what are the symptoms to identify respiratory infection /pneumonia

A) Difficulty in breathing lkal ysus eas ijs’kkuh

B) High Respiratory rate mPp 'olu nj

C) High Temperature mPp rki

D) All of the above mijksDr lHkh

70) The window period in HIV infection is of

,p-vkbZ-oh laØe.k esa foaMks fifj;M gksrk gS

A) 1 Month

1 efguk

B) 2 Months

2 efguk

C) 3 Months

3 efguk

D) 6 Months

N% efguk

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71) MUAC tape can be used for children in the age group of

,e-;w-,-lh Vsi fdl vk;q oxZ ds cPpksa ds fy, mi;ksx fd;k tk

ldrk gS

A) 6 months – 59 months

6 ekg&59 ekg

B) 0 months – 59 months

0 ekg&59 ekg

C) 6 months – 72 months

6 ekg& 72 ekg

D) 0 months – 72 months

0 ekg&72 ekg

72) Which of the following are defects at birth

fuEu esa ls dkSuls tUetkr fod`fr gS

A) Club Foot

Dyc QqV

B) Cleft palate

Dys¶V iSysV

C) Vision Impairment

fotu ,Eis;jesUV

D) Only 1&2

dsoy 1 vkSj 2

73) Incentive given to ASHA for ensuring birth of first child after two years of marriage

fookgksijkUr igyk cPpk nks Ok"kZ ds vUrjky ij gksuk lqfuf’pr

djokus gsrq vk’kk dks nh tkus okyh izksRlkgu jkf’k gS

A) 100/-

B) 250/-

C) 500/-

D) 700/-

74) Surakshit Matratva Diwas is organized

lqjf{kr ekrRo fnol euk;k tkrk gS

A) Once in a month

efgus esa ,d ckj

B) Once in two months

nks efguksa es ,d ckj

C) Once in three months

rhu efguksa es ,d ckj

D) Once in nine months

ukS efguksa es ,d ckj

75) What is the statutory warning printed on cover of tobacco product

rackdw mRikn ds doj ij D;k laoS/kkfud psrkouh Nih gksrh gS

A) Tobacco Kills

rackdw tkuysok gS

B) Tobacco Hurts

rackdw {kfr igqapkrk gS

C) Tobacco Stinks

rackdw cncwnkj gS

D) Tobacco is poisonous

rackdw tgjhyk gS

76) The Government of Rajasthan has planned to intensify MCHN activities along with immunization through which drive

jktLFkku ljdkj us ,elh,p,u xfrfof/k dks Vhdkdj.k ds lkFk

c<+kok nsus ds fy, dkSu lk vfHk;ku pyk;k

A) Panchamrit

iapke`r

B) Mission Indradhanush

fe'ku banz/kuq"k

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C) Arogya Rajasthan

vkjksX; jktLFkku

D) Swasthaya Chetna Yatra

LokLF; psruk ;k=k

77) Which software helps in On-line payment to ASHA

dkSu lk lkW¶Vos;j vk’kk dks vkWu&ykbu Hkqxrku esa lgk;d gS

A) E-Asha

bZ&vk'kk

B) ASHAsoft

vk'kklkW¶V

C) OJAS

vkstl

D) JSY online

ts-,l-okbZ- vkWuykbu

78) NIS is called

,u-vkbZ-,l- dgk tkrk gS

A) National Institute of Sports

us'kuy bafLVV~;wV vkWQ LiksV~Zl

B) National Intelligence Scheme

us'kuy bUVsyhtsUl Ldhe

C) New Immunization Schedule

U;w bE;wukbZts’ku f’kM~;wy

D) New India Scheme

U;w bafM;k Ldhe

79) Which of the following program is related with child health screening and early intervention and services under NHM

,u-,p-,e lsokvksa ds vUrZxr fuEu esa ls dkSulk dk;ZØe cky

LokLF; tk¡p ,oa 'kh?kz dk;Zokgh ls lacaf/kr gS

A) RKSK

vkj-ds-,l-ds-

B) RBSK

vkj-ch-,l-ds-

C) NSSK

,u-,l-,l-ds-

D) JSSK

ts-,l-,l-ds-

80) Area wise rank of Rajasthan in India is

{ks=Qy dh n`f"V ls jktLFkku dk Hkkjr esa dkSu lk LFkku gS

A) Third

rhljk

B) Second

nwljk

C) Fourth

prqFkZ

D) First

izFke

81) Diseases transferred through contact are called

lEidZ }kjk QSyus okys jksx dgykrs gSa

A) Communicable Disease

dE;wfudscy fMthl

B) Infectious Disease

buQSfD’k;l fMthl

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C) Contagious Disease

daVsth;l fMthl

D) Epidemic Disease

,ihMsfed fMthl

82) What is PP in PPIUCD

ih-ih-vkbZ-;w-lh-Mh- esa ih-ih- ls D;k rkRi;Z gS

A) Post Partum

iksLV ikVZe

B) Pro Population

izks ikWiqys’ku

C) Partially Popular

ikj'kyh ikWiqyj

D) Pre Partum

izh ikVZe

83) The block level authority under Department of Health is

LokLF; foHkkx ds vUrZxr CykWd Lrj dk vf/kdkjh gS

A) CM&HO

lh-,e- ,.M ,p-vks-

B) BCMO

ch-lh-,e-vks-

C) Superintendent

v/kh{kd

D) MO

,e-vks-

84) Sudhir Tailang was

lq/khj rSyax D;k Fks

A) Cartoonist

dkVwZfuLV

B) Singer

xk;d

C) Journalist

i=dkj

D) Politician

jktuhfrK

85) Through which android application ANMs are providing MCH services

fdl ,UMªkbZM ,Iyhds’ku ds }kjk ,-,u-,e] ,e-lh-,p- lsok,a ns

jgh gS

A) E-Janswasthya

bZ&tuLokLF;

B) E-Aushadhi

bZ&vkS"kf/k

C) E-Kuposhan

bZ&dqiks"k.k

D) E-MCH

bZ&,e-lh-,p-

86) The deluxe Nirodh is manufactured by

MhyDl fujks/k fdlds }kjk cuk;k tkrk gS

A) Himalaya Drugs

fgeky; MªXl

B) HLL life care limited

,p-,y-,y- ykbZQ ds;j fyfeVsM

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C) Hindustan Unilever

fgUnqLrku ;wfufyoj

D) Procter and Gamble

izksDVj ,.M xSEcy

87) Health checkup done after the diagnosis of pregnancy which includes measurement of B.P., weight etc. is called

xHkkZoLFkk dh iqf"V gksus ds ckn] tks LokLF; ijh{k.k fd;k tkrk

gS ftlesa efgyk ds jDrpki] ot+u bR;kfn dh tkap dh tkrh gS

mls dgk tkrk gS

A) Ante Natal Checkup

izlo iwoZ tkap

B) Post Natal Chekup

izlo i'pkr tkap

C) General Examination

lkekU; tkap

D) None of the above

mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

88) Which of the following should be done to prevent worm infestation

d`fe laØe.k ls cpko ds fy, fuEu esa ls D;k djuk pkfg,

A) Keeping nails clean

uk[kwuksa dks lkQ j[kuk

B) Wearing slippers

pIiy iguuk

C) Using clean toilet

lkQ 'kkSpky; dk mi;ksx

D) All of the above

mijksDr lHkh

89) Which of the following are the symptoms of Tuberculosis

fuEu eas ls dkSuls {k; jksx ds y{k.k gSa

A) Cough for two weeks with weight loss and fever

nks lIrkg rd [kkalh] cq[kkj vkSj ot+u esa deh

B) Cough for two weeks with weight loss, loss of appetite and fever at night

nks lIrkg ls vf/kd le; rd [kkalh] ot+u esa deh] Hkw[k uk

yxuk vkSj jkr esa cq[kkj

C) Cough for two weeks and fever at night

nks lIrkg rd [kkalh vkSj jkr esa cq[kkj

D) Cough for two weeks with fever and loss of appetite

nks lIrkg ls vf/kd le; rd cq[kkj ds lkFk [kkalh vkSj

Hkw[k uk yxuk

90) Water fall in Rajasthan jktLFkku esa tyizikr gS

A) Shiv Samundram f’ko leqnze

B) Jog falls

C) Dhuandhar /kqavk/kkj

D) Menal esuky

91) TFR stands for

Vh-,Q-vkj- dk vFkZ gS

A) Total Fertility Rate

VksVy QfVZfyVh jsV

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B) Total Family Rate

VksVy QSfeyh jsV

C) Total Fertility Ratio

VksVy QfVZfyVh js’kks

D) Total Family Ration

VksVy QSfeyh jk’ku

92) Which of the following is related to mosquito control

fuEu esa ls dkSu ePNjksa ds fu;a=.k ls lEcfU/kr gS

A) Jogging

tkWfxax

B) Fogging

QkWfxax

C) Plantation

ikS/kkjksi.k

D) Fishing

fQf’kax

93) Bikaner Organizes

chdkusj esa euk;k tkrk gS

A) Camel Festival

ÅaV lekjksg

B) Maru Mahostsav

e: lekjksg

C) Pata Samaroh

ikVk lekjksg

D) Bikaner Samaroh

chdkusjh lekjksg

94) Temple of Tripura Sundari is situated at

f=iqjk lqUnjh dk efUnj fLFkr gS

A) Barmer

ckM+esj esa

B) Banswara

ckalokM+k esa

C) Bikaner

chdkusj esa

D) Churu

pw: esa

95) Which program was launched on October 2, 2015 to address anemia in children

2 vDVwcj 2015 dks cPpksa esa vuhfe;k dh jksdFkke gsrq dkSulk

dk;ZØe pkyw fd;k x;k

A) National Iron Plus Initiative

us'kuy vkW;ju Iyl bfuf’k,fVo

B) Weekly Iron Folic Supplementation

ohdyh vk;ju Qksfyd lIyhesVsa’ku

C) National Anemia Eradication Program

us'kuy vuhfe;k bjSfMds'ku izksxzke

D) National Anemia Day

us'kuy vuhfe;k Ms

96) Recently which health facilities have been taken up under PPP mode

gkWy gh esa dkSuls LokLF; laLFkkuksa dks ih-ih-ih eksM ij fn;k x;k

gS

A) PHC

ih-,p-lh

B) CHC

lh-,p-lh

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C) DH

Mh-,p-

D) SDH

,l-Mh-,p

97) The counseling on HIV/AIDS is given at…….in the government hospitals ljdkjh vLirkyksa esa HIV/AIDS ij ijke’kZ

…………………feyrk gS

A. Integrated counseling and testing centre

B. HIV testing centre ,p-vkbZ-oh- VsfLVax lsUVj ij

C. HIV counseling centre

D. Integrated counseling centre

98) Which new scheme has been launched by the Prime Minister of India for social security of girl child

A) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojna lqdU;k lef) ;kstuk

B) Beti Padhao Yojna

C) Surakshit Beti Yojna

lqjf{kr csVh ;kstuk

D) Padhegi Beti Yojna i<s+xh csVh ;kstuk

99) The lead actress of the film ‘Mary Kom’

fQYe *eSjhdkse* eas eq[; Hkwfedk fdl vfHkus=h us dh Fkh

A) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan

,s’o;kZ jk; cPpu

B) Priyanka Chopra

fiz;adk pkSiM+k

C) Preity Zinta

izhrh ftaVk

D) Vidhya Balan

fo|k ckyu

100) OCP, IUCD and Male condom are

OCP, IUCD vkSj iq:"k daMkse gS

A) Temporary family planning methods

ifjokj fu;kstu ds vLFkkbZ lk/ku

B) Permanent family planning methods

ifjokj fu;kstu ds LFkkbZ lk/ku

C) Family planning methods used by males

iq:"kkas }kjk mi;ksx fd;s tkus okys ifjokj fu;kstu ds

lk/ku

D) None of the above

mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh

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Answer Key

1. B

2. B

3. D

4. B

5. D

6. D

7. B

8. C

9. A

10. D

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. B

15. C

16. D

17. B

18. D

19. A

20. Nullified

21. C

22. D

23. C

24. A

25. A

26. C

27. A

28. A

29. D

30. A

31. D

32. A

33. B

34. A

35. C

36. D

37. C

38. B

39. A

40. B

41. B

42. C

43. C

44. D

45. C

46. A

47. B

48. B

49. C

50. C

51. B

52. B

53. B

54. B

55. D

56. A

57. A

58. D

59. A

60. B

61. D

62. A

63. D

64. A

65. B

66. A

67. A

68. D

69. D

70. C

71. A

72. D

73. C

74. A

75. A

76. A

77. B

78. A

79. B

80. D

81. C

82. A

83. B

84. A

85. A

86. B

87. A

88. D

89. B

90. D

91. A

92. B

93. A

94. B

95. A

96. A

97. A

98. A

99. B

100. A