Free Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015

8/18/2019 Free Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015

1/23

An initiative by Dr. Neeraj Wadhawan

A better way to learn

FREE MOCK TEST AIIMS NOV 2015

Hello Dharma Raj S, You have completed Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015.

You scored 45 correct out of 90 questions.

You have collected 146 points.

Your answers are shown below:

1. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Trigeminal Neuralgia:

Radiofrequency thermocoagulation

Percutaneous ganglion neurolysis

Electrocoagulation of trigeminal nucleus

Cryotherapy of peripheral nerves

Electrocoagulation of the gasserian ganglion is a known procedure for the treatment of TN. However, damage to the trigeminal nucleus would

cause widespread sensory deficits in the head and face region. Hence this is definitely not recommended.

2. 3M Lava uses which technique for crown fabrication:

CAD-CAM based

Sintered

Castable

Shrink-Free base

3M ESPE Lava Crowns and Bridges are Lava Zirconia-based restorations overlaid with an approved veneering ceramic. The zirconia copings

and frameworks provide the strength while the veneering material provides the esthetics. The system is used for crowns, implant abutments,

and bridges with a span of up to 48 mm in length.

Using the speed and precision of CAD/CAM technology, it creates all-ceramic crown and bridge substructures with zirconia, an extremelystrong, stable and fracture-resistant ceramic material.

3. Not true regarding occlusal rest seats:

Maintains established occlusal relationships by preventing settling of the denture


2/23

Provides only occlusal support

The angle formed by the occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector from which it originates should be more than 90°

Base of the seat should be at least 2. 5 mm for both molars and premolars.

The angle formed by the occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector from which it originates should be less than 90°. Only in this way can

the occlusal forces be directed along the long axis of the abutment tooth. An angle greater than 90° fails to transmit occlusal forces along the

supporting vertical axis of the abutment tooth. This also permits slippage of the

prosthesis away from the abutment, which can result in orthodontic-like forces being applied to an inclined plane on the abutment, with

possible tooth movement

The occlusal rest should provide only occlusal support. Stabilization against horizontal movement of the prosthesis must be provided by other

components of the partial denture rather than by any locking effect

4. ETT used for cleft palate patients is:

Combitube

Coles tubes

Nasotracheal intubation

RAE tubes

South facing Ring, Adair and Elwyn (RAE) tubes are the preferred tubes for intubation in a cleft patient. North facing tubes are used in lower lip

surgery.

Coles tubes are used in children

5. The access cavity for mandibular 1st premolar is typically:

Round

Oval

Triangular

Trapezoidal

Anteriors: triangular

Premolars: oval

Molars: quadrilateral

6. Which of the following is a continuous laser used for cavity preparation:

CO2

Nd:YAG

Excimer

Argon

7. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:

Inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase


3/23

Decreases intracellular cAMP level

Increases the transport of glucose into the cells

Increasing acetyl-coA carboxylase activity

Insulin acvtivates pyruvate dehydrogenase (only in adipose tissue,not in liver) which catalyses pyruvate into acetyl CoA.

8. The terminal end of retentive arm of extracoronal retainer is placed at:

Junction of middle and gingival third

Middle third

Occlusal third

Gingival third

Components of extracoronal retainers:

Rest–

Function : Support

Location: Occlusal, lingual, incisal

Minor connector –

Function : Stabilization;

Location : Proximal surfaces extending from a prepared marginal ridge to the junction of the middle and gingival one third of abutment crown

Clasp arms-

Stabilization (reciprocation), Location: One third of crown

Retention, Location: Gingival one third of crown in measured undercut.

9. All of the following statements regarding ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA) are true except:

It is also an excellent irrigation solution

The decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting

It is a chelating agent with the capability to remove the mineralized portion of the smear layer

Normally it is used in a concentration of 17%

EDTA has a limited value as irrigation solution. The decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting and stops as soon as the chelator is

used up.

10. Channel teeth were proposed by:

Avery brothers

Myerson

Victor SearsAlfred Gysi

Myerson: Tru-cusp teeth

Avery brothers: Scissors bite teeth


4/23

Victor Sears: Channel teeth

Alfred Gysi: Trubyte

Swenson: non lock teeth

Nelson: Chopping blocks

11. Which of the following is not derived from the neural crest:

Neurons of the parasympathetic system

Majority of the connective tissue of face

Schwann cells

Neurohypophysis

Neurohypophysis is derived from the Neural tube ectoderm and not from the neural crest.

12. Which of the following lesions does not have remarkably increased vascularity?

Hemorrhaghic bone cyst

Sturge Weber syndrome

Aneurysmal bone cyst

Giant cell granuloma

The definite diagnosis of traumatic cyst is invariably achieved at surgery when an empty bone cavity without epithelial lining is observed,

leaving very little except normal bone and occasional fibrous tissue curetted from the cavity wall for the histopathologist. Sometimes, the

cavity contains a straw-coloured fluid of bright color

13. Most radiosensitive phase of cell cycle:G1

G2

G2M

S

Most radiosensitive phase is junction of G2M phase.

Susceptibility of various phases of cell cycle to radiation:

G2M > G2 ≥ M > G1 > Early S > Late S

MK 2008

14. Throbbing pain from the pulp is carried by:

B fibres

A delta fibres

C fibres

A fibres

Throbbing pain from the pulp is carried by: C fibres

Sharp lancinating pain from the pulp is carried by: A delta fibres

Ref Rittu Duggal Q22


5/23

15. Microabrasion involves the use of :

Hydrochloric acid

Sulphuric acid

Phosphoric acid

Acetic acid

Microabrasion

Involves surface dissolution of the enamel by hydrochloric acid along with the abrasiveness of the pumice to remove superficial stains ordefects

In newer products

-HCl used is 11% conc. (initially 18% was used)

– Pumice has been replaced by silicon carbide (abrasiveness of paste has been increased while acid conc. has been decreased)

Stains & discolorations are removed by physical removal of tooth structure. There is no bleaching action involvement

Done only when depth of defect is 0.2 – 0.3 mm or less. For deeper lesions, bleaching or tooth colored restorations are indicated.

16. All of the following ‘Health related millennium development goals’ in India are true except:Hault and begin to reverse the spread of tuberculosis by 2015

Hault and begin to reverse the spread of HIV/ AIDS by 2015

Reduce maternal mortality ratio by 3/4 between 1990 to 2015

Reduce under -5 mortality rate by 2/3 between 1990-2015

Question was not answered

MK 2012; Q119

Targets as set by ‘Health related millennium development goals’ for India do not mention ‘Hault and begin to reverse the spread of

tuberculosis by 2015’ direct.

‘Health related millennium development goals’ for India :

Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

Reduce child mortality

Improve maternal health

Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases

Ensure environmental sustainibility

Develop Global partnership for development

17. A 90 degree turn of expansion screw leads to opening of the screw by:

0.9 mm

0.20 mm

0.10 mm

0.36 mm

A normal Jack screw has a pitch of 0.18 m. This meas that a 90 degree turn will lead to a movement of 0.18 mm of the screw.

18. A child presents with raised ICT. On CT scan, a lesion is seen around foramen of Monroe and multiple paraventricular calcific foci.

What is the most probable diagnosis:

Ependymoma

Gangliglioma

Central neurocytoma

Subependymal Giant cell astrocytoma


6/23


AA nOV 2011 Q49.

Both central neurocytoma and subependymal giant cell astrocytoma lesions can be found at the foramen of Monroe. Both can cause

obstruction at foramen of Monroe leading to ventricular enlargement and raised ICT. But it is the presence of multiple periventricular calcific

foci which suggests a diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis with subependymal giant cell astrocytoma.

Other findings in tuberous sclerosis:

Calcified subependymal nodules

Cortical/subcortical tubers

White matter lesion along lines of neuronal migration

19. Chediak- Higashi syndrome is inherited as :

X-linked dominant trait

X-linked recessive

Autosomal recessive

Autosomal dominant

Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder that arises from a mutation of a lysosomal trafficking regulator protein,

which leads to a decrease in phagocytosis. The decrease in phagocytosis results in recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism and

peripheral neuropathy.

20. Which of the following is Phase II reaction :

Reduction

Hydrolysis

Conjugation

Oxidation

Phase II reactions :

Conjugation

Acetylation

Methylation

Ribonucleoside synthesis

21. How does root caries appear in cross section?

U shaped

Rhomboidal

V shaped

Inverted V shaped

Prabhakar/59 Q5

Root caries: u shaped

Pit and fissure caries: Inverted V shaped

Smooth surface caries: triangular/ cone shaped

22. A male patient is observed to be HBsAg antigen positive, HBeAg antigen negetive and anti-HBe antibody positive. HBV DNA copies

are observed to be 100,000/nl while SGOT and SGPT are elevated to 6 times the upper limit of normal value. What is the likely

diagnosis:


7/23


8/23

27. Incision for drainage (I & D) in an area of acute infection should only be performed after:

The patients fever has cleared up

Localization of the infection

A culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been performed

A sinus tract is formed

Physiologically, it is at this time that nature has constructed a barrier around the abscess, walling it off from the circulation and making it

possible to palpate the presence of purulent material within the abscess cavity (known as fluctuance).

Prior to actual abscess formation, however, the infection is capable of producing a cellulitis in the soft tissues of the region involved. The

palpable tissues take on a condition known as induration (they appear hard, dense, and brawny). Treatment during this period should be

directed towards localizing the infection.

National boards

28. Fluid of choice in a patient with burns is:

Albumin

Normal SAline

Ringers Lactate

5% dextrose

Ringers lactate is the most physiologic solution with osmolality close to plasma. It is the fluid of choice in burns patient, It is also indicated for

correction of acidosis

Fluid of choice in hypovolemic shock is normal saline and Ringers lactate. Selection of intravenous solution for initial treatment of

hypovolemic shock:

• Fluids to be avoided: 5% dextrose, all isolyte fluids.

• Most effective agents: Colloids, albumin, blood products.

• Most preferred fluids: Isotonic saline, Ringer’s lactate.

29. Progressive malocclusion is:

Class II

Class I

Class III

Class I + Class III

A Class III malocclusion is rare as compared to other type of malocclusions, with an incidence of possibly less than 5 percent.

It is usually a progressive type of malocclusion, which makes it difficult for the clinician to predict the future growth of such patients both in

magnitude and direction.

AIPG 2013

30. Sensorimotor stage of cognitive development is characterized by:

Animism

Conservation

Symbolic play

Egocentricism

In sensorimotor stage, the child begins to interact with environment and plays with toys while sitting on the dental chair.

Animism and constructivism are seen in preoperational stage.


9/23

31. Glomerular filtration is a major mechanism in the excretion of:

Protein bound drugs

Lipid soluble drugs

Organic acid

Ionic drugs

Renal excretion of drugs :

Glomerular filtration : ionic drugs

Tubular Secretion : Protein bound drugs and organic acids like penicillin, Salicylates, Probenecid, Thiazides

32. What is the approximate composition of a typical gypsum bonded investment?

50% silica, 45% gypsum, 5% modifiers

65% silica, 30% alfa hemihydrate, 5% modifiers

30% silica, 65% gypsum, 5% modifiers

35% silica, 60% alfa hemihydrate, 5% modifiers

Silica is the refractory and aids in thermal expansion of the investment> Hence it is the principal component of an investment.

33. Under the latest National tuberclosis control program (RNTCP 2010), which of the following is the protocol for treatment of cases

with relapse of disease:

2 HRE + 7 HR

2 months HRZES + 1 HRZE + 5HRE

Daily INH for 9 months

2 months HRZE + 4 HR


Daily INH for 9 months: for prophylaxis

2 months HRZE + 4 HR: New cases (Category 1)

2 months HRZES + 1 HRZE + 5HRE : Previously treated cases ; relapse and treatment default (Category 2)

2 HRE + 7 HR: Special case, intolerance to Pyrazinamide

34. Lice are not the vectors of;

Epidemic typhusRelapsing fever

Q fever

Trench fever

Q fever is an airborne disease.

Lice are vectors for:

Epidemic typhus: R. prowazekii

Relapsing fever: Borrelia recurrentis (Ticks are also a vector)

Trench fever: Rochalemia quintana

Dermatitis

Pediculosis


10/23

35. Which of the following does not aid in the establishment of the occlusal vertical dimension:

Assessment of physiologic rest position

Previous photographs

Phonetics

Duration of edentulousness

Factors used for assessment of vertical occlusal dimension:

Mechanical Methods:

Ridge relation: incisive papilla to mandibular incisors distance,

Paralellism of the bases,

Measurement of former dentures

Pre-extraction records:

Profile radiographs

Casts of teeth in occlusion

facial measurements

Physiologic methods:

Physiologic rest position

Phonetics and esthetics

Swallowing threshold

Tactile Sense and patient perceived comfort

36. Which of the following sutures maintains its tensile strength for maximum period:

Polydiaxonone

Dexon

Chromic gut

Vicryl

Polydiaxonone sutures have a life of 210 days after placement. After this they are degraded in tissues by hydrolysis.

37. A child 8 years old suffered traumatic avulsion of the upper central incisor. The child was brought to the clinic within 30 minutes of

injury while the tooth was kept moist in saliva. What should be done:

Clean the tooth, scrape the PDL, soak in doxycycline and replant

Clean socket, replace the tooth and splint

Clean the tooth, obturate with GP, replant and splint

Clean the tooth, soak in Doxycycline for 5 minutes and replant

Clearly the tooth here in question is one with open apex. Since extraoral time is less than 1 hour and tooth was transported in moist condition,

attempt should be made to maintain the vitality of the PDL as well as of pulp. Soaking in doxycycline followed by replanting and splinting

should be done. Patient should be placed on antibiotics and routine radiographs should be taken for signs of root resorption/ healing.

38. BCG vaccine is an example of:

Live atternuated vaccine

Killed vaccine

Toxoids

Multivalent vaccine

Recombinant BCG is multivalent. Classic BCG is not multivalent. Hence best answer here is live attenuated vaccine.


11/23

Examples of Live attenuated vaccines:

BCG, Oral typhoid

Oral polio, Yellow fever, Measles, Rubella, Mumps, Chicken Pox, Influenza, Epidemic typhus

39. The depth of initial entry cut while establishing the outline form of a restoration cavity should be:

0.2-0.8 mm pulpal to DEJ

Restricted to enamel whether sound or carious

1-2 mm pulpal to DEJ

At the DEJ

The steps in initial tooth preparation are: (1) developing the outline form and initial depth, (2) establishing primary resistance form, (3)

establishing primary retention form, and (4) providing convenience form.

Establishing the outline form means: (1) placing the preparation margins in the positions they will occupy in the final preparation, except for

finishing enamel walls and margins, and (2) preparing an initial depth of 0.2 to 0.8 mm pulpally of the DEJ position or normal root-surface

position (no deeper initially whether in tooth structure, air, old restorative material, or caries unless the occlusal enamel thickness is minimal

and greater dimension is necessary for strength of the restorative material).

40. Burst type of fracture of mandibular condyle is seen in children due to:

Increased vascularity and thinner cortical plates

Thinner neck of condyle

Increased resilience of the body on mandible

More pronounced articular plates

High intracapsular fracture is particularly liable to lead to ankylosis (Kazanzian, 1966) especially in children. The immature, thinly covered

and highly vascular condyle may tend to burst open, with a resultant hemarthrosis containing multiple comminuted fragments of bone

with a high osteogenic potential. A close contact between the glenoid fossa and the condylar stump encourages ankylosis. Thus intracapsular

fractures lead to most cases of ankylosis than that of the extracapsular ones. A damage to the meniscus may also lead to ankylosis.

41. High-gold noble alloys, which are used in fabricating metal-ceramic restorations:

100% gold, platinum, and palladium




Classification of PFM Alloys

• High-gold noble alloys : 98% gold, platinum, and palladium with trace elements.This is the best to use.

• Palladium-silver alloys : 50-60% palladium and 30-40% silver (which is not a noble metal and thus oxidizes on casting).

• Nickel-chromium alloys : 70-80% nickel and 15% chromium. These base metal alloys readily oxidize and can create porcelain-to-metalinterface problems.

Dental Decks : 2007-06

42. During inspiration when the diaphragm contracts,the intrapleural pressure becomes :

More negative

Less negative

Positive

Equal to the intra-alveolar pressure

The intrapleural pressure is always negative to the atmospheric pressure.

During inspiration it is -6mmHg and during expiration it is -2mmHg.

Intrapleural pressure prevents collapse of lungs.


12/23

43. Mean value of weight of a group of 10 boys was found to be 18.2 Kg. Later it was found that weight of one of the boys was wrongly

recorded as 2 Kg that should have been 20 Kg. The true mean weight of the group is:

20 Kg

20.2 Kg

18.2 Kg

16.4 Kg


Mean (average) is obtained as sum of all values divided by the no. of values.

Mean =∑x/n

In the above question: mean=18.2 Kg and n=10

∑x=182

Also the weight of one of the boys was wrongly recorded as 2 Kg that should have been 20 Kg.

True∑x= 182+(20-2) = 200

So true mean = ∑x (true) / n = 200/10 = 20

44. What kind of occlusion is expected in a 16 year old boy with healthy dentition:

Unilateral Balanced occlusion

Bilateral Balanced occlusion

Mutually protected

Group function

Mutually protected occlusion:

Also called canine guided occlusion

Seen in young people when the slopes of the canine are intact

Based on the premise that the long root of canine with increased proprioceptors is specially suited to take occlusal loads.

During lateral excursions the log slopes of the canine cusp cause disocclusion of the posterior teeth

With time the slopes of the canine wear down and the occlusion changes from canine guided to group function

45. A 30 years old male presents to the emergency department with symptoms of epigastric pain radiating to back that wakes him upat night and is relieved by consuming food. He gives history of similar pain in the past which was diagnosed as perforated duodenal

ulcer and treated with omental patch surgery on two occasions. Pain before and after surgery has been controlled with proton pump

inhibitors and analgesics. The likely diagnosis on this occasion is:

Atrophic gastritis

Chronic pancreatitis

Gastric ulcer

Duodenal ulcer


MK AIPG 2011, Q174

Duodenal ulcer: Epigastric pain relieved by food that awakens the aptient at night(when stomach is empty).

Gastric ulcer: pain is exacerbated by food and usually does not awaken the patient at night.


13/23

Pancreatic pain: is not relieved by food and is typically relieved by bending forward and worsened on lying down.

46. Oronasal intubation is not indicated in:

Mandibular fractures

Le Fort II and III fractures

Le Fort 1 fractures

Parietal bone fractures

Nasal intubation is contraindicated in severe fractures of midface, nasal fractures and basilar skull fractures .

AIPG 2014

47. Composite filler particles function to do all of the following except:

Increase the tensile strength and compressive strength

Increase the coefficient of thermal expansion

Improve the wear resistance

Reduce the polymerization shrinkage

Fillers reduce the coefficient of thermal expansion.

As the overall filler content increases, the physical, chemical, and mechanical properties generally improve. Obviously, there is a limit to theamount of filler that can be added to a resin because as the filler level is increased, the fluidity decreases.

Restorative composites have a high filler content while flowable composites have a low filler content.


48. Osler’s disease is another name for:Polycythemia vera

Central giant cell granuloma

Keratosis follicularis

Peripheral giant cell granuloma

Osler’s disease is another name for: Polycythemia vera (primary polycythemia)

49. If a primary lateral incisor is missing in the mouth, then it is likely that:

Permanent lateral incisor will develop later

Permanent lateral incisor will also be missing

Permanent canine will be missing

There will be crowding in the arch due to space loss

Maxillary lateral incisor is the most commonly missing tooth in the oral cavity after the third molars. As a rule if a deciduous tooth is missing,

its permanent counterpart will also be missing.

50. Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:

Clinically persistent

Non-functional

Multicentric

Anatomically benign

Robinson Definition: Ameloblastoma is a tumor “usually unicentric, nonfunctional, intermittent in growth, anatomically benign and clinically


14/23

persistent.

51. Chronic pulpal involvement in a deciduous molar is first manifested as:

Internal resorption

Radiolucency in furcation area

Widening of PDL in apical 1/3rd

Radiolucency at apex of root

Furcation involvement in deciduous teeth following puplpal involvement is common because:

a) Furcation is placed quite coronally in deciduous teeth

b) There are numerous accessory canals in the deciduous teeth which connect the pulp chamber to the

furcation area.

AIPG 2011

52. In a particular trial, the association of lung cancer with smoking is found to be 40% in one sample and 60% in another. What is the

best test to compare the results:

ANOVA test

Paired t test

Fischer test

Chi square test

Chi- square test :

Is a non parametric test of significance.

Is used to compare proportions in 2 or more groups.

Is used to test significance of association between 2 or more qualitative characteristics.

Is used for non-normal distributions.

Application of Chi- square test:

Test of proportions

Test of association

Test of goodness of fit

In the given question, since 2 proportions are to be compared best test will be Chi- square test.

53. Hemosiderin particles are seen histologically in case of:

Peripheral giant cell granuloma

Pregnancy tumor

Papilloma

Fibroma

Microscopic features of giant cell granuloma.

Cellular fibroblastic stroma that shows multinucleated giant cells. Giant cells often aggregate in and around foci of hemorrhage or are seen invascular spaces.

The stroma shows spindle-shaped to oval-appearing fibroblasts with mitotic figures.

The overall mitosis is relatively less as compared to the mitosis seen in giant cell tumor. Within the background tissue, the stromalinflammatory cells that include lymphocytes and plasma cells are present.

Also the cyst formation and reactive bone may be present that may show osteoblastic rimming.

54. Which of the following anticoagulants prevent clotting of blood in the normal vascular system :

Plasminogen


15/23

Heparin

Antithrombin III

Fibrinogen

AT -III is one of the most powerful circulating anticoagulants in the blood that prevents clotting into the normal vascular system.

55. Second generation apex locators work on the principle of:

Electrical conductance

Circuit breakerElectrical resistance

Electrical impedance

First-Generation : Resistance-based Apex Locator

Second-Generation : Impedance-based Apex Locator

Third-Generation : Frequency-Dependent Apex Locator

Fourth-Generation : Capacitance and Resistance-based Apex Locator

Fifth generation : Measures the capacitance and resistance of the circuit separately .

Sixth generation : Adaptive Apex Locator

56. Pore Volume in zone 3 of incipient caries is:

5-25%

More than 25%

2-4%

1%

Pore Volume in various zones of incipient caries:

Zone 1 : 1%

Zone 2 : 2-3%

Zone 3 : 5-25%

Zone 4 : Les than 5%

57. All of the following are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for removable partial dentures except:

High flexibility

High strength

Low specific gravity

Corrosion resistance

Chromium-cobalt alloys are quite inflexible. They have essentially no ductility or malleability after they are cast.

The popularity of chromium-cobalt alloys for fabrication of cast frameworks for removable partial dentures has been attributed to their low

density (weight), high modulus of elasticity (stiffness), low material cost and resistance to corrosion.

58. Most common organism causing meningitis in adults is:S. pneumonia

N. meningitides

H. influenzae

E. coli


16/23

Earlierial H.Influenze has been a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in infants and young children. Now the latest is :

Less than 1 month : E. coli

1 month to 18 years : N. meningitides

Above 20 years : S. pneumoniae

59. False regarding Brachial plexus block:Needle is inserted lateral to subclavian vessels in supraclavicular block

Chances of pneumothorax are maximum with supraclavicular approach

Infraclavicular approach is most commonly used

Musculocutaneous nerve is spared in axillary approach for brachial plexus block


Infraclavicular approach is not routinely practised. Axillary and supraclavicular approaches are more often used.

Ulnar nerve is not anesthetized in Interscalene approach. Musculocutaneous and intercostobrachial nerves are spared in axillary approach, so

arm surgery cannot performed until these 2 nerves are seperately blocked.

60. Which of the following is not true about screening:

Used for only detection of disease

Case finding is done in patients seeking healthcare for other reasons

A screening test mush have high acceptability, repeatibility and validity

The time saved by early detection of disease is called the Lead time

Screening is used not just for early detection , it has many other uses:

Case detection

Control of disease

Research purpose

Educational opportunities

61. Test of choice for Reversible Myocardial Ischemia:

Thallium scan

Coronary angiography

MUGA scan

Resting ECHO

Nuclear cardiac imaging using radiotracers like thallium is the first line technique for Reversible Myocardial Ischemia.

MK 2009

62. Walls of CT scanner room are coated with:

Iron

Lead

Glass

Tungsten

Lead is the most common agent used in modern construction to offer radiation shielding.

Other agents that have been used:

Concrete or brick blocks


17/23

Barium plaster

MK 2010

63. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin is most commonly seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection:

Folic Acid

Vit B12

Vit K

Vit B1

Vitamin deficiency seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection:

Vit B12 since it is only absorbed in the terminal ileum.

Fat soluble vit deficiencies may also occur due to fat malabsorption.

Vitamin deficiency seen in short bowel syndrome with jejunal resection:

Deficiency of fat soluble vit (A,D,E,K)

Vit A,D > Vit E > Vit K

64. Parasympathetic nerve supply to salivary glands is by:

VII and X cranial nerves

VII and IX cranial nerves

IX and X cranial nerves

V and X cranial nerves

IX nerve: parotid gland

VII nerve: submandibular gland

65. ESWL is most effective for treatment of which type of renal stones:

Cystiene

Uric acid

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Brushite

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) is a non-invasive treatment of kidney stones (urinary calculosis) and biliary calculi.

Softer stones are easy to break with ESWL. They include:

Calcium oxalate dehydrate

Uric acid

Aptite

Struvite

Hard stones:

Calcium oxalate dehydrate

Brushite

Cystine

66. Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is:

Phenyephrine


18/23

Methoxamine

Mephentermine

Ephedrine

Ephedrine does not compromise fetal blood circulation due to prominent beta 2 action. It is the agent of choice in pregnancy.

67. A resident doctor sustained a needle prick injury while sampling blood of patient who is HIV positive. A decision is taken to offer his

postexposure prophylaxis. Which of the following would be the best recommendation:

Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks

Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks

Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks

Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks

According to guidelines for postexposure prophylaxis:

Two nucleoside inhibitors + Protease inhibitor for 4 weeks,

So, the best recommendation for prophylaxis will be : Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks

68. Best investigation for bone metastasis is:

MRI

X-ray

CT

Bone scan

Bone scan (scintigraphy) is the investigation of choice for bone metastasis.

MK 2012

69. During thermal vitality pulp testing, the minimum temperature to elicit a response from normal or hyperemic pulp is:

50 degree F

100 degree F

200 degree F

150 degree F

During thermal vitality pulp testing, the minimum temperature to elicit a response from normal or hyperemic pulp is: 65.5° C (150° F)

The temperature of melting gutta percha used in pulp testing is approximately 78°C.

Ref: Ritu Duggal Q6

70. Calcium channel blocker with maximum vasodilator properties is:

All of them are equipotent

Diltiazem

Verapamil

Nifedipine

Nifedipine (dihydropyridines) are the most potent vasodilators amongst the various calcium channel blockers.

71. Which technique is is most efficient in cutting dentin while root canal preparation:

Twist and pull


19/23

Balanced force technique

Reaming

Watch winding motion

The balanced force technique is a most efficient way to cut dentin. This technique calls for oscillation of the preparation instruments right andleft with different arcs in either direction.

To insert an instrument, it is rotated to the right (clockwise) a quarter turn as gentle inward pressure is exerted by the clinician’s hand. Thisaction pulls the instrument into the canal and positions the cutting edges “equally” into the surrounding walls.

Next, the instrument is rotated left (counterclockwise) at least one-third of a revolution.Rotation of one or two revolutions is preferred, but itmay be utilized only when no curvature or a generalized curvature is present.

Left-hand rotation attempts to unthread the instrument and drives it from the canal, so the clinician must press inward to

prevent outward movement and to obtain a cutting action.

Balanced force instrumentation is specifically designed to operate K-type endodontic instruments

72. Invasive amoebiasis is best diagnosed by:

Counter current immunoelectrophoresis

Compliment fixation test

ELISA

Indirect haemagglutination test

Serologic tests are done for detecting invasive amoebiasis:

Indirect hemagglutination test: most commonly used test; however remains +ve even years after primary disease

ELISA

Also know, PCR is the most sensitive and specific test for identifying E histolytica.

73. Servo system theory of growth was given by:

Scott

Van der klaaw

Petrovic

Limborgh

Theories of growth (including craniofacial growth)

Remodelling theory by Brash

Enlow’s counterpart principle of growth

Enlow’s ‘V’ principle of growthSicher’s theory of sutural growth dominance

Scott’s theory of cartilaginous growth dominance

Hunter–Enlow growth equivalent theory

Functional matrix theory: Melvin Moss

Servosystem theory: Petrovic

Multifactorial theory: van Limborgh

74. Which of the following does not influence the path of placement and removal of a RPD:

EstheticsPlacement of indirect retainers

Location of Guiding planes

Retentive areas


20/23

Factors influencing path of placement and removal include guiding planes, retentive areas, interference, and esthetics

75. The filler in alginate gives the mixed material ‘body” that allows acceptable handling. Without filler, the mixed material would be

too runny for use. Which of the following is a main component of the alginate powder and functions as the filler:

Calcium sulfate

Diatomaceous earth (silica)

Potassium titanium fluoride

Potassium alginate

Composition of alginate

Constituents : Percentage (Action)

Diatomaceous (Silica) : 50% (filler)

Potassium alginate : 20% (dissolves in water forming the sol)

Calcium sulfate : 16% (reactor)

Zinc oxide : 7% (plasticizer)

Potassium fluoride : 6% (improves gypsum surface)

Sodium phosphate : 1% (retarder)


76. 10 year old boy with short stature presented with polyuria and polydipsia. Lab values are : pH 7.34, CO2-32mm of Hg, HCO3-16, Na

– 140, K-4.9, Cl-114, BUN-140 and creatinine -1.8. Likely acid-base picture will be:

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory acidosis

Non anion gap metabolic acidosis

Anion gap metabolic acidosis

A.A Nov2010 ; Q96

Parameters given for patient:

pH, HCO3, PCO2 → decreased

77. Not an initiative in the Global Polio eradication Initiative:

Rehabilitation of Polio afflicted individuals

Monovalent OPV use

Short Interval additional dose stategy for building population immunity

Experimantal environmental coverage


GPEI operational objectives (2010-2012):

Bivalent OPV which would also complement use of trivalent and monovalent vaccines in selected areas

State/district/block level specific plans for endemica and reestablished transmission areas

Special team and tactics for underserved population

(SIAD) Short Interval additional dose stategy for building population immunity and eterminating outbreaks

Monitoring SIA coverage


21/23

Expanded environmental sampling

Enhanced AFP surveillance

Enhancing communications /social mobilization in priority areas

Rehabilitation of polio affected individuals.

78. Which of the following techniques is best for a wide based frenectomy:

None

Z-plasty

V-Y advancement

Diamond excision


There are three surgical techniques that are used for a frenectomy:

• Diamond excision

• Z-plasty

These are effective when the mucosal and fibrous tissue band is relatively narrow. These techniques relax the pull of the frenum.

• V-Y advancement is often preferred when the frenal attachment has a wide base. This technique is good for lengthening tissue and usually

results in less scarring.

National boards

79. Holoprosencephaly occurs due to defect in neural crest cell migration along the midline from the cranial region into the face thus

leading to loss of midline structures of face. The gene that controls this migration of neural crest cells in the region of the frontonasal

process is:

FGF

SHH

BMP

IHH


SHH controls the descent of the neural crest cells from the cranial cavity in to the face. the signalling centres lie in the epidermal layer covering

the region of the frontonasal process. other genes controlling patterning of midline structures include SIX3, TGIF and ZIC2.

80. The term ARCON was coined by:

Fish

Bergstrom

Hanau

Gillis

81. Grinspan syndrome is associated with:

Oral, ocular, genital lesions

Hypertension with oral lesions

Pemphigus, CHF, diabetes

Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus

Grinspan syndrome is a syndrome characterized by presence of the triad: essential hypertension, diabetes mellitus & oral lichen planus.

82. Agranulocytosis is associated more frequenly with which of the following NSAIDs :

indomethacin

Ketorolac


22/23

Phenylbutazone

Aspirin

Phenylbutazone causes bone marrow supression.Indomethacin has immunosupressant property.

83. Maximum friction is seen in which orthodontic wire:

Stainless steel

NiTi

β titaniumAJ Wilcock

Friction: β titanium > NiTi > Stainless Steel/AJ Wilcock

Solder ability: Steel/Co-Cr > NiTi > β titanium

β titanium is the only truly weldable orthodontic wire. Due to high titanium content, cold welding is also possible between brackets and B

titanium wire which prevents sliding of the archwire.

AIPG 2013

84. The absence of which layer of dentin predisposes it to internal resorption by cells present in the pulp:

Predentin

Mantle dentin

Secondary dentin

Circumpulpal dentin

Immediately adjacent to the odontoblast layer in the pulp, 10-47 µm of the dentin matrix remain unmineralized. If this unmineralized layer of

dentin is lost (e.g., due to trauma or infectious process) it predisposes the dentin to internal resorption by odontoclasts.

85. Pain insensitive structure of brain :

Choroid plexus

Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses

Falx cerebri

Middle meningeal artery

Pain insensitive structures of brain :

Ventricular ependyma

Choroid plexus

Pial veins

Much of the brain parenchyma

86. Thickness of solution liners is typically:

0.2 to 1 mm

20 to 25 μm

2 to 5 μm

200 to 1000 μm

Thin film liners (1 to 50 μm) can be subdivided into solution liners (varnishes, 2 to 5μm) and suspension liners (typically 20 to 25 μm).

Thicker liners (200 to 1000 μm = 0.2 to 1 mm), selected primarily for pulpal medication and thermal protection, are sometimes identified as

cement liners.

87. Which of the following is not a criteria for the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia?

Paroxysmal pain


23/23

Pain occurrence unilateral or bilateral

Presence of trigger zones

Normal clinical sensory examination

Sweet criteria for the Diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia:

Normal clinical sensory examination

Pain occurrence unilateral

Pain may be provoked by light touch : Presence of trigger zonesParoxysmal pain

Pain is confined to distribution of the trigeminal nerve

88. Non-septate hyphae with tendency to branch at 90 degree angle is characteristics of :

Aspergillosis

Mucor

Coccidioides immites

Cryptococcus neoformans

Mucormycosis is a rapidly progressive fungal infection that occurs in patients in an immunocompromised state. It is most commonly seen inpatients with diabetes complicated by ketoacidosis, leukemia, lymphoma, and severe neutropenia.

The fungus is characterized by the presence of large, pauciseptate hyphae that branch at 90° angles within the involved tissue.

The fungus has a propensity towards invasion of blood vessels with infarction of the involved tissue.

In ocular adnexal involvement the infection usually starts in the nose, followed by involvement of the paranasal sinuses and then the orbit. If left untreated ocular and brain invasion follows, and the patient succumbs in 7 to 10 days.

89. Virus with double stranded RNA molecule is:

Poliovirus

Hepatitis C virus

Rotavirus

Hepatitis E virus

Double stranded RNA viruses: Rotavirus, Reo virus, Orbovirus

90. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:

Farbers diseases

Niemann pick diseases

Krabbe’s diseases

Tay sachs diseases

[table id=3 /]

© 2015 All Rights Reserved, designed by Nikhil Madan

Navigate to...
http://beeinthebonnet.net/

Free Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015

Documents

Transcript of Free Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015