FYBMS- INTRODUCTION TO FINANCIAL ACCOUNTS -SEM-I

1. The accounts which are prepared at the end of financial year are called_____

a) journal entries

b) final accounts

c) ledger accounts

d) trial balance

2. The article purchased, sold or produced by the businessman

a) fixed assets

b) financial asset

c) real asset

d) goods

3. Going concern may be defined best as:

a) this concept provides the basis for the formation of the accounting equation

b) this concept refuses allocation of cost on different accounting periods

c) this concept discusses the issue of the realization of profit

d) this concept assumes that the business will operate for a long period of time and will not

be dissolved in near future

4. What is the full form of ENIAC?

a) Electronic numerical integrated and compressor

b) Electronic numeric integrated and computer

c) Electronic numeric integrated and computer

d) electronic numbers in all calculators

5. Which of these is not a depreciable asset according to AS6?

a) Plant and Machinery

b) buildings

c) computers

d) wasting assets

6. Revaluation of fixed asset is carried out for

a) current market value

b) profit

c) depreciation

d) selling

7. Which menu appears after starting tally for the first time?

a) gateway of tally

b) display

c) company info

d) accounting info

8. Which option is used in tally to make changes in created company?

a) select company

b) shut company

c) alter

d) company information

9. How much types a transaction has?

a) one

b) two

c) three

d) four

10. Recording of transactions is done in a book called

a) journal entries

b) transaction book

c) record book

d) ledger

11. The economic factors causing depreciation are

a) wear and tear

b) obsolescence and inadequacy

c) effluxion of time

d) depletion

12. Which categories of fixed assets are covered under accounting standard 10?

a) tangible assets

b) natural assets

c) wasting assets

d) financial assets

13. According to AS 10 machinery spares should be treated as

a) revenue expenditure

b) inventory

c) capital expenditure

d) deferred revenue expenditure

14. Journal is also known as book of ________ entry.

a) secondary

b) prime

c) wrong

d) rectification

15. The ledger account which relates to all the assets and wealth of the business.

a) Real Account

b) Personal Account

c) Nominal Account

d) Suspense Account

16. Outstanding Expenses is a _____

a) Real Account

b) Personal Account

c) Nominal Account

d) Suspense Account

17. The Rule for Personal account is

a) Debit all Expenses and Losses Credit all Incomes and Gains

b) Debit what comes in Credit what goes out.

c) Debit the receiver Credit the giver

d) Debit the Giver and Credit the Receiver

18. Recording of business transaction in the prime books of accounts is called ______

a) entry

b) folio

c) Narration

d) Accounting

19. _____ discount is allowed in order to recover the amounts due in time.

a) Trade

b) Cash

c) Retail

d) Gross

20. Goods withdrawn by the proprietor for his personal use should be debited to _______

A/c.

a) Goods

b) Trading

c) Drawings

d) profit & Loss

21. Cash Book is used to record

a) all receipts only

b) all payments only

c) all cash and credit sales

d) all receipts and payments of cash

22. Which of the following is correct

a) Cash Book is a Journal and not a ledger

b) Cash Book is a ledger and not a Journal

c) Cash Book is both ledger and Journal

d) Cash Book is neither ledger nor Journal

23. Which of the following transaction is entered on the debit side of the Cash Book?

a) Trade Discount received

b) Trade Discount allowed

c) Cash Discount received

d) Cash Discount allowed

24. Discount that requires no accounting entry is ______ discount.

a) Cash

b) Trade

c) wholesale

d) retail

25. Each page in Ledger is known as _____

a) Journal

b) Folio

c) Sheet

d) Statement

26. _____ means finding the difference between the total of the debit side and the credit side

of an account.

a) Casting

b) Posting

c) Balancing

d) Tallying

27. An agreed Trial Balance indicates that the books are _________ accurate.

a) Technically

b) Arithmetically

c) Not

d) Principally

28. When the ledger balances are considered for a Trial Balance, it is ______ Trial Balance.

a) Gross

b) Interim

c) Final

d) Net

29. Trial Balance is prepared from ______

a) Ledger

b) Cash Book

c) Ledger and Cash Book

d) Balance Sheet

30. Nominal accounts of income and gains have credit balances and are shown on ______

side of Trial balance.

a) Debit

b) Credit

c) Either debit or credit

d) Neither debit not credit

31. Return Inwards are shown on the ______ side of the Trial balance.

a) Debit

b) Credit

c) Either debit or credit

d) Neither debit not credit

32. Selling expenses are shown on the ______ side of the Trial balance.

a) Debit

b) Credit

c) Either debit or credit

d) Neither debit not credit

33. A machine is purchased for Rs. 50,000. Installation expenses incurred on the machine is

Rs. 5,000. What will be the total cost of the machine?

a) Rs. 50,000

b) Rs. 5,000

c) Rs. 55,000

d) Rs. 45,000

34. In _______ method, rate of depreciation is applied to written down value.

a) Straight Line

b) Written Down Value

c) Rising Balance

d) Fluctuating Instalment

35. ________ method of depreciation is the only method allowed under the Income Tax Act.

a) Straight Line

b) Written Down Value

c) Rising Balance

d) Fluctuating Instalment

36. Loss on sale of asset = __________

a) Original cost - Depreciation

b) Sale price - W.D.V.

c) W.D.V. - Sale Price

d) Sale price - Depreciation

37. Cost of the machine = Rs. 2,90,000; Cost of installing the machine = Rs. 10,000;

Depreciation @ 15% p.a. on Straight Line Method; Life of the machine = 10 years. Calculate

WDV of the machine after 1 year.

a) Rs. 3,00,000

b) Rs. 2,46,500

c) Rs. 2,38,000

d) Rs. 2,55,000

38. Cost of the machine = Rs. 45,000; Depreciation is charged @ 10% p.a. on Written Down

Value method. The life of the machine is 7 years. What will be the depreciation amount charged

on the machine for the first 2 years?

a) Year 1 = Rs. 4,000; Year 2 = Rs. 3,000

b) Year 1 = Rs. 4,500; Year 2 = Rs. 4,050

c) Year 1 = Rs. 5,000; Year 2 = Rs. 4,500

d) Year 1 = Rs. 4,500; Year 2 = Rs. 4,000

39. The balance of manufacturing A/ c is called as ---------------

a) Gross profit

b) Net profit

c) Cost of production

d) Gross loss

40. Debit balance of profit and loss A/c indicate ----------------

a) Gross loss

b) Gross profit

c) Net profit

d) Net loss

41. Depreciation on Furniture is a part of ---------- A/c

a) Trading a/c

b) profit &loss a/c

c) Manufacturing a/c

d) Partners capital a/c

42. Adjustment has minimum -------------- effects

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

43. Return inward is deducted from ---------------

a) Sales

b) Purchase

c) Debtors

d) Creditors

44. Closing stock of Work –in – progress is recorded in manufacturing a/c and ------------

a) Liabilities

b) Assets

c) Trading a/c

d) Partners capital a/c

45. Interest on Drawing is --------- to capital

a) Added

b) Multiplied

c) No effect

d) Subtracted

46. Discount received is posted in ------------

a) Debit side of profit & loss a/c

b) Credit side of profit & loss a/c

c) Credit side of manufacturing a/c

d) Assets

47. Goods taken by proprietor is posted in ------------------

a) Trading a/c Debit side

b) Trading a/c Credit side

c) profit & loss a/c Credit side

d) Manufacturing a/c Debit side

48. Salary and wages will appear in -----------

a) Trading a/c

b) Profit & loss a/c

c) Manufacturing a/c

d) Partners capital a/c.

49. Bank loan taken Rs. 5,00,000 is shown in ---------------

a) Trading a/c

b) Profit & loss a/c

c) Asset

d) Liabilities

50. Net loss should be --------------- to capital

a) subtracted

b) Multiplied

c) Ignore

d) Added

FYBMS- BUSINESS ECONOMIC-SEM-I

Q.1

The father of Economics is ____________.

a Adam smith

b Marshall

c Keynes

d Ricardo

Q.2 Concept of Production possibility curve was developed by_____________. Correct option

a Smith

b Marshall

c Samuelson

d Ricardo

Q.3 __________economics refers to integration of economic theories and business practices. Correct option

a development

b growth

c business

d urban

Q.4 when demand increases, it shift to _________________ side. Correct option

a left hand

b right hand

c upward

d downward

Q.5

when Supply increases, it shift to _________________ side.

a upward

b downward

c leftward

d rightward

Q.6 price and supply have _____________________ relationship. Correct option

a direct

b indirect

c backward

d inverse

Q.7 when demand decreases and supply is constant, then price will_____________ Correct option

a fall

b rise

c contant

d equilibrium

Q.8 the market period is also called as __________________period. Correct option

a very short run

b short run

c long run

d very long run

Q.9 when supply increases and demand is constant, then price will_____________ Correct option

a fall

b rise

c contant

d equilibrium

Q.10 the demand for Electricity is __________________demand. Correct option

a joint

b direct

c indirect

d composite

Q.11 the addition made to total revenue by selling one more unit, is called as _______________revenue. Correct option

a Government

b marginal

c average

d total cost

Q.12 On the basis of place there are ____________types of market. Correct option

a two

b three

c four

d five

Q.13 the commodities are perfectly substitutes under ____________________market. Correct option

a monopoly

b oligopoly

c duopoly

d perfect

Q.14 income elasticity of demand means,demand changes only due to change in______________. Correct option

a technology

b Price

c income

d population

Q.15

when change in price by 10 % leads to change in demand 20 %,then the elasticity of demand will

be_______. Correct option

a perfectly elastic

b perfectly inelastic

c relatively elastic

d unitary elastic

Q.16

when change in price by 20 % leads to change in demand 10 %,then the elasticity of demand will

be_______. Correct option

a perfectly elastic

b perfectly inelastic

c relatively elastic

d relatively inelastic

Q.17 Ratio method of measuring elasticity of demand was developed by_______________________ Correct option

a smith

b ricardo

c marshall

d keynes

Q.18 income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is _________________ Correct option

a positive

b negative

c constant

d falling

19.

LAC is used to determine

a) the lowest possible AC for producing various levels of output

b) the maximum output at lowest variable cost

c) the output at which fixed cost is minimised

d) the optimum firm size

20.

If Average fixed cost is Rs. 40 and average variable cost is Rs. 80 for an

output level of 10, then the total cost is

a) Rs. 1200

b) Rs. 120

c) Rs. 40

d) Rs. 400

21.

Implicit costs are

a) equal to total fixed costs

b) equal to variable costs

c) always less than explicit costs

d) cost of using factors belonging to the business owner

22.

When-MP is maximum, which of the following is true?

a) AP is equal to MP

b) AP is declining

c) AP is maximum

d) AP is rising

23.

If an iso-quant touches either of the two axis, it indicates

a) zero substitutability of factors

b) perfect substitutability of factors

c) continuous substitutability of factors

d) limited substitutability of factors

24.

In the short run, a firm's fixed cost

a) is zero

b) will always have to be incurred

c) can be zero if production is zero

d) will decline with every increase in output

25.

Variable costs are:

a) sunk costs.

b) multiplied by fixed costs.

c) costs that change with the level of production.

d) defined as the change in total cost resulting from the production of an additional unit of output.

26.

Which cost always increases as output increases?

a) total cost

b) average total cost

c) marginal cost

d) average fixed cost

27.

Diminishing marginal returns occurs when

a) all inputs are increased and output decreases.

b) all inputs are increased and output increases by a smaller proportion.

c) a variable unit is increased and its marginal product falls

d) a variable input is increased and output decreases.

28.

The long run is a time period in which

a) all inputs are variable.

b) one year or less elapses.

c) all inputs are fixed

d) there is at least one fixed input and at least one variable input.

29.

By using more labor to produce more output, a firm can always reduce its

a) average fixed cost.

b) marginal fixed cost of labor

c) marginal fixed cost of output.

d) average cost of labor.

30.

Total variable cost is the sum of all .

a) implicit costs

b) costs of the firm's fixed inputs.

c) costs that rise as output increases.

d) costs associated with the production of goods.

31.

Marginal cost is

a) all the costs of production of goods.

b) all the costs of the fixed inputs.

c) the change in the total cost resulting from a one-unit change in output.

d) all the costs that vary with output.

32.

Average total costs are

a) the change in output divided by the change in total costs

b) total costs divided by total output.

c) the change in total costs divided by the change in output.

d) total output divided by total costs.

33.

The expansion path identifies

a)

the least cost combination of inputs required to produce various levels of

output

b) the firm's demand curves for the inputs.

c)

the various combinations of inputs that can be used to produce a given

level of output

d) the least-cost combination of outputs.

34.

Which of the following is an examples of variable costs?

a Salaries of management

B Insurance

c Rent

D Raw materials

35.

A firm is at break- even point when _________.

a TR > TC

B TR < TC

c TR = TC

D TR > AVC

36.

A firm earns supernormal profit when its ______________.

a TR = TC

B TR > TC

c TR < TC

D TR > AVC

37.

Which of the following is the most competitive market structure?

a perfect competition

b monopoly

c monopolistic

d oligopoly

38.

Which of the following is the least competitive market structure?

a perfect competition

B monopoly

c monopolistic

D oligopoly

39.

If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by many sellers

and buyers, a differentiated product, and unlimited long-run resource

mobility, then the firm is

a competitive player

b monopolist

c monopolistic

D oligopolistic

40.

If a firm sells its output on a market that is characterized by few sellers

and many buyers and limited long-run resource mobility, then the firm is

a competitive player

B monopolist

c monopolistic

D oligopolistic

41.

The demand curve for a perfectly competitive industry is QD = 12 -

2P.The supply curve is QS = 3 + P.The market will be in equilibrium if

a P = 6 and Q = 9

B P = 5 and Q = 2

c P = 4 and Q = 4

D P = 3 and Q = 6

42.

The demand curve faced by a monopolistically competitive firm is

____________________.

a perfectly elastic

b elastic

c unit elastic

D inelastic

43.

In perfect competition,

a there are significant restrictions on entry.

b each firm can influence the price of the good.

c there are few buyers.

d all firms in the market sell their product at the same price.

44.

If the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, a monopoly's

a marginal revenue is zero.

b total revenue decreases when the firm lowers its price.

c marginal revenue is negative.

d total revenue increases when the firm lowers its price.

45.

If the price elasticity of demand is less than 1, a monopoly's

a marginal revenue is undefined.

b total revenue decreases when the firm lowers its price.

c total revenue increases when the firm lowers its price.

d marginal revenue is zero.

46. There is no consumer’s surplus in ____________price discrimination.

a first degree

b second degree

c third degree

d forth degree

47. ___________is also called as International price discrimination.

a dumping

b monopoly

c monopolistic

d oligopoly

48. When the Railway charges different fares to different passengers for the same services, it is called as _________discrimination.

a. gender

b. age

c. personal

d. local

49. __________is an intra-firm trading of goods and services.

a. Dumping

b. marginal cost pricing

c. cost push pricing

d. transfer pricing

50. __________ ignores the role of consumers.

a. Dumping

b. marginal cost pricing

c. cost push pricing

d. transfer pricing

FYBMS- FOUNDATION OF HUMAN SKILLS-SEM-I

1. Which of the following is considered as Physical Differences?

a. Difference in intelligence

b. Difference in abilities

c. Difference in Social Behavior

d. Difference in appearance

2. One’s family and peer group influences one’s ___ considerably.

a. Motivation

b. Development

c. Emotions

d. Characteristics

3. Personality is the dynamic organization with the individual of those _____ factors that

determine his unique adjustment in the environment.

a. Emotional

b. Psycho-physical

c. Psychological

d. Intellectual

4. Trying to influence one’s fate is called as:

a. External Locus of Control

b. Machiavellianism

c. Internal Locus of Control

d. Self-Monitoring

5. How do Individual’s with less Self-efficacy take negative feedback?

a. Motivation

b. Increase in efforts

c. Lessen their efforts

d. No change in efforts

6. Size of Open self window ____ as the process of getting to know each other Continues.

a. Decreases

b. Increases

c. Belittles

7. In Blind self window, Who is unaware of things?

a. Others

b. Us

c. No one

d. All of us Worsen

8. Which of the following can be considered as perception in subjective manner?

a. Thoughts

b. Chair

c. Table

d. Sofa

9. ___is not a function of Attitudes

a. Value expressive function

b. Unorganized function

c. Knowledge function

d. Ego-Defensive function

10. ____ is based on the idea that behavior is repeated and strengthened if the outcome is

positive and behavior is weakened if the outcome is negative.

a. Operant Conditioning

b. Social Learning

c. Classical Conditioning

d. Observation Learning

11. For being successful an individual needs IQ, EQ and __

a. PQ

b. CQ

c. SQ

d. OQ

12. According to Goleman, Emotional intelligence has __ dimensions

a. Two

b. Six

c. Five

d. Three

13. ___ intelligence is the ability to think critically and analytically

a. Experiential

b. Contextual

c. Componential

d. Abstract

14. Yellow Thinking Hat represents____

a. Caution

b. Values and Benefits

c. Emotions, feelings, hunches, gut, instinct, intuition and justification

d. Memorizing skills

15. The essence of power is _________

a. Do all alone

b. Do not let others work

c. Control Behaviour of others

d. Interfere in everyone's work

16. Which of the following is not a types of informal power?

a. Expert Power

b. Referent Power

c. Charismatic Power

d. Academic Power

17. Intensity of politics is influenced by ______

a. People

b. Power

c. Profit

d. Loss

18. If there is a conflict or disagreements within a group it Is said to be ______

a. Inter-group

b. Intra-group

c. Inter-Departmental

d. Inter-Organizational

19. Accomodating style of conflict resolution approach is suitable when

a. Good relationship and harmony is more important

b. Winning is very crucial

c. Winning is very easy

d. Winning is very difficult

20. A Management team is an example of ____________________ group.

a. informal

b. formal

c. friendly

d. interest

21. _______________ groups are generally permanent in nature and continue to exist until a

decision is made to change them or restructure the organization.

a. informal

b. task

c. friendship

d. command

22. A special feature of ________________ group is that, there is heirarchy of authority, with

specified rules and regulations.

a. informal

b. interest

c. friendly

d. formal

23. In a/an ______________ group, a member's behavior is guided by his own point of view of

what is approporiate.

a. Formal

b. Command

c. Task

d. Informal

24. People who share common likes and hobbies is an example of ______________ group.

a. command

b. task

c. friendship

d. interest

25. A command group is ___________________________.

a. made up of individuals who report directly to a given manager

b. People who share common likes and hobbies

c. Employees who join together to have their vacation schedules changed, to support pay

increase, to support improved working conditions

d. an association of persons which is not structured nor created by an organization

26. People do not join groups __________________________.

a. to achieve goals

b. to have a bad public image

c. to reduce insecurity

d. to enjoy regual interaction

27. ______________________ not an influence of groups on interaction skills.

a. Encouragement

b. Harmonizing

c. Insecurity

d. Cohesiveness

28. _____________________ is the pattern of inter-relationships between the individuals

constituting a group.

a. Role

b. Team

c. Group structure

d. Leadership

29. ______________________ is a situation when an individual is faced with role expectations

that clash.

a. Role Identity

b. Role Perception

c. Role Conflict

d. Role Expection

30. ______ include role ambiguity, role erosion, and overload

a. Social loafing

b. role demand

c. task demand

d. organizational leadership

31. ____ is an individual response to a stressor such as an environmental condition or a stimulus.

a. Attitude

b. Stress

c. Change

d. Development

32. ______ involves the decision to initiate a behavior.

a. Activation

b. Persistence

c. Intensity

d. Power

33. _____ can be seen in the concentration and vigor that goes into perusing goal.

a. Activation

b. Persistence

c. Intensity

d. Power

34. The ______ in one’s own life relates to a safe environment.

a. Physiological needs

b. Safety needs

c. Love needs

d. self-esteem needs

35. The philosophy that guides an organisation’s policies towards its employees and customers is

an important part of ______

a. Management strategy

b. Organisation behaviour

c. Organisational culture

d. Organisation development

36. Communication begins with_______

a. Encoding

b. Idea Origination

c. Decoding

d. Channel Selection

37. Handling of crises by managers and employees reveals an organizational …………. .

a. Culture

b. Society

c. Environment

d. Structure

38. Characteristics of organizational culture include all but which one of the following?

a. Common language, terminology and norms of behavior

b. Sustainability policies

c. Preference for formal or informal communication

d. Rulebook of do’s and don’ts for staff

39. Which of the following statements regarding internal forces of motivation is true?

a. They are more important to understand than external forces of motivation.

b. They are less important to understand than external forces of motivation.

c. They are as important as external forces of motivation.

d. They are seldom recognized by managers.

40. Which one of the following would be considered a motivator in the motivation-hygiene

theory?

a. salary

b. supervision

c. working conditions

d. recognition

41. Which is not a sign of emotional symptom of stress ?

a. Irritability

b. Drug addiction

c. Depression

d. Frustation

42. ____________________ is an effort, planned, organization-wide and managed from the top,

to increase organization effectiveness and health through planned interventions in the

organizations processes, using behavioral science knowledge.

a. Organizational Change

b. Organizational Climate

c. Organizational Development

d. Organizational Effectiveness

43. Which of the following is not a quality of a creative person ?

a. Originality in thoughts

b. Unrealistic ideas

c. Curious and imaginative

d. Problem sensitive

44. One among the following is not an internal factor of change _____________.

a. Performance gaps

b. Employee needs and values

c. Business environment

d. Organizational change

45. ____________ is a mental process involving the generation of new ideas or concepts, or new

association with the existing ones.

a. Brainstorming

b. Creative thinking

c. Problem solving

d. Organizational development

46. Which among the following is not a symptom of stress. ,

a. Indecisiveness

b. Muscle tension

c. Concentration

d. Anxiety

47. Factors of organisational change of two types ____________ (, , none of the above)

a. internal and external

b. abstract and cognitive

c. physical and psychological

d. political and non-political

48. ____________ is a widely used OD technique.

a. survey feedback

b. dancing

c. perception

d. brain stilling

49. _________ personalities are more stress prone.

a. Type A

b. Type B

c. Theory Z

d. Theory X

50. Managerial Grid Theory is given by _________________.

a. Black & Mouton

b. Peter Drucker

c. Henry Fayo

d. F W Taylor

FYBMS- BUSINESS STATISTICS -SEM-I

1) The average age of 5 persons is 45 years .The oldest person with 65 years old .What is the

average of the remaining 4?

a) 40

b) 43

c) 39

d) 44

2) _________used to present data involving one variable

a) multiple pie diagram

b) pie diagram

c) simple bar diagram

d) histogram

3) The data collected for the first time is known as_________

a) information

b) secondary data

c) primary data

d) research data

4) The mean monthly salary paid to hundred employee size of an established was found to be

2500 salaries of two employees were taken rupees 3400 rupees 2000 which were found to be

wrong the correct figures were rupees 4300 rupees 2200 find the corrected mean

a) 2514

b) 2511

c) 2512

d) 2513

5) The data which have already been collected by someone are called

a) Fictitious data

b) Array data

c) Raw data

d) Secondary data

6) Cumulative Frequency is ___________________ frequency.

a) Increasing

b) Decreasing

c) Fixed

d) variable

7) The number of accidents in a city during 2010 is

a) Discrete variable

b) Continuous variable

c) Qualitative variable

d) Constant

8) Sum of dots when two dice are rolled is

a) Discrete variable

b) Continuous variable

c) Qualitative variable

d) Constant

9) Average age of a group for 50 personis 40 years . The average age of 30 of them is 30 years.

What is the average age of remaining 20 persons ?

a) 50

b) 55

c) 49

d) 40

10) The mean of marks of hundred students was found to be 42 .Later on it was found that the

marks of 2 students were taken from early as 53 and 63 instead of correct mark 83 and 36

.Find the corrected mean

a) 43.2

b) 43.4

c) 44.3

d) 42.3

11) The construction of cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the ______

a) Frequency

b) Mean

c) Median

d) mode

12) ________________ gives actual extent of scatter of the data.

a) Absolute Measure

b) Relative measure

c) mode

d) graph

13) Range is defined as _______

a) Maximum + Minimum

b) Maximum ÷ Minimum

c) Maximum × Minimum

Maximum – Minimum

14)

The semi inter quartile range considers only the middle ______ of the

observations

a) 60%

b) 50%

c) 70%

d) 30%

15) Find the standard deviation of the following set :12, 17, 15,11, 25

a) 5.7896

b) 3.5674

c) 4.9799

d) 6.8934

16) The following are the prices in Rs of different brands of television sets . Find the range of

prices : 17850, 16990 , 17500, 19850 , 16650, 19300.

a) 1000

b) 3200

c) 2000

d) 4000

17) Semi inter- quartile Range is

a) always zero

b) Relative measure

c) always 1

d) Absolute measure

18) A_____________ distribution has the value of all three measures of central tendency identical

a) Symmetric

b) Asymmetrc

c) Partial Asymmetric

d) Skewness

19) When -1 < r < 0 it is

a) perfect positive correlation

b) perfect negative correlation

c) Imperfect positive correlation

d) Imperfect negative correlation

20) If the graph of the values of X and Y show a band of points from lower left corner to upper

right then correlation between X and Y is called

a) perfect positive correlation

b) perfect negative correlation

c) Imperfect positive correlation

d) Imperfect negative correlation .

21) . Find the coefficient of Quartile deviation for the following data :34,35, 39 , 40, 42, 45, 47,50,51,

52, 53, 55, 57 , 62, 63.

a) 0.3478

b) 0.1579

c) 0.2398

d) 0.1278

22) The method used to derive regression constants of a regression equation is

a) Product moment

b) Least square

c) Large squares

d) Moving average method

23)

While calculating rank correlation coefficient , if the value of variable x are ranked in

increasing order , then value of variable y must be ranked in

a) increasing order

b) decreasing order

c) should be taken constant

d) increasing or decreasing will not matter

24) The diagram of n pairs of (x,y) values used to get rough idea about relationship between

variables x and y is known as

a) Scatter diagram

b) Histogram

c) Pie diagram

d) Bar daigram

25) Coefficient of Quartile deviation is defined as ______

a) (Q3 - Q1 ) / (Q3 + Q1 )

b) Q3 - Q1

c) Q3 + Q1

d) (Q3 + Q1 ) / (Q3 - Q1 )

26)

For 10 pairs of distinct observations if ∑d^2= 33 , the value of rank correlation

coefficient is

a) 0.8

b) 0.2

c) 0.4

d) 0.6

27) Time reversal test is satisfied by

a Paasche’s index

b Lespeyre’s index

c Fishers index

d Dorbish Bowley method

28) Index number for base year is always consider as_____

a 100

b 101

c 201

d 1000

29) Base year quantities are used in:

a Paasche’s index

b Lespeyre’ index

c Fishers index

d Palgrave’s method

30) Which of the following subscript is used to denote prices in the base period

a 0

b 1

c 10

d 2

31) The following variations occur due to seasonal changes in a time series

a Seasonal variation

b Cyclical variation

c Irregular variation

d Nonlinear trend

32) Future trend values can be estimated with the help of

a Moving Averages

b Straight Line Trend

c Moving surfaces Method

d Moving Curve Method

33) The weights used in a quantity index are:

a Price

b Quantity

c Value

d Quality

34) The index numbers are used to measure the changes in the price of commodities

is called ____

a Price index number

b Quantity index number

c Quality index number

d Consumers price index numbers

35) If base year is shifted then new index number of any year can be caculated as

a [Old Index Number of the year*Index Number of new base year] /100

b [Old Index Number of the year*100]/ Index Number of new base year

c [Index Number of new base year*100]/ Old Index Number of the year

d [Index Number of new base year*Old Index Number of the year]/ 100

36) In the fix base method, the base period should be___

a Median

b Mean

c Large

d Normal

37)

An index number that can serve many purposes is called

a Simple index number

b Special purpose index

c General purpose index

d Consumer price

38)

In simple price index numbers, the base period is___

a Change

b Fixed

c Constant

d Variant

39)

The Basic types of index numbers are:

a 2

b 3

c 5

d 6

40) If all the values are not of equal importance the index number is called:

a Simple

b Unweighted

c Weighted

d Complex

41) There are__________components of time series

a 2

b 3

c 4

d 5

42)

The trend component of a time series can be

a increasing

b constant

c decreasing

d increasing or decreasing or constant

43) The following variations are not inherent in any Time Series

a Seasonal variation

b Cyclical variation

c Irregular variation

d Random Variations

44) Gradual, long-term movement in time-series data is called

a seasonal variation

b cycles

c trends

d random variation

45) The fundamental difference between cycles and seasonality in time series is the

a duration of the repeating patterns

b magnitude of the variation

c ability to attribute the pattern to a cause

d independence of each other

46)

A pattern that is repeated throughout a time series and has a recurrence period of at

most one year is called:

a Cyclical variation

b Irregular variation

c Seasonal variation

d Long term variation

47) Current year quantities are used in:

a Paasche’s index

b Lespeyre’s index

c Fishers index

d Palgrave’s method

48) Fisher's ideal index number is the geometric mean of the:

a Laspeyre's and Paasche's indices

b Laspeyre's and Marshall indices

c Marshall and Paasche's indices

d Laspeyre's and Dorbish indices

49) Laspeyre's index = 110, Paasche's index = 108, then Fisher's Ideal index is equal to:

a 110

b 108

c 100

d 109

50) In Additive model

a O = T+S+C+I

b O = T+S+C

c O = S+C+I

d O = T+S

FYBMS- BUSINESS COMMUNICATION -SEM-I

1. Full form of PTO

a) Paid time of

b) page turn over

c) please turn over

d) paper time on

2. A barrier to communication which exists in the environment or is due to external causes, is

_____.

a) Physical barriers

b) semantic barriers

c) socio-cultural barriers

d) Psychological barriers

3. Organizational communication is between the people on the _____ level in the managerial

hierarchy of an organization.

a) different

b) same

c) external

d) outer

4. ______ refers to the information communication within an organization.

a) Upward communication

b) Grapevine Communication

c) Face – to - face

d) Oral Communication

5. Flow of information from the lower levels of the hierarchy to the higher levels of the

hierarchy.

a) Upward communication

b) Down word Communication

c) Electronic communication

d) Oral Communication

6. To _____ means to propose or to put forward an idea for consideration.

a) suggestion

b) motivation

c) persuasion

d) communication

7. ______ is the response or reply which the receiver of a message gives back to the sender.

a) Encoding

b) Decoding

c) Feedback

d) Medium

8. Signs and ------ were used when language did not exist.

a) Telephones

b) Telegrams

c) Symbols

d) Letters

9. Message arises in the mind of the------

a) sender

b) receiver

c) symbols

d) letter

10. Social media created------ communities using a computer.

a) vicious

b) virtual

c) real

d) vain

11. Know your----- for effective communication.

a) Neighbor

b) self

c) audience

d) colleagues

12. Forms of communication in which words are used to convey messages are referred to as------

a) Visual

b) verbal

c) non-verbal

d) manual

13. A ‘barrier’ refers to------

a) a break

b) An obstacle

c) A bar carrier

d) A road block

14. Semantic barriers are also called-----

a) Language barriers

b) Physical barriers

c) Psychological barriers

d) Cross-cultural barriers

15. A--- is a plan which shows the positions of different parts of the letter.

a) Outline

b) Graph

c) Layout

d) Pattern

16. Use of---- attitude in business correspondence enables visualizing the reaction of the reader.

a) I

b) You

c) We

d) No

17. The organization of the content in an E-mail should be------friendly.

a) Reader

b) User

c) Student

d) Writer

18. The----------of an e-mail is that single thought or message conveyed by that e-mail.

a) topic sentence

b) hook

c) attachment

d) last sentence

19. ---------Contains subject matter.

a) Sign

b) Enclosure

c) Header

d) Body of the letter

20. -------- letter appreciates employee’s professionalism.

a) memorandum

b) testimonial

c) appreciation

d) confirmation

21. Letter of---------------- is written only when the employee is discontented with the employer.

a) recommendation

b) regret

c) resignation

d) acceptance

22. It is recommended that the ----------------- always have an Objective or Summary, to focus the

reader.

a) logical resume

b) chronological resume

c) conventional resume

d) non-conventional resume

23. The ----------------- form of resume is appropriate for all types of applicant.

a) conventional

b)non-conventional

c) acceptance

d) resign

24. Financial assets that can be quickly converted to cash.

a) Fixed assets

b) current assets

c) Liquid assets

d) only fixed assets

25. Spending money on stocks, shares, and other securities, or on assets such as plants and

machinery.

a) Inventory

b) Investment

c) Invoice

d) Insurance

26. Sentences in a ---------- form a unit.

a) Paragraph

b) Essay

c) Letter

d) Debate

27. The key elements of a paragraph do not include ___.

a) A topic sentence

b) Supporting sentence

c) Logical order

d) Subject field

28. -------is a sentence that expresses the main idea of a paragraph.

a) Supporting sentence

b) logical order

c) Topic sentence

d) Transition

29. “Communication is the _________ by which information is transmitted between individuals

and / or organizations.

a) process

b) feedback

c) Persuasion

d) motivation

30. Allness and _____ are related to each other.

a) Halo effect

b) Horn effect

c) Closed mind

d) Polarization

31. Which of these should be avoided in a paragraph?

a) Courtesy

b) Positive attitude

c) Discriminatory

d) Politeness

32. How many paragraphs should an article have?

a) A minimum ten

b) At least five

c) No more than four

d) As many as there are separate thoughts that can be linked together

33. What should not be included in a good paragraph?

a) Highlight the main idea

b) Support the main idea

c) Connect to the next point

d) Irrelevant ideas

34. Organizations have to make regular efforts to prevent -------------.

a) Communication

b) Miscommunication

c) Communication barrier

d) Understanding

35. Whose responsibility is to overcome barriers to communication?

a) Sender

b) Receiver

c) Both sender and receiver

d) Nobodies

36. In which type of listening, we listen critically and analytically for considering the topic of the

argument.

a) Critical listening

b) Attentive listening

c) Appreciative listening

d) Empathic listening

37. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of integrity in employee?

a) Cheating to customer

b) Honest

c) Trustworthy

d) Hardworking

38. How to demonstrate integrity at the workplace?

a) Don’t follow company policies

b) Be late for the work

c) Be accountable for your mistakes

d) Criticize to others

39. Which of the following do not conform to the principles of effective letter writing

A Use of ‘You Attitude’ to keep the reader in mind

B Each para should deal with a single topic

C The communication should be legible

D The letter should cover all the subjects that need to be communicated at one time.

40. Which of the following kinds of communication do students spend most time engaged in?

a) Listening

b) Speaking

c) Reading

d) Writing

41. Which of the following is not a step in the listening process?

a) Comprehension of message

b) Receiving

c) Misinterpreting

d) Responding

42. The main objective of communication is----

a) Information and persuasion

b) Personality development

c) Control and management

d) Need for organization

43. Gossip and rumour are part of ---------communication.

a) Formal

b) Informal

c) Horizontal

d) Vertical

44. Which one is not an audio-visual communication?

a) Cinema

b) Television

c) Drama

d) Charts and graphs

45. Which of the following reflect ethical behavior at the workplace?

A Utilizing free time in office to complete personal tasks

B Using co-workers computer when they are not at the desk

C Discussing business plan with friends from competitor’s company

D Going by company policies in closing a business deal

46. Documents sent along with the letter--------

a) Postscript

b) Enclosure

c) Envelope

d) minute book

47. The traditional resume is called the-------resume.

a) chronological

b) functional

c) combined

d) single

48. Listening, reading, speaking and writing are all types of ----

a) Communication skills

b) Emotional barriers

c) Evaluation techniques

d) Nonverbal communication

49. Body language is a form of what communication?

a) For people with disabilities

b) High function

c) Verbal communication

d) Non-verbal communication

50. Identify the statement representing computer ethics

A Freedom to post all and any kind of information in professional space

B Using authentic software for work

C Accessing co-workers data and presenting as your own

D Using cookies and spyware to access others data.

FYBMS- FOUNDATION COURSE -SEM-I

1.Indian society is nature.

A Tribal

B Pluralistic

C Rural

D Urban

2 The Holy book of Christians.

A Bible

B Quran

C Guru Granth Sahib

D Zend Avesta

3 _________ follow the teachings of Lord Gautam Buddh

A Christians

B Hindus

C Buddhists

D Zoroastrians

4. Among the states in India, ______ has the highest gender ratio.

A Kerala

B Maharashtra

C Haryana

D Punjab

5 The Urban population in India is mostly engaged in __________ sector.

A Services

B Agricultural

CIndustrial

D Horticulture

6 Equality and ________ forms the pillars of Islam religion

ABrotherhood

B Justice

C liberty

D fraternity

7 In which state of India resides the maximum number of tribes?

A Madhya Pradesh

B Nagaland

C West Bengal

D Andhra Pradesh

8_________ is a belief in totem which may be an animal like wolf, hawk, turtle, et or

plant or a natural object.

A Animism

B Fetishism

C Totemism

D Communalism

9The Official Languages Act, 1963 itself was amended in

A 1965

B 1966

C 1967

D 1968

10__________covers Hindi, Gujarati, Marathi, Bengali, Oriya etc.

A Dravidian language

B Aryan language

C Indo – Aryan

D Sino – Tibetan

11________ is a type of learning disability.

ADown’s Syndrome

B Dyslexia

C Cretinism

D Congenital

12 The _______________ system is the rigid form of stratification based on heredity

status, traditional occupation and restriction on social relationships

A class

B caste

C estate

D regional

13In Estate system, the ________________ performed religious duties

A aristocrats

B clergy

C serfs

D traders

14Raja Ram Mohan Roy organizaed a movement to oppose the practice of ________

A sati

B dowry

C child marriage

D polygamy

15Denial of share in property is a form of ______ violence.

Acriminal

B domestic

C spiritual

D social

16_____ is the defect in spinal cord.

A Sensory disability

B Herpes simplex

C Muscular Dystrophy

D Spina Bifida

17People with an IQ between _____ suffer from moderate mental retardation.

A 35 – 54

B 20 - 34

C 100-120

D 59 - 69

18____ is the main cause of blindness.

ACataract

B Heart Diseases

C Myopia

D Glaucoma

19Under Varna System when individuals were classified on the basis of their occupation,

Brahmins used to be _______________

A religious preachers or teachers

B Adminstrators or warriors

C money lenders or traders

D workers and labourers

20Governemt of India passed 'The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act' in the year

________

A 2014

B 2015

C 2016

D 2017

21Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism?

A Religion is taken as the basis of the nation

B When one religion is discriminated against other

C State has no official religion

D Demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another

22______ of the Indian Constitution states that untouchability is abolished and its

practice in any form is forbidden

A Article 17

B Article 21

C Article 24

D Article 64

23Which of the following is a name for a potential di

sadvantage facing countries that

send large numbers of migrants abroad?

ABrain drain

B Cash stash

C Empty Nest Syndrome

D Doubling down on trickle-down

24the official language bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha in_______

A 1963

B 1953

C 1956

D 1966

25Social mobility is the most important feature of

A Urban society

B Rural society

C Tribal society

D Industrial Society

26The ________ are guidelines to the central and state government for policy making and

for achieving social ,economic and political justice.

A directive principles

B fundamental rights

C preamble

D fundamental duties

27Caste system is often regarded as a ..........

A flexible society

B open group

C closed society

D social group

28there is a water dispute over_______ river in states of Maharashtra Karnataka and

Andhra Pradesh

AKrishna

B Kaveri

C Godavari

D Narmada

29_______ can cause inter state tension and confrontation

A capitalism

B regionalism

C communism

D communalism

30anti Hindi agitation took place in________ India.

A Northern

B southern

C western

D eastern

31Article 29(A) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, adopted by the UN in

______.

A 1949

B 1948

C 1945

D 1946

32Article 17 of the Indian constitution is related to:

AProhibition of Child labour

B Equality before law

C Prohibition of untouchability

D Abolition of Titles

33The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the --------

A Prime Minister

B Vice- President

C Chief Minister

D Chief Justice

34“Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden” is the essence of

which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

A Article 14

B Article 15

C Article 16

D Article 17

35Fundamental Rights under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution are conferred on:

A Indian citizens

B All persons living within Indian Territory

C Foreigners also

D Worlds

36________ means the head of the state (President) will be periodically elected by the

people.

ARepublic

B Liberty

C Democratic

D Social

37Most of the Articles can be amended by the Parliament by a majority in each House of

the Parliament.

ATwo-third

B One-third

C one-fourth

D One-fifth

38 The Constitution of India came into effect on____________ 1950.

A 26th Nov

B 26th Dec

C 26th Jan

D 26th Oct

39 According to the Indian Constitution, there are __________ eyes of emergency.

A 2

B 3

C 5

D 6

40 The sole authority to make any amendment of the Constitution lies with _____ and

together with State legislatures in some cases.

A Union

B Municipalities

C Parliament

D Union and its Territory

41 _____ democracy offers a unique opportunity to participate in public affairs.

A traditional Panchayats

B Grass-root

C conceptual clarity

D level-root

42 In parliamentary system, the _____ party forms the government.

A Regional

B local

C Majority

D Minority

43 One of the main principle of democracy is ‘_____’

A popular Sovereignty

B economic, social

C religion

D Communalism

44 The 73rd amendment of the Indian Constitution regarding Panchyati Ras was passed in

_____

A 1990

B 1991

C 1992

D 1993

45 ____ functions at taluka level

A zillla parishad

B Gram panchayat

C Panchayat Samiti

D BMC

46 The President of Zilla Parishad has a term of _____ years

A 2

B 2 and half

C 4

D five

47 The panchayati raj system in India exists at ___ tier levels

A 2

B 3

C 3and half

D 2 and half

48 ____ was the first State to establish Panchayati Raj System in India

A Rajasthan

B Maharashtra

C Gujarat

D Madhya Paradesh

49 ____ is the Chief executive officer of the city

ACouncillor

B Chief Minister

C Mayor

D Municipal Commisioner

50 The process of _____ is brought closer to the people through Panchayati Raj.

A decision making

B traditional Panchayats

C conceptual clarity

D path making

FYBMS- BUSSINESS LAW -SEM-I

1. What are the limits of number of members in a Private Company?

(a) Fifty (b) Seven (c) Twenty (d) Two hundred

2. Company is an ___________ person.

(a) Artificial

(b) biological.

(c) Unsound person.

(d) Sound person

3. Which of the following is not a stage of the development of company?

(a) Promotion (b) Production (c) Incorporation (d) Commencement of Business

4. which of the following company/companies are registered by the Companies Act, 2013?

(a) Government Company (b) Cooperative society (c) Trust (d) partnership business

5. A public company must have at least————- directors whereas a private company must

have at least ——————-directors.

(a) 3;2 (b) 2;3 (C)2;5 (d)8;10

6. A subsidiary of a government company is also treated as a

(a) Government Company (b) Public Company (c) Private Company (d) Trust

7. The_____ of a government company is appointed or reappointed by the Comptroller and

Auditor General of India.

(a) Auditor (b) Company Secretary (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither A nor B

8. Which of the following company is incorporated in a country outside India?

(a) Private Company (b) Foreign Companies (c) Government Company (d) None of the above

9. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) No legal formality is required to form a company.

(b) The shareholders of a company have limited liability.

(c) A company can own property in its own name.

(d) A company is managed by the elected representatives of shareholders.

10. A is one who performs the preliminary duties necessary to bring a company into being and

float it.

(a) Auditor (b) Promoter (c) Director I (d) Financer

11. The registered office clause of memorandum of association contains

(a) The name of the state in which the registered office of the company is to be situated.

(b) The name of the city/town only and not that of the state.

(c) The name of registrar of companies

(d) The complete postal address.

12. “One who undertakes to form a company with reference to a given object and set it going and

who takes the necessary steps to accomplish that purpose

(a) Promoter (b) Directors (c) C.E.O. (d) Board of Directors

13. Which of the following are the functions of a promoter?

(a) Decides name of a company

(b) Nomination of directors

(c) Settles the details of memorandum and articles

(d) All of these

14. A is neither an agent, nor a trustee of a company.

(a) Directors (b) Company Secretary

(c) Employees (d) Promoters

15. Which documents contains the constitution of a company?

(a) Memorandum of Association

(b) Articles of Association

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither A nor B

16. Which documents contains the regulations relating to the internal management of a

company?

(a) Memorandum of Association

(b) Articles of Association

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) neither A nor B

17. For vetting the MOA and AOA, as per SPICE, eMOA and eAOA is required.

(a) True (b) False (c) Partly True (d) partly false.

18. The companies are regulated under.

(a) Companies Act, 1596 (b) Companies Act, 1957A(c) Indian Partnership Act,1932 (d)

Companies Act, 2013.

19. The certificate of incorporation is that the company is entitled to commence business.

(a) Exclusive (b) Conclusive (c) Supportive (d) Either (a) or (b)

20. The whole process of the company formation may be divided into three direct stages, the

sequence is-

(a) Promotion, incorporation by registration, commencement of business.

(b) Incorporation by registration, commencement of business, promotion.

(c) Commencement of business, promotion, incorporation by registration.

(d) Commencement of business, incorporation by registration, promotion.

21. A contract, where both the parties to the contract have performed their obligations, it is

known as.

a. Expressed

b. Implied.

c. Executory.

d. Executed.

22. An offer when accepted becomes _________

a. Promise

b. agreement

c. contract

d. acceptancy.

23. _____________ means 'to take back' or 'withdraw'

a, Rescind,

b, Ratification,

c, Restitution,

d, Revocation,

24. An agreement enforceable at law is.

a, Agreement

b, offer,

c, contract

d, promise

25. Which of this statement is true

a, An agreement is a wider term than a contract,

b, All agreements are contracts but all contracts are not agreements,

c, Contract may or may not create legal obligations,

d, Social obligations are enforceable by law&"

26. Warranty is a stipulation which is _________ to the contract of sale.

a, primary,

b, secondary,

c, irrelevant,

d, Most important.

27. Condition is a stipulation which is ________ to the contract of sale.

a, primary,

b, secondary,

c, collateral,

d, irrelevant.

28. Which of these are not included as goods.

a, crops,

b, shares ,

c, goodwill,

d, land.

29. Deliverable state means.

a, seller has to do some obligation,

b, buyer has to do some obligation,

c, seller has done what is required,

d, state at which the buyer cannot refuse to take possession.

30 The Sale of Goods act is of.

a, 1910,

b, 1920,

c, 1930,

d, 1940.

31, A__means a promissory note,bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to

bearer.

a, Negotiable instrument act.

B, Bills of exchange

c, transfer sheet

d, letter of approval

32, Undr negoitable Instrumnet Act,which of the following refers to "a written document by

which a right is created in favour of some person.

A, Promise,

B, Instrument,

C, Agreement

D, Contract

33, Which of the presumption in case of negotiable instrument is not presumed.

a, date is the correct

b, signature is genuine

c, amount written is correct

d, the instrument is valid

34, The undertaking contained in promissory note, to pay a certain sum of money is.

A, may be conditional, or unconditional depending on situation,

B, dependent on payee.

C, Conditional,

D, Unconditinal.

35, According to the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, which of the following is not a

promissory note?

A, promisory note payable to bearer,

B, promissory note payable to the order of certain person ,

C, payable to two or more promisee

D, payable to specific person on demand.

36, Traders means ___ of goods.

a, Dealer,

b, financer,

c, Holder,

d, Customer

37, How many days are given as a grace period under Bills of exchange?

A, 3 b, 15, c 30, d 45

38, Term negotiable means-

a, freely transferrable

b, written,

c, Transferable,

d, non negotiable

39, The sum payable in negotiable instrument should be

a. Certain,

b. uncertain

c. only in words

d. only in number

40, A cheque is valid for __ months

A, 1 b, 3 c, 6 d, 12

41, Patent must be _____

A, Dangerous invention

B, Harmful invention

C, Useless invention

D, Useful invention

42, Nike company has its own logo which is helpful to create separate brand value. This

logo falls under_____

A, Patent

B, Trademark

C, Scheme

D, Industrial Design

43, Patent excludes-

A, Discovery

B, New invention

C, Inventive step

D, Invention in medical field

44, Patent is granted for ____ years.

A, 5

B, 10

C, 15

D, 20

45, Out of the following what is granted for new invention?

A, Copyright

B, Trademark

C, Patent

D, Industrial Design

46, Out of the following what is granted for musical work?

A, Copyright

B, Trademark

C, Patent

D, Industrial Design

47, Trademark means _____.

A, Unique design or logo

B, Creative script

C, Invention

D, New painting work

48, Trademark is granted for ____ years.

A, 5

B, 10

C, 15

D, 20

49, Out of the following which is not an Intellectual Property?

A, Copyright

B, Industrial Design

C, Patent

D, New scheme

50, IPR is ____ asset.

A, tangible

B, immovable

C, intangible

D, useless