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CONTENTS

1 GAMSAT Sample Full Length Test ........................................................................................................ 3

1.1 Instructions For Writing The Test ................................................................................................... 3

1.2 Reasoning In Humanities And Social Sciences ................................................................................ 4

1.3 WRITTEN COMMUNICATION ......................................................................................................... 26

WRITING TEST A............................................................................................................................... 26

WRITING TEST B ............................................................................................................................... 27

1.4 REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES ......................................................... 28

2 About Prepgenie ................................................................................................................................... 63

2.1 Free Resources ............................................................................................................................. 63

2.1.1 Online Library ..................................................................................................................... 63

2.1.2 Prepgenie Online Help ......................................................................................................... 63

2.2 Paid Resources ............................................................................................................................. 63

2.2.1 Full Length Test Paper Module: ........................................................................................... 63

2.2.2 Sectional Tests Module: ....................................................................................................... 63

3 CONTACT US ..................................................................................................................................... 64


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1 GAMSAT Sample Full Length Test

1.1 Instructions For Writing The Test

Read Carefully:

1. This is a sectional test on Humanities and Social Sciences comprising 75 questions from the different

domains of the subject and you are to complete this sectional test in 100 minutes.

2. Use only HB pencil to fill in the Answer Sheet.

3. Enter in your Answer Sheet: the Test I.D. Number, Exam date and your Name.

4. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the OMR sheet. There is

only one correct answer to each question.

5. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the OMR sheet. No scrap paper is allowed.

6. No marks are deducted for wrong answers. So students are advised to move on quickly without

wasting too much time on one question.


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1.2 Reasoning In Humanities And Social Sciences

Unit 1

Questions 1 – 5

The Swan

The labouring through what is still undone, as though, legs bound, we hobbled along the way,

is like the awkward walking of the swan.

And dying - to let go, no longer feel

the solid ground we stand on every day

is like his anxious letting himself fall

into the water, which receives him gently

and which, as though with reverence and joy,

draws back past him in streams on either side;

while, infinitely silent and aware,

in his full majesty and ever more

indifferent, he condescends to glide.

1. What is the tone of the poem?

A Remorseful

B Instructing

C Enlightening

D Anxious

2. What do the first three lines of the poem convey?

A That the swan has been kept in a confinement by some strangers. B That the swan is lost and desperate to feel something comfortable.

C That the swan has voluntarily chosen the situation and can‘t undo it.

D That such a situation has occurred due to the strange gait of the swan.

3. Which of the following is predominantly used in the poem?

A Symbols

B Metaphors

C Imagery

D Similes

4. In the poem the Swan represents:

A Charm and goodwill

B Desperation and longing

C Knowledge and wisdom

D Beauty and grace


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5. Which of the following is the correct explanation of the last stanza?

A The swan is frustrated at the end of the journey and goes into a deeper gloom and remorse.

B When the swan reaches the water at the end of the journey it appears confident and majestic. C The swan is anxious at the end of the journey and becomes silent at the various possibilities.

D When the swan reaches the water; it is overcome by both fear and joy which adds to its

confusing state.

Unit 2

Questions 6 – 13

The following material has been taken from an essay „The Idea of a University‟ by Cardinal Newman.

COMMENT I

A University may be considered with reference either to its Students or to its Studies; and the principle, that all

Knowledge is a whole and the separate Sciences parts of one, which I have hitherto been using in behalf of its studies, is equally important when we direct our attention to its students.

6 Which of the following contribute to the importance of a University in Comment I?

A Knowledge and Sciences

B Students and Teachers

C Students and Studies

D Studies and Teachers

COMMENT II

I have said that all branches of knowledge are connected together, because the subject-matter of knowledge is

intimately united in itself, as being the acts and the work of the Creator. Hence it is that the Sciences, into which

our knowledge may be said to be cast, have multiplied bearings one on another, and an internal sympathy, and

admit, or rather demand, comparison and adjustment. They complete, correct, and balance each other. This

consideration, if well-founded, must be taken into account, not only as regards the attainment of truth, which is

their common end, but as regards the influence which they exercise upon those whose education consists in the

study of them.

7 Which of the following is suggested regarding the connectedness of the branches of knowledge in

Comment II?

A All branches of knowledge are interconnected even though each deal with separate topics

leading to a single effect.

B All branches of knowledge share the same issues and collate them in order to bring out

various effects on each other.

C Each branch of knowledge has a separate subject-matter to deal with and as a result needs to

adjust with each other.

D Though each branch of knowledge chooses different paths and subject-matter; they arrive at

the same result.


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COMMENT III

To give undue prominence to one is to be unjust to another; to neglect or supersede these is to divert those from

their proper object. It is to unsettle the boundary lines between science and science, to disturb their action, to

destroy the harmony which binds them together. Such a proceeding will have a corresponding effect when introduced into a place of education. There is no science but tells a different tale, when viewed as a portion of a

whole, from what it is likely to suggest when taken by itself, without the safeguard, as I may call it, of others.

8. Due to which of the following reasons ‗the boundary lines between science and science‘ get unsettled

in Comment III?

A Often one branch of science is given unnecessary importance while the other is slighted.

B All branches of science have a similar corresponding effect, which disturbs their actions.

C All branches of science are tied together to form a cohesive bond that safeguard their

knowledge.

D These branches of science are not balanced and thus they are not in harmony with each other.

COMMENT IV

In the combination of colours, very different effects are produced by a difference in their selection and

juxtaposition; red, green, and white, change their shades, according to the contrast to which they are submitted.

And, in like manner, the drift and meaning of a branch of knowledge varies with the company in which it is

introduced to the student. If his reading is confined simply to one subject, however such division of labour may

favour the advancement of a particular pursuit, a point into which I do not here enter, certainly it has a tendency

to contract his mind. If it is incorporated with others, it depends on those others as to the kind of influence

which it exerts upon him. Thus the Classics, which in England are the means of refining the taste, have in

France sub-served the spread of revolutionary and deistical doctrines. In Metaphysics, again, Butler's Analogy of Religion, which has had so much to do with the conversion to the Catholic faith of members of the

University of Oxford, appeared to Pitt and others, who had received a different training, to operate only in the

direction of infidelity.

9 How do the Classics differ in England from that in France according to Comment IV?

A In England the Classics don‘t encourage revolutionary acts and are considered coarse in

nature whereas in France they are inclined towards deism.

B Classics are suave and enriching in England and are an inspiration to the untamed nature of

theirs in France.

C Due to their servile attitude, the Classics are unable to gain popularity in France as in

England. D Classics are considered as a marker of elegance in England whereas in France they are used

to promote radical changes in philosophical beliefs.

For questions 10- 13 refer to Comments I- IV.

10 Which of the following comments compares the effects of colour to that of the effect of the branches

of knowledge?

A Comment I

B Comment II

C Comment III D Comment IV

11 Which of the following comments emphasises on the importance of students for bringing about a


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change in the reception of the branches of knowledge?

A Comment I only

B Comments I and IV

C Comment II only D Comments III and IV

12 Which of the following comments states that different branch of science appear similar when viewed

as a whole?

A Comments I, III and IV

B Comments II, III and IV

C Comments I and II

D Comments I and III

13 Which of the following comments states that in spite of sharing similar subject-matter sciences can be

clearly distinguished?

A Comment IV

B Comment I

C Comment II

D Comment III

Unit 3

Questions 14 – 15

The above cartoon seems to criticise the present education system. Which of the following would best support

the cartoonist‘s idea of education?

A The function of education is to teach one to think intensively and to think critically and not by


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rote.

B The principle goal of education is to create men and women who are capable of doing new

things, not simply repeating what other generations have done.

C Computer technology is playing an important role in the present education system and

making the students more thoughtful. D Teaching should be such that what is offered is perceived as a valuable gift and not as a hard

duty.

15 Education is what remains after one has forgotten everything he learned in school.

Which of the following best suites the above proverb?

A Education is a blessing one gets early in life and it stays on forever as a guardian angel.

B School is partially responsible for forcing things down a child‘s throat, which he soon forgets.

C Education is like a shadow, which follows one everywhere even if one wants to forget it.

D After the school years are over people actually get to brush their shoulders with real

education.

Unit 4

Questions 16 – 19

Dream Variation

To fling my arms wide

In some place of the sun,

To whirl and to dance

Till the white day is done.

Then rest at cool evening

Beneath a tall tree While night comes on gently,

Dark like me--

That is my dream!

To fling my arms wide

In the face of the sun,

Dance! Whirl! Whirl!

Till the quick day is done.

Rest at pale evening . . .

A tall, slim tree . . .

Night coming tenderly

Black like me.

16 What is the tone of the poem?

A Nostalgic

B Criticising

C Happy

D Pessimistic


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17 Which of the following is the message in the poem?

A Dreams are illusions, people shouldn‘t run after them

B It takes a lot of hard work to fulfil one‘s dreams

C It is a mere expression of the poet‘s desires in life and not a message D It is a nostalgic account of the poet‘s earlier carefree life and not a message

18 In line four, what does the poet mean by ‗white day‘?

A A day when the sun is scorching down on the earth

B A day when everyone is expected to wear white clothes

C A day when everything around is covered in thick layers of ‗white‘ dust.

D A day when the rain washes down the dust and is followed by a cool evening

19 In the second stanza why does the poet want the day to be a ‗quick day‘?

A Because he wants to escape doing the work during the day

B He hopes that the heat of the sun will quickly die out and bring in the cool evening

C Because he wants to wrap up his work early in order to enjoy the rest of the day

D He has seen days pass by quicker than the night.

Unit 5

Questions 20 – 26

The following passage describes Matty's journey to Australia.

It was typical of Matty's jagged and passionate character that once he had decided to go away he should go as

far as humanly possible. It was part of the strange way in which circumstances were apt to adjust themselves

round him as he went—as if for all his jaggedness he was fitted for the journey with streamlined farings—that

his way to Australia should be made easy. He met what seemed like compassionate officialdom where there

might have been indifference; or perhaps it was that those who winced at the sight of his shrivelled ear speeded

him out of their sight. It was no more than months before he found himself with a job, a church, a bed in the

Y.M.C.A. in Melbourne. All three were waiting for him downtown in Fore Street by the London Hotel. The

ironmonger's was not as large as Frankley's but there were storerooms overhead, packing-cases in the yard at

the side and a machine shop to stand in for a forge. He might have stayed there for years—for a lifetime—if it

had lived up to his innocent belief that by going far and fast he had outdistanced his troubles. But of course, Mr

Pedigree's curse came with him. Moreover, either time or Australia or the two together quickly sharpened his vague feelings of bewilderment into downright astonishment; and this at last found words somewhere in his

head.

"Who am I?"

To this, the only answer from inside him was something like: you came out of nowhere and that is where you

are going. You have injured your only friend; and you must offer up marriage, sex, love, because, because,

because! On a cooler view of the situation, no one would have you, anyway. That is who you are.

He was also someone who lacked more skin than he knew. When he had come at last to realise just how great

an effort even the kindest people had to make not to be visibly affected by his appearance he ducked away from


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any intercourse he could. It was not just the unattainable creatures (and pausing for forty minutes at Singapore,

that doll-like figure in its glittering clothes and standing submissively by the passenger lounge) but a minister

and his kindly wife, and others. His Bible, on India paper and in squashy leather, gave him no help. Neither—

though in his innocence he had thought it might—did his English voice and emergence from the Old Country.

When they were assured that he did not think himself special and did not look down on Australia and did not expect preferential treatment, his work¬mates were unkinder than they might have been through sheer

annoyance at being wrong and missing a treat. Also there was a quite gratuitous confusion.

20 The very first line of the passage reveals that Matty is

A obstinate.

B enthusiastic.

C tenacious.

D impulsive.

21 What is the author's attitude towards Matty when he comments ―for all his (Matty's) jaggedness he was

fitted for the journey with streamlined farings‖ is A critical and judgemental.

B admiration and affectionate.

C shifting and ambivalent.

D distant and conventional.

22 According to the author, Matty met with ―compassionate officialdom‖ because the officials

A treated Matty's case with apathy.

B could not stand the look of Matty.

C did not want to waste their time on Matty's case.

D were kind enough to treat Matty with immense sympathy.

23 The first paragraph reveals that Matty goes out to Australia because he wants to

A transcend his problems.

B visit new destinations.

C work for the ironmonger.

D discover his own identity.

24 Matty's response to the question, ―Who am I?‖ which he asks himself reveals that Matty is

A suffering from an extreme sense of guilt for hurting his friend.

B greatly missing his friend in the new land which he is visiting. C feeling extremely alienated in the new land, away from his family and friends.

D desperately wanting to atone for the injustice he has done against his friend.

25 What is the author's tone in the lines, ―it was not just the unattainable ... gave him no help‖?

A Shifting and ambiguous.

B Sympathetic and understanding

C Critical and sarcastic

D Proper and respectful

26 One of the criteria of the minister and his wife for taking in Matty was that

A Matty should not consider himself to be out of the ordinary.


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B Matty should possess unique qualities.

C Matty should anticipate special treatment because of his shortcomings.

D Matty should be ready to accept unkind behaviour from his colleagues.

Unit 6

Questions 27 – 28

27

What does the above illustration suggest which of the following?

A Global warming B Extinction of Eskimos

C Flooding D Traffic snarls

28 ―And now, the end is near and so I face the final curtain. My friend, I'll say it clear I'll state my case of

which I'm certain. I've lived a life that's full, I've travelled each and every highway. But more, much

more than this I did it my way.‖

The tone of the author in the above passage suggest that the author is

A critical about the way he has pased his life.

B satisfied about the way he has pased his life.

C disgruntled about the way he has pased his life.

D defiant about the way he has pased his life.

Unit 7


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Questions 29 – 36

The passages below deal with the term “modernism” and “post-modernism”.

COMMENT I

―Modern‖ is a term which every age applies to itself. In fact, until recently, the word "modern" was used to

refer generically to the contemporaneous; all art is modern at the time it is made. In his Il Libro dell'Arte

(translated as "The Craftsman's Handbook") in 1437, Cennino Cennini explains that Giotto made painting

"modern". Giorgio Vasari writing in 16th-century Italy refers to the art of his own period as "modern."

29 According to Comment I, what is the connotation of the term ―modern‖?

A It is applicable to the contemporary form of art.

B It is applied to bring out the absurdity in art.

C Giotto‘s painting is termed as ―modern‖.

D 16th century paintings in Italy are termed as ―modern‖.

COMMENT II

As an art historical term, "modern" refers to a period dating from roughly the 1860s through the 1970s and is

used to describe the style and the ideology of art produced during that era. It is this more specific use of modern

that is intended when people speak of modern art. The term "modernism" is also used to refer to the art of the

modern period. More specifically, "modernism" can be thought of as referring to the philosophy of modern art.

30 According to Comment II, how is ―modern art‖ described?

A Art produced during the era of 1860s to 1970s that deals with every aspect of modernism B Art with a particular style, ideology and philosophy describing the contemporary period

C Art that takes into account the concept of ―modernism‖ and illustrates on its characteristics

D Art that has the specific use of anything that is ―modern‖ like the concept or the tools

COMMENT III

The roots of modernism lie much deeper in history than the middle of the 19th century. For historians (but not

art historians) the modern period actually begins with the Renaissance. The modernist thinking which emerged

in the Renaissance began to take shape as a larger pattern of thought in the 18th century. In the 18th century, the

Age of Enlightenment saw the intellectual maturation of the humanist belief in reason as the supreme guiding

principle in the affairs of humankind. Through reason the mind achieved enlightenment, and for the enlightened

mind, freed from the restraints of superstition and ignorance, a whole new exciting world opened up.

31 How is modernism related to the Age of Enlightenment in Comment III?

A Modernism led to the ‗Age of Enlightenment‘ and thus a new period came into existence.

B Renaissance is the reason behind the advent of modern art due to the ‗Age of Enlightenment‘.

C Modernist thinking is deep seated in Renaissance spurred by the ‗Age of Enlightenment‘.

D The ‗Age of Enlightenment‘ preceded modernism while leaving behind some of its traits.

COMMENT IV


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In the latter half of the 20th century there has been mounting evidence of the failure of the Modernist enterprise.

Progressive modernism is riddled with doubt about the continued viability of the notion of progress. If

Modernism is at an end, we are now facing a new period. The name given to this new period is Postmodernism.

The term postmodernism is used in a confusing variety of ways. For some it means anti-modern; for others it

means the revision of modernist premises. The seemingly anti-modern stance involves a basic rejection of the tenets of Modernism; that is to say, a rejection of the doctrine of the supremacy of reason, the notion of truth,

the belief in the perfectibility of man, and the idea that we could create a better, if not perfect, society. A term

used by some to describe this view is deconstructive postmodernism.

32 Comment IV states that the term ―postmodernism‖ is confusing because:

A It doesn‘t involve the important characteristics of its period

B It doesn‘t have a fixed nature by which it can be identified

C It is subjected to various influences of characteristics outside its period

D It doesn‘t have a proper definition and confer to various ideas about it

For questions 33 – 36 refer to Comments I-IV.

33 Which of the following comments discuss the development of ―modernism‖ with reference to certain

time periods?

A Comments I, II and III

B Comments I, III and IV

C Comments I, II, III and IV

D Comments I, II and IV

34 Which of the following comments relates modernism to other movements and terms?

A Comments II and IV

B Comments II and III

C Comment III only

D Comment I only

35 Which of the following comments stresses on the importance of logic as an influence in the works of

the modern period?

A Comments I and IV

B Comment II only

C Comment III only

D Comments III and IV

36 Which of the following comments renounces the growth of modernism?

A Comments II and III

B Comment II only

C Comments III and IV

D Comment IV only

Unit 8


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Questions 37 – 43

For some minutes now Scollops had been gazing searchingly at Mr. Topper. And Mr. Topper was troubled. Not

definitely troubled, but vaguely so, which to some persons is the most troublesome form of trouble. Mr. Topper

was one of such persons. In fact he was highly representative of the type. So free from trouble had Topper's days been that gradually he had come to regard with suspicion all creatures not likewise unencumbered. An

earthquake, an eruption or tidal wave would mildly move Cosmo Topper, arouse him to the extent of a dollar

donation which would later be deducted from his income tax; whereas a newspaper story dealing with

bankruptcy, crimes of violence or moral looseness would cause him speedily to avert his eyes to less disturbing

topics. Mr. Topper could excuse nature and the Republican Party, but not man. He was an institutional sort of

animal, but not morbid. Not apparently. So completely and successfully had he inhibited himself that he

veritably believed he was the freest person in the world. But Mr. Topper could not be troubled. His mental

process ran safely, smoothly, and on the dot along well signalled tracks; and his physical activities, such as they

were, obeyed without question an inelastic schedule of suburban domesticity. He resented being troubled. At

least he thought he did. That was Mr. Topper's trouble, but at present he failed to realise it.

He experienced now something of the same resentment that came to him upon being delayed in the tunnel on his way home from the city. Things were going on round him in the tunnel, dreadful things, perhaps, but he did

not know what they were. He sat in a blaze of light in the midst of clanking darkness. Surrounded by familiar

things he felt stuffy and uncomfortable. Even his newspaper lost its wonted stability. Yes, it was a decidedly

objectionable feeling that Mr. Topper had to-night as he gave himself to the solicitous embrace of his arm chair

and followed with a dull gaze the rug's interminable border design— a Doric motif, clean cut and geometrically

accurate. Once this design had appealed to his abiding sense of order. To-night he hardly saw it, although

without his knowledge it was wearying his eyes, and had been doing so for several months.

In Scollops' eyes there was an expression difficult to fathom. Mr. Topper held the opinion that the expression

was uncomfortably insinuating, making him in some sly way an accessory before the fact. But hang it all, what

was the meaning of Scollops' look? The cat had been fed. He had seen to that himself as he had seen to it ever since he had adventurously brought her home from Wilson's, the grocer's, one evening four years ago. Four

years. As long as that in this house; and once it had seemed so new. Now it was an old house, an uninteresting

house. Perhaps he was old, too, and equally uninteresting. Mr. Topper felt that he was, and for the first time in

his life permitted himself to wonder about such things.

37 Why does the author consider Mr. Topper's trouble to be the ―most troublesome form of trouble‖?

A Mr. Topper is surprised with the new form of trouble he was facing.

B Mr. Topper is always free from any form of trouble.

C Mr. Topper is unsympathetic towards those who are always troubled.

D Mr. Topper is not very sure whether he was feeling troubled or not.

38 Mr. Topper viewed with suspicion

A people who are vague about their troubles.

B people who are never bothered with any form of trouble.

C people who are always troubled.

D people who are not public about their troubles.

39 The line ―An earthquake, an eruption ... avert his eyes to less disturbing topics‖ reveal that Mr.

Topper's is


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A blundering but genuine.

B shifting and ambivalent.

C tender and emotional.

D distant and aloof.

40 The fact that ―even his newspaper lost its wonted stability,‖ reveals that Mr. Topper was

A loosing interest in reading newspapers.

B preoccupied with some other more complex issues.

C feeling bitter but did not know the source.

D actually delayed in the tunnel while returning home.

41 In the third paragraph Mr. Topper sees Scollops as

A tentative and uncertain.

B strangely silent and alien.

C hungry and adventurous.

D foreboding and suggestive.

42 The attitude of the author towards Mr. Topper is

A unsteady and ambivalent.

B decisive and judgemental.

C mocking but indulgent. D candid but sarcastic.

Unit 9

Questions 43 – 47

Passage I

There are several hundred Indigenous peoples of Australia, many are groupings that existed before the British

annexation of Australia in 1788. Before Europeans, the number was over 400.

Indigenous or groups will generally talk of their "people" and their "country". These countries are ethnographic

areas, usually the size of an average European country, with around two hundred on the Australian continent at

the time of White arrival.

Within each country, people lived in clan groups - extended families defined by the various forms Australian Aboriginal kinship. Inter-clan contact was common, as was inter-country contact, but there were strict protocols

around this contact.

The largest Aboriginal people today is the Pitjantjatjara who live in the area around Uluru (Ayers Rock) and

south into the Anangu Pitjantjatjara Yankunytjatjara in South Australia, while the second largest Aboriginal

community are the Arrernte people who live in and around Alice Springs. The third largest are the Luritja, who

live in the lands between the two largest just mentioned. The Aboriginal languages with the largest number of

speakers today are the Pitjantjatjara, Warlpiri and Arrernte.

Indigenous Australians are the original inhabitants of the Australian continent and nearby islands, and these

peoples' descendants. Indigenous Australians are distinguished as either Aboriginal people or Torres Strait


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Islanders, who currently together make up about 2.6% of Australia's population.

The Torres Strait Islanders are indigenous to the Torres Strait Islands, which are at the northern-most tip of

Queensland near Papua New Guinea. The term "Aboriginal" has traditionally been applied to indigenous

inhabitants of mainland Australia, Tasmania, and some of the other adjacent islands. The use of the term is becoming less common, with names preferred by the various groups becoming more common.

43 What is the central idea contained in passage I?

A To provide a factual data about the Australian aboriginal kingship

B To popularise the Australian aboriginal people in the world

C To project the detrimental effects of the invasion by the Whites

D To lament the loss of the indigenous Australian population

44 Which of the following is inferred about the aboriginal people from passage I?

A That these aboriginal people have received ill treatment from the British

B That they are a closely knit tribe in spite of their vast expanse of population C That they are hostile to people outside their clan and remains together

D That they are receptive of the changes brought about by the Bristish annexation

45 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph of passage I?

A The term ―Aboriginal‖ is an age old term used for the indigenous tribes.

B The term ―Aboriginal‖ has been newly acquired since the islanders got included.

C The term ―Aboriginal‖ is becoming less popular among the tribes.

D The term ―Aboriginal‖ is a compulsory as well as traditional name for the tribes.

Passage II Aborigines have occupied Australia for at least forty thousand years. They came originally from South east

Asia, entering the continent from the north. (Present-day Australia, including Tasmania, was then one continent

with what is now New Guinea.) Although Aborigines are Homo sapiens, biological isolation has meant that

they are not racially closely related to any other people. Because of their relative cultural isolation, Aborigines

were forced to develop their own solutions to the problems of human adaptation in the unique and harsh

Australian environment. The result was a stable and efficient way of life. Probably because of its effectiveness,

the society was slow to change, especially technologically. This gave to Aboriginal Australia the appearance of

―unchangingness‖. The archaeological record reveals, however, a number of innovations, among them the

earliest known human cremations, some of the earliest rock art, and certainly the first boomerangs, ground axes,

and grindstones in the world.

The stereotype of Aborigines passively succumbing to the dictates of their environment has also been recently

questioned. We now know that they altered the landscape in significant ways, using what has been called "firestick farming" to control underbrush growth and to facilitate hunting. Aborigines also altered species

occurrence of flora and fauna by resource management and possibly assisted in the extinction of prehistoric

animals.

The notion of pristine natives with a "pure" culture was an artificial one - many Aborigines had considerable

contact with Melanesians and Indonesians long before the European colonists arrived in Australia. Aboriginal

groups also influenced each other. Waves of change swept the entire continent - changes in tools and

implements, in social organisation, and in ceremonial practices and mythological concepts. Aboriginal culture

was dynamic, not static. The Aboriginal culture of the last two hundred years, the period after the arrival of the

colonists, has also been dynamic. This is why it is difficult to speak of a hard and fast dichotomy between

Aborigines "before" and "after" contact with the Europeans.

46 Which of the following can be inferred from passage II about the advent of the Europeans?


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A The Aborigines underwent a sea change in their living standards.

B The Aborigines remained progressive in their outlook.

C The Aborigines didn't get influenced by the Europeans.

D The Aborigines debased their own tradition while aping the Europeans.

47 Which of the following explains the arrangement of passage I and passage II?

A Passage I deals with the Aborigines before the advent of the Europeans and passage II with

the Aborigines after their advent.

B Passage I is the general view of a specific account about the Aborigines which is

complementary in nature.

C Passage I is the general view of a specific account about the Aborigines which is

contradictory in nature.

D Passage I is the introduction of the Aborigine culture which is discussed in details in passage

II.

Unit 10

Question 48

The above illustration supports which of the following beliefs?

A Utopianism B Socialism

C Democracy D Egalitarianism

Unit 11


TEST ID: FLT00



Questions 49 – 54

This passage is taken from a play. Dr. Stockmann is at a public meeting and putting forward his stance.

Dr. Stockmann: The majority never has right on its side. Never, I say! That is one of these social lies against

which an independent, intelligent man must wage war. Who is it that constitute the majority of the population in

a country? Is it the clever folk, or the stupid? I don't imagine you will dispute the fact that at present the stupid

people are in an absolutely overwhelming majority all the world over. But, good Lord!--you can never pretend

that it is right that the stupid folk should govern the clever ones I (Uproar and cries.) Oh, yes--you can shout me

down, I know! But you cannot answer me. The majority has might on its side--unfortunately; but right it has

not. I am in the right--I and a few other scattered individuals. The minority is always in the right. (Renewed

uproar.)

Hovstad: Aha!--so Dr. Stockmann has become an aristocrat since the day before yesterday!

Dr. Stockmann: I have already said that I don't intend to waste a word on the puny, narrow-chested, short-winded crew whom we are leaving astern. Pulsating life no longer concerns itself with them. I am thinking of

the few, the scattered few amongst us, who have absorbed new and vigorous truths. Such men stand, as it were,

at the outposts, so far ahead that the compact majority has not yet been able to come up with them; and there

they are fighting for truths that are too newly-born into the world of consciousness to have any considerable

number of people on their side as yet.

Hovstad: So the Doctor is a revolutionary now!

Dr. Stockmann: Good heavens--of course I am, Mr. Hovstad! I propose to raise a revolution against the lie

that the majority has the monopoly of the truth. What sort of truths are they that the majority usually supports?

They are truths that are of such advanced age that they are beginning to break up. And if a truth is as old as that, it is also in a fair way to become a lie, gentlemen. (Laughter and mocking cries.) Yes, believe me or not, as you

like; but truths are by no means as long-lived at Methuselah--as some folk imagine. A normally constituted truth

lives, let us say, as a rule seventeen or eighteen, or at most twenty years--seldom longer. But truths as aged as

that are always worn frightfully thin, and nevertheless it is only then that the majority recognises them and

recommends them to the community as wholesome moral nourishment. There is no great nutritive value in that

sort of fare, I can assure you; and, as a doctor, I ought to know. These "majority truths" are like last year's cured

meat--like rancid, tainted ham; and they are the origin of the moral scurvy that is rampant in our communities.

49 From the very first comment, it is clear that Dr. Stockmann

A does not believe in the concept of majority. B feels that the concept of majority is full of loopholes.

C feels that the concept of majority is flawless.

D is very pessimistic about the concept of majority.

50 Dr. Stockmann's tone can be described as

A agitated and direct.

B distraught and emotional.

C blundering but genuine.

D passionate but deferred.


TEST ID: FLT00



51 Dr. Stockmann's comment reveals that he is very

A aroused with the fact that the majority comprises of intellectuals.

B confident about his own stand against the majority.

C dejected with the way the system works. D disturbed with the fact that only fools comprise the majority.

52 According to Dr. Stockmann, very few people have ―absorbed new and vigorous truths‖ and

A only such men have been able to overcome the pettiness of the common masses.

B these people have mental faculties that are more complex than those possessed by the

common masses.

C the gap between the mental faculties of such men and the general masses is much more

than what is visible.

D only such men are aware of the upcoming problems that the common masses is still unaware

of.

53 When Dr. Stockmann comments, ―I propose to raise a revolution against the lie that the majority has

the monopoly of the truth,‖ it reflects his

A state of frustration.

B total disbelief in the concept of majority.

C state of indecisiveness.

D hypocrisy.

54 From the last dialogue in the passage it is evident that Dr. Stockmann is trying to

A portray the fact that the common masses take a long time to believe a truth, which proves to

be harmful.

B show his superiority over the beliefs of the majority, which he thinks comprises of ignorant

people.

C portray the fact that a lie is far more enduring than the truth and it is necessary to change this

structure.

D show that common men like all mortals make the mistake of not recognising a truth and

taking it for a lie.

Unit 12

Questions 55 – 60

The Ruined Maid

"O 'Melia, my dear, this does everything crown!

Who could have supposed I should meet you in Town?

And whence such fair garments, such prosperi-ty?‖

―O didn't you know I'd been ruined?" said she.

"You left us in tatters, without shoes or socks,

Tired of digging potatoes, and spudding up docks;

And now you've gay bracelets and bright feathers three!"

"Yes: that's how we dress when we're ruined," said she.

"At home in the barton you said 'thee' and 'thou,'


TEST ID: FLT00



And 'thik oon,' and 'theäs oon,' and 't'other'; but now

Your talking quite fits 'ee for high compa-ny!"

"Some polish is gained with one's ruin," said she.

"Your hands were like paws then, your face blue and bleak But now I'm bewitched by your delicate cheek,

And your little gloves fit as on any la-dy!"

"We never do work when we're ruined," said she.

"You used to call home-life a hag-ridden dream,

And you'd sigh, and you'd sock; but at present you seem

To know not of megrims or melancho-ly!"

"True. One's pretty lively when ruined," said she.

"I wish I had feathers, a fine sweeping gown,

And a delicate face, and could strut about Town!"

"My dear -- a raw country girl, such as you be, Cannot quite expect that. You ain't ruined," said she.

55 Which of the following is suggested in the poem?

A The greed and hankering of the poor women for a lavish life

B The irony of the class distinctions and moral rectitude

C The jealousy that develops in the women of the lower class.

D The advice coming from the upper class women should be heeded.

56 Which of the following is suggested by the word ‗ruined‘?

A That the woman is soiled and unmarriageable.

B That the woman is in a financial crisis.

C That the woman is not in a stable mental condition

D That the woman is weary and aged.

57 In the third stanza which of the following is suggested by Melia?

A She reflects upon the past days and becomes nostalgic about her heavy accent.

B She adores the company of the rich and the polished and wants to ape them in life.

C She indicates that she has gained refinement with her loss of conventional dignity. D She thinks it is necessary to be polished even if it means being ruined.

58 Which of the following can be inferred about the two maids from the poem?

A Both are content in their present circumstances despite difficulties.

B Each woman performs demeaning labour in order to survive.

C Both the women wish to be in each other‘s shoes.

D Each woman is boastful of her own lifestyle.

59 In the final stanza of the poem which of the following is indicated?


TEST ID: FLT00



A That the farm maid is disappointed with Melia and her new life.

B That Melia looks down upon her former co-worker.

C That Melia longs to go back to poor yet virtuous life.

D That the farm maid innocently wishes a life like that of Melia‘s.

60 The poem‘s sensibilities come across as:

A Modern

B Medieval

C Victorian

D Universal

Unit 13

Questions 61 – 65

1 The following passage is adapted from the 15th century text The Prince by Niccolò Machiavelli. Here

the author advises how a prince should conduct himself to gain renown.

I A prince is also respected when he is either a true friend or a downright enemy, that is to say, when,

without any reservation, he declares himself in favour of one party against the other; which course will always

be more advantageous than standing neutral; because if two of your powerful neighbours come to blows, they

are of such a character that, if one of them conquers, you have either to fear him or not.

II It will always be more advantageous for you to declare yourself and to make war strenuously; because,

in the first case, if you do not declare yourself, you will invariably fall a prey to the conqueror, to the pleasure

and satisfaction of him who has been conquered, and you will have no reasons to offer, nor anything to protect

or to shelter you.

III He who conquers does not want doubtful friends who will not aid him in the time of trial; and he who

loses will not harbour you because you did not willingly, sword in hand, court his fate.

IV Again, it much assists a prince to set unusual examples in internal affairs, similar to those which are

related of Messer Bernabo da Milano, who, when he had the opportunity, by any one in civil life doing some

extraordinary thing, either good or bad, would take some method of rewarding or punishing him, which would

be much spoken about.

V And a prince ought, above all things, always endeavour in every action to gain for himself the

reputation of being a great and remarkable man.

61 Which of the following can be inferred from the first statement?

A That the prince should ideally take sides in order to avoid unnecessary blows on him

B That the prince should be careful and updated about his enemies and friends and who to trust

C That the prince should calculate his moves and pose a definite picture in front of his

subordinates

D That the prince should avoid a neutral stance in order to benefit from all quarters of his

kingdom

62 The advice offered by the author in these five statements is:


TEST ID: FLT00



A Unjust

B Pragmatic

C Atrocious

D Mischievous

63 Which of the following is suggested about the subjects of the state ruled by the prince?

A Intelligent and well informed

B Naive and sympathetic

C Cruel and greedy

D Agile and faithful

64 The advice given suggests that a key quality needed by a ruler is:

A Benevolence

B Impressiveness

C Aristocracy

D Sincerity

65 Which of the following proverbs underlines the writer's advice?

A A good beginning makes a good ending

B A journey of a thousand miles begin with a single step

C As you sow so shall you reap D A person is known by the company he keeps

Unit 14

Question 66

66 To avoid untoward happenings or to avoid courting controversies in one‘s life one should be prudent

enough to use discretion.

Which of the following proverbs explains the above?

A An ounce of discretion is worth a pound of wit

B Discretion is the better part of valour (If you say discretion is the better part of valor, you

mean that avoiding a dangerous or unpleasant situation is sometimes the most sensible thing to do)

C The discretion of a man maketh him slow to anger; And it is his glory to pass over a

transgression.

D Discretion will guard you, Understanding will watch over you


TEST ID: FLT00



Unit 15

Questions 67 – 73

I am come of a race noted for vigour of fancy and ardour of passion. Men have called me mad; but the question

is not yet settled, whether madness is or is not the loftiest intelligence — whether much that is glorious-

whether all that is profound—does not spring from disease of thought—from moods of mind exalted at the

expense of the general intellect. They who dream by day are cognizant of many things which escape those who dream only by night. In their grey visions they obtain glimpses of eternity, and thrill, in awakening, to find that

they have been upon the verge of the great secret. In snatches, they learn something of the wisdom which is of

good, and more of the mere knowledge which is of evil. They penetrate, however, rudderless or compassless

into the vast ocean of the "light ineffable," and again, like the adventures of the Nubian geographer, "agressi

sunt mare tenebrarum, quid in eo esset exploraturi."

We will say, then, that I am mad. I grant, at least, that there are two distinct conditions of my mental

existence—the condition of a lucid reason, not to be disputed, and belonging to the memory of events forming

the first epoch of my life—and a condition of shadow and doubt, appertaining to the present, and to the

recollection of what constitutes the second great era of my being. Therefore, what I shall tell of the earlier

period, believe; and to what I may relate of the later time, give only such credit as may seem due, or doubt it

altogether, or, if doubt it ye cannot, then play unto its riddle the Oedipus.

She whom I loved in youth, and of whom I now pen calmly and distinctly these remembrances, was the sole

daughter of the only sister of my mother long departed. Eleonora was the name of my cousin. We had always

dwelled together, beneath a tropical sun, in the Valley of the Many-Coloured Grass. No unguided footstep ever

came upon that vale; for it lay away up among a range of giant hills that hung beetling around about it, shutting

out the sunlight from its sweetest recesses. No path was trodden in its vicinity; and, to reach our happy home,

there was need of putting back, with force, the foliage of many thousands of forest trees, and of crushing to

death the glories of many millions of fragrant flowers. Thus it was that we lived all alone, knowing nothing of

the world without the valley—I, and my cousin, and her mother.

67 Men have called the narrator ―mad‖ because

A he is more vigorous than the others.

B he expresses his passion publicly.

C his behaviour does not conform to the social standards.

D he possesses too much of robustness and emotions.

68 According to the narrator, ―madness‖

A is the highest manifestation of brilliance.

B is the lowest manifestation of brilliance.

C is intense and sublime. D is still enigmatic to common man's understanding.

69 The narrator feels that daydreaming is a valuable quality because

A daydreamers are more sensitive towards the minute details that escape the vision of others.

B daydreamers are more relaxed by nature and can make real life decisions much more

realistically.

C daydreamers can achieve the impossible in the wildest of dreams.

D daydreamers possess a vision of the divine which can give them the key to the greatest of

mysteries.


TEST ID: FLT00



70 The narrator comments that he is ready to accept the fact that he has ―two distinct conditions of ...

mental existence,‖ which are

A reason and doubt.

B chronological and sporadic.

C rational and irrational.

D reality and dreaming.

71 The narrator instructs the readers to

A accept the former descriptions as facts and question the latter events.

B take the earlier descriptions as facts and the later as fiction.

C critically view whatever descriptions he relates to them.

D accept all that he relates as facts that need to be revised.

72 What does the phrase ―no unguided footstep ever came upon that vale‖ reveal?

A The valley was untouched by human occupation.

B Outsiders needed a guide to show them the way to the valley.

C Outsiders wanted to visit the valley but could not do it without a guide.

D The valley was not frequented by other people.

73 The tone of the narrator in the last line of the third paragraph is

A calm and collected.

B anxious and perturbed.

C frank and direct.

D detached and ambiguous.

Unit 16

Questions 74 – 75

74 What is suggested by the following?

―Democracy is a government where you can say what you think even if you don't think.‖

A Democracy entertains the fool

B Democracy gives equal rights to all

C Democracy urges everyone to speak up

D Democracy heavily relies on freedom of speech


TEST ID: FLT00



75 ―A person who is not married will never get to know what are the joys and problems of a married

person.‖

Which of the following proverb explains the above?

A Marriage is like a groundnut: you have to crack them to see what is inside.

B Marriage is like a besieged castle; those who are on the outside wish to get in; and those who

are on the inside wish to get out.

C A successful marriage is an edifice that must be rebuilt every day.

D Keep your eyes wide open before marriage, and half-shut afterwards


TEST ID: FLT00



1.3 WRITTEN COMMUNICATION

WRITING TEST A

Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.

Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present

your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes

you express.

*******

A moment comes, which comes but rarely in history, when we step out from the old to the new, when an age

ends, and when the sound of a nation, long suppressed, finds utterance.

Jawahar Lal Nehru

Ask not what your country can do for you, but what you can do for your country.

John F. Kennedy

Patriotism is not short, frenzied outbursts of emotion, but the tranquil and steady dedication of a lifetime.

Adlai E. Stevenson

A nation is a society united by a delusion about its ancestry and by common hatred of its neighbours.

William Ralph Inge

Unless our conception of patriotism is progressive, it cannot hope to embody the real affection and the real

interest of the nation.

Jane Addams


TEST ID: FLT00



WRITING TEST B

Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.

Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present

your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes

you express.

*******

He who is slow to anger has great understanding, but he who has a hasty temper exalts folly.

Anonymous

Temper is a weapon that we hold by the blade.

James Barrie

Anyone can become angry - that is easy. But to be angry with the right person, to the right degree, at the right

time, for the right purpose, and in the right way; this is not easy.

Aristotle

The world needs anger. The world often continues to allow evil because it isn't angry enough.

Bede Jarrett

Anger cannot be dishonest.

George R. Bach


TEST ID: FLT00



1.4 REASONING IN BIOLOGICAL AND PHYSICAL SCIENCES

Unit 1

A cross used to ascertain whether a dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous is termed test cross.

Back cross is a cross of F1 progeny back to one of their parents. Back cross to the recessive parent is known as

test cross. Test cross involves crossing the organism of unknown genotype with a number of homozygous

recessive alleles. The homozygous recessive individuals produce gametes that contain only recessive alleles.

1. In a particular test-cross, all the offspring produced in the F1 generation are long winged flies with a

genotype of Ll. If the homozygous recessive parent is vestigial winged flies (genotype ll), then what

would be the probable genotype of the other parent?

A LL

B LL or Ll

C Ll

D ll or Ll

2. If for the above test-cross, 50% of the F1 generation show long-winged genotype (Ll) and the other

50% show vestigial winged (ll), what could be the probable genotype of the dominant parent?

A LL

B Ll or LL

C Ll

D ll or Ll

3. Out of the two experiments shown above, which cross could be regarded as a back-cross?

A Experiment I

B Experiment II

C Both of the experiments

D none of the experiments Unit 2

Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:

Choose the correct option:


TEST ID: FLT00



4. Compound A in the above passage is

A HgI2

B K2HgI4

C Hg(NO3)2

D Hg2(NO3)2

5. Compound (E) in the above paragraph is

A Hg2CI2

B HgCI2

C SnCI2

D Hg

6. Oxidation state of Fe in compound (F) is

A +1

B +2

C +3

D +4

7. D 4 42NH SO Purple coloured solution G

Hence, compound (G) is

A HgI2

B NH4I

C

D 2Hg NH I

8. 3White ppt. B NH Black ppt. H

Hence, (H) is due to the formation of

A Hg(NH2)Cl

B Hg

C Hg(NH2)Cl + Hg

D Hg(NH2)I


TEST ID: FLT00



Unit 3

In the Young's Double Slit experiment the point source is placed slightly off the central axis as shown in the

figure, the wavelength of the light from the source S is 5000A.

Answer the following questions in view of above passage:

9. What is the nature and order of interference at the point P?

A Maxima of the order 70

B minima of the order 70

C Maxima of the order 51

D minima of the order 50

10. What is the nature and order of the interference at O?

A Minima of the zero order.

B Maxima of the order 20

C Maxima of the order 30

D maxima of the order 15

11. Where should a film of refractive index µ = 1.5 be placed to get maxima of zero order at point O.

A In front of slit S1

B In front of slit S2

C In front of either S1 or S2

D we can‘t get central maxima at O.

12. In above question what should be thickness of the film to get central maxima?

A 20 µm

B 30 µm

C 25 µm

D 50 µm

13. What will be the width of the fringe?

A 100 µm

B 150 µm


TEST ID: FLT00



C 75 µm

D 65 µm

Unit 4

Genotype Antigens present on plasma membrane of red blood cells Phenotype

IAIA Antigen A Blood group A

IAIB Antigen A and antigen B Blood group AB

IAIO Antigen A Blood group A

IBIB Antigen B Blood group B

IBIO Antigen B Blood group B

IOIO Neither antigen A nor antigen B Blood group O

14. Codominance: The relationship between a pair of alleles which both contribute to the phenotype of a

heterozygote.

Which of the following genotype shows codominance?

A IOIO

B IAIB

C IAIO

D IBIO

15. Incomplete dominance: Refers to a pair of alleles, neither of which displays dominance, the phenotype

of a heterozygote being intermediate between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes.

Which of the following genotypes shows incomplete dominance?

A IAIB

B IAIO

C IBIO

D none of them

16. Human Blood group (ABO) system is an example of –

A Incomplete dominance

B Codominance

C Multiple Allelism

D Both A and B

Unit 5

The quantity of 14C as well as that of 14CO2 present in the atmosphere remains constant. The concentration of 14C in all living organisms remains almost constant during their life time. After their death, 14C is not taken up

by them but the content of 14C assimilated begins to decay by emitting p-particles, with half-life period of 5568

years. The decay rate at the time of death of plant is 16.1 counts per minute per gram of carbon. Hence, by

measuring the decay rate of the dead matter, the age of matter can be calculated, e.g. if decay rate of sample of

wood is found to be N disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon after t years, then

N = N0e-λt

Where λ = disintegration constant and NO = number of disintegrations per minute per gram when the plant had

just died.


TEST ID: FLT00



Choose the correct option:

17. 14C is present in environment because of

A Artificial transmutation

B Cosmic neutron bombardment of nitrogen C It being a part of radioactive series happening naturally

D 12C when gets bombarded with neutrons, transmutes to 14C in environment

18. In a dead plant, the decay rate will be

A Higher than in a living plant

B Lower than in a living plant

C The ratio of 14C/12C which will increase in a dead plant as compared to a living plant

D None of the above

19. A sample of 14CO2 was mixed with ordinary 12CO2 for studying a biological traces experiment. The 10 ml of this mixture at STP possess the rate of 10

4 disintegrations per minute. How many milli-curie of

radioactive carbon is needed to prepare 60 litre of such a mixture?

A 0.027 mCi/g

B 0.27 mCi/g

C 0.0027 mCi/g

D 2.7 mCi/g

20. 14C is

A An artificial radioactive isotope B A natural radioactive isotope

C A natural non-radioactive isotope

D An artificial non-radioactive isotope

21. The basis for carbon-14 dating method is that the

A C-14 fraction is same in all objects

B C-14 is highly unstable and is readily lost from the objects

C Ratio of 14C to 12C in our atmosphere has always been constant

D Living tissue will not absorb C-14 but will absorb C-12 from their sources of carbon Unit 6

Analogue voltmeters and ammeters work by measuring the torque exerted by a magnetic field on a current

carrying coil. The reading is displayed by means of the deflection of a pointer over a scale. The adjacent figure

shows the essentials of a galvanometer, on which both analogue ammeters and analogue voltmeters are based.

Assume that the coil is 2.1 cm high, 1.2 cm wide, has 250 turns and is mounted so that it can rotate about an

axis (into the page) in a uniform radial magnetic field with B = 0.23 T. For any orientation of the coil, the net

magnetic field through the coil is perpendicular to the normal vector of the coil (and thus parallel to the plane of

coil). A spring SP provides a counter torque that balances the magnetic torque, so that a given steady current I in the coil results in a steady angular deflection c|). The greater the current is, greater the deflection is, and thus

greater the torque required of the spring is. A current of 100 ^A produces an angular deflection of 28°.


TEST ID: FLT00




22. What must be the torsion constant K of the spring?

A 2.6 x 10-8 Nm/degree

B 5.2 x 10-8 Nm/degree C 2.6 x 10-4Nm/degree

D 5.2 x 10-4 Nm/degree

23. If we reduce the value of this K to half of its value, then the deflection would be

A 28°

B 56°

C 14°

D none of these

24. If the value of magnetic field is put equal to 0.69 T and K = 15.6 x 10-8 Nm/degree. Then, the

deflection would be

A <28°

B =28°

C 14°

D none of these

Unit 7

Night blindness is a condition in which affected people have difficulty seeing in dim light. The allele for night

blindness, N, is dominant to the allele for normal vision, n. The diagram shows part of a family tree showing

the inheritance of night blindness.


TEST ID: FLT00



25. If individual 12 is a boy, what would be his genotype?

A NN

B Nn

C nn

D Either B or C

26. What is the probability that the child born to individuals 10 and 11 will be a girl with night blindness?

A ½

B 1/3

C ¼

D either B or C

27. A pedigree analysis of a family affected with DYT1 mutation is shown below.

The asymptomatic male/ female with DYT1 mutation in the F1 generation is an example of


TEST ID: FLT00



A Incomplete dominance

B Overdominance

C Codominance

D Multiple allelism

Unit 8

Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves an aryl carbanion/enolate anion and also -CCl3 derived from the action of

strong bases on CHCl3, though the latter has only a transient existence decomposing to: CCl2, a highly electron deficient electrophile that attacks the aromatic nucleus; the product from phenoxide ion is after acidification,

very largely the o-aldehyde plus just a small amount of p-isomer.

28. If the above reaction is carried out on the anion of p-hydroxytoluene, what will be the product/products?

A

B

C Both A and B

D None of the above

29. Name the electrophile attacking carbanion in the above reaction.

A Chloroform

B Trichloromethyl anion

C dichlorocarbene

D hydrogen ion

30. The product of the reaction in the above paragraph is largely

A m-salicylaldehyde

B p-salicylaldehyde

C o-salicylaldehyde

D none of the above


TEST ID: FLT00



31. CO2 can attack in a similar manner to: CCl2 on phenoxide ion. Following a similar mechanism, major

product will be

A o-hydroxybenzoate

B p-hydroxybenzoate C m-hydroxybenzoate

D none of the above

32. Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves

A nucleophilic substitution

B electrophilic substitution

C Free radical mechanism

D ionic mechanism

Unit 9

Consider a parallel resonant circuit shown in adjacent figure. One branch contains an inductor of inductance L

and small ohmic resistance R, whereas the other branch contains a capacitor of capacitance C. The circuit is fed

by a source of alternating emf i t

0 0E E e E sin t

The impedance of inductor branch 2

1Z

j C

The impedance of capacitor branch,

1Z R j L

Net impedance Z of the two parallel branches is given by

1 2

2 2 2 2 2 2

1 1 1 1j L

Z Z Z R j L

R j L R Lj C j C

R j L R j L R L R L

The current following in the circuit,

2 2 2 2 2 2

E R LI E j C

Z R L R L


TEST ID: FLT00



For resonance to occur, the current must be in phase with the applied emf. For this, the reactive component of

current should be zero, i.e.

2 2 2

r2 2 2

r

Lj C 0

R L

Lor, C writing for at resonance

R L

This gives resonant angular frequency,

2

r 2

1 R

LC L

At parallel circuit resonance, the impendence is maximum and current is minimum. Parallel resonant circuit is sometimes called the anti-resonance in order to distinguish from series resonance. Answer the following

questions in view of above passage.


33. Find the impedance of AC circuit as shown in the adjacent figure

A 100 2

B 200

C 100

D 200 2

34. The reactance of the circuit in the adjacent figure is 20 . Find the value of Irms

A 4 amp

B 2 amp

C 4.5 amp

D 13.5 amp


TEST ID: FLT00



35. For an ac circuit, impendence is given by Z = 50 + JK(P2 - 4Q2) where K is a positive non

zero constant. For resonance, which of the following expression is true?

A P = 2Q

B P = Q

C P + Q = K D P - Q = K

36. A coil of inductance 100 µH and 60 Ω. effective resistances is connected in parallel with a condenser

of 100 pF. The resonant circuit so formed is excited from an alternating current source. The frequency

of the source is varied until the maximum impendence of the circuit is obtained. The frequency of the

generator at which this occurs is

A 109/2π Hz

B 107/2π Hz

C 105/2π Hz D 10

3/2π Hz

37. Which of the following graph shows correct relation between current I and frequency f in a parallel L-

C-R ac circuit?

A

B

C


TEST ID: FLT00



D

Unit 10

A person fasted overnight and then swallowed 75 gm of glucose. The graph shows the resulting changes in the

concentration of insulin and glucose in the blood.

38. Statement I: Insulin secretion is elevated after the blood glucose level is increased.

Statement II: Insulin secretion is elevated immediately after the oral administration of glucose.

A Statement I and Statement II are both correct

B Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

C Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

D Both the statements are incorrect

39. Glucagon, an endocrine hormone, is anti-functional to insulin. During aerobic exercises, glucose is

oxidised rapidly. Which of the following statements is true for the above conditions?

A During aerobic exercises, the concentration of insulin is greater than glucagon

B During aerobic exercises, the concentration of glucagon increases and concentration of insulin decreases

C During aerobic exercises, both glucagon and insulin concentrations decreases rapidly due to

rapid breakdown of glucose

D Both A and C


TEST ID: FLT00



Unit 11

Grignard reagents (RMgX) are prepared by the reaction of an organic halide and magnesium metal in ether

solvent.

The solvent (usually diethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran) plays a crucial role in the formation of a Grignard

reagent. Alkyl halides are more reactive than aryl and vinyl halides. Indeed, aryl and vinyl chlorides do not

form Grignard reagents in diethyl ether. However, an alkyl halide containing an alcoholic - OH group can be

converted to Grignard reagent by first protecting the - OH group to a tert-butyldimethylsilyl ether which is inert

to Grignard reagent. The protecting group is finally liberated by treatment with fluoride ion.

40. Grignard reactions generally occur in dry ether because

A the stronger acid diethyl ether will displace the weaker RH acid from its salt

B the stronger acid H2O will displace the weaker acid RH from its salt

C water slows down the reaction

D water mixes with ether preventing ether to perform its function

41. Grignard reagent can‘t be prepared from

A

B

C

D

42. H2N(CH2)3Br can't be converted into corresponding Grignard reagent because

A Reaction between - NH2 and - Br group present in the same molecule B Of strong nucleophilic character of the Grignard reagent

C Of strong basic nature of the Grignard reagent

D All of the above


TEST ID: FLT00



43. The function of tetrahydrofuran in the preparation of Grignard reagent is that it

A Acts as a solvent

B Helps in maintaining the reactivity of magnesium

C Both D None of the above

Unit 12

Artificial satellites orbiting the earth are a familiar fact of contemporary life. They have a wide area of

application, ranging from communication to weather forecast. So, study of artificial satellites is very important.

The questions we would like to probe are how do they stay in orbits and what determines the properties of their

orbits. Launching a satellite is similar to the projection of a projectile from a height. The satellites are carried by

rocket to the pre calculated height and are projected with a definite velocity. The satellite then comes under the

effect of qravitv which provides the centripetal force for the satellite to be in its orbit. The figure shows the

trajectories of the orbits of satellites launched from a height h with different initial velocities. Velocities

increase from (1) to (6). Trajectories (1) to (4) are closed orbits whereas (5) and (6) are open orbits. Trajectory

(3) is the simplest case. We would deal only with the circular trajectories. The only force acting on a satellite is

the earth's gravitational force. We can find out the velocity of projection for circular orbit frame. 2

E

2

E

GM m mv

rr

GMor v ...... 1

r

The time period of a satellite for a circular orbit is given

2 R hT

v by, where h is the height at which the satellite is placed and v its velocity.

The mechanical energy E of the satellite always remains constant (since the satellite's mass is 80, much smaller

than earth's mass. We assign U, K and E to represent potential energy, kinetic energy, and total energy,

respectively, for the earth-satellite system.) The potential energy of the system is

given by

EGM mU

r ...(2)

and K = 1/2mV2 ..-(3)


TEST ID: FLT00



so, the total mechanical energy is given

EGM mE K U

2r ...(4) where r = R + h

With the above theory, we can calculate the energies and time periods of satellites.

For all calculations in the questions given below take radius of earth RE = 6400 km, mass of earth

mE =5.98x1024 kg, (24 hours)2/3 = 1954 sec

44. Equation (1) of the passage given suggests that

A Velocity of the satellite is in a circular orbit B The radius o9f curvature of orbit (3) does not depend on the initial kinetic energy of the

satellite during its projection

C Of all the given orbits only orbit (3) is a stable orbit

D All of the above

45. Satellites move in closed orbits which means that

A the magnitude of potential energy is always greater than that of kinetic energy

B the magnitude of potential energy is always equal to that of kinetic energy

C the magnitudes of potential energy and total energy are equal

D the magnitudes of kinetic energy and the total energy are never equal

46. A ball of mass 7.2 kg is launched from the earth's surface to a circular orbit at a height of 350 km from

the surface. In doing so, what is the change in mechanical energy of the ball?

A 250MJ

B 317MJ

C 213MJ

D zero

47. A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of earth. Then, its time-period is

A

R2

g

B

2R2

g

C

R2

2g

D

4R2

g


TEST ID: FLT00



Unit 13

Ectothermic organisms can control their body temperature only by changing their behaviour. Ectothermic

animals therefore rely on altering their external environment to maintain a reasonably constant internal

temperature. Sometimes ectotherms find it easier to gain heat than lose it. Moving to a cooler environment,

which may be below their present body temperature may their only option. Sometimes this may not be possible.

48. If a lizard from Melbourne suburb is brought to Great Victoria Desert and left in the open desert with

no trees or shades but only some burrows, what will be the outcome?

A The lizard will die due to excessive heat gain in its body

B The lizard will busk for a shorter time period in the day, than usual, and will return to the

burrow quickly

C The lizard will find a burrow immediately and will come out under the sun for short busking

phases with frequent intervals of returning back to the burrow

D The lizard will spend the whole day inside its burrow

49. From the information given in the background passage, what could be the most probable mean body

temperature of the lizard?

A 20 °C

B 30 °C

C 40 °C

D 37 °C


TEST ID: FLT00



50. In a rainy day, the daytime temperature of Adelaide is 25 °C. What would be the mean body

temperature of the lizard?

A 25 °C

B 20 °C C 37 °C

D 15° C

51. Polar bears develop a thick layer of fur over their skin surface to minimize heat-loss. It is safe to

conclude that

A Polar bear is an endothermic animal

B Polar bear is an ectothermic animal

C Polar bear can live in both cold-climate and hot-climate, respectively

A Both B and C

Unit 14

A research student has synthesized a compound A in the laboratory. The compound A is

He wanted to study the compound in acidic medium and kept it in acid for some time. After some time, when

isolated the compound, to his surprise, he got the mixture of two compounds B, C. He studied their properties

and compared them with A.

A B C

Reaction with NaHC03 Brisk effervescence No No

Red No No

Blue litmus No No Yellow ppt.

NaOl No No Silver mirror

[Ag(NH3)2]+

Other information

3H OA B C

C = 54.55% H =

9.1%


TEST ID: FLT00



52. The compound B is

A

B

C

D none of the above

53. B is formed due to

A Cleavage of C—O bond followed by esterification

B Decarboxylation of - COOH group

C oxidation of- CH2COOH into - COOH group

D none of the above

54. Compound C is

A

B 3 2CH CH CHO

C HCHO

D 3CH CHO

Unit 15

Read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions:


TEST ID: FLT00



Pressure, volume and temperature are the state variable associated with any gas. If any amount of heat (Q) is

given to the system, or extracted from the system, it may be responsible for doing work on system and/or

changing the internal energy of the system. This work done and change in internal energy can indeed change the

state variable of the system. This change of state variable is referred to as thermodynamic process.

One such thermodynamic process system is shown here. It consists of a chamber and two pistons; lower piston divides the chamber into two equal parts.

The material of piston and chamber is a perfect insulator. Both the upper and lower chambers contains 1 mole

of He gas each. Initial state variables of both gases are shown in the figure. P1 = 1 atm, P2 = 1 atm, v0 = 10-2 m2,

T0 = 500 K. The piston is mass-less and frictionless, having area of A = 10-4 m2. The spring is light having

spring constant of k = 103 N/m. The external coil passing through chamber 1 is connected to a heater. Heat of

Q = 1250R joule, where R is universal gas constant, is supplied through heater and upper piston is moved such

that gas in chamber 1 expands isothermally changing temperature of chamber 2 from Ts to 2TQ. Accordingly,

the piston moves down thereby compressing gas in chamber 2. Without any ambiguity it can be concluded that

all the state variables of each gas change when the piston comes to rest again.

55. What is the minimum number of state variables that must change with time for a thermodynamic process to be feasible?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D None of the above

56. If Q, W and U represent heat input, work output and internal energy of an ideal gas system,

how many of these parameters must change their values for a thermodynamic process to be

feasible.

A 1

B 2

C 3

D None of the above

57. For the system shown in paragraph, what is the initial state of the spring?

A Original length

B 3cm, compression

C 1cm, elongation D 3cm, elongation

58. By what distance Δx does the piston compress after heat is given to chamber 1?

(R is universal gas constant)

A x R / 2

B x 2R

C x R

D x 2 R


TEST ID: FLT00



59. If P2f is the final pressure of chamber 2, then

A

2f 4 / 3

1P

1 R / 50

B

2f 5 / 3

1P

1 R / 50

C

2f 5 / 3

1P

1 R /100

D

2f 4 / 3

1P

1 R /100

Unit 16

A counter current system occurs two substances flow through the same body part in opposite directions. The

figure, given below, shows the counter current system in the gill lamellae of a fish along with that of

unidirectional flow.


TEST ID: FLT00



60. The gill lamellae of a fish shows counter current system, because

A The two fluids would quickly reach equilibrium so the blood would extract much more of the

oxygen available in water

B There is a diffusion gradient along the whole gill plate C The blood and water oxygen-equilibrium is elevated to ensure higher oxygen uptake in blood.

D Both B and C

61. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Fish gills are not effective in land

B Accessory breathing organs are required by fish to survive outside water for some time

C Mudskippers, an amphibian fish, lives outside water for half a day using modified gills as its

sole respiratory apparatus

D Both A and B

62. Fast- swimming fish, like mackerel, opens its mouth and swim forwards. They exhibit a type of

ventilation through their gills, called Ram ventilation.

Energy required for Ram ventilation is provided by

A Metabolic energy produced directly from respiration in the fish

B The muscles used in swimming

C Opercular muscles and buccal cavity muscles

D Both A and C

63. The mechanism of gill function in a fresh water fish is shown below:

I. The mouth closes

II. Water is pushed from the mouth to the pharynx

III. Water enters the mouth

IV. Water is pushed over the gills from the pharynx

V. The opercular valve is open


TEST ID: FLT00



Which of the following sequencing is correct?

A III, IV, V, II and I

B I, II, V, III, and IV

C V, III, IV, I and II D III, II, I, IV and V

Unit 17

In a polyhydric alcohol, the total numbers of hydroxyl groups are estimated by the following methods:

(i) A known mass of the acetyl derivative of polyhydric alcohol is taken. It is mixed with an excess

volume of a standard alkali solution. Both are refluxed. Alkali is used in the hydrolysis of acetyl

derivative. The unused alkali is measured by carrying out titration with a standard acid solution and

total number of hydroxyl groups (n) can thus be calculated stoichiometrically.

(ii) Total number of -OH groups in vicinal position can be calculated by oxidation with periodic acid or

lead tetra acetate.

64. 0.436 g of acetyl derivative of a polyhydric alcohol (molecular mass = 92) require 0.336 g KOH for

hydrolysis. The total numbers of hydroxyl group(s) in the alcohol are

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

65. The product formed by the reaction of ethylene glycol and periodic acid (HIO4) is

A acetic acid

B formic acid

C Formaldehyde

D glyoxal


TEST ID: FLT00



66. A compound with molecular formula C4H10O3 is converted by the action of acetyl chloride to a

compound with molecular weight 190. The original compound has

A one -OH group

B two -OH groups C three -OH groups

D no -OH group

67. The ratio of the number of moles of lead tetra acetate required for the oxidation of 1 mole of glucose to

that of 1 mole of fructose is

A 1: 1

B 2: 1

C 5: 4

D 4: 5

68. When 1 mole of glucose is oxidized by periodic acid, the product(s) formed are

A 4 moles of formic acid and 1 mole of formaldehyde

B 5 moles of formic acid and 1 mole of formaldehyde

C 3 moles of formic acid and 2 moles of formaldehyde

D 2 moles of formic acid and 4 moles of formaldehyde

Unit 18

Just as "mass" plays the role of inertia in translatory motion, moment of inertia plays the same role in rotational

motion hence it is known as rotational inertia.

Basically, in rotational motion of a body, all the particles of the body move in concentric circular paths. The moment of inertia of a particle of mass m which is moving on a circular path of radius r is given by mr2. If mass

m of a body is continuously distributed, the moment of inertia of such a body is given by2r dm

, where dm is

mass element such that all the particle lying on this element moves on a circular path of radius r. With the help of above mentioned theory we can calculate the moment of inertia of different bodies, and the

conclusion is that the moment of inertia depends upon the following factors:

1. Mass of the body

2. Axis of rotation

3. Distribution of mass

4. Dimensions of the body

If the two bodies have all the four points same then they will have the same moment of inertia Answer the following questions in view of above passage:

69. If same torque is applied on two bodies having different moment of inertia

A The body which is having greater moment of inertia will have more angular acceleration

B The body which is having greater moment of inertia will have lower angular acceleration

C Both will accelerate with same magnitude

D None of these


TEST ID: FLT00



70. The moment of inertia of a spherical shell and a hemispherical shell of same mass and radius about a

tangential axis, passing through P will be

A Different

B same C Data insufficient

D none of them

71. The combined moment of inertia of three point masses of 1, 2 and 3 gm lying in the x –y plane at

respectively (1,1) m, (2,2) m, (-1r2)^n , about z axis will be

A 0.033 kg-m2

B 0.022 kg-m2

C 0.011 kg-m2

D none of these

72. A boy is rotating a rod of mass m and length with the help of two strings of length attached to the

ends of rod. The moment of inertia of the rod about the axis zz' is

A

23m

2

B

23

4

C

2m

4

D none of these

73. Moment of inertia of half ring of mass m and radius R about an axis passing through its centre and

perpendicular to the plane of rotation ring is

A mR2

B 2mR2

C mR2/2

D none of these


TEST ID: FLT00



Unit 19

Sea lions are aquatic mammals. Like all mammals, they have lungs. This means that they need to come to the

surface of the water to breathe. Despite this, they are able to remain under water for long periods of time. They

have many adaptations, which enable them to remain underwater. One of them concerns a pigment found in

their muscles, called myoglobin. A comparison of the oxygen dissociation curve for both haemoglobin and

myoglobin are given below.

74. Aquatic mammals can remain under water for long because

A Myoglobin is saturated at a lower partial pressure of oxygen than haemoglobin

B Myoglobin picks up oxygen very easily in comparison to haemoglobin

C Myoglobin hydrolysis produces large amount of gaseous oxygen for metabolic activities

D Both A and B

75. Which of the following animals has the highest relative myoglobin fraction in its body?

A Sea horse

B Penguin

C Walrus

D Polar bear

76. A lugworm is a large worm, which is found on sandy sea shores. It lives in a U-shaped burrow. When

the tide is in, the area in which the lugworm lives is covered with sea water. The dissolved oxygen in

water diffuses into the worm. It dissolves in the blood and is then distributed to the cells of the body. When the tide is out, the lugworm has to depend on the haemoglobin as its sole source of oxygen.

Lugworm‘s haemoglobin –

A Has higher oxygen-holding capacity than human haemoglobin

B Has lower oxygen-holding capacity than human haemoglobin

C Has equivalent amount of oxygen-holding capacity in comparison to human haemoglobin

D Has no oxygen-holding capacity


TEST ID: FLT00



77. Statement I: Animals that live in high altitudes has haemoglobin with lower oxygen-holding capacity.

Statement II: Animals that have very high rates of respiration tend to live in places where there is a

plentiful supply of oxygen.

A Statement I is true and Statement II is false B Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

C Both of the Statements are correct

D Both of the Statements are incorrect

Unit 20

An activating group activates all positions of the benzene ring; even the positions meta to it are more reactive

than any single position in benzene itself. It directs ortho and para simply because it activates the ortho and para

positions much more than it does the meta.

A deactivating group deactivates all positions in the ring, even the positions meta to it. It directs meta simply

because it deactivates the ortho and para positions even more than it does the meta.

Thus, both ortho and para orientation and meta orientation arise in the same way: The effect of any group

whether activating or deactivating is strongest at the ortho and para positions.

But certain groups (- NH2 and - OH, and their derivatives) act as powerful activators towards electrophilic

aromatic substitution, even though they contain electronegative atoms and can be shown in other ways to have

electron-withdrawing inductive effects.

Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho, para-

directing. Deactivation is characteristic of electron withdrawal, whereas ortho-para orientation is characteristic

of electron release.

78. Which will undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction?

A 1, 2 and 4

B 1 and 3

C 2 and 4 D 1 and 2

79. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

A


TEST ID: FLT00



B

C

D

80. 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by the reaction of benzaldehyde with

A methyl bromide

B methyl iodide and magnesium

C ethyl iodide and magnesium

D methyl bromide and aluminium bromide

81. In a benzene ring substituted with - NH2 group, orientation is controlled by

A release of electrons in the system by resonance.

B withdrawal of electrons through inductive effect of electronegative nitrogen.

C inductive effect dominates resonance effect.

D resonance effect dominates inductive effect.

82. Reactivity in halogen substituted benzene rings is controlled by

A resonance B inductive effect

C inductive effect dominates resonance effect

D resonance effect dominates inductive effect


TEST ID: FLT00



Unit 21

RCONH2 is converted into RNH2 by means of Hofmann bromamide degradation.

In this reaction, RCONHBr is formed from which this reaction has derived its name. Electron donating group at

phenyl activates the reaction. Hofmann degradation reaction is an intramolecular reaction.

83. How can the conversion of (i) to (ii) be brought about?

A KBr

B KBr + CH3ONa

C KBr + KOH

D Br2 + KOH

84. Which is the rate determining step in Hofmann bromamide degradation?

A Formation of (i)

B Formation of (ii)

C Formation of (iii)

D Formation of (iv)

85. What are the constituent amines formed when the mixture of (i) and (ii) undergoes Hofmann

bromamide degradation?


TEST ID: FLT00



A

B

C

D

Unit 22

The nuclear charge (Ze) is non-uniformly distributed within a nucleus of radius R. The charge density p (r)

[charge per unit volume] is dependent only on the radial distance r from the centre of the nucleus as shown in

figure The electric field is only along the radial direction.

86. The electric field at r = R is

A Independent of a

B directly proportional to a

C directly proportional to a2

D inversely proportional to a

87. For a = 0, the value of d (maximum value of p as shown in the figure) is

A 3

3Ze

4 R B 3

3Ze

R C 3

4Ze

3 R D 3

Ze

3 R


TEST ID: FLT00



88. The electric field within the nucleus is generally observed to be linearly dependent on r. This implies.

A a = 0 B a = R/2 C a = R D a = 2R/3

Unit 23

The cis and trans isomers of alkenes do not have the same stability. The stability can be measured by

hydrogenation and combustion. The reaction of alkenes with hydrogen is endothermic and the enthalpy change

in the reaction is called heat of hydrogenation.

In all the isomers of 2-butene, the product is same but different amount of heat is evolved. In each reaction, it

must be related with different relative stability. 1-butene evolves greatest amount of energy and trans 2-butene

evolves least amount of energy. So, 1-butene must have greatest energy and it is least stable whereas trans 2-

butene must have lowest energy and it is more stable, cis 2-butene has intermediate energy in relation to above.

89. Which alkene is most stable?

A

B

C

D


TEST ID: FLT00



90. For the reaction, the major product is

A

B

C

D

91. Assertion: According to Saytzeff rule, alkene, which consists more substituted alkyl groups will be

more stable.

Reason: This stability can be explained by hyperconjugation. As the number of alkyl group increases,

it also increases number of hyperconjugation structures.

A Reason is correct explanation of assertion

B Assertion is correct but reason is not correct

C Reason and assertion both are wrong

D None of the above

92. In the compound,

the configuration at the chiral centre and the double bond are, respectively,

A R and E

B R and Z

C S and Z

D S and E


TEST ID: FLT00

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without the written permission of Prepgenie.com.au.


93. The relative rate of addition of HCl to the following compounds follows the order:

A

B

C

D

Unit 24

Silicon is the second most abundant element occurring in earth crust. It is always found in combined state. It is obtained by reduction of silica and exists in two allotropic forms, i.e. amorphous and crystalline. Amorphous

form is obtained by heating dry powdered silica with magnesium. Crystalline form is obtained by heating sand

or quartz in a furnace. Silicon is used in manufacturing of certain alloys and polymers such as ferrosilicon,

silicon bronze etc. The compounds of silicon are carborundum, silicone, silicates, glass etc.

Silicones are organosilicon polymer and silicates are metal derivatives of silicic acid. Carborundum is obtained

by heating mixture of sand, carbon and common salt.

94. Which type of linkage is present in silicones?

A

B

C

D

95. The structural unit of silicates is

A Si02

B 4

4SiO

C 2

3SiO

D 2

2SiO

96. The general formulae for a glass obtained from silica is (where R = Na or K and M = Ca, Ba, Zn or Pb)

A RO.MO.4SiO2

B R2O.M.4SiO2

C R2O.MO.6SiO2

D R2O.M2O.3SiO2


TEST ID: FLT00




97. (SiH3)3N is a weaker base than (CH3)3N because

A In (SiH3)3N, lone pair of electrons on nitrogen is involved in d p bonding

B In3 3

CH N , steric effect of three alkyl groups makes it least basic

C absence of d p back bonding in 3 3

CH N

D all of the above

98. When two structural units of silicates join along a corner containing oxygen atom is called

A orthosilicate

B cyclic silicate

C pyrosilicate

D sheet silicate

Unit 25

A cow obtains most of its nutritional requirements from fermentation by mutualistic (symbiotic) microorganisms

in its rumen. The diagram summarises the biochemical process involved.

99. A cattle can survive for a considerable period of time if its diet lacks –

A Carbohydrates

B Lipids

C Proteins

D Both A and C


TEST ID: FLT00




100. Ruminants such as the cow –

A Are equally efficient as non-ruminants like Human at converting energy in their food into

energy in their tissues

B Are more efficient than non-ruminants like Human at converting energy in their food into energy in their tissues

C Are less efficient than non-ruminants like Human at converting energy in their food into

energy in their tissues

D Possess an additional extension of the stomach called rumen, where all the digestive activities

take place

101. In ruminants like cow, mutualistic microorganisms play significant role in acting as

A Carbohydrate source

B Protein source

C Fatty acids source

D Both B and C

102. The dietary requirements in Human during various ages of his life are given below:

Age Mean daily requirement for

Iron/ mg Calcium/ mg

1-3 years 6.9 350

7-10 years 8.7 550

15-18 years 14.8 800

19-50 years 14.8 700

Over 50 years 8.7 700

Calcium requirement is highest at the age of 15-18, because

A Bone and teeth formation occurs at this age

B Bone and teeth growth is maximum at this age

C Bone thickening and teeth layer maturation is maximum at this age

D Both B and D

103. Which of the statements correctly explains the data given in the table of question 27?

Iron requirement is highest from age 15 to 50, because

A The haemoglobin production rate is directly proportional to the metabolic activities of the

body

B The body is more prone to anaemia at this age limit

C After this age the haemoglobin production ceases stops

D Both A and B Unit 26

The gas hydrogen cyanide, HCN, is toxic. In water, hydrogen cyanide is a weak acid with a pKa of 9.4.

Hydrogen cyanide gas can be dissolved in dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide with which it reacts to give an

aqueous solution containing cyanide ions. Solutions containing cyanide ions are also toxic but can be rendered

non-toxic by complexing the cyanide ions with iron (II) ions.

104. Hydrogen cyanide molecules in the gas phase attract each other by

A van der Waals' forces

B ionic bonds

C dipole-dipole forces and van der Waals' forces

D hydrogen bonds


TEST ID: FLT00




105. Cyanide ions will react with

A C2H6

B CH3COCH3, CH3CHO

C C6H6

D CH3CH2Br and C2H6

106. Possible products formed when cyanide ions react with aqueous iron (II) ions include

A [Fe(CN)6]2-

B [Fe(H2O)5CN+ and [Fe(CN)6]4-

C [Fe(H20)5CN]2+

D [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)5CN]2+

107. Which of the following is not true concerning 500 cm3 of aqueous HCN that has a concentration of 0.10 mol dm -3?

A It will react completely with 2.0 g of sodium hydroxide.

B The pH of the solution is 5.2.

C It can be formed by dissolving 1.35 g of HCN in water and making up to 500 cm3 of

solution.

D The amount of HCN in the solution can be determined accurately by titration of a 25.0 cm3

sample with a 0.1 mol dm -3 solution of NaOH using methyl orange as indicator.

108. The hydrolysis of a metal aqua-cation can be described by the general equation

[M(H2O)6]n+ + H2O [M(H2O)5(OH)](n-1)+ + H3O

+ In this reaction

A The solvent H2O is acting as acid by accepting a proton

B the pH of the solution will be lower if the value of n is 2 rather than 3

C the equilibrium position lies more to the right if the value of n is 3 rather than 2

D the oxidation state of the central metal cation has decreased from n to n-1 Unit 27

The krait is a small but extremely poisonous snake found in South-east Asia. In1963 a small polypeptide consisting of approximately 70 amino acids was isolated from krait venom. This substance was called

bungaratoxin, and was found to cause paralysis when very small amounts were injected into mice.

109. In laboratory, mice are injected with small amounts of krait venom. When the mice tissues are treated

with fluorescent antibodies and examined under microscope,

A The toxin was found in all parts of the body

B The toxin was found in the blood-cell surfaces

C The toxin was found only at the neuromuscular junctions

D The toxin was found in the brain stem cells

110. The venom produced by a krait can be classified as –

A Aflatoxin

B Hemotoxin

C Cytotoxin

D Neurotox


TEST ID: FLT00




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Welcome to Prepgenie, your one-stop shop for GAMSAT preparation requirements.

Prepgenie was created keeping in mind your need for a friend and guide through your journey towards

qualifying the GAMSAT.

2.1 Free Resources

Prepgenie brings to you a range of free resources for GAMSAT.

2.1.1 Online Library

It is a collection of links containing quizzes, exercises, tutorials and games. Visit the library, scan through

the links and rate them. Moreover, you can add your links too.

2.1.2 Prepgenie Online Help

A 24*7 online student support system. All you need to do is log on to the website and shoot your query to

the site consultant. We are always there to sort things out for you.

2.2 Paid Resources

Prepgenie offers you select and high-quality GAMSAT test preparation tools. These tools have been

created to help you during all the 4 distinct phases of GAMSAT preparation:

Phase Tools

Revising the basics Practice Exercises (Warm up questions)

Identifying weaknesses Section Tests

Building up reasoning skills Practice Exercises (High Intensity questions)

Exam practice Full Length Tests

2.2.1 Full Length Test Paper Module:

5 Full Length Question Papers(FLT)

185 GAMSAT Style Questions in each FLT

Detailed suggestive answers

5 OMR Sheets

2.2.2 Sectional Tests Module:

Subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Humanities and Social Sciences –

10 sectional tests for each subject.

Physics, Chemistry, Biology have 40 questions each paper.

Humanities and Social Sciences has 75 questions each paper.

OMR Sheets for each test

Detailed suggestive answers


TEST ID: FLT00




Why OMR sheets:

Take the help of OMR sheets to set the examination environment within your study room. Just set the

time on a stopwatch and start.

3 CONTACT US

Need to know more? We are here to help you always.

For answers to your queries please send us a mail:

Technical Queries: [email protected]

Library related issues: [email protected]

Payment related issues: [email protected]

Answer key of the free FLT: [email protected]

Other Contact Information:

Phone: +91 33 4062 8001

+91 33 6457 8322

Postal Address: CF 30

Sector I

Salt Lake

Kolkata – 700064

India.

mailto:[email protected]




FLT_au

Documents

Transcript of FLT_au