Flt Iift Mock Paper

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IIFT MOCK TEST

SECTION – A Directions for questions 1 – 5: In each of these questions, an idiomatic expression and its possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression: 1. To catch a Tartar: (a) To deal with a person who is more than one’s match (b) To catch a dangerous person (c) To trap a wanted criminal with great difficulty (d) To meet with disaster (e) None of the above

2. To have a dig of (a) To criticize someone (b) To sow seeds (c) To weed out (d) To praise someone (e) None of the above

3. Judas’ kiss (a) Wooing (b) A narrow escape (c) Hypocritical affection (d) A religious person (e) None of the above

4. To be at sea (a) To be a sailor (b) To be a steward (c) To be occupied (d) To be perplexed (e) None of the above

5. To keep the pot boiling (a) To maintain interest (b) To heat (c) To show anger (d) To do experiments (e) None of the above

Directions for questions 6 – 11 : Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters:

6. PERT (a) Impudent (b) Brash (c) Saucy (d) Polite (e) None of the above

7. INVEIGH (a) Impugn (b) Traduce (c) Efface (d) Venerate (e) None of the above

8. LIBIDINOUS (a) Lustful (b) Lecherous (c) Lascivious (d) Moral (e) None of the above

9. PUCKISH (a) Whimsical (b) Mischievous (c) Impish (d) Serious (e) None of the above

10. INGENUITY (a) Skilfulness (b) Cunning (c) Sentimental (d) Dullness (e) None of the above

11. PROTRACT (a) Retrace (b) Distract (c) Curtail (d) Expose (e) None of the above

Directions for questions 12 – 16 : In each of these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, different ways of phrasing the underlined part are given. Choose the best alternate

12. The member rose up to say that, in her opinion, she thought that Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on unanimously. (a) Rose up to say that, in her opinion, she thought that the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed (b) Rose to say that she thought the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed (c) Rose up to say that, the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on (d) Rose to say that in her opinion, the Women’s Reservation Bill should be passed on (e) No change needed

13. Today this a totally different world than we have seen in the last decade. (a) From what we have seen (b) From what we seen (c) Than what we saw (d) Than what we see (e) No change needed

14. He correctly predicted that lives would be saved if the speed limit was set at 55 kilometres per hour. (a) If the speed limit was 55 kilometres per hour. (b) If the speed limit were set at 55 kilometres per hour. (c) If the speed limit had been set at 55 kilometers per hour. (d) If the speed limit is set at 55 kilometres per hour. (e) No change needed.

15. A broad range of opinions was represented between the various members of the Steering Committee. (a) A broad range of opinions were represented between (b) A broad range of opinions had been held by (c) A broad range of opinions was represented among (d) A broad range of opinions were represented among (e) No change needed 16. Anyone wishing to enroll in the programme should send in their applications before fifteenth of the month. (a) Send their applications (b) Send in their application




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(c) Send in an application (d) Send out an application (e) No change needed Directions for questions 17 – 21: Select the word which is closest in meaning to the key word underlined.

17. The candidate is quite sanguine about the result of his entrance examination. (a) Depressed (b) Pessimistic (c) Anxious (d) Optimistic (e) None of the above

18. The rapacious hordes of Mahmud Gazni defiled and desecrated the temple of Somnath. (a) Ugly (b) Resuscitating (c) Scurrilous (d) Avaricious (e) None of the above

19. The remarks made by Mana sounded opprobrious to Robert. (a) Fascinating (b) Obsequious (c) Meretricious (d) Reproachful (e) None of the above

20. There is no gainsaying the validity of her remarks. (a) Agreeing (b) Denying (c) Helping (d) Hunting (e) None of these

21. Acronyms are (a) Words that sound alike (b) Words formed from the initial letters of other words (c) Abbreviated sentences (d) Performers skilled in feats of agility and balance (e) None of the above

Directions for questions 22 – 26 : Select the set of words that best completes the sentences given in these questions :

22. Some historians claim that the concept of courtly love is a _____ that dates from the age of chivalry, while others believe it has more _____ origins.

(a) relic _____ simultaneous (b) notion _____ ancient (c) memento _____ discovered (d) period _____ documented (e) None of the above

23. The itinerary set by their travel agent included so many stops in _____ amount of time that they received only the most _____ impressions of places visited.

(a) a limited _____ lasting (b) a brief _____ cursory (c) a generous _____ favourable (d) a sufficient _____ fleeting (e) None of the above

24. Present day Indian youth face the question of how to _____ the best of modern day civilisation without losing the benefits of India’s _____ way of life.

(a) reject _____ ancient (b) adopt _____ outmoded (c) assimilate _____ traditional (d) reshape _____ historic (e) None of the above

25. The _____ of the human brain is extraordinary, as illustrated by the fact that, when an infant becomes blind, regions of the cerebral cortex that usually contribute to sight are taken over by another sensory system, as if to _____ the use of every region of the cortex.

(a) complexity _____ reduce (b) versatility _____ prevent (c) rigidity _____ regulate (d) adaptability _____ maximize (e) None of the above

26. All _____ artists must struggle with the conflict between _____ their own talent and knowledge that very few are fortunate enough to succeed.

(a) great _____ neglect of (b) aspiring _____ faith in (c) ambitious _____ indifference to (d) prophetic _____ dissolution of (e) None of the above

Directions for questions 27 – 31: Four different spellings are given for each of the words in these questions. Choose the correct one:

27. (a) Insouciance (b) Ensouciance (c) Insousance (d) Insousiance (e) None of these

28. (a) Pusillanimous (b) Pusilanimous (c) Pusilanmious (d) Pusilanimus (e) None of these

29. (a) Ineqitous (b) Iniquctus (c) Iniquitus (d) Iniquitous (e) None of the above

30. (a) Abracadebra (b) Abracadrbri (c) Abracadabra (d) Abracadabre (e) None of these

31. (a) Catarh (b) Catarah (c) Catarrah (d) Cataraha (e) None of these

Directions for questions 32 – 36 : Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions:

Passage – I It is indisputable that in order to fulfill many functions, water should be clean and biologically valuable. The costs

connected with the provision of biologically valuable water for food production with the maintenance of sufficiently clear water, therefore, are primarily production costs. Purely “environmental” costs seem to be in this respect only costs connected with the safeguarding of cultural, recreational and sports functions which the water courses and reservoirs fulfill both in nature and in human settlements.

The pollution problems of the atmosphere resemble those of the water only partly. So far, the supply of air has not been deficient as was the case with water and the dimensions of the airshed are so vast that a number of people still hold




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the opinion that air need not be economized. However, scientific forecasts have shown that the time may be already approaching when clear and biologically valuable air will become problem number one.

Air being ubiquitous, people are particularly sensitive about any reduction in the quality of the atmosphere, the increased contents of dust and gaseous exhalations, and particularly about the presence of odours. The demand for purity of the atmosphere, therefore, emanates much more from the population itself than from the specific sectors of the national economy affected by a polluted or even biologically aggressive atmosphere.

The household’s share in atmospheric pollution is far bigger than that of industry which, in turn, further complicates the economic problems of atmospheric purity. Some countries have already collected positive experience with the reconstruction of the whole urban sectors on the basis of new heating appliances based on the combustion of solid fossil fuel; estimates of the economic consequences of such measures have also been put forward.

In contrast to water, where the maintenance of purity would seem primarily to be related to the costs of production and transport, a far higher proportion of the costs of maintaining the purity of the atmosphere derives from environmental considerations. Industrial sources of gaseous and dust emissions are well known and classified; their location can be accurately identified, which makes them controllable. With the exception perhaps, of the elimination of sulphur dioxide, technical means and technological processes exist which can be used for the elimination of all excessive impurities of the air from various emissions.

Atmospheric pollution caused by the private property of individuals (their dwellings, automobiles, etc.) is difficult to control. Some sources such as motor vehicles are very mobile, and they are thus capable of polluting vast territories. In this particular case, the cost of antipollution measures will have to be borne, to a considerable extent, by individuals, whether in the form of direct costs or indirectly in the form of taxes, dues, surcharges, etc.

The problem of noise is a typical example of an environmental problem which cannot be solved only passively, i.e. merely by protective measures, but will require the adoption of active measures, i.e. direct interventions at the source. The costs of a complete protection against noise are so prohibitive as to make it unthinkable even in the economically most developed countries. At the same time, it would not seem feasible, either economically most developed countries. At the same time, it would not seem feasible, either economically or politically, to force the population to carry the costs of individual protection against noise, for example, by reinforcing the sound insulation of their homes. A solution of this problem probably cannot be found in the near future. 32. According to the passage, the population at large (a) Is unconcerned about air pollution controls (b) Is especially aware of problems concerning air quality and purity (c) Regards water pollution as more serious than air pollution (d) Has failed to recognize the economic consequences of pollution (e) All of the above

33. Scientific forecasts have shown that clear and biologically valuable air (a) Is likely to remain abundant for some time (b) Creates fewer economic difficulties than does water pollution (c) May soon be dangerously lacking (d) May be beyond the capacity of our technology to protect (e) All of the above

34. According to the passage, which of the following contributes most to atmospheric pollution? (a) Industry (b) Production (c) Households

(d) Waste disposal (e) None of the above

35. The costs involved in the maintenance of pure water are determined primarily by I. Production II. Transport costs III. Research costs (a) I only (b) III only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only (e) None of the above

36. Complete protection against noise (a) May be forthcoming in the near future (b) Is impossible to achieve (c) May have prohibitive costs (d) Is possible only in developed countries (e) All of the above Directions for questions 37 – 44 : Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions: Passage – II

Because carpets, especially floor coverings, are destroyed through use, very few rungs from before the sixteenth century have survived. There are two basic types of carpet: flat-weaves and pile, or knotted. Both can be made on either vertical or horizontal frames. The best known flat-weaves today are Turkish kilims which are typically woven in wool with bold, geometric patterns and sometimes embroidered details. Kilim weaving is done in the tapestry technique, which allows free placement of various colours.

Knotted carpets are an ancient invention. The oldest known example, excavated in Siberia and dating to the fourth or fifth century B.C., has designs evocative of Archaemenid Persian art, suggesting that the technique may have originated in ancient Persia. In knotted rugs, the pile-plush, thickly tufted surface – is made by tying coloured strands, usually wool but occasionally silk for deluxe carpets onto the vertical elements (warp) or a yarn grid. These knotted loops are later sheared, cut, and trimmed to form the plush surface of the carpet. Rows of knots alternate with flat-woven rows (weft) that hold the carpet together. The weft is usually in undyed yarn and is eventually hidden by the coloured knots. Two common tying techniques are the symmetrical “Turkish” knot, which works well for straight-line designs, and the asymmetrical “Persian” knot, used for rendering curvilinear patterns. The greater the number of knots, the denser and more durable is the pile. The finest carpets have 100 knots per square inch, each one tied separately by hand. Because these rugs are not mass-produced the size and shape may not be exact and colours may very slightly; however, these “flows” are proof of authenticity.

Although royal workshops produced the most luxurious carpets, most knotted rugs have traditionally been knotted rugs have traditionally been made in tents and homes. Carpets were woven by either women or men, depending on the




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local custom. Today, an older woman generally works with a young girl, who learns the art of carpet weaving at the loom and eventually passes it on to the next generation. Working between September and May, these women may have woven five carpets, tying up to 5, 000 knots a day. Oriental rugs are considered valuable because they have complex designs and take a long time to produce. Knotted rugs from Persia and Turkey were so highly prized among Westerners that they were often displayed on tables rather than on floors Persian taste favoured intricate, elegant designs that evoked the gardens of paradise. Written accounts indicate that such designs appeared on Persian carpets as early as the seventh century. In one fabled royal carpet, garden paths were rendered in real gold, leaves were modeled with emeralds, and highlights on flowers, fruits and birds were created with pearls and other jewels. Carpets such as this one were definitely as much status symbols within the Islamic world as they were beyond it. 37. Since the weavers work from September to May, their work time implies (a) They have to shear animals and spin yarn in the interim. (b) Working during the hot summer months is unbearable. (c) They weave during the months their children are in school. (d) They need the summer to clean the looms. (e) All of the above

38. The finest carpets today are characterized by (a) 5, 000 knots per carpet (b) 100 knots per square inch. (c) Asymmetrical designs (d) Flat weaves (e) None of the above

39. A flat-weave carpet such as a Turkish kilim (a) Is seldom characterized by bright colours (b) Is woven with free placement of coloured areas. (c) Typically has asymmetrical designs of two colours (d) Almost always has an off-white background with a geometric design (e) None of the above

40. Oriental rugs are sometimes characterized by variations or “flaws” in shape and colour because (a) They are made by hand, not by machine (b) Little quality control exists to ensure consistency (c) The complicated designs are difficult to create, especially in large rungs. (d) So may different artisans are likely to contribute to the making of a single rug. (e) None of the above

41. An exotic rug with an elaborate design, complete with jewels and gold thread, would most likely. (a) Be used in a sultan’s palace (b) Be created and used in secret because of its great value. (c) Hang on a wall instead of being placed on the floor (d) Take almost a lifetime for an artisan to complete (e) None of these

42. Elegant Persian carpets, often preferred by collectors (a) Feature ornate, exquisite designs with garden patterns (b) Are usually room-size because of the amount of work required to produce them (c) Contain aniline dyes that provide brilliant colours (d) Are created with complicated looms (e) All of the above

43. The terms warp and weft refer to (a) Two typical kinds of knots used in Turkish rugs. (b) Decorative details on elaborate Oriental rugs. (c) Two kinds of Persian rugs produced in Iran today (d) The grid or foundation for the rug on which the knots are tied. (e) None of the above

44. The art of making rugs continues because (a) It is passed on from one generation to the next. (b) The demand for high-quality rugs is high (c) It represents an important type of Oriental art. (d) The consumer is willing to pay high prices for good rugs. (e) None of the above Directions for questions 45 – 47 : Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions: Passage – III Human beings have adapted to the physical world not by changing their physical nature, but by adjusting their society. Animals and plants have made adjustments, over long periods, by the development of radical changes in their very organisms. Hereditary differences meet needs of various environments. But among humans, differences in head form and in other physical features are not, in most cases, clearly adaptive. Nor is it clear that mental capacities of races are different. As far as we know, the races are equally intelligent and equally capable of solving their problems of living together. The varying ways of life, it seems, are social and learned differences and not physical and inherited differences. It stands to reason, therefore, that man’s adjustment to his surroundings should be studied in custom and institution, not in anatomy and neural structure.




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45. According to the passage, anyone who wanted to study human adaptation to environment should do so through the field of _________.

(a) Physics (b) Sociology (c) Archaeology (d) Medicine (e) None of the above

46. Over the centuries of human development, adoption to the physical world has accomplished through ___________. (a) Radical change in the organism (b) Changes similar to those accomplished by plants (c) Dramatically different head sizes (d) Cultural adjustments in the customs of society (e) None of the above

47. The varying ways of life among humans are _________. (a) Learned and social (b) Caused by heredity and physical variation (c) Due to different mental capacities (d) Similar to the varying ways of plants (e) None of the above Directions for questions 48 – 50: Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions: Passage – IV When you are being interviewed for a job, remember that it’s normal for many people to be nervous, particularly in such a stress – producing situation. There are plenty of jobs – needed, probably most – where a little nervousness isn’t looked at askance. It does help to dry a damp brow or a clammy hand just before meeting the interviewer, but otherwise, don’t be too concerned about the outward manifestations of your nervousness. Experienced interviewers will discount most physical signs of nervousness. The only one which people have a hard time ignoring is a fidgety hand. Interviewees who constantly twist their hands or make movements which are dramatically distracting are calling attention to their nervousness. Remember that interviewers talk to people in order to ire, not because they enjoy embarrassing uneasy applicants. One way to overcome a flustered feeling, or “butterflies in the stomach,” is to note that interviewers want to hire people who have something to offer their company. If they think you will fit into their organization, you will be the one who is sought after. It’s almost as though you are interviewing them to see if they are good enough for you. 48. The outward sign of nervousness which get the most amount of attention from interviewers is probably _______. (a) A damp brow (b) Clammy hands (c) Restless hand gestures (d) A jittery stomach (e) None of the above 49. Overcoming nervousness is a matter of ________. (a) Wiping your head and hands before entering the interview room (b) Taking several tranquilizers before the interview (c) Being dramatic and aggressive (d) Realising that interviews are two-sided and making the most of it (e) None of the above 50. An interviewer is someone who ________. (a) Is looking for a job (b) Seeks facts from prospective employees (c) Has already hired you (d) Is always on the lookout to trip applicants up (e) None of the above

SECTION – B 51. Author of ‘The Last Days of Krypton’ is:

(a) Kevin J Anderson (b) Michael Reaves (c) William Shatner (d) Alex Irvine 52. Name the painter who is painting a series named ‘India’ in London :

(a) Satish Gujral (b) MF Hussain (c) Pradeep Ghosh (d) None of the above 53. World Computer Literacy Day is observed on :

(a) Dec 1 (b) Dec 2 (c) Dec 3 (d) Dec 4 54. The International Olympic Committee has given cricket the status of a ‘recognized sport’ for a period of :

(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years 55. This country will host the Commonwealth Powerlifting Championship in 2009:

(a) India (b) Canada (c) England (d) Pakistan

56. Name the author of the book “Terror and Consent : The Wars for the Twenty-first Century’. (a) Hasan Suroor (b) Victoria Young (c) Philip Bobbitt (d) Noam Chomsky

57. Out of these which is a famous Japanese automobile company?

(a) Suzuki (b) Toyota (c) GM (d) A and b both

58. Which is India’s largest car manufacturer? (a) Tata Motors (b) Maruti Suzuki (c) Ford India (d) M&M

59. Who has become the India’s 17th Grandmaster?




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(a) Abhishek Das (b) Abhijeet Gupta (c) S Arun Prasad (d) Ashwin Jayaram

60. Name the new Chief Technology office of Cisco System, a leading supplier of networking equipments. (a) Julie Watson (b) Anjali Mankad (c) Padamsree Warrior (d) Ruby Gupta

61. India’s first dedicated tourism complex will come up in :

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Andhra Pradesh 62. The 21st Squash World Championship was claimed by :

(a) Australia (b) England (c) Russia (d) France 63. Author of the book ‘The Elephant, The Tiger and The Cellphone’ is :

(a) Shashi Tharoor (b) R B Shashi (c) K Sankaran Nair (d) Kamal Nath 64. Which is India’s largest power producing company?

(a) Power Grid Corporation of India (b) Nuclear Power Corporation of India (c) Suzlon energy (d) National Thermal Power Corporation

65. Author of the book ‘Notes on a Scandal’ is :

(a) DBC Pierre (b) Zoe Heller (c) Philip Glass (d) John Bloom 66. He has recently created a record of being match referee in 100 Test Matches :

(a) Clive Lloyd (b) Ranjan Madugalle (c) Malcolm Speed (d) Malcolm Gray 67. _______has recently allowed India to make ‘Foreign Direct Investment’ there.

(a) Cambodia (b) Namibia (c) Romania (d) Guyana 68. The 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 was hosted by:

(a) Sri Lanka (b) Maldives (c) India (d) Nepal 69. Deepali Kulkarnee is a player associated with:

(a) Golf (b) Weightlifting (c) Chess (d) Hockey 70. The recently held Commonwealth Weightlifting Championship was hosted by :

(a) India (b) New Zealand (c) Australia (d) Britain 71. Author of the book ‘Viral Match’ is :

(a) Rajesh Khullar (b) Rameez Raja (c) Arjun Sachdeva (d) Harsha Bhogle 72. Who has been chosen as the ‘BBC Sports Personality’ of the year 2007?

(a) Joe Calzaghe (b) Lewis Hamilton (c) Ricky Hatton (d) Darren Clarke 73. Name the chief of the ‘Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority’ (PFRDA)

(a) D Swaroop (b) B N Roy (c) R Ramakant (d) A K Chaudhary 24. The Sixty Pravasi Bhartiya Divas will be hosted by :

(a) Mumbai (b) Hyderabad (c) New Delhi (d) Chennai 25. This city of UK has decided to set up an ‘India Desk’ to promote ties with India :

(a) Birmingham (b) Bristol (c) Preston (d) Sheffield 26. The Indian city which tops in direct tax collection is

(a) Delhi (b) Lucknow (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai 27. Recently, Indian Army has opened its new aviation base near

(a) Jammu (b) Guwahati (c) Pune (d) Srinagar 28. Mumbai based ‘Financial Information Network and Operations Ltd.’ will provide smart card solutions to

(a) SBI (b)PNB (c) UBI (d) ICICI 29. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo who was on an Indian visit recently, is the President of

(a) Indonesia (b) Philippines (c) Singapore (d) Thailand 30. World’s Best Public Transportation System, according to a recent survey, is of:

(a) New York (b) Paris (c) Hong Kong (d) London 31. Lonely Planet, headquartered in Melbourne, has been bought by:

(a) National Geographic (b) Discovery (c) BBC (d) CNN 32. Which automobile company has teamed with Nokia for its navigation systems?

(a) Ferrari (b) Renault (c) General Motors (d) Fiat 33. According to Reader’s Digest, the country best for living is

(a) Finland (b) USA (c) Australia (d) Austria




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34. ‘Health Vault’, a medical information website, has been launched by:

(a) Microsoft (b) Google (c) Yahoo (d) TCS 35. Canada based Castek Software Inc has been acquired by:

(a) Infosys (b) Mphasis (c) i-flex (d) TCS 36. Which radio channel faced a weeklong ban on the charges of disrupting communal harmony?

(a) Radio Mirchi (b) Red FM (c) Big FM (d) Radio City 37. Recently, Indian Council of Medical Research has been upgraded and redesignated as

(a) Medical Council of India (b) Medical Research Council of India (c) Department of Health Research (d) Department of Medical Research

38. Italian company ‘Pioneer Investments’ has formed a joint venture with

(a) SBI (b) ICICI (c) Bank of Baroda (d) Canara Bank 39. Name the US athlete who had to recently surrender his/her Olympic medals because of a doping scandal.

(a) Rusty Smith (b) Marion Jones (c) Justin Gatlin (d) Maurice Greene 40. The Middle East Peace Conference slated in November will be held in

(a) Jerusalem (b) Annapolis (c) Haifa (d) Ashkelon 41. This company is going to be restructured into 3 segments, each with its own CEO.

(a) Nokia (b) Siemens (c) Sony (d) Wipro 42. Iran has recently signed a deal to export 3 billion cubic meters of gas to …….. annually.

(a) Syria (b) Argentina (c) Russia (d) India 43. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) General Assembly met in Geneva from Sept 27 to Oct 3. The current membership of WIPO is:

(a) 180 (b) 184 (c) 190 (d) 195 44. Caparo Group has recently inaugurated manufacturing facilities at Sriperumbudur, TN. The group is headed by:

(a) Lord Swraj Paul (b) Sunil Mittal (c) Ratan Tata (d) Pawan Ruia 45. Recently, Agni-I was launched successfully. It is a …missile

(a) Surface-to-Air (b) Surface-to-Surface (c) Air-to-Air (d) Naval 46. The Asset Management Company (AMC) which has not been appointed as fund manager for National investment

Fund is: (a) UTI (b) SBI (c) HDFC AMC (d) LIC Mutual Fund

47. Mcleod Russel has acquired a controlling stake in:

(a) Tata Tea (b) Moran Tea (c) Brook Bond (d) Tea City 48. The Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) Summit was recently held in:

(a) Moscow (b) Tashkent (c) Dushanbe (d) Bishkek 49. Match the following:

Person Related Field A. Ranjit Sarkaria 1. Former Supreme Court Judge B. LM Singhvi 2. Aughor and Philosopher C. Daya Krishna 3. Eminent Jurist D. JP Mathur 4. Veteran BJP Leader A B C D (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 4

50. Name the Prime Minister of Myanmar who died recently.

(a) Than Shwe (b) Soe Win (c) Maung Aye (d) Tin Thein

SECTION – C

Directions for questions 101 – 148: Each question below is followed by five answer choices. Choose the best alternative. 101. A man is the same age as his wife with the digits reversed. One-eleventh of the sum of their ages equals the

difference in their ages. Assume the man to be the older. How old is the man and how old his wife? (a) 43, 34 (b) 63, 36 (c) 54, 45 (d) 65, 56 (e) 76, 67

102. I have six sons. Each son has a sister. What is the minimum number of children that I have?




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(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12 (e) 13

103. A man has 7 friends. The 1st visits him every night, the 2nd every other night, the 3rd every 3rd night, the 4th every 4th night etc. through to the 7th friend who comes every 7th night. After how many days do all the friends meet together?

(a) 210 (b) 420 (c) 460 (d) 400 (e) Never

104. Kishan gave Manu as many rupees as Manu already had. Manu then gave Kishan back as much as Kishan had left. Kishan, not to be outdone by Manu's generosity, gave Manu back as many rupees as Manu had left, which left poor Kishan broke and left Manu with Rs. 80 altogether. How much did each man have in the beginning?

(a) 60, 50 (b) 40, 20 (c) 50, 30 (d) 50, 40 (e) None of these

105. If 5 × 4 = 12, & 8 × 7= 42, then 9 × 8 = ? (a) 72 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 51 (e) 56

106. The average age of 40 boys of a class is 12 years. If the age of the teacher is included, the average age becomes 13 yrs. The teacher's age is

(a) 40 yrs (b) 41 yrs (c) 65 yrs (d) 46 yrs (e) 53

107. You have 2 parents, 4 grandparents, 8 great grandparents, 16 great great grandparents ----- and so on. If each generation on average lives 25 years further back in time, how many great great great great ---- great grandparents did you have a thousand years ago approximated

(a) 1012

(b) 10 million (c) 100 million (d) 1000 million (e) 1 billion 108. 9 men went to hotel. 8 of them spent Rs.3 each and the ninth spent Rs. 2 more than the average of the other eight.

What was the total amount spent by them? (a) Rs.24 (b) Rs.27 (c) Rs.29 (d) Rs.30 (e) Rs. 26 109. In a race of 600 metres, A can beat B by 60 metres and in a race of 500 metres, B can beat C by 50 meters. By

how many metre will A beat C in a race of 400 meters? (a) 96 m (b) 64 m (c) 80 m (d) 76 m (e) None of these 110. If m + n + p = 0 and m is positive such that n > m, then p (a) p > 0 (b) p = 0 (c) p = m – n (d) p < 0 (e) can’t say 111. A student loses a mark for every wrong answer and scores 2 marks for every correct answer. If he answers all the

60 questions in an exam and scores 39 marks, how many of them were correct? (a) 31 (b) 37 (c) 33 (d) 27 (e) 39 112. The width of a rectangle is 2 cm less than its length. The perimeter is 12 cm. The rectangle’s area is (a) 12 cm

2 (b) 24 cm

2 (c) 8 m

2 (d) 6 cm

2 (e) None of these

113. I had 2 bottles viz. bottle S containing 10 ounces of spirit and bottle W containing 10 ounces of water. I poured a

quarter of an ounce of spirit into the water bottle and mixed it. Since I wanted the same quantity of fluid in both the bottles I poured back a quarter of an ounce of the mixture into the spirit bottle. What is the proportion of spirit to water in the bottle W?

(a) 40 : 1 (b) 1 : 40 (c) 9 : 1 (d) 1 : 9 (e) 1 : 1 114. Thursday was the day before yesterday five days ago, and today is 20th October. What was the day on 17th

October? (a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday (d) Thursday (e) Wednesday

115. How many times in 24 hours will the mirror image of a clocks time be the same as the actual time shown by it? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 8

116. A increases if B and C increase, otherwise A decreases. B increases if D decreases and C increases if F increases. F increases if H decreases. D increases if H increases

All relations hold true in reverse direction also as well and if B and C decreases then (a) A & D also decrease (b) D & H also increase (c) A and F increase (d) Only H increase (e) None of these 117. In this diagram you can see 10 balls in a formation called the Dumer arrangement. In this, each

row stacked on another contains one ball less than the row below it. Which of the following numbers of balls will give us the Dumer arrangement'?

(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 16 (d) 28 (e) None of these

118. Each of the triangles seen in this diagram is an isosceles triangle. If length BC = 6, what is the area of triangle ADE

(a) 24√2 (b) 72

(c) 144√2 (d) 36

(e) 12 2

A B

C

D E

A B

C D

7

10

4




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119. What is the perimeter of the parallelogram ABCD? (a) 20 (b) 30

(c) 24√3 (d) 32 (e) 34 120. The number of cubes in the arrangement shown in the diagram alongside is (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 9 (e) 12 121. The Tourist-taxi for hiring a limousine in Jhumritallaiya is based on a curious formula. For upto the first 120 minutes

you pay a fixed amount Rs.1296 regardless of time utilisation. Similarly, upto the next 60 minutes period the tariff is one sixth 1296. Further, for consecutive 60 minutes periods the rate is one sixth the previous 60 minutes period. What is the tariff for a five and half hour traveling period?

(a) 3648 (b) 1556 (c) 1488 (d) 1554 (e) None of these 122. All the 6 sides of a cube are coloured. Now this cube is broken into smaller cubes, with each side 1/4 the side of the

larger cube. How many of the smaller cubes will have only one side coloured? (a) 16 (b) 40 (c) 64 (d) 24 (e) 36 123. If the cost of paving a foot path on all the sides surrounding a park with sides 40 and 36 meters at the rate of Rs.4

per sq. m is Rs.3440. what is the width of the footpath? (a) 4m (b) 5m (c) 6m (d) 8m (e) None of these 124. Eight men are in a room. Each man shakes hand with each other once. How many handshakes are there? (a) 56 (b) 36 (c) 28 (d) 16 (e) 64 125. Gold is 19 times heavier than water and copper is 9 times heavier than water. In what ratio must gold be mixed with

copper to get an alloy 15 times heavier than water? (a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 19 : 9 (e) None of these 126. The average age of family of 6 members is 22 years. If the age of the youngest is 7 years, what is the average age

of the family just before the birth of the youngest? (a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 22 (d) 25 (e) indeterminable 127. In a km race A beats B by 35 m or 7 secs. Find A's time on the course. (a) 200 secs (b) 193 secs (c) 207 secs (d) 212 secs (e) indeterminable 128. A contractor undertook to build a road in 200 days. He employed 140 men. After 60 days, he found that only 1/4 of

the road was built. How many additional men should he employ to complete the work in time? (a) 180 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 30 (e) none of these 129. On a certain day, 12 children were brought to a school by their mothers. Of these, two children were a brother and

a sister, and three children were a brother and two sisters and the rest were ‘single’ children. How many different mothers brought their children that day?

(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (e) 12 130. A train travels a certain distance at a certain speed in h hours. How many hours will it take for the train to travel

twice that distance in twice that speed? (a) h (b) 2h (c) 4h (d) h/4 (e) None of these 131. If a man buys some articles at K paise per dozen and sells them at the rate of K/8 paise each, what is his profit in

paise per article? (a) k/12 (b) k/24 (c) k/18 (d) 3k/4 (e) k/6

132. A sold a plot to B at a profit of 20%. B sold it to C at a profit of 10%. If C paid Rs. 33000 for the plot, what was the price at which A had bought it?

(a) 27500 (b) 25000 (c) 26000 (d) 30000 (e) 24000 133. Five equal square are placed side by side to make a single rectangle whose perimeter is 372 cms. What is the area

of each of the square? (a) 72 sq.cms (b) 900 sq.cms (c) 984 sq.cms (d) 961 sq.cms (e) 1369 sq.cms

134. A man spent exactly one rupee in purchasing 3 paise stamps and 5 paise stamps. The number of 5 paise stamps he could not have purchased is

(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 11 (e) None of these

135 The length and the breadth of a room are 22 metres and 18 metres respectively. If the total area of the four walls of the room is 1200 square metres, what is the height of the wall?

(a) 7.5 m (b) 10 m (c) 18 m (d) 12 m (e) 15 m




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136. A batsman has a certain average of runs for 16 innings. In the 17th innings he was out for of 85, increasing his

average by 3. What is his present average? (a) 31 (b) 34 (c) 37 (d) 40 (e) 33 137. If the area of a rhombus is 24, and one of its diagonals is 6, its perimeter is (a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 36 (e) 32

138. What is the value of (√2 × √175 × √45 × √6) / (√80 × √448 × √192) = ? (a) 15/128 (b) 12/19 (C) 16/145 (d) 24/135 (e) 15/64 139. What is the total cost of borrowing a book from a lending library for n days if the cost for the first 5 days is p paise

and the cost for every additional day is q paise (in paise) (a) 5p + qn (b) 5p + q(n – 5) (c) p + q(n + 5) (d) p + q(n – 5) (e) p + nq/5

140. A rectangular plot of 100m × 200m is divided into as many equal square sections as possible with an area of 900 square metres each for growing vegetables. What is the area of the land left unused (in sq.m)?

(a) 5550 (b) 2090 (c) 3800 (d) 7600 (e) 2000

141. The present age of a father is equal to the sum of the ages of his five children. 12 years hence, the sum of the ages of the children will be twice the age of the father. The present age of the father is

(a) 32 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 42 (e) 48 142. Two pipes P and Q can fill a tub in 20 min. and 30 min. respectively. If both pipes are opened simultaneously, after

how many minutes should P be turned off so that the tub is filled in exactly 15 minutes? (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 14 (e) 7.5 143. 6

5x – 12.4

5 – 2x = 2.3

2x – 3. Solve for x.

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 1 Directions for questions 144 – 148 : Refer to the following graph.

ANNUAL SALES OF ABC LTD. IN THE THREE ZONES YEAR ENDING JUNE 1995

(In Rs. Lakhs)

144. Which zone shows an increase in sales in two successive quarters? (a) East zone (b) West Zone (c) North Zone (d) All of these (e) None of these 145. Which zone recorded the least change in sales in any of the quarters? (a) East zone (b) West Zone (c) North Zone (d) Both East & West Zones (d) indeterminable 146. Which quarter recorded the plummeting of sales of the company in more than one zone? (a) 1st quarter (b) 2nd quarter (c) 3rd quarter (d) 4th quarter (e) None of these 147. In how many quarters do we see the sales of any one zone being greater than the sales of the other two combined? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) None of these 148. What was the total sales turnover of ABC Ltd. (a) 55 lakhs (b) 45 lakhs (c) 4.5 cr (d) 5.05 cr (e) 5.5 cr.

SECTION – D

Directions for questions 149 – 151: Find the next term of the series:- 149. 1, 5, 11, 19,... (a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (e) 31

1st

Qtr. 2nd

Qtr. 3rd

Qtr 4th

Qtr.




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150. 2, 12, 36, 80,.. (a) 140 (b) 150 (c) 155 (d) 160 (e) None of these 151. 1, 3, 8, 36, ... (a) 73 (b) 289 (c) 291 (d) 299 (e) None of these Directions for questions 152 – 156: There are five towns A, B, C, D & E out of which four are state capitals. Two among them are industrial towns whereas two are hill stations. Two towns are on the same latitude and two other towns are on the same longitude. Further, two towns are seaports. B is a hill station and has got latitude common with an industrial town. One of the industrial towns is a seaport and has longitude common with a town, which is not a state capital. A is an industrial town and not a seaport. Out of the four state capitals, only one is a seaport. E is not a state capital and D is not an industrial town. 152. Which of the following are both a state capital and a hill station? (a) A & B (b) B & D (c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) & (b) (e) None of these 153. Which two towns have their latitudes common? (a) A & B (b) B & C (c) A & C (d) C & E (e) A & E 154. Which of the following is a state capital but not an industrial town? (a) B (b) D (c) either (a) or (b) (d) both (a) and (b) (e) None of these 155. Which of the following are an industrial town and a hill station? (a) A (b) B (c) D (d) E (e) Indeterminable 156. If a person of town B wants to visit another town, which has same latitude as B, then he will go to town... (a) A (b) E (c) D (d) C (e) None of these Directions for questions 157 – 159: There are 10 people in a group namely A, B, C, …., I, J. There are 3 couples with 2 sons each. A is the father-in-law of D. G and H are brothers. B although a female isn’t a daughter-in-law. J, H don't have any children. I and E are males and aren't brothers. Further, F is wife of E. Now, answer the following questions:- 157. Who is the husband of D? (a) A (b) C (c) G (d) I (e) None of these 158. If C is the father of G and H. then the mother of J is …. (a) B (b) D (c) F (d) E (e) None of these 159. What is relationship between B and I? (a) Grandmother-Grandson (b) Mother-Son (c) Father-Daughter (d) Father-Son (e) Grandmother-Grand Daughter Directions for questions 160 – 163 : Chose the correct alternative 160. If ENORMOUS is written as SUOMRONE, then ENFERTAIN is written as (a) RETAINET (b) NIATRETNE (c) NAITFEREN (d) NIATREFNE (e) None of these 161. If ALONE is written as YKMMC, then CLASS is written as (a) BKYQQ (b) BKYTT (c) AKYQQ (d) AKYRR (e) None of these

162. When A increases, B decreases. With increase in B, there is a corresponding decrease in C. When C increases, D also increases. When D decreases, E also decreases. Now, if there is a decrease in A then....

(a) C decreases (b) D decreases (c) B increases (d) E decreases (e) All of the above

163. X said to Y “the husband of your sister's mother is my wife's son”. What is the relation of X with Y? (a) Father (b) Uncle (c) Grandfather (d) Granduncle (e) Indeterminate

Directions: for questions 164 – 166: Ram, Shyam and Dharam are three friends. Each of them owns one of the three vehicles – Bajaj, Honda and Kinetic, though not necessarily in that order. Further, each of them is wearing one of the three helmets coloured red, blue, green. They made two statements each, out of which one is true and one is false. Study their statements and answer the questions that follow:- Ram : I own the Bajaj. Shyam owns the red helmet. Shyam : Ram owns the Honda. I own the red helmet. Dharam : I own the Kinetic. Ram owns the blue helmet.

164. The green helmet is owned by (a) Ram (b) Shyam (c) Dharam (d) Shyam or Ram (e) Indeterminable 165. The Kinetic is owned by (a) Ram (b) Shyam (c) Dharam (d) Dharam & Shyam (e) Indeterminable 166. The blue helmet is owned by




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(a) Ram (b) Shyam (c) Dharam (d) Dharam or Shyam (e) indeterminable Directions: for questions 167 – 168: In a nation called 'Devnagar' a king must do what he says he will. One day, the king said to a convict that, "if I happen to contradict your statement, I will hang you and if I happen to support your statement, I will shoot you. " After this, he asked the convict “What punishment should I give you?" 167. The convict wants to reply in such a way so that he can save himself. The reply of convict was that you will..... (a) hang me (b) shoot me (c) release me (d) release or shoot me (e) Indeterminable 168. In the end, the convict was ... (a) hanged (b) shot (c) released (d) hanged or released (e) neither shot nor hanged Directions for questions 169 – 171, a series of alphabets has been given, with some of the alphabets replaced by dashes. From the answer choices, you have to select the choice, whose alphabets when substituted in the blanks will form a coherent series. 169. __ a b _e d a _ c e _ a b c _ d (a) cbdde (b) dbced (c) ebdcd (d) dcdbe (e) dcbde 170. a _ _ a _a a b a a b _ a b _ b (a) bbaab (b) baaba (c) bbbaa (d) aaabb (e) aabbb 171. _ _ z x y _ x y _ _ y z (a) xyzzx (b) xxyzz (c) xyxyz (d) xzxyz (e) yzxyz Directions for questions 172 – 173: A series of numbers has been given. From the answer choices, you have to select the choice which either continues the given series, or which fills in the missing places to form a continuous series.

172. 3, 4, _, _, 18, 19, 38, 39 (a) 6, 10 (b) 8, 12 (c) 9, 12 (d) 8, 9 (e) 6, 7

173. 16, 24, 48, 120, 360, _ (a) 1260 (b) 1240 (c) 1250 (d) 1220 (e) 1224

Directions for questions 174 –178 : 3 participants are competing in a race. Every participant is displaying logo of the company, which is sponsoring him. From the clues given below, you have to identify their surnames, the company that is sponsoring them and what was their position in the race. Names : Vinay, Robert, Sunil Surnames : De’Souza, Saxena, Wagle Company : Pepsi, Reebok, Wills Reebok Shoes sponsored neither Vinay nor Wagle. Robert was not last of the runners to complete the race. Sunil was sponsored by Pepsi. Wagle came second and Saxena was the winner 174. Which company was sponsoring De'Souza? (a) Pepsi (b) Wills (c) Reebok (d) Pepsi or Reebok (e) Indeterminable

175. The surname of Robert is... (a) De'Souza (b) Saxena (c) Wagle (d) De’Souza or Saxena (e) Indeterminable

176. The person who came second in the race is.... (a) Vinay (b) Robert (c) Sunil (d) Vinay or Robert (e) Indeterminable

177. The company sponsoring Robert De'Souza was..... (a) Pepsi (b) Wills (c) Reebok (d) Wills or Pepsi (e) Indeterminable

178. De'Souza is the surname of…... (a) Vinay (b) Sunil (c) Robert (d) Sunil or Robert (e) Indeterminable Directions for question nos. 179 – 182 : For the following questions, choose the option which does not belong to the group. 179. (a) Paris (b) Rome (c) London (d) Washington (e) Hamburg 180. (a) Receive (b) Gulp (c) Gargle (d) Eat (e) Devour 181. (a) Alaska (b) Siberia (c) Greenland (d) Sahara (e) None of these 182. (a) Crimson (b) Azure (c) Dull (c) Red (e) Purple Direction for questions 183 – 187 : Each question consists of certain statements. You have to select the option representing the most logical sequencing of the given statements. 183. A. Dow Jones is the Wall Street Stock Market Index B. Nikki is a Hong-Kong Stock Market Index C. Dow Jones is the true indicator of share prices fluctuations




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D. The Hong-Kong Stock Market is unstable E. The Wall Street Index indicates the true share price fluctuations F. Nikki is an unstable Stock Market Index (a) FDE (b) ABC (c) ACE (d) BDE (e) ACF 184. A. Communication skills are necessary today B. Commuting is a hazard in metropolitans C. Necessary things are important D. There are too many cars in metropolitans E. Metropolitans have no strong transport infrastructure F. Communication skills are important today (a) ABC (b) DEF (c) FCB (d) ACF (e) BDE 185. A. Core competence is an old-tested formula. B. Sprightly things possess the power to kill. C. People should be allotted work according to their abilities. D. Work pressure is increasing due to competition. E. Beautiful things possess the power to kill. F. Sprightly things are beautiful. (a) ABC (b) FEB (c) DEF (d) CFA (e) DCB

186. A. Some students good at EU are not good at RC. B. Dhruv is good at RC. C. Sam is good at EU. D. All students are good either at EU or at RC. E. Sam, a student is not good at RC. F. Sam is definitely a good student. (a) BAE (b) FEB (c) CDA (d) DEC (e) ADF 187. A. Regular intake of vitamins is essential. B. Good hair should be long and bouncy. C. Only the use of proteins can give you good hair. D. Proteins and vitamins are expensive. E. Regular intake of proteins is not essential. F. Keeping good hair may be an expensive proposition. (a) DCF (b) ABC (c) EBD (d) DAF (e) BCF




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Directions for question nos. 188 – 190: Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A, B, C and D. Choose the ORDERED pair of statements, where the first statement implies the second, and the two are logically consistent with the main statement. 188. Press either of the buttons X and Y and the drink will come out. A. The drink has come out B. Either X or Y pressed C. The drink has not come out D. Button Y has been pressed (a) AB (b) AD (c) DA (d) DC (e) CB 189. All green lands have a lot of flora and fauna A. Island X is a greenland. B. Island X has a lot of flora and fauna C. Island Y does not have any flora and fauna D. Island X is not a green land (a) CD (b) BA (c) DC (d) AB (e) DB 190. If humans are beautiful, we catch their beauty; if they are not, we make them beautiful. A. X is beautiful B. We have caught X's beauty

C. We have made X beautiful D. X is not beautiful (a) BA (b) AB (c) CD (d) CB (e) None of these Directions for question nos. 191 – 196 : The following problems contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions. The alternatives available are: (A) if statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not

(B) if statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not (C) if both (I) and (II) together are sufficient but none of them alone is sufficient (D) if both statements independently are sufficient (E) if both (I) and (II) together are not sufficient

191. If X was an integer between 1 and 9 and (Y – X) = 2370, what is X? (I) Y is divisible by 4 (II) Y is divisible by 9 192. Is [(X

–1 – Y

–1) / (X

–2 – Y

–2)] > 1?

(I) X + Y > 2 (II) X & Y are different positive integers & each is greater than 2 193. A, B and C are three positive odd integers. Is (A + C) divisible by 4? (I) B + A = 2 (II) C – B = 2 194. Mr. X went nonstop by car from A to C via B. The average speed for the entire journey was 40 kmph. What was the

average speed from B to C? (I) The distance from B to C is 0.30 times the distance from A to B (II) The average speed from B to C was twice that of the average from A to B 195. X is older than Y, Z is younger than W and V is as old as Y. Is Z younger than X? (I) W may not be older than V (II) W is younger than V 196. The unit price of product 1 is non-increasing and that of product 2 is decreasing. Five years hence which product

will be costlier? (I) Current unit price of 1 is twice that of 2 (II) Five years ago, unit price of 2 was twice that of 1

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