General Engineering and Applied Sciences 2nd Ed.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

GENERAL ENGINEERING

AND APPLIED SCIENCES By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

ANDRADE, Caroline T.

GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.

GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.

LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.

LORENZO, Luer Breech B.

RIVERA, Billy Joe S.

SAMONTE, Adrian A.

SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin


THERMODYNAMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.

1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek

words meaning _________.

a. transformation of heat

b. transformation of energy

c. movement of heat

d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

a. Kelvin

b. Celsius

c. Fahrenheit

d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object

because of the difference in temperature is called

a. heat

b. temperature

c. thermodynamics cycle

d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a

substance changes from one phase to another.

a. specific heat

b. heat of expansion

c. latent heat

d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

a. intensive property

b. extensive property

c. volume expansion

d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in

response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.

a. elongation

b. thermal stress

c. expansion contraction

d. thermal expansion

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.

a. Specific Energy

b. Molecular Energy

c. Internal Energy

d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or

removed to change the temperature of a substance.

a. Specific Heat Capacity

b. Latent Heat

c. Heat of Transformation

d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or

solid phase.

a. Phase Pressure

b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure

c. Specific Pressure

d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

a. pressure

b. force

c. volume

d. temperature

11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases

possible for that particular substance.

a. Phase diagram

b. P-T diagram

c. Wein Diagram

d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

a. Internal Energy

b. Grand Energy

c. Atomic Energy

d. Elemental Energy

13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1

gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.

a. specific heat

b. latent heat

c. Joule

d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.

a. movement

b. temperature

c. heat

d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.

a. internal KE

b. Atomic kinetic energy

c. Zero-Point Energy

d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale.

a. 10 K

b. 293 K

c. 303 K

d. 273 K

17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable

from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.

a. useful work

b. energy consumed

c. Helmholtz free energy

d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the

temperature varies from -15C in winter to 41C in summer?

a. 0.67 m

b. 2.2 m

c. 3.1 m

d. 0.47 m

19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of

house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the

temperature can change by 55C?

a. 0.21 m

b. 0.18 m

c. 0.31 in

d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is

at right angles to the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere?

a. 1400 J

b. 6000 J

c. 10000 J

d. 800 J

21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating

work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.

a. Du-Pont Potential

b. Gibbs free energy

c. Rabz-Eccles Energy

d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

a. heat

b. depleted

c. exhausted

d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the

equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.

a. vacuum pressure

b. relative humidity

c. absolute pressure

d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no

intermediate liquid stage.

a. Convection

b. Conduction

c. Radiation

d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

a. Convection

b. Conduction

c. Radiation

d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a

temperature change.

a. expand

b. contract

c. change

d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of

linear expansion.

a. unrelated to

b. proportional to

c. twice

d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from

4C to 0C.

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains constant

d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.

a. no volume

b. no pressure

c. zero temperature at all scales


30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the

temperature rises?

a. the relative humidity increases

b. the relative humidity decreases

c. the relative humidity remains constant

d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.

a. placidity

b. mass flow

c. convection current

d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.

a. elastic material

b. transponder material

c. Teflon

d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the

material.

a. Convection

b. Conduction

c. Radiation

d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules.

a. mass

b. matter

c. gram-mole

d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

a. velocity of propagation

b. escape velocity

c. Maxwell speed Distribution

d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the

fluid flow.

a. Forced Convection

b. External Convection

c. Placid Convection

d. Thermionic Convection

37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process

used to reach that state.

a. cycle

b. path function

c. point function

d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular

change in state.

a. path function

b. point function

c. process

d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.

a. wall

b. boundary

c. interface

d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system

b. closed container

c. control mass

d. control volume

41. Open system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system

b. closed container

c. control mass

d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

a. 290

b. 63

c. -120

d. -256

43. When a solid melts,

a. the temperature of the substance increases.

b. the temperature of the substance decreases.

c. heat leaves the substance.

d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35C to 55C.

a. 15

b. 1500

c. 1.5 x 10^4

d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?

a. temperature

b. amount of material

c. type of material

d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

a. liquids

b. gases

c. metals

d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.

Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?

a. aluminium

b. brass

c. glass

d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

a. increases

b. decreases

c. stays the same


49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

a. pressure

b. Celsius temperature

c. Kelvin temperature

d. Fahrenheit temperature

50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,

the volume is

a. increased fourfold

b. doubled

c. reduced by half

d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the

molecules in the gas?

a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2

b. it increases by a factor of 2

c. it increases by factor of 4


52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.

a. enthalpy

b. entropy

c. law of diminishing return

d. Lenz Law

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

a. Isobaric process

b. Isomillimetric process

c. Isocaloric process

d. Isochoric process

54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________

process.

a. adiabatic

b. isochoric

c. isobaric

d. zero work

55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water

a. increases

b. decreases

c. remains the same


56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

a. Closed system

b. Open system

c. Isolated system

d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.

a. boiling temperature

b. normal boiling point

c. triple point

d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation

temperature.

a. dry steam

b. current steam

c. wet steam

d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate

receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.

a. dry steam

b. wet steam

c. phase steam

d. flash steam

60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.

a. dryness fraction

b. Vaporization

c. fusion

d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?

a. thermocouple

b. thermopile

c. thermodynamic device

d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

a. any holes in the object expand as well

b. any holes in the object remain the same

c. mass increases

d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water

1 F from 63 F to 64 F.

a. one Joule

b. one calorie

c. one watt

d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

a. volume

b. power

c. heat

d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.

a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle

b. Sir Fredrich the Great

c. Thomas Edison

d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.

a. Isochoric

b. Isothermal

c. Isobaric

d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________

respectively.

a. raising the temp and lowering the temp

b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature

c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure

d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

68. The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed

by _________.

a. the first law of thermodynamics

b. the second law of thermodynamics

c. the third law of thermodynamics

d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler

to a hotter body

a. Carnots statement

b. Clausius statement

c. Rankine statement

d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another

molecule.

a. mean free path

b. path allowance

c. compacting factor

d. molecular space

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.

a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2

b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2

c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2

d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?

a. 1 x 10^5 tons

b. 2 x 10^6 tons

c. 6 x 10^15 tons

d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm

long.

a. surface pressure

b. gage pressure

c. standard atmospheric pressure

d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at

every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.

a. Torricellis law

b. Barometric law

c. Newtons Second law

d. Pascals law

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law?

a. Atmospheric Pressure

b. Gauge Pressure

c. Surface Pressure

d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.

a. 62.4 lb

b. 9.81 lb

c. 76 lb

d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.

a. force per length

b. surface tension

c. Pressure

d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by

_________.

a. Archimedes Principle

b. Evangelistas Law

c. Torricellis Theorem

d. Bernoullis Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called

_________.

a. diffusion

b. viscosity

c. streamline flow

d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon

centigrade and used Celsius Instead?

a. 1950

b. 1936

c. 1957

d. 1948

81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to

produce saturation.

a. relative humidity

b. triple point temperature

c. dew point

d. critical point

82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to

its initial state.

a. process

b. system

c. equilibrium

d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

a. Bulk Properties

b. Innate Properties

c. Natural Properties

d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic

process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower

pressure state.

a. Rankine Process

b. Carnot Cycle

c. Joule-Thomson process

d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.

a. Otto Cycle

b. Burnign Cycle

c. Shikki Cycle

d. Shapa R Elli Cycle

86. Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g

change in this process?

a. 30.5 J/K

b. 24.6 J/K

c. 21.3 J/K

d. 15.7 J/K

87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

a. conservation of mass

b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship

c. action reaction

d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in

internal energy of the system.

a. 1400 J

b. 1700 J

c. 1900 J

d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is

heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200

kPa. Find the work done on the system.

a. 5 kJ

b. 15 kJ

c. 10 kJ

d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into

the air at 100C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?

a. 11.28 %

b. 36.77 %

c. 20.36 %

d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

a. Latent heat

b. Sensible heat

c. Specific heat

d. Heat of Fusion

92. Who coined the term latent heat?

a. John Thompson

b. Studey Baker

c. Joe di Maggio

d. Joseph Black

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?

a. Latent Heat

b. Sensible Heat

c. Specific Heat

d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0

Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.

a. First Law of thermodynamics

b. Second Law of thermodynamics

c. Third Law of thermodynamics

d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.

a. 1/180 W.h

b. 1/860 W.h

c. 1/360 W.h

d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place

according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.

a. Polytropic process

b. Entropy

c. Ideal Gas Law

d. Carnot Cycle

97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the

system remain constant with respect to time.

a. streamline flow

b. steady flow

c. constant flow

d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is

the _________.

a. Otto Cycle

b. Lazare Cycle

c. Isothermal Cycle

d. Carnot Cycle

99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine

the pressure at this point

a. 733.33 kPa

b. 833.33 kPa

c. 933.33 kPa

d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

a. Lazare Carnot

b. Sadi Carnot

c. William Thompson

d. Rudolf Classius


CHEMISTRY General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.

1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their

individual relative masses.

A. mass spectrometer

B. barometer

C. hygrometer

D. hydrometer

2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.

A. isotope

B. hydrates

C. ion

D. mixture

3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:

A. combustion reactions

B. replacement reactions

C. metathesis

D. neutralization

4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of

reaction is

A. decomposition

B. combination

C. displacement

D. double displacement

5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is

A. 76 mm Hg

B. 760 cm Hg

C. 760 mm Hg

D. 7.6 cm Hg

6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called

A. Calcination

B. Roasting

C. Smelting

D. Froth flotation process

7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?

A. volume

B. mass

C. pressure

D. density

8. A device used to measure density.

A. manometer

B. hydrometer

C. spectrometer

D. densimeter

9. The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as:

A. The law of conservation of mass

B. The law of constant composition

C. The law of multiple proportions

D. The law of chemical reaction

10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity

difference between atoms is greater than 2.0

A. Ionic Bond

B. Covalent Bond

C. Metallic Bond

D. Chemical Bond

11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity

difference between atoms is less than 1.5?

A. Covalent Bond

B. Ionic Bond

C. Metallic Bond

D. Chemical Bond

12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is

the charge on the Be atom?

A. +4

B. +8

C. -4

D. Neutral

13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is

called:

A. period

B. group

C. family

D. row

14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called

A. polymorphs

B. hydrocarbons

C. polycarbon

D. plastics

15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called

A. viscosity

B. elasticity

C. glueyness

D. stickiness

16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called

A. reductant

B. reducing agent

C. oxidant

D. acceptor

17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the

reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:

A. the law of conservation of mass

B. the law of definite proportion

C. the law of multiple proportion

D. law of conservation of energy

18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one

of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the

other element. This is known as:

A. The law of constant composition

B. The law of conservation of mass

C. The law of multiple proportion

D. The law of conservation of energy

19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:

A. specific gravity

B. relative gravity

C. specific weight

D. relative weight

20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

21. The SI unit of temperature is

A. Fahrenheit

B. Kelvin

C. Celsius

D. Rankine

22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by

mass. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition

B. the law of conservation of mass

C. the law of multiple proportion

D. law of conservation of energy

23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10

neutrons.

A. 10 amu

B. 19 amu

C. 15 amu

D. 21 amu

24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. atomic number

B. percent abundance

C. atomic weight

D. oxidation number

25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called

A. momentum

B. mass

C. inertia

D. velocity

26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.

A. precision

B. error

C. tolerance

D. accuracy

27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.

A. accuracy

B. precision

C. error

D. margin

28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an identification tag for a substance.

A. mass

B. molarity

C. density

D. volume

29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called

A. quarks

B. ions

C. isotope

D. warks

30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called Prousts Law is now known as

A. The law of multiple proportion

B. The law of definite proportion

C. The law of conservation of mass

D. The law of compounds

31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?

A. 1837 times

B. 7300 times

C. 1829 times

D. 1567 times

32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called

A. ions

B. quarks

C. isotopes

D. compounds

33. The forces that hold atoms together are called

A. mechanical bond

B. formula bond

C. atomic bind

D. chemical bond

34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called

A. ion

B. isotope

C. positron

D. polymer

35. A positive ion is called

A. positron

B. anion

C. cation

D. quark

36. A negative ion is called

A. positron

B. anion

C. cation

D. quark

37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

A. ionic bonding

B. covalent bonding

C. polar bonding

D. metallic bonding

38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called

A. group

B. period

C. series

D. row

39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called

A. period

B. group

C. series

D. column

40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure

A. is decreased to half

B. is doubled

C. is increased to four times

D. remains unchanged

41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called

A. argand diagram

B. constellation diagram

C. electron dot diagram

D. structural formula

42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to

their group number?

A. transition group

B. noble gas

C. representative or main group

D. metals

43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a p orbital?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration

A. isoelectronic

B. isometric

C. iso-ionic

D. isotope

45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group 1

B. Group 2

C. Group 3

D. Group 4

46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?

A. Group 4

B. Group 5

C. Group 6

D. Group 7


ENGINEERING

ECONOMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:


1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity

B. Utility

C. Luxuries

D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the

owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock

B. Voting stock

C. Pretend stock

D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where

each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value

B. Market value

C. Use value

D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a

difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.

A. Loss

B. Depreciation

C. Extracted

D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that

one suppliers actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly

B. Monopsony

C. Monopoly

D. Perfect competition

6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods

substitute.

A. Monosony

B. Monopoly

C. Oligopoly

D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value

B. Price

C. Book value

D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the

general price level.

A. Devaluation

B. Deflation

C. Inflation

D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel

B. Monopoly

C. Corporation

D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly

B. Monophony

C. Oligopoly

D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly

B. Monopoly

C. Oligopoly

D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the

general price level.

A. Deflation

B. Inflation

C. Devaluation

D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity

B. Amortization

C. Depreciation

D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest

B. Amortization

C. Annuity

D. Bonds

15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker

B. Store

C. Bargain center

D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value

B. Par value

C. Interest

D. Maturity value

17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many

sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly

B. Oligopoly

C. Duopsony

D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in

one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly

B. Duopoly

C. Duopsony

D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the

beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity

B. Ordinary annuity

C. Annuity due

D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.

A. Tally

B. Par value

C. Check and balance

D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be

retrieved.

A. Sunk cost

B. Fixed costs

C. Depletion cost

D. Construction cost

22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal

B. Gratuitous

C. Concealed

D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs

B. Construction cost

C. Depletion cost

D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost

B. Marginal revenue

C. Extra profit

D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value

B. Salvage value

C. Scrap value

D. Book value

26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has

been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value

B. Salvage value

C. Book value

D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all

materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost

B. Maintenance cost

C. Prime cost

D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the

future is called

A. Market value

B. Net value

C. Discount

D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost

B. Marginal cost

C. Differential cost

D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or

maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity

B. Bond

C. Amortization

D. Collateral

31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value

B. Fair value

C. Salvage value

D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory

B. Counting principle

C. Stock assessment

D. Periodic material update

33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other

material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets

B. Deferred charges

C. Current asset

D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by

the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud

B. Tort

C. Libel

D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion

B. Capitalized cost

C. Perpetuity

D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that

will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies

considerably.

A. Commodities

B. Necessities

C. Demands

D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given

place and time.

A. Utility

B. Supply

C. Stocks

D. Goods

38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value

B. Salvage value

C. Book value

D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation

B. Depletion

C. Declination

D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship

B. Party

C. Corporation

D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one

person.

A. Partnership

B. Proprietorship

C. Corporation

D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person

B. Minors

C. Demented persons

D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction

B. Luxury

C. Necessity

D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition

B. Monophony

C. Monopoly

D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money

is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities

B. Necessities

C. Luxuries

D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital

B. Paid off capital

C. Subscribed capital

D. Investment

47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger

B. Spreadsheet

C. Journal

D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span

B. Economic life

C. Operating life

D. Profitable life

49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain

region.

A. Permit

B. Royalty

C. License

D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value

B. Par value

C. Market value

D. Book value


ENGINEERING

MANAGEMENT General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:


1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and

controlling an organizations resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management

B. Planning

C. Organizing

D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and

coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.

A. Engineering Management

B. Engineering Materials

C. Engineering Organization

D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing

B. Construction

C. Sales

D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about

nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research

B. Design and Development

C. Testing

D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product

concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research

B. Manufacturing

C. Testing

D. Design and Development

6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts

are tested for workability.

A. Research


C. Testing

D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production

personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research


C. Testing

D. Manufacturing

8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the

construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction

process.

A. Construction

B. Sales

C. Consulting

D. Government

9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the companys customers to meet

their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction

B. Government

C. Consulting

D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or

organization requiring his services.

A. Construction

B. Sales

C. Consulting

D. Government

11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government

performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the

activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction

B. Sales

C. Government

D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is

assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching

B. Government

C. Management

D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people

performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching

B. Government

C. Management

D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a

manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making

B. Engineering Management

C. Initiative

D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment

B. Diagnose problem

C. Make a choice

D. Articulate problem or opportunity

16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment

B. Make a choice

C. Diagnose problem

D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation

B. Qualitative evaluation

C. Relative evaluation

D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational

and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation

B. Qualitative evaluation

C. Relative evaluation

D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and

determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management

B. Planning

C. Organizing

D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies

and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.





22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with

allocated resources.





23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.





24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time

with available resources.





25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.





26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an

organizations marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan

D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in

broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan


28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes

financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan


29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms

of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the companys strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan

D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are

mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans

B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken

by middle and top management.


B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur

repeatedly.


B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about

recurring situations or function.

A. Policies

B. Procedures

C. Guidelines

D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies

B. Procedures

C. Guidelines

D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies

B. Procedures

C. Guidelines

D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are

unlikely to be repeated.


B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains

where the required funds will come from.

A. Project

B. Budget

C. Program

D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project

B. Budget

C. Program


39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to

support a program.

A. Project

B. Budget

C. Program


40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to

accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.

A. Organizing

B. Planning

C. Supervising

D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing

B. Planning

C. Supervising

D. Structure

42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional

activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

C. Matrix Organization

D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially single business

firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.





44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those

involved with a certain type of product or customer.





45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related

industries.





46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division

manager and to a project or group manager.





47. Refers to a managers right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority

B. Staff authority

C. Functional authority

D. Head authority

48. A staff specialists right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority

B. Staff authority


D. Head authority

49. A specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless

of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority

B. Staff authority


D. Head authority

50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee

B. Standing committee

C. Sinking committee

D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee

B. Standing committee

C. Sinking committee

D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,

selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

A. Resourcing

B. Recruitment

C. Hiring

D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of

the organization.

A. Forecasting

B. Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and

goals.

A. Forecasting

B. Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting

B. Evaluation and Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that

those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting


C. Programming

D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to

succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting


C. Selection

D. Training

58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information

about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-

workers.

A. Performance Appraisal

B. Induction and Orientation

C. Training and Development

D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present

job.

A. Performance Appraisal

B. Induction and Orientation

C. Training and Development

D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater

responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward

B. Promotion

C. Demotion

D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility

in the organization.

A. Monetary reward

B. Promotion

C. Demotion

D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached

to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee

until he is offered a higher position.

A. Separation

B. Promotion

C. Demotion

D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation

B. Transfer

C. Termination

D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling

B. Communication

C. Hypnotism

D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels

in the organization.

A. Information Function

B. Emotive Function

C. Motivation Function

D. Control Function

66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit

themselves to the organizations objectives.


B. Emotive Function


D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,

employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.


B. Emotive Function


D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal

B. Oral

C. Written

D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,

touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal

B. Oral

C. Written

D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a

particular goal.

A. Suppression

B. Motivation

C. Praising

D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job

B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task

C. Needs satisfaction

D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

A. Maslows Needs Hierarchy Theory

B. Expectancy Theory

C. Herzbergs Two-Factor Theory

D. Gagarins Theory

73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work

behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

A. Sales talk

B. Motivation

C. Leading

D. Commanding

74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions

within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,

it termed as:

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be

identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

A. A high level of personal drive

B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology

C. Charisma

D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been

achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives

better in the future.

A. Planning

B. Controlling

C. Evaluation

D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their

occurrence.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control

C. Concurrent control

D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect

variances are made.




D. Feedback control

82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in

order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.




D. Feedback control

83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in

useful ways.

A. Operation

B. Production

C. Construction

D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives

efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning

B. Operations management

C. Evaluation management

D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the

situation.

A. Product Design

B. Blueprinting

C. Product planning

D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the

demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement

of these facilities.

A. Product Design

B. Blueprinting

C. Product planning

D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long

each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting

B. Scheduling

C. Timetable

D. Anticipating

88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all

material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work

B. Quality Control

C. Inventory Control

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout

B. Quality Control



90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout

B. Quality Control



91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout

B. Quality Control



92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement

B. Commercial

C. Marketing

D. Sales

93. The four Ps of marketing are the following except:

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the

product, idea, or service.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached

by their customers.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence

attitudes and behavior.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of

informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising

B. Publicity

C. Sales promotion

D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea

on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising

B. Publicity

C. Sales promotion

D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising

B. Publicity

C. Sales promotion

D. Personal selling


ENGINEERING

MECHANICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

RIVERA, Billy Joe s.

1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

A. scalar

B. vector

C. tensor

D. none of the above

2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.

A. scalars

B. vectors

C. tensors


3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a

A. scalar

B. vector

C. tensor


4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1

A. moment vector

B. tensor

C. unit vector

D. vector unity

5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.

A. dot product

B. vector product

C. cross product

D. unit scalar

6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is

used.

A. vector product

B. scalar product

C. dot product

D. vector sum

7. It is sometimes called the vector product.

A. dot product

B. cross product

C. tensor product

D. unit vector

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The cross product is commutative.

B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.

C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.

D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.

9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the

________.

A. line of apsides

B. line of reaction

C. line of vector

D. line of action

10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.

A. parallel

B. coplanar

C. concurrent

D. two-dimensional

11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.

A. coplanar

B. two-dimensional

C. A or B


12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.

A. internal force

B. external force

C. body force

D. surface force

13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.

A. continuum translation

B. discrete translation

C. finite translation

D. steady translation

14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components

about P.

A. Cavalieris Theorem B. Pascals Theorem C. Varignons Theorem D. Torricellis Theorem

15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.

A. moment

B. momentum

C. impulse

D. torsion

16. A couple is composed of two forces that are

A. equal

B. equal and opposite

C. equal and different lines of action

D. equal, opposite and different lines of action

17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.

C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.

D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.

18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle , the component of weight (w) parallel to incline is __________.

A. w sin B. w cos C. w tan D. w cot

19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.

A. load

B. shear

C. bear

D. mass

20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.

A. load

B. shear

C. bear

D. mass

21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to

A. lbm-ft/s2

B. g-cm/s2

C. kg-m/s2

D. kgf

22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is

called

A. ground reflected force

B. gravity reflected force

C. ground reaction force

D. gravity reaction force

23. The gravity in the moon is about

A. 1.6 m/s2

B. 2.6 m/s2

C. 3.6 m/s2

D. 0.6 m/s2

24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point

called

A. center of force

B. center of reaction

C. center of reflection

D. center of pressure

25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?

A. mass of the load

B. acceleration of gravity

C. moment arm

D. all of the above

26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is

called

A. moment arm

B. moment distance

C. lever arm

D. A or C

27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted

by the force ___________.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. is unchanged

D. becomes zero

28. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero.

B. the force is applied at the moment axis.

C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.

D. all of the above

29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when

acting in given directions.

A. resolution of forces

B. integration of forces

C. composition of forces

D. quantization of forces

30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics

A. Gilbert Lewis

B. Stephen Timoshenko

C. J. Gordon

D. A. Cotrell

31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.

A. Discrete Mechanics

B. Finite Element Method

C. Continuum Mechanics

D. Contact Mechanics

32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?

A. gravitational force

B. magnetic force

C. air resistance force

D. electric force

33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.

A. dynamic friction

B. static friction

C. kinetic friction

D. sliding friction

34. Given = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if

pulled with a force of 3 N.

A. remain at rest

B. move

C. accelerate

D. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic

friction.

C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.

D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.

36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform

accelerations are often referred to as

A. UVATS

B. SUVAT

C. UVATS

D. Either of the above

37. Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate of change of its linear momentum. This is known as Newtons ___________ of motion.

A. Zeroth Law

B. First Law

C. Second Law

D. Third Law

38. It is also known as quantity of motion.

A. momentum

B. force

C. mass

D. acceleration

39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely

fills the space it occupies.

A. Finite Element

B. Contact

C. Discrete

D. Continuum

40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be

made.

A. Brayton Number

B. Knudsen Number

C. Reynolds Number

D. Prandtl Number

41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles

of the moving continuum body.

A. Material Derivative

B. Continual Derivative

C. Particle Derivative

D. Quantum Derivative

42. Material derivative is also known as __________.

A. substantial derivative

B. commoving derivative

C. convective derivative

D. all of the above

43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed

configuration is called the ________.

A. displacement vector

B. position vector

C. displacement field

D. position field

44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.

A. position field

B. action field

C. displacement field

D. path field

45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.

A. Continuum Mechanics

B. Solid Mechanics

C. Fluid Mechanics

D. Discrete Mechanics

46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry

B. Particle Image Accelerometry

C. Particle Image Flowmeter

D. Particle Image Viscosimetry

47. A fluid at rest has no

A. longitudinal stress

B. shear stress

C. tensile stress

D. compressive stress

48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.

A. compressibility

B. plasticity

C. elasticity

D. viscosity

49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the

external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.

A. Navier Stokes Equations B. Torricelli Equations

C. Reynolds Equations

D. Lagrangian Equations

50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow

A. Newtonian fluid

B. non-Newtonian fluid

C. Lagrangian fluid

D. non-Lagrangian fluid

51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?

A. oobleck

B. pudding

C. water

D. paint

52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then

A. no forces are acting on the object.

B. the forces acting the object are balanced.

C. the object is in equilibrium state.

D. either of the above

53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.

A. reactant

B. equilibrant

C. buoyant

D. reverse effective force

54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10 and 15 N at 100 is

A.18 N at 246

B. 18 N at 66

C. 25 N at -114

D. 25 N at 66

55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act

A. center of gravity

B. centroid

C. center of mass

D. all of the above are correct

56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

B. lie anywhere on the area

C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry

D. not lie on the line of symmetry

57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also

be called moment of inertia.

A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling

C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam

D. all of the above

58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal

axis to another parallel axis.

A. moment of axis theorem

B. transfer formula

C. parallel axis theorem

D. B or C

59. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero

B. the force is applied at the moment axis

C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis

D. all of the above

60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is

A. 1/5 mr2

B. 2/5 mr2

C. 3/5 mr2

D. 4/5 mr2

61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is

A. 1/6 mr2

B. 1/3 mr2

C. 1/2 mr2

D. 2/3 mr2

62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is

distributed about the reference axis.

A. moment of area

B. second moment of area

C. third moment of area

D. fourth moment of area

63. It is the materials ability to resist twisting

A. mass moment of inertia

B. moment of area

C. second moment of area

D. polar moment of area

64. Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This is known as the ____________.

A. Bernoullis Principle B. Torricellis Principle C. Archimedes Principle D. Pascals Principle

65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or

partially immersed.

A. Archimedes force B. fluid pressure

C. buoyancy

D. weight reaction

66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of

weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.

A. 13 N

B. 7 N

C. 10 N

D. 3 N

67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.

A. tends to rise

B. tends to sink

C. A or B


68. It is the rate of change of velocity

A. displacement

B. acceleration

C. momentum

D. impulse

69. Impulse is equal to ________.

A. force x time

B. change in momentum

C. A or B


70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are

known as __________.

A. elastic collisions

B. inelastic collisions

C. static collisions

D. plastic collisions

71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the

momentum change of the object?

A. 1 N-s

B. 400 N-s

C. 0.5 N-s

D. 200 N-s

72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the

magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?

A. 1 N-s

B. 5 N-s

C. 10 N-s

D. 20 N-s

73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.

A. momentum

B. impulse

C. velocity

D. acceleration

74. The SI unit for angular velocity is

A. degrees per second

B. revolutions per second

C. mils per second

D. radians per second

75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

B. mass x linear velocity

C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity

D. mass x angular velocity

76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called

A. angular velocity

B. angular acceleration

C. work

D. torque

77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system

can be known at once.

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

B. particle momentum principle

C. particle position principle

D. Bohrs uncertainty principle

78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

A. kg-m2

B. kg-m4

C. m4

D. m2

79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for

determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.

A. statically determinate

B. statically indeterminate

C. dynamically determinate

D. dynamically indeterminate

80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant

acceleration without having a known time interval.

A. Bernoullis equation B. Torricellis equation C. Newtons equation D. Cavendishs equation

81. Torricellis equation of motion is

A. Vf 2 = Vi

2 + 2as

B. Vf = Vi + at

C. Vf 2 = Vi

2 + at

D. Vf = Vi + 2as

82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

B. It appears to act outward the body.

C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.

D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.

83. Centripetal acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.

C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.

D. changes nothing about velocity.

84. Tangential acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.

C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.

D. changes nothing about velocity.

85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic

force manifest.

A. Eforce

B. Tforce

C. Kforce

D. Gforce

86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 1041

N

B. 1.211 x 1042

N

C. 1.211 x 1043

N

D. 1.211 x 1044

N

87. The gravitational force constant has the units

A. m3 kg

-1 s

-2

B. N kg-1

s-2

C. m2 kg

-1 s

-2

D. N kg-1

m-1

88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is

A. 1.02 x 1057

N

B. 1.02 x 10-57

N

C. 1.02 x 10-67

N

D. 1.02 x 1067

N

89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is

A. 4 x 1011

m3 s

-2

B. 4 x 1014

m3 s

-2

C. 4 x 108 m

3 s

-2

D. 4 x 1010

m3 s

-2

90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022

kg, determine the

acceleration due to gravity on the moon.

A. 1.6 m/s2

B. 2.6 m/s2

C. 3.6 m/s2

D. 0.6 m/s2

91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat

surface.

A. rolling resistance

B. rolling friction

C. rolling drag

D. either of the above

92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?

A. type of material

B. dimensions

C. both A and B


93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as

A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction

C. coefficient of resistance

D. rolling friction constant

94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is

A. 0.0002 0.0010 B. 0.005

C. 0.02

D. 0.3

95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is

A. 0.0002 0.0010 B. 0.1 0.2 C. 0.01 0.015

D. 0.05 0.06

96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.

A. factor of safety

B. mechanical factor

C. mechanical advantage

D. mechanical coefficient

97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.

A. quantum mechanics

B. classical mechanics

C. discrete mechanics

D. continuum mechanics

98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j 90k (N).

A. 130 N

B. 120 N

C. 100 N

D. 110 N

99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.

A. 18

B. 16

C. 14

D. 12

100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j 3k. Determine the component Ux.

A. 5.67

B. 6.67

C. 7.67

D. 8.67


PHYSICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

SAMONTE, Adrian A.

1. At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,

the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the

same value. The concept is known as

A. Bernoullis Energy Principles B. Fluid theorem C. Pascals theorem D. Hydraulic theorem

2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of

the system.

A. Total mechanical energy B. Total potential energy C. Total kinetic energy D. Total momentum

3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite

directions are superimposed,

A. the phase difference is always zero B. distractive waves are produced C. standing waves are produced D. constructive interference always results to zero

4. According to this law, The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude

of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.

A. Law of Universal Gravitation B. Newtons Law C. Inverse Square Law

D. Coulombs Law

5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per

square meter.

A. Illuminance B. Luminance C. Luminous Intensity D. Radiance

6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as

A. Pascals Principle B. Bernoullis Theorem C. Ideal Fluid Principle D. Archimedes Principle

7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is

A. condensation B. cold fusion C. latent heat of fusion D. solid fusion

8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure

A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure C. is less than the atmospheric pressure D. can have any value

9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly

1500oC?

A. Gas thermometer B. Platinum resistance thermometer C. Thermo couple thermometer D. Mercury thermometer

10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is

A. Mechanical energy B. Elastic potential energy C. Internal energy D. Kinetic energy

11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,

which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to

freeze a liquid?

A. Q = -mif B. Q = -miv C. Q = mif D. Q = miv

12. Which of the following is true? The density of water

A. Is maximum at 4oC B. Decreases as the temperature is increased C. Is minimum at 4oC D. Increases with temperature

13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its

A. frequency decreases B. wavelength is increased C. frequency increases D. None of the above is true

14. Cohesion is the attraction between like

A. atom B. element C. compound D. molecule

15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:

A. the increase in temperature due to induction B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one

degree Celsius

D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead

16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will

A. increase B. remain unaffected C. decrease D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure

17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases B. remains unaffected C. decreases D. Any of the above is possible

18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?

A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. none of the above

19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases B. decreases C. remains unaffected D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure

20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?

A. The sound waves B. The

General Engineering and Applied Sciences 2nd Ed.

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Transcript of General Engineering and Applied Sciences 2nd Ed.