FIITJEE COMMON TESTfiitjeeallahabad.com/sample paper class 9.pdf · 2017-09-23 · FIITJEE Ltd.,...

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

SET A

SDAW37B1 [Phase-1] Applicable for class-IX

IIIITT––JJEEEE STAGE – I

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

A. Question Paper Format 1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics -Part-I, Chemistry -Part-II and Mathematics-Part-III) and each

part consists of four sections.

2. Section - I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out

of which only one is correct.

3. Section - II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,

out of which one or more is/are correct.

4. Section – III contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first

column have to be matched with statements in the second column. There may be one or more than one correct choice. 5. Section - IV contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single – digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.

The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the

section.

B. Marking scheme: 6. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

7. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the

correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks other wise. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.

8. For each question in Section III, on carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be

awarded. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking. 9. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct

answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section

C. Instructions for bubble corresponding to the correct ANSWER in OMR sheet: 10. For each question in Section I, II darken in the bubble corresponding to the correct answer in PART A (Q.1 to Q.12)

11. For each question in Section III darken in the bubble corresponding to the correct answer in PART B (Q.1 to Q.2)

11. For each question in Section IV darken in the bubble corresponding to the correct answer in PART C (Q. 1 to 6)

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -2



Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol

1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol

1

= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol

1

Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023

Planck‘s Constant h = 6.626 10–34

Js

= 6.25 x 10-27

erg.s

1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb

1 calorie = 4.2 Joule

1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27

kg

1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19

J

Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2,

O=8,

Au=79.

Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,

Mn=55,

Pb=207,

Au=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5, Sn=118.6

Useful Data Physics:

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 2m/ s




PPPAAARRRTTT --- III::: PPPHHHYYYSSSIIICCCSSS PART A

SECTION – I (PART – A) (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1) (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The displacement-time graph for the four particles a, b, c and d are shown in the figure.

time

Dis

pla

cem

en

t

a

time

Dis

pla

cem

en

t

b

time

Dis

pla

cem

en

t

c

time

Dis

pla

cem

en

t

d

Which body is moving with an acceleration, (A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d 2. The graph between the displacement x and time t for a particle

moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the acceleration of the particle is

OA AB BC CD (A) + 0 + +

(B) 0 + 0

A B C

D

t O

x

(C) + 0 +

(D) 0 0 3. Two bodies A and B of mass 100 g and 200 g respectively are dropped near the earth‘s surface. Let the

accelerations of A and B be a1 and a2 respectively. Now these two bodies are tied together and the joint body is dropped near the earth surface and falls with an acceleration, a3, then (A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 < a2 > a3

(C) a1 > a2 > a3 (D) a1 a2 a3 4. A train moving at a constant speed of 54 km/h moves eastward for 30 minutes. Then moves towards

north for 40 minutes. The magnitude of average velocity of the train during the run is (A) 38.6 km/hr (B) 45 km/hr (C) 36 km/hr (D) 27 km/hr

Space for rough work




5. A particle is moving in circular path of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. Its angular speed is (A) 1 rad/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 10 rad/s 6. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is

shown in the figure. The displacement and distance traveled by the body in 6 seconds are

(A) 8 m, 16 m (B) 16 m, 8 m (C) 16 m, 16 m (D) 8 m, 8 m

3

4

2

1

1 2 3 4 5 6

t (sec)

V (

m/s

)

-1

-2

-3

-4 7. In the figure shows the displacement time graph of a particle moving on the

X-axis (A) the particle is continuously going in positive x direction (B) the particle is at rest (C) the velocity increase up to a time t0, and then becomes constant (D) the particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0, and then stops.

x

t t0

8. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for some time and with uniform

velocity v2 for the next equal time. The average velocity v is given by

(A) 1 2v v

v2

(B)

1 2v v v

(C) 1 2

2 1 1

v v v (D)

1

1 1 1

v v v2





SECTION – II (PART – A) (Total Marks : 16) (4, 0) (Multiple Correct Answers Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

9. Consider the motion of the tip of the minute hand of a clock. In one hour (A) the displacement is zero (B) the distance covered is zero (C) the average speed is zero (D) the average velocity is zero 10. An object may have (A) varying speed without having varying velocity (B) varying velocity without having varying speed (C) nonzero acceleration without having varying velocity (D) nonzero acceleration without having varying speed. 11. Mark the correct statements for a particle going on a straight line: (A) If the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down. (B) If the position and velocity have opposite sign, the particle is moving towards the origin. (C) If the velocity is zero at an instant, the acceleration should also be zero at that instant (D) If the velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time

interval. 12. The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is

shown in the figure (A) The particle has a constant acceleration (B) The particle has never turned around (C) The particle has zero displacement (D) The average speed in the interval 0 to 10 s is the same as the

average speed in the interval 10 s to 20 s.

10

10 20 30 t(s) 0

10

20

v(m/s)





SECTION –III (PART – B) (Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row) Matrix – Match Type

Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column II.

1. For the motion of a particle along x-axis, match the column.

Column – I Column – II

(A)

v

t

(p) Motion with non uniform acceleration

(B)

v

t

(q) Motion of a body covering equal distances in equal intervals of time

(C)

v

t

(r) Motion having a constant retardation

(D)

v

t

(s) Uniformly accelerated motion

2. Figure shows the displacement-time (x – t) graph of the motion of a body

x

t A

B C

D

E


(A) AB (p) The body is at rest

(B) BC (q) The body is not accelerating

(C) CD (r) The velocity is decreasing with time

(D) DE (s) The velocity is increasing with time





PART C SECTION –IV (PART – C) (Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)

(Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.

The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

1. An athelete takes 2.0 s to reach his maximum speed of 18.0 km/h. The magnitude of his average acceleration is N/2 m/s

2. Determine N.

2. The speed of a car as a function of time is shown in the figure. The distance travelled by the car in 8 seconds is 10 N m. Determine N.

Sp

eed

in

m/s

Time in second

2

10

0

20

4 6 8 10

3. A person travelling at 43.2 km/h applies the brake giving a deceleration of 6.0 m/s

2 to his scooter. The

distance it will travel before stopping is 6 D m. Determine D. 4. A police jeep is chasing a culprit going on a motorbike. The motorbike crosses a turning at a speed of

72 km/h. The jeep follows it at a speed of 90 km/h, crossing the turning ten seconds later than the bike. Assuming that they travel at constant speeds, how far (in km) from the turning will the jeep catch up with the bike?

5. A car travelling at 60 km/h overtakes another car travelling at 42 km/h. Assuming each car to be 5.0 m

long. Find the time taken (in seconds) during the overtake and the total road distance used for the overtake.

6. A ball is thrown at a sped of 40 m/s at an angle of 60 with the horizontal. The maximum height reached is 10 H. Determine H. (Take g = 10 m/s

2).





PPPAAARRRTTT --- IIIIII::: CCCHHHEEEMMMIIISSSTTTRRRYYY PART A

SECTION – I (PART – A) (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1) (Single Correct Answer Type)


1. Rate of diffusion of a gas is: (A) Directly proportional to its density (B) Directly proportional to its molecular mass (C) Directly proportional to the square of its molecular mass (D) Inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass 2. If a gas is allowed to expand at constant temperature then: (A) Number of molecules of the gas decreases (B) The kinetic energy of the gas molecules decreases (C) The kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases (D) The kinetic energy of the gas molecules remains the same 3. Normal boiling point of a liquid is that temperature at which vapour pressure of the liquid is equal to: (A) Zero (B) 380mm of Hg (C) 760 mm of Hg (D) 100 mm of Hg 4. Water boils at lower temperature on high altitudes because: (A) Atmospheric pressure is low there (B) Atmospheric pressure is high there (C) Water is weakly hydrogen bonded there (D) Water in pure from is found there 5. With the increasing molecular mass of a liquid, the viscosity: (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) No effect (D) All are wrong 6. With increase in temperature, the fluidity of liquids: (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remains constant (D) May increase or decrease 7. Which of the following statements is incorrect about amorphous solids? (A) They are anisotropic (B) They are rigid and incompressible (C) They melt over a wide range of temperature (D) There is not orderly arrangement of particles 8. Which of the following is not a property of liquid state? (A) Intermolecular force of attraction in a liquid is quite large (B) All liquids accompanied by cooling on evaporation (C) Lower the boiling point of a liquid, greater is its vapour pressure at room temperature (D) A liquid boils at higher temperature at the top of a mountain than at the sea level





SECTION – II (PART – A) (Total Marks : 16) (4, 0) (Multiple Correct Answers Type)


9. The viscosity of a liquid molecule depends on: (A) The volume of the liquid (B) The temperature of the liquid (C) The surface area of the liquid (D) The structure of the molecules 10. Which one of the following statements is / are correct (A) Freezing point of water is 0°C (B) Freezing point of water is 373 K (C) Freezing point of water is 32°F (D) Boiling point of water is 100°C 11. A gas can be liquefied : (A) Above its critical temperature (B) Below its critical temperature (C) Above its critical pressure (D) Below its critical pressure 12. Which of the following statements are correct? (A) Both surface tension and viscosity decrease with increase of temperature. (B) There is no difference between boiling point and melting point of a liquid. (C) When a liquid boils, the vapours are formed only from the surface. (D) Glass is a highly viscous liquid.






This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

1. Match the following

Column-I Column-II

(A) 1 bar (p) 212°F

(B) 1 atm (q) 105 Pa

(C) 100°C (r) 760 mm of Hg

(D) 27°C (s) 300 K


Column-I Column-II

(A) Gases (p) Super energetic and super excited particles

(B) Solids (q) Highly compressible

(C) Liquids (r) Interparticle forces of attraction are the strongest

(D) Plasma (s) Definite volume but indefinite shape





PART C SECTION –IV (PART – C) (Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)




1. Calculate the amount of heat required to melt 50g of ice (0°C) in Kcal/kg. (Given the latent heat of

fusion of ice is 80 cal/g) 2. Convert 41°Fahrenheit into °Celsius scale. 3. Out of the followings, how many are considered to be ‗matter‘, chalk, chair, air, aroma, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink.

4. Identify how many are sublimiable among ammonium chloride, sodium chloride, magnesium, chloride, iodine, camphor, charcoal, naphthalene, anthracene.

5. How many are diatomic in nature in the given list of gases: Fluorine, Neon, Helium, Oxygen, Bromine, Chlorine, Xenon, Ozone, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Radon.

6. In the following list of substances, identify how many experience negligible compressibility. Tungsten, Bromine, Mercury, Iron, Sponge.





PPPAAARRRTTT --- IIIIIIIII::: MMMAAATTTHHHEEEMMMAAATTTIIICCCSSS PART A

SECTION – I (PART – A) (Total Marks: 24) (3, – 1) (Single Correct Answer Type)


1. If 2 2log x log y 6 then the least value of x y is

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32

2. If x x3 3 3

72log 2 5 log 2 log 2

2

then x is equal to

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

3. If one root of the polynomial 2p x x px 12 is 4, while the polynomial 2q x x px q has equal

roots, then the value of q is

(A) 49

4 (B) 12

(C) 3 (D) 4

4. If and 2 25 3, 5 3, then the polynomial having / and / as its roots, is

(A) 2p x k 3x 19x 3 (B) 2p x k 3x 19x 3

(C) 2p x k 3x 19x 3 (D) 2p x k x 16x 1

5. In the given figure side BC of ABC is product to D. BT

and CT are the bisectors of ABC and ACD

respectively. If value of A = 60º the value of BTC is (A) 20º (B) 30º (C) 40º (D) 35º

A

B

T

C D

6. The side AB of parallelogram ABCD is produced to both ways to P and Q such that PA = AB = BQ.

Give that AD = 2AB, then value of angle between DQ and CP is (A) 100º (B) 50º (C) 60º (D) 90º 7. A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is (A) only a triangle (B) only a square (C) only a rectangle (D) only polygon

8. If the roots of the polynomial 2p x x bx c be two consecutive integers then 2b 4c equals

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4





SECTION – II (PART – A) (Total Marks: 16) (4, 0) (Multiple Correct Answers Type)


9. If , , are the roots of the polynomial p(x) = x3 + 4x + 1, then ( + )

-1 + ( + )

-1 + ( + )

-1 is equal to:

(A) e2log 2e (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 5 10. If the difference of the roots of the polynomial p(x) = x

2 + kx + 7 is 6, the possible values of k are:

(A) 4 (B) – 4 (C) 8 (D) – 8

11. The value of x y z

1 1 1

1 log yz 1 log zx 1 log xy

is:

(A) 1 (B) 2a2log a

(C) x = yz (D) 3a4log a

12. If 2 2

2 2x y 1log logx logy

2 2

then

(A) x2 = y

2 (B) 2x = y

(C) x = y (D) 2y = x






This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

1. Match the following:

Column I Column II

(A)

81 81 81

..........to ..........64 64 64

(p) 4/3

(B)

n2 1024, then

n2 4

43 = ……….

(q) 9

(C)

If log5 log2 logx2 5 2 then

3 25log x .........

(r) 81

64

(D)

The power of x in 36

3 x (s) 6

2. Match the following:

Column I Column II (A)

If 3x 1 is a factor of the polynomial 3 281x 45x 3a 6 then a is (p) 4

(B) If x 1 x 2 x 3 x K 1 is a perfect square, then the value of K is (q) 1

(C) If 4 3 2p x 6x 5x 14x 2x 2 and 2q x 3x 2x 1, then the

remainder when p x q x is

(r) –1

(D) The value of K, if HFC of 2x x 5K 1 and 2x 6x 3K 11 is x 2 . (s) 8

3





PART C SECTION –IV (PART – C) (Total Marks: 24) (+4, 0)




1. If 1/3 1/3

x 4 15 4 15 then the value of 3x 3x is

2. If 5 1 5 1

a and b5 1 5 1

then the value of

2 2

2 2

3 a ab b

4 a ab b

3. The quadratic polynomials

2p x x 6x a

2q x x cx 6

have one root in common. The other roots of p x and q x are integers in the ratio 4 : 3. Then the

common root is …….

4. If the roots of the quadratic polynomial 2p x x px q are 2 1 and 2 1 respectively, then the

value of 2 2 q p is …….

5. In the given ABC B = 70º, C = 50º AD BC and AM is the

bisector of BAC, then the value of 1/2 DAM (in degree) is

A

B C D M

6. In the given figure BP and CP are the bisectors of

exterior B and C respectively. If value of A = 70º,

then the value of 1/11BPC (in degree) is

A

B C

P





FIITJEE COMMON TEST

SET A

SDAW37B1 [Phase-1]

IIIITT––JJEEEE STAGE – I ANSWERS

Physics [PART-I]

PART–A

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. A, D 10. B, D 11. A, B, D 12. A, D

PART–B

1. (A) (q) (B) (s) (C) (r) (D) (p)

2. (A) (q) (B) (s) (C) (p) (D) (r)

PART–C

1. 5 2. 8 3. 2 4. 1 5. 2 6. 6

Chemistry [PART-II]

PART–A 1. D 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B, D 10. A, C, D 11. B, C 12. A, D

PART–B

1. (A q), (B r), (C p), (D s)

2. (A q), (B r), (C s), (D p)

PART–C

1. 4 2. 5 3. 5 4. 5 5. 6 6. 2

Mathematics [PART-III]

PART–A 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. A, C 10. C, D 11. A, B 12. A, C

PART–B

1. (A) (r) (B) (q) (C) (p) (D) (s)

2. (A) (s) (B) (p) (C) (q) (D) (r)

PART–C

1. 8 2. 1 3. 2 4. 1 5. 5 6. 5




FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST (Batches: SDAW37B1)

Four Year CRP (for Class IX)

SCIENCE & MATHEMATICS

(OBJECTIVE PAPER) - SAT

PHASE –1 (SET-A)

Time:1.30 hrs. Date : Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions

The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.

Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.

Section – II contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – III contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – IV contains 12 questions of Biology.

Section – V contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Each question carries +1 marks.

There is No negative marking.

Attempt All questions.

Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.

All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.

The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate :

Enrolment Number :

Date of Examination : Centre :




SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN III::: SSSOOOCCCIIIAAALLL SSSCCCIIIEEENNNCCCEEE 1. The most important of the privileges enjoyed by the clergy and nobility (A) right to collect dues (B) ownership of land (C) participate in wars (D) exemption from taxes to the state 2. Which of the following refuted the doctrine of divine and absolute right? (A) John Locke (B) Rousseau (C) Montesquieu (D) Voltaire 3. The Estates General was last convened in (A) 1604 (B) 1614 (C) 1416 (D) 1641 4. Which of the following was a factor in the rise of Napoleon? (A) Fall of the Jacobin government (B) Robespierre‘s Reign of Terror (C) Political instability of the Directory (D) Nationalist forces 5. The term old regime used to describe the society and institution of France (A) Before 1879 (B) Before 1689 (C) Before 1789 (D) Before 1859 6. Which event did not take place during the summer of 1789? (A) The Tennis Court Oath (B) The Great Fear (C) The Reign of Terror (D) The August Decrees 7. What was the main reason that several thousand women marched on Versailles in October 1789? (A) Bread shortages in Paris (B) Universal suffrage for men and women (C) An influenza outbreak (D) An exhibition of Marie-Antoinette‘s fashions 8. The association of people who produced goods together and divided the profits according to the work

done by members is commonly termed as (A) Capitalism (B) Co-operatives (C) Collectivism (D) Socialism 9. In the context of Russia, Duma refers to which of the following: (A) A judicial body (B) A executive body (C) An elected consultative parliament (D) An army establishment 10. Provisional Government in Russia was led by (A) Lenin (B) Stalin (C) Kerenskii (D) Bolsheviks 11. The French Revolution promoted the following idea in Europe: (A) Idea of bureaucracy (B) Idea of aristocracy (C) Idea of socialism (D) Idea of clergy 12. The group of people who wanted a nation that tolerated all religions came to be known as (A) religious-minded club (B) liberals (C) socialists (D) radicals 13. The idea of cooperatives originated with (A) Karl Marx (B) Friedrich Engles (C) Louis Blanc (D) Robert Owen




14. The Second International was (A) an extension of the Second Estate of France (B) a new association of liberals and conservations (C) an international body of socialists (D) the new name given to the Jacobian Club 15. The Predominant occupation of people in Russia at the beginning of the 20

th century was

(A) agriculture (B) manufacturing (C) construction (D) services 16. Which is the westernmost longitude of India?

(A) 97°25 E (B) 68°7E

(C) 37°6E (D) 82°32E 17. Uttrakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with (A) China (B) Bhutan (C) Nepal (D) Myanmar 18. The standard Meridian in India passes through: (A) Mirzapur (B) Kanpur (C) Jaipur (D) Raipur 19. The Standard Meridian of India is

(A) 97°25E (B) 68°7E

(C) 82°30E (D) 83°20E 20. The Bay of Bengal is located on the following side of India: (A) South-West (B) South-East (C) North-West (D) North-East 21. Which of the following country is not larger than India ? (A) Russia (B) USA (C) China (D) France 22. Which island group of India lies to its southeast ? (A) Andaman And Nicobar (B) Lakshadweep (C) Both of these (D) None of these 23. Name the highest peak in the world (A) Mt. Everest (B) Kanchenjunga (C) Makalu (D) Dhaul giri 24. Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of the (A) Aravallis (B) Vindhyas (C) Satpuras (D) Western Himalayan 25. Landslide mostly occurs in……………………… (A) Plateau Region (B) Upper Himalayan Region (C) Lesser Himalayan Region (D) Shiwalik Region 26. Luni is the only river which drains the (A) Deser Region of India (B) Peninsular Region (C) Central Highland (D) Malabar Coast 27. The western part of the northern plains are dominated by (A) Doabs (B) Bhabhar (C) Terai (D) Ox-bow lakes

28. The average height of the Himadri is – (A) 5000 meters (B) 6000 meters (C) 7000 meters (D) 5500 meters 29. Match the following:

Column – A Column – B

(a) Ghana became independent in (i) 1776

(b) North America declared itself independent in (ii) 1991




(c) Soviet Union broke down in (iii) 1948

(d) Myanmar gained freedom from colonial rule in (iv) 1957

(A) (a iv), (b i), (c ii), (d iii) (B) (a iii), (b ii), (c i), (d iv)

(C) (a i), (b ii), (c iii), (d iv) (D) (a ii), (b iii), (c iv), (d i) 30. ―A direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a particular proposal‖ is

related to which of the following concepts? (A) Veto (B) Coup (C) Strike (D) Referendum 31. Who was the President of Chile, when the government was overthrown on 11 September, 1973? (A) Salvador Allende (B) Michelle Bachelet (C) General Augusto Pinochet (D) Lech Walesa 32. In America Universal adult Franchise was introduced in : (A) 1789 (B) 1950 (C) 1935 (D) 1965 33. United Nations was established on: (A) 24th October 1945 (B) 20th October 1946 (C) 20th October 1947 (D) 1st January 1950 34. Which among the following states was among first to try out the modern farming methods in India? (A) Haryana (B) Jharkhand (C) Bihar (D) Odisha 35. Which of the following terms is used for measuring the crop produced on a given piece of land during a

single year? (A) Yield (B) Productivity (C) Cultivation (D) Output 36. Which of the following is not fixed capital? (A) Agricultural land (B) Tube well (C) Fertilisers and pesticides (D) Farm machinery 37. Which of the following statements is not true about small-scale manufacturing in villages? (A) Farmers engage in it to supplement their income (B) Farmers takes help of their family members (C) The production is done mostly at home (D) Farmers produce articles for their own use 38. What is the basic constraint in raising farm production? (A) Capital is scarce (B) Land is fixed (C) Agricultural workers are not willing to work (D) Irrigation is not well developed 39. The cost of cultivation is rising fast due to (A) Government policies (B) Increased use of advanced agricultural inputs (C) Debt of farmers (D) Increase in land area

40. Farm labour is provided by (A) Rich farmers (B) Landless farmers (C) Poor people (D) Children





SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN IIIIII::: PPPHHHYYYSSSIIICCCSSS

(Part A) 1. When a body is thrown up, at the highest point its acceleration is (A) in the upward direction (B) in the downward direction (C) zero (D) in the horizontal direction 2. For a moving body, at any instant of time (A) if the body is not moving, the acceleration is necessarily zero. (B) if the body is slowing, the acceleration is negative. (C) if the body is slowing, the distance is negative. (D) none of these 3. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from (A) area under velocity – time graph (B) area under distance-time graph (C) slope of the velocity-time graph (D) slope of the distance-time graph 4. A body goes 10 km north and 20 km east. What will be the displacement from initial point ? (A) 22.36 km (B) 2 km (C) 5 km (D) 20 km 5. The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown in

figure. The displacement from the origin after 8 sec., is (A) 5 m (B) 16 m (C) 8 m (D) 6 m

V (m/s)

2

4

1 2 3 4 5 6

t (sec.)

0 7 8

2

-2

6. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40sec. What will be his displacement

at the end of 2 min 40 sec? (A) zero (B) 2R

(C) 2R (D) 7R 7. The v-t graph of a moving object is given in figure. The maximum acceleration is (A) 1 cm/s

2 (B) 6 cm/s

2

(C) 8 cm/s2 (D) 5 cm/s

2

20 80

80

velocity (cm/s)

t (sec)

60

40

20

10 30 40





8. Which of the following represents the displacement-time graph of two objects A and B moving with equal velocity ?

(A)

Dis

pla

cem

ent

Time

A

B

(B)

Dis

pla

cem

ent

Time

A B

(C)

Dis

pla

cem

ent

Time

A B

(D)

Dis

pla

cem

ent

Time

A

B

9. Between the two stations a train accelerates uniformly at first, then moves with constant velocity and

finally retards uniformly. If the ratio of the time taken be 1 : 8 : 1 and the max. speed attained be 60 km/h then what is the average speed over the whole journey? (Given that initially and finally the train is at rest)

(A) 48 km/h (B) 50 km/h (C) 54 km/h (D) 56 km/h 10. A stone is thrown with an initial speed of 4.9 m/s from a bridge in vertically upward direction. It falls

down in water after 2 seconds. The height of the bridge is (A) 4.9 m (B) 9.8 m (C) 19.8 m (D) 24.7 m

11. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant

rate to come to rest. If the total time of journey is t, then the maximum velocity acquired by the car is given by

(A) t

(B) t

(C)2 2

t

(D) t





12. Velocity time graph corresponding to displacement time graph shown in

figure is

S

t (A)

U

t

(B)

V

t

(C)

U

t

(D)

V

t

13. A quantity has a value of 6.0 m/s. It may be the (A) speed of a particle (B) velocity of a particle (C) acceleration of a particle (D) position of a particle 14. Which of the following is the velocity time graph for the motion of a ball thrown vertically upwards with

an initial velocity, until it returns to the point of throwing?

(A)

t

v

O

(B)

t

v

O

(C)

t

v

O

(D)

t

v

O





SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN IIIIIIIII::: CCCHHHEEEMMMIIISSSTTTRRRYYY

(Part A) 1. The force that binds the particles of matter together is known as (A) Interparticle space (B) Bond (C) Interparticle force (D) Nuclear force 2. Which has the least energetic molecules? (A) Solids (B) Liquids (C) Gases (D) Plasma 3. If the surrounding pressure of a system decreases, evaporation will (A) Decrease (B) Increase (C) Remain the same (D) Can not say 4. The heat energy which has to be supplied to change the state of a substance is called (A) Heat of vapourization (B) Latent heat (C) Heat of sublimation (D) Heat of fusion 5. Movement of different particles among each other (or their own), so that they become mixed uniformly,

is called (A) Diffusion (B) Brownian motion (C) Osmosis (D) Reverse Osmosis 6. Liquid to solid change is (A) Liquefaction (B) Freezing (C) Vapourization (D) Melting 7. The movement of pollen grains in water was observed by (A) Lavoisier (B) Dalton (C) Robert Brown (D) Bohr 8. Rate of evaporation (A) Increases with increase in temperature (B) Increases with increase in surface area (C) Decrease with increase in humidity (D) All the above 9. Which one of the following statements is true? (A) We perspire more on a sunny day rather than a cloudy day (B) Perspiration is our body‘s method of maintaining a constant temperature (C) The rate of evaporation decreases with increasing wind speed (D) Evaporation causes heating





10. Vander waal forces are called as (A) Intermolecular forces (B) Intramolecular forces (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 11. Dry ice is (A) CO2 (gas) (B) CO2 (solid) (C) H2O (solid) (D) H2O (liquid) 12. The substance which undergoes sublimation is (A) Camphor (B) Naphthalene (C) NH4Cl (D) All of these 13. Which of the following is not matter? (A) Fog (B) Humidity (C) Melting point (D) Blood 14. Ice cubes on hill top, melt at (A) Less than 0

0C (B) Greater than 0

0C

(C) At 00C (D) Can‘t say





SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN IIIVVV::: BBBIIIOOOLLLOOOGGGYYY (Part A)

1. Which of the following statement are correct? (a) The cell membrane is impermeable (b) Cell walls are found in plant cells and fungi (c) Human cells are prokaryotic cells (d) An ostrich egg cell is the largest known cell (A) (a) and (b) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (b) and (d) (D) (a) and (d) 2. Which of the following is / are true for both RNA and DNA? (a) RNA is double-stranded, DNA single-stranded (b) RNA has the base uracil in place of the thymine in DNA (c) RNA contains the sugar ribose, while DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose (d) DNA and RNA both are single stranded (A) (a) and (b) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (b) and (d) (D) (a) and (d) 3. Match the following structures with the name of their discoverer.


(a) Ribosomes (i) Christian de Duve

(b) Mitochondria (ii) Van Beneden

(c) Lysosomes (iii) George Palade

(d) Centrioles (iv) Kolliker

(A) (a i), (b ii), (c iii), (d iv) (B) (a iv), (b iii), (c ii), (d i)

(C) (a iii), (b iv), (c i), (d ii) (D) (a i), (b iv), (c ii), (d iii) 4. Ribosomes are chemically made up of (A) Proteins and lipids (B) Proteins and RNA (C) Proteins and DNA (D) Glucose and Proteins 5. Contractile vacuole in amoeba helps in (A) Digestion of food (B) Storage of food (C) Controlling functions of amoeba (D) Osomoregulation 6. Which cell organelle has oxidative enzymes and helps in removal of toxic substances? (A) Lysosomes (B) Peroxisomes (C) Mitochondria (D) Ribosomes





7. Which of the following statements is/are false? (a) stratified squamous epithelium covers moist surfaces like buccal cavity (b) Transitional epithelium prevents loss of water from blood to the urine (c) Nissl‘s granules are present in granulocytes (d) Abnormal rise in WBC count is called polycythemia (A) a, b and c (B) b, c and d (C) a, c and d (D) a, b and d 8. Name the tissue where cells are living, their walled, isodiametric with intercellular spaces (A) Collenchyma (B) Parenchyma (C) Sclerenchyma (D) All of these 9. Which of the following cells are enucleated at maturity? (A) RBC and WBC (B) RBC and sieve tube (C) Sieve tube and parenchyma (D) Parenchyma and sclerenchyma 10. Striped muscle fibres are held together by (A) areolar connective tissue (B) adipose tissue (C) while fibreous tissue (D) yellow fibrous tissue 11. Which of the following statements is/are true? (A) Striated muscles are involuntary (B) unstriated muscles are voluntary (C) unstated muscles easily get fatigued (D) striated muscles can perform respiration in scarcity of O2 12. Which one of the following tissue is formed by bundles of fibrous tissue and is rich in collagen proteins (A) Tendon (B) Ligament (C) Adipose tissue (D) A and C both





SSSEEECCCTTTIIIOOONNN VVV::: MMMAAATTTHHHMMMEEETTTIIICCCSSS

(Part A)

1. log(ABB

CC

A) +

1log

ABC

is equal to

(A) log(AB – 1

BC – 1

CA – 1

) (B) log(AB + 1

BC + 1

CA + 1

)

(C) B C A 1log A B C

ABC

(D) logA + logB + logC

2. Simplify 2x yy4x 8x 2625 125 3125 25

(A) 54x + 3y

(B) 2

4x 3y5

(C) 2 2

4x 3y5 5 (D)

23x 4y

5

3. If A = 1 1

,B7 4 3 2 19 5 3

and C = 1

5 2 6, which of the following is true?

(A) A < B < C (B) B > A > C (C) A < C < B (D) C > B > A

4. 10 24 60 40

(A) 2 3 5 (B) 5 3 7

(C) 1 + 2 7 (D) 5 3 7

5. If 2 2 2 2

2 2 2 2

x y x y2

x y x y

, then

8 8

8 8

x y

x y

(A) 2 2

3 (B) 2 2

(C) 2 2

5 (D)

3

2 2

6. Find the value of 271 3 2

3

log log log 2 .

(A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0





7. Simplify

13 3

a b

a b

log x .log x

log x log x

(A) logabx (B) logxa + logxb (C) logxab (D) 1 8. If 2 + log3x = 2log3y, then ‗x‘ in terms of ‗y‘ is:

(A) 9y2 (B)

2

9

y

(C) 2y

9 (D) 3y

2

9. If n = (2006)!, then 2 3 2006

1 1 1...

log n log n log n is:

(A) 2006! (B) – 1 (C) 2006 (D) 1

10. If x = 3 + 2 2 , then the value of 1

xx

is:

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 2 2 (D) 3 3

11. If (a – 1)

2 + (b + 2)

2 + (c + 1)

2 = 0, then the value of 2a – 3b + 7c is:

(A) 12 (B) 3 (C) – 11 (D) 1

12. If x2 = y + z, y

2 = z + x, z

2 = x + y, then the value of

1 1 1

x 1 y 1 z 1

is

(A) – 1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

13. If x4 +

4

1

x = 119 and x > 1, then the value of x

3 –

3

1

x is:

(A) 54 (B) 18 (C) 72 (D) 36





14. If 2x = 3

y = 6

–z then

1 1 1

x y z

is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 3

2 (D)

1

2

15. Minimum value of x2 +

2

13

x 1

is

(A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) – 3 (D) – 2

16. If x2 + 1 = 2x, then the value of

4

2

2

1x

x

x 3x 1

is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2

17. In the figure below, if AB || CD and CE ED, then the value of x is:

(A) 53° (B) 63° (C) 37° (D) 45°

E A B

C D

37°

x°

90°

18. if in any triangle ABC, the base BC is produced in both ways, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C

is

(A) – A (B) + A

(C) A2

(B)

A

2

19. In the given figure, AB || CD. If EAB = 50° and ECD =

60°, then AEB = ? (A) 50° (B) 60° (C) 70° (D) 55°

A

B

E

C

D

60° 50°

20. In an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, A is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocentre. If BOC = 54°, then

BAC is (A) 108° (B) 126° (C) 136° (D) 116°





FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST (Batches: SDAW37B1)

Four Year CRP (for Class IX)

SCIENCE & MATHEMATICS

(OBJECTIVE PAPER)

PHASE –1

ANSWER (SET-A)

Social Science-SECTION-I (Part –A) 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. A 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. B 40. B

Physics-SECTION-II (Part –A) 1 B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B

Chemistry-SECTION-III (Part –A) 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. B

Biology-SECTION-IV (Part –A)

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. A

Mathematics-SECTION-V (Part –A) 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. B




FIITJEE COMMON TEST For Class IX

PHASE – I (B – Lot) SET - A

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) QP CODE:

Time: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 50 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer

Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and

electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on

duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test

Booklet with them.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :

1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.

2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:




Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Find the missing term(s): 1. 1, 10, 17, 22, 25, ? (A) 26 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 29 2. 8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203 (A) 80 (B) 53 (C) 58 (D) 69 3. 2, 10, 19, 29, 40, 52, 65, 79, 94, ? (A) 110 (B) 109 (C) 108 (D) None of these 4. 3, 6, 21, 28, 55, 66, ?, 120 (A) 103 (B) 104 (C) 105 (D) 106 5. 7776, 1296, 216, ? (A) 16 (B) 36 (C) 108 (D) 21 Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Which set of letters when placed at the gaps sequentially shall complete the series? 6. a__bcab__cabc__aab__ab__c (A) abccb (B) cacbc (C) aabcb (D) aabac 7. c_baa_aca_cacab_acac_bca (A) acbaa (B) bbcaa (C) bccab (D) cbaac 8. b__ccacca__ba__bbc__bc__a (A) acbca (B) bacab (C) abaaa (D) baabc 9. __abcb__cac__aba__bcb__ca (A) abbca (B) abcab (C) bcaac (D) bbcaa 10. _bcc_ac_aabb_ab_cc (A) aabca (B) abaca (C) bacab (D) bcaca

Space for Rough Work




Directions (Q. 11 to 14): Find the missing term(s): 11. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ? (A) ELS (B) FMR (C) GKS (D) FLR 12. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JKSTL, ?, POQPR (A) MQORN (B) QMONR (C) MQNRO (D) NQMOR 13. ?, PSVYB, EHKNQ, TWZCF, ILORU (A) BEHKN (B) ADGJM (C) ZCFIL (D) IMPSV 14. A3P, C5N, E8K, G12G, ? (A) I16D (B) I17B (C) I17D (D) J16B Directions (Q. 15 to 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes—A, B and C. There are three girls among them studying one each of these institutes. Two of them study mechanical engineering, two studying medicine and one each study biotechnology, pharmacy and electrical engineering. R studies with only her best friend P who studies pharmacy in college B. No girl studies either biotechnology or electrical engineering. T studies mechanical engineering in college A and his brother W studies electrical engineering in college C. None of the two studying medicine studies in college B. S studies biotechnology along with T and Z. 15. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine? (A) SZ (B) ZW (C) ZQ (D) TQ 16. Which of the following three represents the three girls? (A) SZQ (B) ZRQ (C) SRQ (D) Data inadequate 17. In which college does Q study? (A) A (B) B (C) A or B (D) C 18. In which colleges do three of them study? (A) C (B) B (C) A or C (D) None of these 19. Which of the following is the field of study of Z? (A) Medicine (B) Mechanical (C) Electrical (D) Data inadequate





Directions (Q. 20 to 22): Read the following information and answer the questions given below: Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows:

(i) E and F have one letter between them. (ii) G is to the right of A. (iii) B is to the immediate left of F. (iv) There is one letter between D and A. (v) D is not G‘s neighbour. (vi) G and F have two letters between them.

20. Which letter is second to the left of letter A? (A) C (B) B (C) D (D) E 21. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letter series so obtained? (A) D (B) A (C) E (D) None of these 22. Which pair of the letters is adjacent to the letter B? (A) A and C (B) G and E (C) E and F (D) C and A Directions (Q. 23 to 28): The second figure in the first part of the problem figure bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the second part. You have to select the figure from the set of answer figures which would replace the sign of question mark (?). 23.

24.

25.

26.





27.

28.

29. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following numbers

cannot represent the total number of children in the class?

(A) 48 (B) 44

(C) 42 (D) 40

30. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total

number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.

(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 15 31. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half the number of men. In the city Y, 10

men left the bus and five women boarded in to it. Now, number of men and women becomes equal. In the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?

(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 45 32. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, ―If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many as I

have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as E has‖, A and C together have twice as many cards as E has B and D together also have the same number of cards as A and C have taken together. If all together they have 150 cards, how many cards has C got?

(A) 28 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 35

33. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but

not six, all pigeons but not six, and all ducks but not six. How many birds had he in all?

(A) 9 (B) 18

(C) 27 (D) 36 34. Thirty five sweets are distributed among Sita and Gita in the ratio 4 : 3. Find the number of sweets

received by Sita. (A) 28 (B) 21 (C) 20 (D) 15





35. The number of marbles with A and B are in the ratio of 10 : 11. Which of the following cannot be a

possible number of marbles with A and B together? (A) 189 (B) 210 (C) 231 (D) 153 36. Four pens and five erasers cost Rs. 32. Five pens and four erasers cost Rs. 31. Find the cost of each

pen (in Rs.) (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

37. The third proportional to (a b) and (a2 b

2) is

(A) (a b) (a2 b

2) (B) (a + b) (a

2 + b

2)

(C) (a + b) (a2 b

2) (D) (a b) (a

2 + b

2)

38. If a : b = 3 : 7, find the value of (5a + b) : (4a + 5b). (A) 15 : 44 (B) 22 : 35 (C) 15 : 49 (D) 22 : 47

39. Choose the odd one out. (A) OTP (B) ABA (C) SZX (D) UVB 40. Choose the odd one out. (A) FAA (B) OFF (C) ATT (D) IFF 41. Choose the odd one out. (A) DW (B) HS (C) MN (D) KO 42. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) Dog (B) Horse (C) Fox (D) Cat 43. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) House (B) Cottage (C) School (D) Palace 44. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Geography (D) Botany 45. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) Cot (B) Sheet (C) Quilt (D) Pillow





46. Starting from his house Nishant traveled 10 m towards West, then turns towards the right and travels 40 m. He then travels 25 m East followed by 50 m towards the South to reach his college. What is the approximate distance between his house and the college?

(A) 18 m (B) 19 m (C) 20 m (D) 21 m 47. Raj travels 6 m towards the East, he then turns right and travels 8 m. What is the distance between the

initial and final positions of Raj? (A) 10 m (B) 11 m (C) 12 m (D) 13 m Directions (Q. 48 to 50): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by selecting the correct option from the given alternatives. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting in a circle. (i) F is second the right of G. (ii) B is the neighbour of F but not of E. (iii) E, the neighbour of C, is fourth to the right of G. (iv) D is between E and A. 48. Who is fourth to the left of G? (A) D (B) E (C) C (D) Cannot be determined 49. Who is to the left of G? (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) Cannot be determined 50. Who are the neighbours of F? (A) E and C (B) F and B (C) A and B (D) C and B








ANSWERS

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. D 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. D








INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point pen.











Booklet with them.










Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Find the missing term(s): 1. 1, 10, 17, 22, 25, ? (A) 26 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 29 2. 8, 11, 15, 22, 33, 51, ?, 127, 203 (A) 80 (B) 53 (C) 58 (D) 69 3. 2, 10, 19, 29, 40, 52, 65, 79, 94, ? (A) 110 (B) 109 (C) 108 (D) None of these 4. 3, 6, 21, 28, 55, 66, ?, 120 (A) 103 (B) 104 (C) 105 (D) 106 5. 7776, 1296, 216, ? (A) 16 (B) 36 (C) 108 (D) 21 Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Which set of letters when placed at the gaps sequentially shall complete the series? 6. a__bcab__cabc__aab__ab__c (A) abccb (B) cacbc (C) aabcb (D) aabac 7. c_baa_aca_cacab_acac_bca (A) acbaa (B) bbcaa (C) bccab (D) cbaac 8. b__ccacca__ba__bbc__bc__a (A) acbca (B) bacab (C) abaaa (D) baabc 9. __abcb__cac__aba__bcb__ca (A) abbca (B) abcab (C) bcaac (D) bbcaa 10. _bcc_ac_aabb_ab_cc (A) aabca (B) abaca (C) bacab (D) bcaca





Directions (Q. 11 to 14): Find the missing term(s): 11. LRX, DJP, VBH, NTZ, ? (A) ELS (B) FMR (C) GKS (D) FLR 12. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JKSTL, ?, POQPR (A) MQORN (B) QMONR (C) MQNRO (D) NQMOR 13. ?, PSVYB, EHKNQ, TWZCF, ILORU (A) BEHKN (B) ADGJM (C) ZCFIL (D) IMPSV 14. A3P, C5N, E8K, G12G, ? (A) I16D (B) I17B (C) I17D (D) J16B Directions (Q. 15 to 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes—A, B and C. There are three girls among them studying one each of these institutes. Two of them study mechanical engineering, two studying medicine and one each study biotechnology, pharmacy and electrical engineering. R studies with only her best friend P who studies pharmacy in college B. No girl studies either biotechnology or electrical engineering. T studies mechanical engineering in college A and his brother W studies electrical engineering in college C. None of the two studying medicine studies in college B. S studies biotechnology along with T and Z. 15. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine? (A) SZ (B) ZW (C) ZQ (D) TQ 16. Which of the following three represents the three girls? (A) SZQ (B) ZRQ (C) SRQ (D) Data inadequate 17. In which college does Q study? (A) A (B) B (C) A or B (D) C 18. In which colleges do three of them study? (A) C (B) B (C) A or C (D) None of these 19. Which of the following is the field of study of Z? (A) Medicine (B) Mechanical (C) Electrical (D) Data inadequate





Directions (Q. 20 to 22): Read the following information and answer the questions given below: Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows:

(i) E and F have one letter between them. (ii) G is to the right of A. (iii) B is to the immediate left of F. (iv) There is one letter between D and A. (v) D is not G‘s neighbour. (vi) G and F have two letters between them.

20. Which letter is second to the left of letter A? (A) C (B) B (C) D (D) E 21. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letter series so obtained? (A) D (B) A (C) E (D) None of these 22. Which pair of the letters is adjacent to the letter B? (A) A and C (B) G and E (C) E and F (D) C and A Directions (Q. 23 to 28): The second figure in the first part of the problem figure bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the second part. You have to select the figure from the set of answer figures which would replace the sign of question mark (?). 23.

24.

25.

26.





27.

28.

29. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following numbers

cannot represent the total number of children in the class?

(A) 48 (B) 44

(C) 42 (D) 40

30. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total

number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.

(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 15 31. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half the number of men. In the city Y, 10

men left the bus and five women boarded in to it. Now, number of men and women becomes equal. In the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?

(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 45 32. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, ―If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many as I

have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as E has‖, A and C together have twice as many cards as E has B and D together also have the same number of cards as A and C have taken together. If all together they have 150 cards, how many cards has C got?

(A) 28 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 35

33. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but

not six, all pigeons but not six, and all ducks but not six. How many birds had he in all?

(A) 9 (B) 18

(C) 27 (D) 36 34. Thirty five sweets are distributed among Sita and Gita in the ratio 4 : 3. Find the number of sweets

received by Sita. (A) 28 (B) 21 (C) 20 (D) 15





35. The number of marbles with A and B are in the ratio of 10 : 11. Which of the following cannot be a

possible number of marbles with A and B together? (A) 189 (B) 210 (C) 231 (D) 153 36. Four pens and five erasers cost Rs. 32. Five pens and four erasers cost Rs. 31. Find the cost of each

pen (in Rs.) (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

37. The third proportional to (a b) and (a2 b

2) is

(A) (a b) (a2 b

2) (B) (a + b) (a

2 + b

2)

(C) (a + b) (a2 b

2) (D) (a b) (a

2 + b

2)

38. If a : b = 3 : 7, find the value of (5a + b) : (4a + 5b). (A) 15 : 44 (B) 22 : 35 (C) 15 : 49 (D) 22 : 47

39. Choose the odd one out. (A) OTP (B) ABA (C) SZX (D) UVB 40. Choose the odd one out. (A) FAA (B) OFF (C) ATT (D) IFF 41. Choose the odd one out. (A) DW (B) HS (C) MN (D) KO 42. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) Dog (B) Horse (C) Fox (D) Cat 43. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) House (B) Cottage (C) School (D) Palace 44. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Geography (D) Botany 45. Choose the word which is different from the rest. (A) Cot (B) Sheet (C) Quilt (D) Pillow





46. Starting from his house Nishant traveled 10 m towards West, then turns towards the right and travels 40 m. He then travels 25 m East followed by 50 m towards the South to reach his college. What is the approximate distance between his house and the college?

(A) 18 m (B) 19 m (C) 20 m (D) 21 m 47. Raj travels 6 m towards the East, he then turns right and travels 8 m. What is the distance between the

initial and final positions of Raj? (A) 10 m (B) 11 m (C) 12 m (D) 13 m Directions (Q. 48 to 50): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by selecting the correct option from the given alternatives. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting in a circle. (i) F is second the right of G. (ii) B is the neighbour of F but not of E. (iii) E, the neighbour of C, is fourth to the right of G. (iv) D is between E and A. 48. Who is fourth to the left of G? (A) D (B) E (C) C (D) Cannot be determined 49. Who is to the left of G? (A) A (B) C (C) B (D) Cannot be determined 50. Who are the neighbours of F? (A) E and C (B) F and B (C) A and B (D) C and B








ANSWERS

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. D 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. D




FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Applicable for Class IX

PHASE TEST

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST

Time: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 50

Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point

pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is

strictly prohibited.









Booklet with them.



2. For each question you will be awarded 1 mark if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.




I. Reading comprehension : [5] Can you imgine a whole day without telling lies ? Yes, of course‘, most people would answer, but then

they‘ve probably forgotten all those little lies that are said so easily – ‗This is delicious.‘ ‗You look lovely in that shirt.‘ ‗I‘d love to come with you.‘ etc. Lying is a way of making life run more smoothly.

We are told not to lie from the moment we learn how to do it. According to psychologist Richard

Wiseman, this is at the age of about four when children realise they can deceive people. We are not born liars.

In childhood, the line between imagination and lying is often not clear. Children are praised for creative

imagination but generally criticised for hiding the truth. As adults we have definite ideas about which kind of lies are OK and which are not. Very often the

reason for the lie is the important thing in accepting or rejecting the lie. Generally speaking there are three types of lies, and liars. The first sort of liar wants to please people,

the second wants to protect him or herself, the third sort doesn‘t care about other people and lies to get what he or she wants.

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow, choosing the best option : 1. Lying is : (A) a way of making life run somhow (B) a way of making life run somoothly (C) way of making life run anyhow (D) none of the above 2. Children (A) are born liars (B) are quick to learn how to lie (C) never tell lies (D) realise early they can lie to deceive people 3. According to the author (A) Some lies are ok and some are not (B) children are unable to differentiate between lying and imagination

(C) There are basically only two kinds of lies and liars (D) We are taught to lie from the moment we can speak. 4. The phrase ‗creative imagination‘ means nearly the same as : (A) lying and liars (B) using one‘s imagination (C) making up things on one‘s own (D) thinking of distant things 5. A suitable title for the passage would be : (A) The truth about lying (B) Children as liars

(C) Teaching children to lie (D) Adult liars




II Passage - 2 Read the passage given and answer the questions, choosing the best option : [5] ‗What can we do to stop gorillas in zoos from getting bored ?‘ Not a question that is uppermost in most

people‘s minds but one that Ian Turner, keeper at Longleat Safari Park, had to think about with Samba and Nico, two West African lowland gorillas in his care.

Fifteen years ago when the two gorillas arrived in the UK from a zoo in Switzerland, they had to spend

a period of six months in isolation, or quarantine as it is called. Ian and the other keepers at the safari park realised that Samba and Nico were suffering from boredom.

Ian remembered a TV programme he had seen about a gorilla in Columbus Zoo, USA, whose stress

levels had been reduced by putting a TV in his enclosure. So Samba and Nico were given a TV for their six-month isolaion period. When this period ended, the two gorillas proved to be very keen on their new entertainment – so much so that they refused to eat and made noisy protests when their TV was temporarily removed.

6. Gorillas in 2005 (A) don‘t know the meaning of boredom (B) are not often easily bored

(C) can suffer from boredom (D) people who come to watch them

7. Turner introduced a TV set into the gorillas‘ enclosure because : (A) they wanted a TV set (B) They were making noisy protests

(C) he had an extra TV set (D) He wanted to reduce their stress levels

8. The two gorillas had come from : (A) Columbus zoo, USA (B) A zoo in Switzerland

(C) West Africa (D) Asia

9. The word ‗quarantine‘ most nearly means : (A) isolation, to check for illnesses (B) enclosure away from other animals

(C) noisy protests (D) refusal to eat food

10. A suitable title for the passage would be : (A) Smart gorillas who have everything (B) Lonely gorillas

(C) Gorillas suffer from loneliness (D) Boring gorillas II. Rearrange these jumbled words / phrases to make meaningful sentences : [8] 11. | shopping | most supermarket customers | lists | do not use P Q R S (A) PQRS (B) QSPR (C) RSQP (D) SRQP 12. | what they intend to buy | but they know | the store | when they enter | P Q R S (A) RPQS (B) RQSP (C) SPRQ (D) QPSR 13. | to find it | also know | they | where | P Q R S (A) SQPQ (B) RQSP (C) SPQR (D) RSPQ 14. | wants them | the supermarket manager | they didn‘t know they needed | to buy things | P Q R S (A) PQRS (B) RSPQ (C) SQPR (D) QPSR 15. | from time to time | the positions of items | by changing | he achieves this successfully P Q R S (A) SRQP (B) QSPQ (C) PQRS (D) RSPQ 16. | slower selling products | to | he moves | newer places | P Q R S (A) QRPQ (B) RPQS (C) QSPR (D) RSQP 17. | the basic things | where shoppers expect to find | they want | these are places P Q R S




(A) RPQS (B) QPRS (C) RPSQ (D) SQPR 18. | by moving | thus | the position of goods | supermarkets sell more items | P Q R S (A) RPSQ (B) SQPR (C) QSPR (D) RPQS III. Fill in the blanks in the passage given below choosing from the given options : [10]

‗Walking to the Mountain‘ is 19 about walking to not just 20 mountain but Mount Kailash. It‘s a

21 place for pilgrims, of all religions and 22 so for thousands of 23 . Author Wendy Teasdill

took the 24 route, the ‗Southern 25 ‘. She hitch-hiked, rode trucks and finally, 26 the final 400

miles. She survived on biscuits and noodles, 27 flooded rivers and 28 to tell her story !

19. (A) a (B) all (C) the (D) an 20. (A) few (B) some (C) any (D) a few 21. (A) lonely (B) special (C) clean (D) quiet 22. (A) has been (B) had been (C) is (D) was 23. (A) centuries (B) ages (C) years (D) decades 24. (A) smooth (B) easy (C) soft (D) hard 25. (A) Road (B) Route (C) Trial (D) Trail 26. (A) ran (B) cycled (C) climbed (D) walked 27. (A) swim (B) swim on (C) crossed (D) rode 28. (A) tried (B) lived (C) managed (D) found III. Re arrange the paragraph in the right order to make it meaningful. The first sentence is in the

correct position :

29. The Sahara Desert itself is as large as the US without Alaska. [2] (P) But the Tuaregs have learned to adapt. (Q) They are mainly nomadic.

(R) To outsiders it looks like an impossible place to live. (S) They move around with their animals between dry – and wet - reason camps

(A) SPQR (B) QRPS (C) SQPR (D) RPQS 30. The Tuarges, are descended from the original inhabitants of Northern Africa. (P) They have a tradition of oral and written poetry (Q) Rock inscriptions bear proof of this poetic tradition.

(R) These inscriptions are found throughout the Sahara (S) They speak a ‗Berber‘ language which has its own alphabet

(A) SRQP (B) SPQR (C) PQRS (D) QRPS IV. Match these definitions of people with the terms used to describe them : [1] 1. Lover of peace 2. Lover of his own country 3. Lover of mankind 4. Lover of material things

P. Materialist Q. Pacifist R. Philanthropist S. Narcissist T. Patriot




31. (A) SQPR (B) QTRP (C) TQRP (D) STRQ V. Choose the word that fits in the sentence: [5] 32. He loves his home, he feels it‘s his ______. (A) casino (B) hell (C) bliss (D) paradise




33. They erected a _____ in memory of the brave soldiers. (A) memorial (B) monument (C) statue (D) building 34. The trucks were sent to the ____ to load the lime stone slabs. (A) well (B) hole (C) pit (D) quarry 35. He was the only _____ person at the contest. (A) eligible (B) eliminate (C) illegible (D) elected 36. Children really like ____ because animals speak in these stories. (A) myths (B) legends (C) fables (D) tales VI. Choose the correct meaning of the idioms /phrases from the given options : [4] 37. Raining cats and dogs : (A) raining on animals (B) raining heavily (C) raining lightly (D) not raining at all 38. To call a spade a spade : (A) talk straight (B) to keep calling people (C) to keep repeating things (D) to call names 39. to wait with bated breath (A) to wait without hope (B) to wait anxionsly and expectantly (C) to wait for a long time (D) to wait holding one‘s breath 40. Through thick and thin (A) by all the means one can do (B) in all circumstances

(C) by fat and thin persons (D) through thick and narrow walls VII. Choose the word which has nearly the same meaning as the word in bold : [5] 41. I M P E R T I N E N T (A) kind (B) respectful (C) rude (D) cheerful 42. C A J O L E (A) scorn (B) coax (C) scold (D) ridicule 43. D E L U G E (A) Pollute (B) Collision (C) Locate (D) Flood 44. M E R C U R I A L (A) Quick-changing (B) Heavy (C) Mechanical (D) Clever 45. D O G M A T I C (A) Angry (B) Opinionated (C) Powerful (D) Vicious




VIII. Choose the word which is the opposite in meaning to the word in bold : [5] 46. D W I N D L I N G (A) availability (B) increasing (C) reducing (D) scarcity 47. V A N I T Y (A) pride (B) humility (C) dignity (D) selflessness 48. S U P E R F I C I A l (A) deep (B) artificial (C) overt (D) fictitions 49. W A R I L Y (A) suspiciously (B) carelessly (C) carefully (D) cautiously 50. S P O R A D I C (A) sharp (B) frequent (C) rare (D) coordinated

* * * * * *




PHASE TEST (ANSWER KEY ) ENGLISH LANGUAGE

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)

21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (B)

31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B)

41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (B)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Time Allotted: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 240

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

BA

TC

HE

S –

13

17

(C L

OT

)

FIITJEE SET - A

CPT - 2

CODE:XXXX.0

PAPER - 1




INSTRUCTIONS

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.

2. This question paper contains Three Parts.

3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.

4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C

5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on

OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment

No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. 3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. (i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each

question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________




Section – I (PHYSICS) PART – A

Single Correct Choice Type 1. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along straight line with initial

velocity 5 m/s. The force acting on particle is changing with time according to given force time graph. The velocity of particle at t = 20 sec is (m/s) (A) 135 (B) 140 (C) 130 (D) 120

5 15 20Time(s)

Fo

rce

(N

)

9

2. According to given velocity – time graph, which of the following is

correct (A) Force increases with time (B) Force decreases with time (C) Force is constant (D) Force first increases then decreases

Time

Ve

locity

3. A body of 5 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s collide with another body of mass 10 kg at rest. After collision

both move with same velocity. The common velocity is ___ m/s (A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 1.5 m/s (D) 3 m/s 4. A batsman hits a ball moving with speed 5 m/s such that the ball retraces its path with a speed of 10

m/s. The ball remains in contact with bat 0.01 sec. The force exerted on ball by the bat is ____N (mass of ball is 1 kg)

(A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 1500 (D) 2000 5. The weight of a body of mass 4 kg at height R from surface of earth is ___Newton (R is radius of earth) (A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) 10 6. If the earth expands to double of It‘s radius keeping the density of earth constant. The weight of an

object on earth surface will change ____ times

(A) 2 (B) 1

4 (C) 4 (D)

1

2

7. At what height above the surface of earth the value of g becomes 1

9 times the value of (R is radius of

earth) (A) R (B) 2R (C) 3R (D) 9R





8. A satellite of mass 1000 kg is moving around earth due to gravitation attraction at height 4 R from

surface of earth. The centripetal force acting on planet is ___Newton (R is radius of earth) (A) 1000 N (B) 2000N (C) 400N (D) None

Multiple Correct Choice Type 9. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on horizontal surface at rest. Which of the following statements are true?

(g = 10 m/s2)

(A) Normal force on block is 20 N in vertical downward direction (B) Normal force on block is 20 N in vertically upward direction (C) Friction force acting on block is zero (D) Contact force between block and ground is 20 N 10. A block of mass 3 kg is suspended through a rope of mass 1kg as

shown in figure which of the following statements are correct? (A) Tension at point A = 30 N (B) Tension at point C = 40 N (C) Tension at point B > Tension of point A (D) Tension at point A > Tension of point B

3 kg

A

B

C

11. A satellite (mass m) is moving around earth (mass em ) is circular path of radius ‗R‘. Which of the

following statements are correct?

(A) Gravitational force acting on satellite is 2

eGm m

R

(B) Acceleration of satellite is 2

eGm

R

(C) Speed of satellite is eGm

R

(D) Velocity of satellite remains constant

12. Two particles of mass 1m and 2m are kept at distance R. Only gravitational force is acting between

them. Mark correct statement(s)

(A) Gravitational force on mass 1m is 1 2

2

Gm m

R

(B) Magnitude of force acting on 1m = magnitude of force acting on 2m

(C) Magnitude of acceleration of 1m = magnitude of acceleration of 2m

(D) Magnitude of acceleration of 1m magnitude of acceleration of 2m





PART - B

MATRIX TYPE

1. Four blocks of mass 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg, 6 kg are suspended through massless rope and massless pulley as shown in figure. Match the statements in column I with result in column II.

6 kg

3 kg

2 kg

1 kg

D

C

B

A

Column – I Column - II

(A) Tension at point A is (P) 60

(B) Tension at point B is (Q) 0

(C) Tension at point C is (R) 10

(D) Net force on 2 kg is block (S) 30

2. A block of mass 100 kg is moving along straight line passing

through centre of earth as shown in figure. Acceleration due to gravity at surface of earth is 10 m/s

2 and radius of earth is R.

Match the statement in column I with result in statement II. OA = R/4, OC = 2R, OB = 3R/4, OD = 4R

D CB A

earth

O


(A) Weight of block at point A (P) zero

(B) Weight of block at point B (Q) 250 N

(C) Weight of block at point C (R) 750 N

(D) Weight of block at point D (S) 62.5 N





PART – C

Numerical Based 1. A block of mass 5 kg is falling down with constant velocity near earth surface. Net force acting on block

is 10n Newton. Find out value of n. (g = 10 m/s2)

2. Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are shown in pulley block system. Net force acting on 4 kg block is n

Newton. Find out value of N. 3. Two Iron sphere of same density are placed touching each other. Radius of each sphere is R.

Gravitational force acting between these two sphere is proportional to nR . Find out magnitude of n.

4. A block of mass 10 kg is taken from surface of earth to moon. Find out value of

mass of block on earth

mass of block on moon.

5. A block is thrown vertically upward with speed 40 m/s. Highest height reached by block is 10 N meter.

Find out value of N. 6. A particle is moving in circle of radius 7m with speed 11 m/s. Displacement of particle from t = 0 to t = 6

sec is 7N. Find out value of N.





Section – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – A

Single Correct Choice Type 1. Identify the solid – solid homogeneous mixture (A) German silver (B) Latex (C) Face cream (D) None of these 2. Sulphur is soluble in (A) CO2 (B) Cs2 (C) CO (D) None of these 3. Milk is a colloidal solution in which fat is (A) dispersion medium (B) dispersed phase (C) both (A) and (B) (D) None of these 4. Name the two elements which become liquid slightly above 30

0C.

(A) cesium and gallium (B) mercury and gallium (C) bromine and cesium (D) None of these 5. How will you separate fine mud particles floating in water. (A) by sublimation (B) by chromatography (C) by coagulation (D) fractional distillation 6. Which of the following is compound (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Aluminium (C) Iodine (D) Sulphur 7. We pass a beam of light through a solution. If the path of beam of light becomes visible, then the

solution is a (A) True solution (B) Colloidal solution (C) Suspension (D) None of these 8. The movement of colloidal particles towards one of the electrodes under the inflyence of an electric field

is called (A) centrifugation (B) electrophoresis (C) metamorphes (D) fullerene

Multiple Correct Choice Type 9. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature? (A) Air (B) Ice (C) Salt and Water (D) Soil 10. Which of the following are physical change? (A) Burning of paper (B) Rusting of iron (C) Melting of wax (D) Drawing of wire of iron metal 11. Which of the following solid (dispersed phase) in liquid (dispersion medium) sol? (A) Starch sol (B) Muddy water (C) Fog (D) Jelly 12. Which of the following are solid foam? (A) Pumice stone (B) Froth (C) Bread (D) Shoe polish





PART - B

MATRIX TYPE

1. Match the following.


(A) Tyndall effect (P) Oil in water emulsion

(B) Milk (Q) Blue vitriol

(C) Liquid in solid (R) Aerated drink

(D) Gas in liquid (S) Colloidal particle



(A) Mother liquor (P) Filtrate left after crystallision

(B) Growth of plant (Q) Carbon disulphide

(C) Smoke and Fog (R) Aerosol

(D) Sulphur is soluble in (S) Chemical change

PART – C Numerical Based

1. The atomicity of phosphrous is 2. A solution contains 10 gram of common salt in 240 gram of water. Calculate the concentration in terms

of mass by mass percentage of the solution. 3. Calculate the mass of glucose required to make 50 gram of 16% solution of glucose solution 4. A solution contains 4 ml of alcohol in 46 ml of water. Calculate the volume by volume percentage of the

solution. 5. 2.5 gram of solute are dissolved in 50 gram of water to form a saturated solution at 298 K. 6. How many litres of a 2.0% (w/v) glucose solution would you take to obtain 20 gram glucose?





Section – III (MATHEMATICS) PART – A

Single Correct Choice Type

1. The sides of a are 11 cm, 15 cm and 16 cm. The altitude of the largest side is

(A) 30 7 cm (B) 157

2cm (C)

15 7

4cm (D) 30 cm

2. A square and an equilateral have equal perimeters. If the diagonals of the square is 12 2 cm, then

area of is

(A) 24 2 cm2 (B) 24 3 cm

2 (C) 48 3 cm

2 (D) 64 3 cm

2

3. If the sides of the triangle is reduced to half then the decreased in area of is (A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 300%‘

4. If the bisectors of angle at B and C of ABC must at O and 0A x then BOC is equal to

(A)

0090

2

x (B)

0090

2

x (C)

00180

2

x (D)

00180

2

x

5. In a right ,ABC right angled at B, if 2A C than AC is

(A) 2BC (B) 2AB

(C) AB + BC (D) 2

AB BC or None of these

6. In , &ABC AC AB D is a point of AC such that AB = AD then which of the following is true

(A) AB > BC (B) BD > BC (C) BC > BD (D) None of these

7. Area of formed by , , , & ,a b c b c a c a b is

(A) 0 (B) abc (C) 2

a b c (D) None of these

8. The line 3 9 0x y divides the line segments joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) then the ratio of the

segment is (A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3

Multiple Correct Choice Type

9. For what value of K, A (2, 8), B(4, K) and C(1, b) is an isosceles with AB = AC (A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 7 and 9 both (D) Neither of Nor 9





10. If the coordinate of two points A and B are (3, 4) and (5, -2) respectively. What will be coordinate of any

point P, if PA = PB and area of 10PAB

(A) (7, 2) (B) (7, 1) (C) (7, 2) or (1, 0) (D) (7,2) and (7, 1)

11. D, E and F are the mid points the sides of BC, CA and AB respectively of ABC , then DEF

congruent to

(A) AFE (B) AEF (C) BFD (D) CDE

12. Which of the following is correct

(A) sum of the three sides of a is less than the sum of its three altitudes.

(B) sum of any two sides of a is greater than twice the median drawn to the third side. (C) difference of any two sides of a triangle is equal to the third side. (D) of all the line segments that can be drawn from a point to a line not containing it, the perpendicular

line segment is the shortest one.

PART - B MATRIX TYPE

1. ABCD is a quad. such that AB CD and 25, 13 & 15AB CD BC DA , then


(A) Perimeter of BCE (P) 18 21

(B) Ar. of BCE (Q) 3 21

(C) Ar. of trap. ABCD (R) 42

(D) Distance between AB and CD (S) 57 21

2. ABCD is a quad, then


(A) AB + BC + DA + CD > (P) BC

(B) CD + DA + AB > (Q) AD

(C) AB + BC + CD > (R) AB

(D) AC + BC > (S) 2AC


1. In the adjoining figure, what is the value of x.

2 13x

0x

050





2. In the adjoining figure y is

S

R

T

O

094

0y

3. If the diagonal of square is 2 2 then area of square is

4. If the smaller diagonal of rhombus is 6 and length of side is 5 5 then area of rhombus is ___

5. In rt. ABC rt. angle at B, if 2A C and AB = 4 then AC is

6. If the coordinates of , 2 , 2, 2 & 3, ,A t t B t t C t t then the area of ABC is





FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Applicable for class- IX(C LOT)


(PHASE – 2) SET - A ANSWERS

SECTION – I (PHYSICS)

PART – A

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B, C, D 10. A, B, C 11. A, B, C 12. A, B, D

PART – B

1. A R B S C P D Q 2. A Q B R C Q D S

PART – C 1. 0 2. 8 3. 4 4. 1 5. 8 6. 2

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – A

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. A, B, D 10. C, D 11. A, B 12. A, C

PART – B 1. A S B P C Q D R 2. A P B S C R D Q

PART – C

1. 4 2. 4 3. 8 4. 8 5. 5 6. 1

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

PART – A 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A, B, C 10. A, C 11. A 12. D

PART – B

1. A R B P C S D Q 2. A S B P C Q D R

PART – C

1. 9 2. 8 3. 3 4. 6 5. 8 6. 4

Paper Code

XXXX.0




HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS 1. B Sol. Change in momentum = Area under F – t graph

5 135m v

2. C Sol. Slope is constant. 3. A

Sol. 5 3

1 /5 10

V m s

4. C

Sol. 1 10 5

15000.01

m v uF N

t

5. D

Sol. 2

41

h

g gg

h

R

6. A

Sol. 4

3g G R 7. B

Sol. 2

1

h

gg

h

R

8. C

Sol.

2 2 255

e eGM m GM mF

RR

9. B, C, D Sol.

2 g

2kg N

2N g

10. A, B, C Sol.

30

2kg

AT

30AT NA 3kg

1

CT

40N

40CT N

Tension at point B will greater than point A due to mass of AB rope. 11. A, B, C

Sol. 2

egravity

Gm mF

R

2

2

eGm mmv

R R




2

2

eGmva

R R

eGm

vR

Speed is constant but velocity changes. 12. A, B, D

Sol. 1 2 1 2

2 2,A B

Gm m Gm mF F

R R

2 1

2 2,A B

Gm Gma a

R R

PART – B

1. A R B S C P D Q Sol.

At A

10 N

1 kg

AT

10AT N

At B

30 N

3 kg

BT

30BT N

At C

60 N

6 kg

CT

60CT N

At D Acceleration of 2 kg block = 0 so Net force on 2 kg block = 0

2. A Q B R C Q D S

Sol. (A) 10

4d

xg g

R

(B) 10 3 30

4 4d

xg g

R

(C)

2

2

10

4c

Rg g

r

(D)

2 2

2 2

1010

16 16d

R Rg g

r R

r is distance of point from centre.




PART – C

1. 0 Sol. Velocity of block is constant. So acceleration will be zero. 2. 8 Sol.

26 42 /

6 4a g m s

Net force = m a

4 2 8N 4 kg

6 kg

3. 4

Sol. 3

2

4,

3

Gm mF m R

R

2 2 416

9F G l R , is same for both sphere.

4F R

4. 1 Sol. Mass does not change 5. 8

Sol.

2 40 4080

2 2 10

vH m

g

6. 2 Sol.

Time taken to complete circle = 2

4secR

V

t = 67 7

t = 0

CHEMISTRY PART – A

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. A, B, D 10. C, D 11. A, B 12. A, C

PART - B 1. A S B P C Q D R 2. A P B S C R D Q

PART – C

1. 4 Sol. Atomicity is the number of atoms present in a molecule 2. 4 Sol. Mass of common salt = 10 Mass of water = 240 g




Mass of solution = 240 + 10 = 250 g

Mass by mass percentage of the solution = 100Mass of solute

Mass of solution

10

100 4%250

3. 8

Sol. Mass % = 100Mass of solute

Mass of solution

Let the mass of glucose be = x

So, 16% 10050

x

x = 8 g 4. 8 Sol. Volume of alcohol = 4 ml Volume of water = 46 ml Total V = 50 ml

V/V percentage of solution = 100Volume of solute

Volume of solution

4

100 8%50

5. 5 Sol. At 298 K Mass of solute = 2.5 g Mass of solvent = 50 g

Solubility of the solute = 100Mass of solute

Mass of solvent

2.5

100 550

g

6. 1 Sol. According to formula

= 2 % = 20

100x

2000

1000 12

x ml L

MATHEMATICS PART – A

1. C Sol. Find area by heron‘s formula then

1

162

ar h

2. D

Sol. Side of square = 122

Diagonal

Perimeter of square = 4 12 Perimeters of equilateral

Side of 48

163

23

4Ar of side

3. C Sol. Let original side = a

new side = 2

a




2

2

44

Ar of

New Ar

a

a

change = 1 3

14 4

% decrease = 3

100 75%4

4. A

Sol. 090

2

ABOC

5. B Sol. In right angled, if one acute angle is twice of other, then side opposite to smallest angle is half of

hypotenuse. 6. C

Sol. 1 C

3 2

3 C

BC BD 2 31

A

B C

7. A

Sol. Use .Ar of 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2

1

2x y y x y y x y y

8. C Sol. Let ratio = K : 1 find coordinate of the point is equation as and put that vale x and y so that equation get

satisfied. 9. A, B, C Sol. Use distance formula and compare AB = AC 10. A, C

Sol. Use distance formula which give on equation, then use formula of ar which gives another equation.

Solve the equation and get the value of x and y as coordinate. 11. A Sol. Concept based 12. D

PART - B 1. A R B P C S D Q 2. A S B P C Q D R

PART – C 1. 9

Sol. 1 50 v.o A

Use angle sum

properties of

1

500

1

2. 8 Sol. Concept based 3. 3

Sol. Side of square = 2

Diagonal

4. 6

Sol. Use Pythagoras theorem and find 2nd

diagonal then use .ar of Rhombus = 1 2

1

2d d




5. 8 Sol. Concept based (hypotenuse is twice of smallest side) 6. 4

Sol. Use the formula for area of 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2

1

2x y y x y y x y y

FIITJEE COMMON TEST Applicable for class IX(C LOT)

PHASE TEST – II (SET – A)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

Time: 1 ½ hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions



Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.









Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….. Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….




SECTION – A (SST)

1. What is the longitudinal valley called, lying between Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks? (A) Duns (B) Ganges (C) Bughyals (D) Purvanchal 2. The area where the Himalayas lies today was occupied by an ancient sea called the (A) Panthalasa sea (B) Red sea (C) Dead sea (D) Tethys 3. An Island group of coral origin in India (A) Male (B) Andaman and Nicobar (C) Lakshadweep (D) Rameshwaram 4. Luni is the only river which drains the (A) Desert region of India (B) Peninsular region (C) Central highland (D) Malabar coast 5. Which of the following is not the characteristics of Bhangar? (A) old alluvial soil (B) situated near river – bank (C) kankar is present (D) less fertile than khadar 6. Name the eastern – most extension of central highlands. (A) Baghal Khand (B) Chotanagpur Plateau (C) Malwa Plateau (D) Karbi – Anglong Plateau 7. Lake Chilka lies in (A) On Mahanadi delta (B) North of Mahanadi delta (C) South of Mahanadi delta (D) Between Krishna and Godawari delta 8. Which one of the following parts of India receives maximum rainfall? (A) Gujarat and Rajasthan (B) North –western India (C) Central India (D) Western coast and North – east India 9. Mango shower is associated with which one of following states? (A) Punjab and Haryana (B) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar (C) Andhra and Orissa (D) Kerala and Karnataka 10. Which one of following forces responsible for the deflection of winds towards right? (A) Gravitational force (B) Force by landform (C) Coriolis force (D) Buoyancy force 11. The Tropical area experiencing the monsoon lies between which one of the following latitudes? (A) 20

0 S to 40

0 S latitudes (B) 20

0 N to 20

0 S latitudes

(C) 100 S to 10

0 N latitude (D) 20

0N to 60

0 N latitudes

12. Doabs are the feature of (A) Ganga plain (B) Deccan Plateau (C) Coastal pains (D) Meadows





13. Consider the statements: (I) The Ganga plain is among the most fertile regions of the world. (II) The Ganga plain contains mostly regur soil Which of the above is/are true? (A) Both (B) None (C) II but not I (D) I but not II 14. The condition of continentality of climate refers to (A) cool summers and mild winters (B) warm summers and cold winters (C) very hot summers and very cold winters (D) hot summers and moderately cold winters 15. Which Nazi youth organization consisted of all German boys of 14 to 18 years of age (A) Hitlar youth (B) Jungvolk (C) Labour Service (D) Youth league 16. Hjalmar Schacht was ___________ (A) An economist (B) A philosopher (C) A military dictator (D) A politician 17. Name the word used for denoting mass killings of Jews by Nazi‘s? (A) Salvation (B) Final solution (C) Selection (D) Euthanasia 18. Which of the following car was the people‘s car of Germany produced under state – funded work

creation program? (A) Renault (B) Bentley (C) Volkswagen (D) Mercedes Benz 19. The International war tribunal was set up in (A) Vienna (B) Munich (C) Nuremberg (D) Auschwitz 20. Which of the following was not a feature of New Nazi Style of Politics? (A) Massive Rallies (B) Ritualized applause (C) Red banners with Swastika (D) Not so powerful speeches of Hitler 21. In Nazi‘s rule a bronze cross was given to women, who has produced (A) 2 children (B) 4 children (C) 6 children (D) 8 children 22. Who was the first Inspector General of Forests in India? (A) Verrier Elvin (B) Dietrich Brandis (C) Michael Taussig (D) Nicholas Dirks 23. What is the use of Tanin? (A) To make gum (B) In the treatment of skin cancer (C) To convert skins and hides into leather (D) To make scented materials 24. Which of the following is not the category in which the 1878 Act divided the forest? (A) Reserved (B) Restricted (C) Protected (D) Village forest 25. Which of the community was not lived in Baster during 1910? (A) Muria Gonds (B) Dhurwas (C) Raikars (D) Halbas





26. Exemption of rent for villages for land cultivation in forest if they provide free labour and buffaloes for cutting and transporting timber is knows as

(A) Blandongdiensten (B) Sarnas (C) Devsari (D) Nevad 27. Swidden Agriculture is also known as (A) Hill Cultivation (B) Cultivation in Swidden (C) Shifting cultivation (D) Leader cultivation 28. When people from a village take some wood from forests of another village in Bastar district, they pay a

small fee called (A) Blandongdiensten (B) Sarnas (C) Nevad (D) Devsari 29. The most labour absorbing sector of Indian Economy is (A) Transport (B) Agriculture (C) Manufacturing (D) Seasonal employment 30. Population becomes a human capital when investment is made in (i) Education (ii) Medical facilities (iii) Transportation (A) only (i) (B) only (ii) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i) and (ii) 31. Match the following:

Column – A Column - B

(a) Infant Mortality Rate (i) Number of live births in a year per 1000 of mid – year population

(b) Birth Rate (ii) Number of deaths of Infants per 1000 of births in a year

(c) Life Expectancy (iii) Average length of life that a new born baby is expected to live

(d) Sex ratio (iv) Number of females per 1000 males

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) ii i iv iii

(D) iv iii ii i

32. Which of the following are the factors of production? (A) Health, Education, Technology, Training (B) Land, Labour, Capital and Human Resources (C) Literacy rate, Health, life – expectancy and Skill (D) Marketing and Non – marketing activities 33. Literacy rate in India in 2001 has increased to (A) 65 % (B) 56 % (C) 76 % (D) 60% 34. Infant Mortality rate in India in 2000 has dropped to (A) 65 (B) 75 (C) 85 (D) 70





35. Where Nelson Mandela was kept imprisoned for 28 years (A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (B) Madagaskar (C) Robben Island (D) Sahara Desert 36. A draft for Indian Constitution was prepared in the year (A) 1928 (B) 1932 (C) 1939 (D) 1940 37. Which of the following statement about constitution is not true? (A) A constitution generated a degree of trust (B) It specifies how the government will be constituted (C) It lay down limits on the powers of government (D) It invariably means that a democratic government is formed 38. The new National flag of the Republic of South Africa was unfurled on (A) 26

th April, 1994 (B) 26

th April, 1989 (C) 26

th April, 1984 (D) 26

th April, 1980

39. Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have? (A) Powers of the head of the state (B) Name of the head of state (C) Powers of legislature (D) Name of the state/country 40. An extract from Nehru‘s speech ‗Tryst with Destiny‘ is that ―The ambition of the greatest man of our

generation has been to wipe out every tears from every eye‖. Who was he referring to? (A) J. L. Nehru (B) Sardar Patel (C) M. C. Gandhi (D) B. R. Ambedkar

SECTION – B (MATHEMATICS)

1. If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, the bisectors of the two pairs of interior angles enclose

(A) Rhombus (B) Parallelogram (C) Rectangle (D) Trapezium

2. In ,ABC right angled at A, if AL BC then BAL is equal to

(A) ACB (B) CAL (C) ABC (D) None of these

3. If D is the mid point of hypotenuse of right triangle ABC then BD is equal to (A) AB (B) BC (C) AC (D) None of these

4. ABC is isosceles with AB = AC and bisectors of &B C meet at O, if BO = CO then OA is

(A) circumradius (B) angle bisector (C) OA = OB (D)OA = OC 5. Perimeter of triangle ABC is greater than (A) sum of all the medians (B) sum of all altitudes (C) sum of all angles bisectors (D) All of these





6. An exterior angle of a triangle is 108

0 and its interior opposite angles are in the ratio 4 : 5 then the angle

of are (A) 42, 76, 60 (B) 48, 60, 72 (C) 50, 60, 70 (D) 52, 56, 72

7. If the bisectors of acute angles of right meet at O, then the angle between the two bisectors at O is equal to

(A) 450 (B) 115

0 (C) 135

0 (D) 90

0

8. The side of BC of a ABC is produced to point D. The bisector of A meet BC at L. If 030ABC

and 0115ACD , then ALC is

(A) 850 (B) 72

01

2 (C) 145

0 (D) None of these

9. Coordinates of three points are A(2, 3), B (4, 5) and C(6, 7), then they are

(A) collinear (C) scalene triangle (C) isosceles (D) None of these 10. For what value of K, A(2, 5), B(2, K) and C(-2, -5) is an isosceles triangle.

(A) 13 (B) 2

13 (C)

13

2 (D) None of these

11. 1 1 2 22,3 , , , , & 4,2A B x y C x y D are four collinear points such that AB : AD = 1 : 3, then

the coordinates of B and C are (A) (2, 0) and (0, 2) (B) (0, 2) and (2, 0)

(C) 1 5 5 1

, & ,2 2 2 2

(D) None of these

12. The vertices of ABC are 0,0 , ,0 & 0,A B a C b then the coordinate of centroid is

(A) ,2 2

a b

(B) ,3 3

a b

(C) ,02

a b

(D) 0,2

a b

13. The point whose ordinate is 3 lies on y axis is

(A) 3,0 (B) 0,3 (C) 1,3 (D) 3,1

14. The coordinate of a point are 3, 5 lies

(A) left y axis (B) right of y – axis (C) above the x –axis (D) all the above 15. Which of the following points lies on the negative side of x –axis

(A) 3,0 (B) 0, 3 (C) 3,2 (D) 3, 2





16. The distance between the points A(0, b) and B(a,0) is given by

(A) 2 2a b (B)

2 2a b (C) 2 2a b (D) xy

17. Area of triangle is taken (A) Always negative (B) always positive (C) positive and negative (D) None of these 18. Diagonal of square with a area 36 cm

2 is

(A) 6 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 6cm (D) 6 2cm

19. Which of the following could be the side of triangle (A) 2, 3, 5 (B) (2, 3, 6) (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) None of these

20. A triangle and parallelogram have the same base 13 cm and the same area, if the other two sides of are 20 cm and 11 cm the height of parallelogram is

(A) 64

11 (B)

64

13 (C)

66

11 (D)

66

13





SECTION – C (PHYSICS)

1. Action and reaction (A) does not exist in pair (B) may act on same body (C) always act on different bodies (D) are not equal in magnitude 2. When a person move from poll to equator, the value of acceleration due o gravity (g): (A) Increases (B) decreases (C) remains same (D) Increases the decreases 3. Two satellite A and B are orbiting around the earth in circular orbit of same radius. The mass of A is 8

times mass of B. The revolution time period of B to that of A is (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) None 4. What is mass of an object whose weight is 49N? (g = 9.8 m/s

2)

(A) 49 kg (B) 4.9 kg (C) 5 kg (D) 9.8 kg 5. Two particle of mass 2 kg and 8 kg are kept a distance d apart. A third particle of mass 1 kg is put in

between these two particle such that net gravitational force acting on it is zero. The distance between 8 kg particle and

1 kg particle is

(A) 3

d (B)

2

3

d (C) d (D) zero

6. On increasing the height of satellite the time period will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) will remain same (D) none 7. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in a circular path of radius 2 m due to gravitational attraction force of

mass another particle a mass 1000 kg kept at centre of circle. What is K.E. of mass 1 kg particle?

(A) 116.6 10 J (B)

86.67 10 J (C) 81.67 10 J (D) None

8. 3 blocks of mass 1 kg, 2kg and 3kg are kept on smooth surface as

shown in figure. Find out contact force 2 kg and 3 kg block. (A) 30 N (B) 20 N (C) 10 N (D) None 3 kg

2 kg

1 kg

9. A 20 kg crate hangs at the end of long rope. Find out acceleration of block when tension in string is 300

N. (A) 5 m/s

2 upwards (B) 5 m/s

2 downward (C) zero (D) None

10. A car of mass 100 kg is moving with speed 30 m/s. The driver wants to stop the car in 5 sec. The

retarding force acting car is (A) 60 N (B) 600 N (C) 100 N (D) None





11. Two blocks if mass 2kg and 4 kg are suspended through a string and

pulley as shown in figure. Magnitude of acceleration of 2 kg block is

(A) 6

g (B)

2

g

(C) g (D) 3

g

2 kg

4 kg

12. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius R. Find out

displacement of particle when if moves from point A to B:

(A) 2 2R (B) 2

R

(C) 2R (D) None A

B

13. A particle is thrown vertically upward with speed 40 m/s. Highest height reached by particle is ___ (A) 1600 m (B) 80 m (C) 160 m (D) None 14. What is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of Mars If its diameter is 2 times of earth diameter and

mass is 4 times of earth mass,

(A) g (B) 16 g (C) 4

g (D) 4g

SECTION – D (CHEMISTRY)

1. The reason behind the high diffusibility of gases is due to (A) high KE of molecules (B) high intermolecular forces of attraction (C) high vibrator motion in upward direction (D) none of these 2. Identify the suitable technique to separate sand from ammonium chloride. (A) combustion (B) sublimation (C) condensation (D) all of these 3. The highly ordered arrangement of a solid is called (A) density (B) fusion (C) lattice (D) plasma 4. What do you mean by boiling point? (A) it is an exothermic process (B) it is an endothermic process (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these 5. Let us take a thermometer and dip the bulb of it in petrol and take it out. What do you observe the level

of mercury in thermometer will ______ (A) Start rising (B) Start falling (C) remain the same (D) initially falls then rises





6. Water kept in an earthen pot during summer days becomes cold due to ___ (A) evaporation (B) condensation (C) freezing (D) sublimation 7. The electric bulb on longer use form a black coating on its inner surface the process associate with it is

____ (A) reduction of tungsten (B) sublimation of tungsten (C) oxidizing of tungsten (D) melting of tungsten 8. Identify the stats in which maximum intermolecular forces of attraction exists (A) bromine (B) air (C) oxygen (D) copper 9. Identify the element from the following (A) air (B) iodine vapour (C) water (D) Amalgam 10. The solid that would sublime on heating is __________ (A) butter (B) wax (C) dry ice (D) ice 11. What is plasma? (A) It comprises ionized gases (B) It consists of super cooled liquid (C) both A and B (D) None of these 12. Out of dry and wet air which is heavier? (A) dry air (B) wet air (C) both A and B (D) None of these 13. Which of the following is not a combination reaction? (A) reaction of iodine with white phosphorus (B) reaction of iron with sulphur (C) addition of water to lime (D) addition of concentrated sulphuric acid to sugar 14. The spot of grease on garments can be separated by the method of (A) chromatography (B) Solvent separation (C) Sublimation (D) fractional distillations

SECTION – E (BIOLOGY)

1. Which of the following is wrong for green manure? (A) it supplies nitrogen (B) it prevents soil erosion (C) it allows leaching (D) it supplies organic matter 2. Which of the following contain macronutrients only? (A) Calcium, Magnesium, Zinc (B) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Magnesium (C) Calcium, Sulphur, Copper (D) Nitrogen, Iron, Chlorine 3. The term heterosis means (A) inducing mutations (B) mixing of two or more traits (C) appearance of spontaneous mutations (D) superiority of hybrids over their parents





4. Select the mismatched pair from the following (A) Local breed – Aseel (B) Biofertiliser – Azolla (C) Exotic breed – Jersey (D) Marine fish - Carp 5. Sterile females are (A) Queen (B) Drone (C) Worker (D) Both queen and worker 6. Poultry birds reared for obtaining meat are (A) Draught (B) Layers (C) Growers (D) Broilers 7. Which among the following in excess quantity indicates the contamination of Ganga water bodies? (A) Dissolved phosphates (B) Dissolved minerals (C) Coliform bacteria (D) Dissolved carbon 8. Denitrification is caused by (A) Nitrosomonas (B) Pseudomonas (C) Nitrobacter (D) Azotobacter 9. A non – ecofriendly source of energy is (A) Wind energy (B) Tidal energy (C) Nuclear energy (D) Solar energy 10. High diversity of living organisms are observed in (A) Temperate forests (B)Tropical forests (C) Deserts (D) Grasslands 11. Which of the following acids fall on land with rain during lightening? (A) hydrochloric and nitrous acids (B) hydrochloric and sulphuric acids (C) sulphuric and nitrous acids (D) nitric and nitrous acids 12. Chlorofluorocarbons are generally used in (A) Aerosol (B) Formation of foam (C) Refrigerators (D) All of the above






PHASE TEST – II(SET – A)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

Scholastic Aptitude Test ANSWERS

SECTION-A SST

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C

SECTION-B MATHEMATICS

1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D

SECTION-C PHYSICS

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. A

SECTION-D CHEMISTRY

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. B

SECTION-E BIOLOGY

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D





PHASE – 2 SET - A

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) QP CODE: XXXX.0



INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.











Booklet with them.










Directions(1 – 5): Four man A, B, C and D and four women P, Q, R and S are sitting around a table. No two male sit adjacent to each other. D is two places right to A and adjacent to S who is two places to the left of P who is adjacent to B. Who in turn not possible to A.

1. Who is sitting opposite to S? (A) Q (B) R (C) A (D) Cannot be determined 2. If Q sits three places away from C and B then who sits three places to the left of D? (A) P (B) R (C) B (D) Cannot be determined 3. If each person exchanges his/her seat with the person opposite to him/her then who sits to the

immediate right to of B? (A) Q (B) S (C) R (D) Cannot be determined 4. If every man shifts by two places to him right and every woman shifts by two places to her left then who

sits adjacent to C? (A) Q and R (B) P and S (C) P and Q or R (D) Cannot be determined 5. If D and Q exchanges their seats, then which of the following conditions is not violated? (A) No two men can sit adjacent to each other (B) D is two places to the right of A (C) B is not opposite to A (D) All the above are violated Directions (6 – 10): Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F stand in a row. A is to the left of B. C is to the right of D. E

and F have two persons standing between them and neither of the two persons is C or A. 6. What is the total number of possible arrangements? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 5 7. Who among the following stand at the extreme ends of the row? (A) E and F (B) E and C (C) A and C (D) F and A 8. If A sits to the immediate left of E, then who sits to the immediate right of B? (A) D (B) F (C) C (D) E 9. If A or C is permitted to sit between E and F, other conditions remaining same, what is the total number

of possible arrangements? (A) 36 (B) 48 (C) 18 (D) 24 10. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of C, if B sits to the immediate right of B (A) D (B) F (C) B (D) E





Directions(11 – 14): Six person A, B, C, D, E & F are sitting around a hexagonal table each at one corner. A is

second to the left of F. B is the neighbour of C and D. E is the second to the left of D. 11. Which of the following is sitting opposte to E? (A) C (B) B (C) D (D) cannot be determined 12. Out of five four pairs alike, find odd one? (A) B, D (B) A, C (C) E, F (D) E, A 13. Which of the following are neighbouring of A? (A) F and A (B) E and C (C) F and C (D) Data inadequate 14. Who is the four person left of B? (A) A (B) F (C) C (D) Data inadequate 15. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh from the right. If

there are four boys between P and Q, how many boys in the row? (A) 19 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 35 16. Raman is seventh rank a head of Satish in a class of 39. If Satish‘s rank is 17

th from the last what is

Raman‘s rank from the start (A) 11

th (B) 13

th (C) 16

th (D) 18

th

17. Mohan is 14

th from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the left end?

(A) 21st (B) 24

th (C) 25

th (D) 27

th

18. Saurabh ranks sixteenth from the top and 49

th from the bottom is a class. How many students are there

in the class? (A) 54 (B) 64 (C) 65 (D) 66 19. In a class of 10 boys stand in a row. One boy is 19

th in order from both ends. How many boys are there

in the class. (A) 17 (B) 27 (C) 37 (D) 39 20. In a row of students, Leela is 5

th from the left and Mohini is 6

th from the right, when they exchange their

positions, then Leela becomes 13th from the left, what will be the Mohini‘s position from the right.

(A) 7th (B) 9

th (C) 12

th (D) 14

th

21. The positions of how many digits in the number 3 5 1 4 6 2 9 8 7 will remain unchanged after the digits

are rearranged in ascending order within the number? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three





22. How many five‘s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately preceded by 7 and

immediately followed by 6 7 5 5 9 4 5 7 6 4 5 9 8 7 5 6 7 6 4 3 2 5 6 7 8 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 23. In a row of plants, one plant is 5

th from either ends of the row. How many plants are there in the row?

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11 24. Mohan ranks 17

th from the top and 28

th from the bottom in class. How many students are there in the

class. (A) 37 (B) 36 (C) 35 (D) 34 25. Arun ranks 12

th in a class of 48. What will be his rank from the last

(A) 3 (B) 34 (C) 35 (D) 37 26. In a class of 60, where boys are twice that of girls, Mohini ranked17th from the top. If there are 9 boys

ahead of Mohini, how many girls are after her in rank? (A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 12 (C) 23 27. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and choose the one that comes first (A) sport (B) spouse (C) squash (D) sprout 28. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T, K is sitting next to R. Who is sitiing on

extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who is sitting adjacent to S? (A) K and P (B) R and P (C) Only P (D) P and T Directions (29 – 31): Read the series and answer the questions L Z R J K R S J L Z T J Z N Z J S T L Z R N S 29. Alphabet that comes the least no. of times in the series is (A) L (B) T (C) N (D) K 30. Which letter comes four times in the series? (A) J (B) N (C) Z (D) L 31. Which is the most repeated letter in the series? (A) R (B) S (C) Z (D) J 32. The price of an article is increased by 10 % and then decreased by 10 %. What is the percentage

change in price (A) 0 % (B) 1 % increase (C) 1 % decrease (D) None of these 33. The price of a radio is increased by 20 %. By what % must be decreased to back to the original price.

(A) 25% (B) 20% (C) 162

3% (D) 15%





34. In an exam Raju got 20 % more marks than Ravi. By what percentage are the marks of Ravi less than Raju?

(A) 20% (B) 162

3% (C) 25 % (D) 33

1

3%

35. What percentage of 80 is 200? (A) 50% (B) 40% (C) 200% (D) 250% 36. If 40% of 50 = X% of 80, what is the value of X? (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 40 37. By selling 40 apples a man gains the selling price of 10 apples. What is profit %? (A) 13% (B) 33.33% (C) 30% (D) 40% 38. An article marked up by 35%. What should be the discount % so that the profit is 20%

(A) 111

%9

(B) 10 % (C) 15 % (D) 20%

39. The ratio 5:4 expressed as percent equals (A) 12.5% (B) 40% (C) 800 (D) 125% 40. 3.5 can be expressed in percentage as (A) 0.35 % (B) 3.5 % (C) 35% (D) 350% 41. What is 15% of Rs 34? (A) Rs 3.40 (C) Rs 3.75 (C) Rs 4.50 (D) Rs 5.10 42. Which of the following shows the best percentage?

(A) 384

540 (B)

425

500 (C)

570

700 (D)

480

660

43. By how much percent is four – fifth of 70 less than five – seventh of 112? (A) 24 % (B) 30% (C) 36% (D) 42% 44. If 20% of 40% of a = 25% of a% of b, what is b?

(A) 8

5 (B)

16

25 (C)

8

25 (D) None of these

45. A value changes from 30 to 80. What is the percentage change? (A) 125 (B) 166.66 (C) 156 (D) None of these





Directions (46 – 47): Select the correct alternative from the given choice. 46. What is the maximum number of cubes can be cut into by 3 cuts? (A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6 47. What is the least number of cuts required to cut a cube into 24 identical pieces? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 Directions (48 – 50): 125 small but identical cubes are put together to from a large cube. This larger cube is

now painted on all six faces. 48. How many of smaller cubes have no face painted at all? (A) 27 (B) 64 (C) 8 (D) 36 49. How many smaller cubes have exactly two face painted? (A) 25 (B) 16 (C) 36 (D) 64 50. How many of the smaller cubes have exactly 3 faces painted? (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 27





FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Applicable for class IX(C LOT)

PHASE – 2 SET - A

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

QP CODE: XXXX.0

ANSWERS

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. D 30. A 31. C 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. B\ 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. D 42. B 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. C 50. B


PHASE – II (SET – A)




ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST (ENG)

QP CODE: XXXX.0


INSTRUCTIONS

I. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Her father, Edward Moulton Barret, was as Elizabeth later wrote, a very peculiar person. ―Heir to a fortune, educated at Harrow and Cambridge, he was, nevertheless a complete domestic tyrant‖. After bearing him twelve children, his gentle wife had little strength left for struggle against him, and the children never dared oppose his wishes. Yet Elizabeth‘s childhood was happy. She romped and studied with her eldest brother, learnt Greek and French, read widely, and wrote poetic tragedies. Her own tragedy began at fifteen with a cough and an injury to her back, which resulted in increasingly bad health. Then her mother died.

A: General :


pen.











Booklet with them.










Four years later, her father decided to sell the country home. The large family moved from house to house until her father bought No. 50 Wimpole Street. There Elizabeth‘s health grew worse, and she became a creature of the shadows and silence. Her brothers and sisters were all at the mercy of Mr. Barrett‘s harsh rules. Chief among them was the absolute refusal to let his daughters marry. He prevented the marriage of Elizabeth‘s dance-loving sister, Henrietta, and the scenes that followed broke Elizabeth‘s heart. Yet she remained devoted to her father. It was a devotion that served to strengthen the walls of her prison.

1. Elizabeth‘s father was ‗a complete domestic tyrant‘ implies: (A) that he was fond of his children (B) he helped his wife with the household duties (C) he ruled like a cruel dictator (D) he was a stern and disciplined head of the family 2. In spite of everything Elizabeth‘s childhood was happy because (A) her father was kind to her (B) her mother was alive (C) she had some intellectual interests and was healthy (D) her illness had not yet crippled her 3. What broke Elizabeth‘s heart? (A) her father‘s refusal to let his daughters marry (B) her father‘s refusal to let her sister Henrietta marry (C) her illness which prevented her from getting married (D) the unpleasantness that followed her father‘s refusal to let her sister marry 4. Elizabeth‘s own tragedy began when (A) she became a creature of the shadows and silence. (B) her father bought a new house at No. 50 Wimpole Street (C) she was fifteen and had an injury to her back (D) her health grew worse 5. Explain: ‗a creature of the shadow and silence‘. (A) a lonely person (B) a secluded existence, out-of-touch with the world around her. (C) a ghost or a spirit (D) unable to communicate with others 6. Explain the idiomatic expression: ‗to break one‘s heart‘. (A) to become sorrowful (B) to feel weak and uneasy (C) to get angry (D) to crush with grief





7. What does the last sentence of the passage imply? (A) The more devoted she was, the more difficult it was for her to leave her father (B) Her devotion only strengthened her father‘s resolve not to let her marry. (C) Her devotion to her father was the only thing she regretted (D) Her devotion to her father made her feel suffocated Directions (8 – 12): Choose the correct sentence in each of the following groups of sentences: 8. (A) Our prices are considerably lesser than our nearest competitor. (B) Our prices are considerably lesser than that of our nearest competitor. (C) Our prices are lower considerably than those of our nearest competitor. (D) Our prices are considerably lower than those of our nearest competitor. 9. (A) I tried on both the dresses and finally decided to buy the most expensive one. (B) I tried on both the dresses and finally decided to buy the expensive one. (C) I tried on both the dresses and finally decided to buy the more expensive one. (D) I tried on the both dresses and finally decided to buy the most expensive one. 10. (A) In India they have many curious customs. (B) In India there are many curious customs. (C) In India they have more curious customs. (D) In India there are too many curious customs. 11. (A) He is over ninety years of age, but is still active and strong. (B) He is a man who is over ninety years of age, but who is still active and strong. (C) He is a man over ninety years of age, but who is still active and strong. (D) He is over ninety years of age, and is still active and strong. 12. (A) When thoroughly baked, we removed the pie from the oven and served it piping hot. (B) As it was thoroughly baked, we removed the pie from the oven and served it piping hot. (C) When the pie was thoroughly baked, we removed it from the oven and served it piping hot. (D) Being thoroughly baked, the pie was removed from the oven by us and served piping hot. Directions (13 – 17): Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences. 13. (P) It is very difficult to control anger. (Q) Today, scientists are exposing myths on how to handle it. (R) Letting it all come out, might not be the best way. (S) To count to 10 is certainly a better control system. (A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) Q and S (D) P and S 14. (P) Renu was a child at heart. (Q) Never has she allowed fame to affect her. (R) Her day started at 5:00 a.m. with pujas. (S) Then began her practice session which would go till lunch time. (A) P and Q (B) Q and S (C) Q and R (D) P and S





15. (P) Dawn Schauman was attacked with a bull shark (Q) It spun her about, leaving her disoriented. (R) Will power alone got her back to shore. (S) For months she wakes up at 3:00 a.m. replaying the attack in her head. (A) P, Q and R (B) Q and R (C) Q and S (D) P, Q and S 16. (P) The elderly and young are vulnerable to heat stress. (Q) So are the folks who are overweight. (R) Don‘t ever ignore the signs of heat stress. (S) When the thermometer is rising you are on a risk. (A) Q and R (B) P, Q and S (C) Q and S (D) P and S 17. (P) Abdul Aziz emigrated from Kurdistan to Sweden. (Q) He has been working as machine operator in Stockholm. (R) Last month he was told that he had been laid of. (S) At which he was really shocked. (A) Q and R (B) P and Q (C) Q, R and S (D) P, Q and R Directions (18 – 22): Choose the correct synonyms from the alternatives given below, in each of the following: 18. Arrogant (A) diffident (B) quarrelsome (C) haughty (D) selfish 19. Reprisal (A) rebuke (B) attack (C) retaliation (D) Change 20. Infringe (A) enclose (B) bar (C) irritate (D) encroach 21. Reproof (A) rebuke (B) warning (C) ridicule (D) threat 22. Stringent (A) dry (B) rigorous (C) strained (D) shrill Directions (23 – 31): Choose the appropriate word from alternatives A, B, C and D and fill in the blanks in each of the following: 23. It was definitely a _______victory. (A) inclusive (B) decisive (C) deceptive (D) apparent 24. He ___________his arm as he tried to climb the loft. (A) bent (B) dislocated (C) bruised (D) cut 25. The ___________officer hoisted the flag. (A) naval (B) new (C) navel (D) navy 26. Corruption is ___________ in high places. (A) filled (B) staged (C) rampant (D) spread





27. The joke was a ___________ one. (A) humorous (B) humiliating (C) humane (D) laughing 28. They ____________ a few things from the debris. (A) concealed (B) salvaged (C) rescued (D) picked 29. They ___________ the continent from East to West. (A) travelled (B) searched (C) passed (D) traversed 30. He is of a quiet ___________. (A) dispossession (B) deposition (C) disposition (D) possession 31. One must not __________ from the main theme. (A) disgress (B) transgress (C) regress (D) digress Directions (32 – 36):Pick out the alternative from A, B, C and D which brings out the meaning of the idiom in

each of the following: 32. To be in character with (A) to be good (B) to be noted for (C) to be in keeping with (D) to merge with 33. Gall and wormwood (A) to be diseased (B) a disgusting thing (C) hateful (D) an aliment which affects the liver 34. Out of spirits (A) unemotional (B) gloomy and sad (C) sober (D) full of joy 35. To take heart (A) to cheer oneself up (B) to pick up courage (C) to have a pain in the chest (D) to be optimistic 36. To set one‘s face against (A) to become enemies (B) to turn away from (C) to be faced with difficulties (D) to oppose strongly Directions (37 – 41): Part of each sentence is underlined: beneath each sentence are four ways of phrasing the

underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing: the other three choices are different. If you think the original phrasing is correct, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.

37. Economics is when you study the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services. (A) when you study (B) what you study about (C) your studying of (D) the study of 38. Whenever Rahul sang in the shower, his voice rings throughout the house (A) rings (B) would ring (C) is ringing (D) has rung





39. To prepare for Deepawali celebration in India, families clean their homes, buy new clothing, and their

debts are paid. (A) clean their homes, buy new clothing, and their debts are paid. (B) clean their homes and buy new clothing, also their debts are paid (C) clean their homes, buy new clothing, and pay their debts. (D) clean their homes, buy new clothing, and they pay their debts. 40. Fermentation is caused by yeast, which turns sugar and starch into alcohol and carbon dioxide. (A) which turns sugar and starch (B) it turns sugar and starch (C) by it turning sugar and starch (D) as sugar and starch turns 41. Many of the ships used by oceanographic institutions are small vessels that have outlived the purpose

which they have been built for originally. (A) vessels that have outlived the purpose which they have been built for originally (B) vessels that have outlived their original purpose. (C) vessels and these had outlived their original purpose in being built. (D) vessels, having outlived their original purpose. Directions (42 – 43): The following sentences are given below, which when properly sequenced, form a

coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Statement 1 is in its correct place. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

42. (1) The classic power play of good and evil reaches a telling climax with light prevailing over darkness

on Diwali night. (P) These sentiments prompted the ceremonial welcome extended to Lord Rama many aeons ago

when he returned from his 14 years exile to Ayodhya after defeating the demon King Ravana. (Q) Coinciding with the 13

th day of dark fortnight of Ashwin the festival draws its significance from the

word Deepawali, a string of lighted lamps. (R) The celebrations have continued to this time and age with Diwali. (S) The lamps, accompanied by the lighting of firecrackers, symbolize mankind‘s quest for

enlightenment by conquering all evil, vice temptation and ignorance. (A) QSPR (B) QRSP (C) PQSR (D) RPQS 43. 1. For many years man has been fascinated by the yellow metal ‗gold‘. (P) The name is self-explanatory. (Q) But he has been fooled several times by a similar-looking mineral called fool‘s gold. (R) So, all that glitters is not gold. (S) Chemically, fool‘s gold is iron pyrite. (A) SRQP (B) QPSR (C) PSRQ (D) QRPS Directions (44 – 45): In each of the questions, there are four sentences P, Q, R and S that have to be arranged in a logical order to make a paragraph between sentence 1 and 6. 44. (1) There are 15 varieties of Tropicana juice in the market. (P) Pulp contains vitamin C, which is a vital source of energy. (Q) Vitamin C makes you feel healthy. (R) This also includes Tropicana‘s pulp free ‗orange tangerine‘. (S) Pulp free juice is not good for health. (6) A healthy person can think faster and better. (A) RSPQ (B) QPRS (C) RPSQ (D) RQPS





45. (1) As IT professional, the job entails long hours of sitting in front of the computer. (P) This would lead to a lifetime of pain. (Q) This is the worst thing for your back. (R) Because you would remain tense and strained in position. (S) To avoid this go to the Godrej showroom today. (6) Godrej has designed ergonomic chairs to ease pressures. (A) QRPS (B) PQRS (C) RPQS (D) PQSR Directions (46 – 50) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences, by choosing the appropriate preposition from the alternatives A, B, C and D. Option ‗blank‘ means no addition is necessary to the sentence. 46. He persecuted his subjects ______________ their religious beliefs. (A) in (B) from (C) for (D) with 47. The taxes that were being unjustly levied were abolished _____________the government (A) with (B) by (C) from (D) blank 48. The two brothers wrangled ___________the distribution of the property. (A) over (B) with (C) for (D) blank 49. He tried to malign ___________ the opposition candidate. (A) with (B) blank (C) over (D) under 50. At the sight of the huge creature, they were petrified ____________fear. (A) in (B) with (C) from (D) for





FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE – II (SET – A)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST (ENG) QP CODE: XXXX.0

ANSWERS

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. A 41. B 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. A 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. B

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Time Allotted: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 240



BA

TC

HE

S –

13

17

(C L

OT

)

FIITJEE

CPT - 3

CODE:XXXX.0

PAPER - 1




INSTRUCTIONS

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

C. General Instructions


2. This question paper contains Three Parts.


4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C



D. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on

OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment

No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. 3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. (i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each

question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________




Section – I (PHYSICS) PART – A


1. A 5 kg block is kept on a horizontal platform at rest, at time t = 0, the platform start moving with a constant velocity 5 m/s the coefficient of friction between the block and the platform is 0.2, find the

work done by the friction on the block in 55. (A) 20 J (B) - 25 J (C) 250 J (D) 0 J 2. A body of mass 2 kg thrown upward with a velocity of 10 m/s comes to rest (momentarily) after moving

up by 4m. The work done by as drag in this process is (take g = 10m/s2)

(A) - 20 j (B) - 10 J (C) - 30 J (D) 6 J 3. A car accelerates from rest to a speed of 10 m/s. Let the energy spend be E, if we accelerate the car

from 10 m/s to 20 m/s, then the energy spend will be (A) E (B) 2 E (C) 3 E (D) 4E

4. Two bodies of equal masses are in uniform circular motion with same period if 1r and 2r are radii of

then complete revolution for each is

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 1:r r (C) 1 2:r r (D) None of these

5. A motor boat is travelling with a speed of 3.0 m/s if the force on it due to water flow is 500 N, the power

of the boat is (A) 150 KW (B) 15 KW (C) 1.5 KW (D) 150 W 6. Body of mass 2 kg is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 3 m/s. The maximum gravitational

potential energy of the body is (A) 18 J (B) 4.5 J (C) 2.25 J (D) 9 J 7. A body of mass 10 kg moving with a momentum of 50 kg m/s. A force of 20 N acts on it in the direction

of the motion of the body for 10 s. The increase in its kinetic energy is (A) 2 KJ (B) 1 KJ (C) 3 KJ (D) 4 KJ 8. A cube of wood supporting 0.2 kg mass just floats in water. When the mass is removed, the cube rises

by 2 cm. What is the length of the cube. (A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 8 cm


9. The kinetic energy of a particle continuously increases with time (A) the resultant force on the particle must be parallel to the velocity of all instants (B) the resultant force on the particle must be of an angle less than 90

0 all the time

(C) the magnitude of its linear momentum is increasing continuously. (D) its height above the ground level must continuously decrease.





10. One end of a light spring of spring constant K is fixed to a wall and the other end is tied to a block

placed on a smooth horizontal surface. In a displacement, the work done by the spring is 21

2Kx . The

possible cases are (A) the spring was initially compressed by a distance x and was finally in its natural length (B) It was initially in its natural length and finally in a compressed position (C) it was initial stretched by a distance x and finally was in its natural length (D) It was initially in its natural length and finally in a stretched position. 11. A piece of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in liquid, then specific gravity of

(A) metal is 3 (B) metal is 7 (C) liquid is 3 (D) liquid is 1

3

12. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which as always perpendicular to the velocity

of the particle the motion of the particle take place in a plane. It follows that (A) Its velocity is constant (B) Its acceleration is constant (C) Its kinetic energy is constant (D) It moves in a circular path


1. The displacement – time graph of a body acted upon by same

force is shown in figure. For this situation, match the entries of column I with the entries of column II

A

B

C

O

S

t


(A) For OA, the total work done by all forces together is

(P) always positive

(B) For OA, the work done by few of the of the acting force is

(Q) can be positive

(C) For AB, the work done by few of the acting force is

(R) zero or can be zero

(D) For BC the work done by all forces together is

(S) can be negative







(A) Magnus energy (P) Pascal law

(B) Loss of energy (Q) Archemedes principle

(C) Pressure is same at the same level in a liquid

(R) Viscous force

(D) Hydraulic machines (S) Lifting off

PART – C

Numerical Based

1. A light inextensible sting that goes over a smooth fixed pulley as shown in the figure. Connects two blocks of masses 0.36 kg and 0.72 kg. Taking g = 10m/s

2. Find the

work done (in joules) by the string on the 0.36 kg block 1 second after the system is released from rest

0.36 kg

0.72 kg

2. A man slowly pulls a bucket from a well of depth h = 20 m the mass of uniform rope and bucket full of

water are m = 200 g and of bucket is M = 19.8 kg respectively. Find the power wasted by man in

100

3min.

3. A block of mass 2.0 kg is pulled up on a smooth incline of angle 30

0 with the horizontal. If the block

moves with an acceleration of 1.0 m/s2, the power delivered by the pulling force at a time 4.0 s after the

motion starts is 12 K. Find the value of K.

4. A block of mass 2 kg is compressed against a spring of spring constant 100 Nm

-1 such that the compression in the spring is 20 cm, from here the

block is released from rest as shown in figure. Determine the distance from A where the block falls. [Take g = 10 ms

-2]

2 kg

100Nm-1

A

10 m





5. A block of mass 1 kg is released from rest from a height of 1 m on a

smooth curved track as shown in figure. The curved track is joined to a rough horizontal track as shown in figure. Calculate the distance travelled by block as from point B.

m = 1kg

1m Smooth

Rough 0.2

A

B

6. A cylinder of radius R = 5

and height 1 m and mass 10 kg is suspended by a string in a liquid of

density = 2 where it stays in equilibrium with its upper surface touching the brim of the liquid. Find

the force at the bottom of the cylinder.

Section – II (CHEMISTRY)

PART – A Single Correct Choice Type

1. 4 10P O molecule is __________

(A) triatomic (B) tetradecatomic (C) tetratomic (D) diatomic

2. In the compound 3AlF the ratio by mass of the combining elements is

(A) 14 : 3 (B) 4 : 3 (C) 9 : 19 (D) 19 : 9 3. The number of moles of a gas in 1m

3 of volume at NTP is

(A) 5.46 (B) 0.446 (C) 2.464 (D) 44.6

4. How many electrons will be present in 18mL of water? (Given that density is 1 /g mL )

(A) 296.023 10 (B)

246.023 10 (C) 286.023 10 (D)

236.023 10

5. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole triatomic gas will be (Avogadro No. 236.022 10 )

(A) 236.023 10 (B)

231.806 10 (C) 204.5 10 (D)

226 10

6. The atomic masses of the elements are usually fractional because (A) elements contains impurities (B) elements have allotropes (C) elements have different states e.g. solid, liquid and gases (D) these are mixture of isotopes 7. The chemical formula of an individual compound represents (A) The size of the molecule (B) The shape of its molecule (C) Molarity (D) The number of different atoms present in a molecule. 8. Which one of the given below properties of an element is not variable. (A) atomic mass (B) valency (C) Equivalent mass (D) All of these






9. 11.2 L of a gas at STP weighs 14 g. The gas could be (A) N2O (B) NO2 (C) N2 (D) CO 10. Which of the following statements are correct about Dalton‘s atomic theory? (A) All matter, whether an element, a compound or a mixture is made up extremely small particles

called atoms. (B) Atoms of the same elements are not identical in size, shape, mass and properties. (C) When atoms of different elements combine together to form compounds, they do so in a simple

whole number ratio. (D) Atoms of two different elements may combine in different ratios to form more than one compound. 11. One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to

(A) 236.022 10 molecules of oxygen (B)

236.023 10 atoms of oxygen

(C) 16g of oxygen (D) 32 g of oxygen

12. 16 g of oxygen has same number of molecule as in (A) 16 g of CO (B) 28 g of N2 (C) 14 g of N2 (D) 1.0 g of H2



Column – I Physical Quantity

Column – II Unit

(A) Molarity (P) -1g mL

(B) Mole (Q) -1mol kg

(C) Molality (R) -1mol L

(D) Density (S) mol



(A) 236.022 10 molecules of H2O (P) 2 mol

(B) 5.6 litre of CO2 at STP (Q) 3 mol

(C) 88 g of CO2 (R) 1

4mol

(D) 96 g of O2 (S) 1 mol





PART – C

Numerical Based

1. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 2.41 g of sodium chloride to produced 5.91 g of silver chloride and 3.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is true?

2. What will be the molarity of a solution which contains 5.85 g of NaCl per 0.05 litre? 3. If 300 mL of a 5 M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity the solution obtained. 4. How many moles of phosphine gas will be produced when one mole of calcium phosphide reacts with

excess of water? 5. The volume in litres of CO2 liberated at NTP when 10 gram of 90% pure lime stone is heated

completely. 6. Find the number of moles in 128 g of SO2 is (At. mass : S = 32, O = 16)





Section – III (MATHEMATICS) PART – A


1. Graph of the equation 2 3 9x y cuts y-axis at the point:

(A) 9

,02

(B) 0,9 (C) 0,3 (D) 3,1

2. The graph of the equation of the form y mx is a line which always passes through

(A) 0,m (B) ,0x (C) 0, y (D) 0,0

3. In a quadrilateral ABCD, diagonals bisect each other at right angles. Also AB = BC = AD = 6 cm, then

length of CD is

(A) 3 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 6 2 cm (D) 12 cm

4. ABCD is a rhombus such that one of its diagonal is equal to its side. Then the angles of rhombus ABCD

are

(A) 0 0 0 045 ,135 ,45 ,135 (B)

0 0 0 0100 ,80 ,100 ,80

(C) 0 0 0 0120 ,60 ,120 ,60 (D)

0 0 0 060 ,60 ,60 ,60

5. Which of the following is not true for a parallelogram? (A) Opposite side are equal (B) Opposite angles are equal (C) Opposite angles are bisected by the diagonals (D) Diagonals bisect each other

6. In ABC , E is the mid – point of median then .AD Ar BED

(A) 1

2ar ABC (B)

1

3ar ABC (C)

1

4ar ABC (D) None of these

7. In , , ,ABC D E F are respectively the mid points of the sides ,AB BC and AC . Ratio of Area of

DEF : Area of ABC = ____________.

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 4

8. The range of the data 25.7,16.3,2.8,21.7,24.3,22.7,24.9 is

(A) 22 (B) 22.9 (C) 21.7 (D) 20.5






9. Which of the following are linear equations:

(A) 1 2 2 3x x x x (B) 1 3 2 8x x

(C) 2 1 2x x (D)

12x

x

10. A quadrilateral is said to be parallelogram if its: (A) one pair of opposite sides is parallel and equal (B) one pair of opposite angles is equal (C) diagonals bisect each other

(D) sum of one pair of consecutive angles is 0180

11. In a triangle ABC, AD is median to side BC of ABC and CE is median to side AD of ACD , then

area of ACE is equal to

(A) 1

2ar BCA (B)

1

4ar ABD (C) ar ACD (D) ar CBE

12. Average of first 50 natural numbers cannot be (A) Less than 1 (B) More than 50 (C) Between 10 and 50 (D) None


1. ABCD is a parallelogram, G is the point on AB such that AG = GB, E is a point on DC such that CE =2

DE and F is a point on BC such that BF = 2 FC, then


(A) area ADEG (P) area EFC

(B) area EGB (Q) 1

2area EBF

(C) area EFC (R) 1

6area ABCD

(D) area EBG (S) area GBCE







(A) Mean of 16 numbers is 8. If 2 is added to every number. New mean is __________

(P) 38

(B) Mode of 39, 34, 39, 41, 46, 38, 10 is ______ (Q) 10

(C) Arithmetic mean of 7, 6, 5, 9, 8, 0, 7 is _____

(R) 39

(D) Mean = 44, median = 42 then mode = _____ (S) 6

PART – C

Numerical Based

1. If 2 2 4 2 5 0x y x y , then find the value of x y .

2. In a trapezium ABCD with AB = 20 cm, CD = 10 cm, ,AB CD P and Q are mid points of AC and BD

then length of PQ is 3. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6. The lower class

– limit of the class is 4. In a group of goats and hence the number of legs is 12 more than twice the number of heads. The

number of goats is

5. In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisector of A also bisect BC at P if 8 ,AD cm what is the length of

AB. 6. The altitude of parallelogram one of whose side is 6.5 cm, the area being 26 cm

2 is?





FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Applicable for class- IX(C LOT)


(PHASE – 3) ANSWERS


PART – A 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B, C 10. A, C 11. B, C 12. C, D

PART - B 1. A P B Q, S C Q, R, S D R 2. A S B R C P D P

PART – C 1. 8 2. 2 3. 4 4. 2 5. 5 6. 0

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – A

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C, D 10. A, C, D 11. A, D 12. B, D

PART - B 1. A R B S C Q D P 2. A S B R C P D Q

PART – C 1. 7 2. 2 3. 1 4. 2 5. 2 6. 2


PART – A 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. A, C 10. A, C 11. A, C, D 12. A, B

PART – B

1. A S B R C Q D P 2. A Q B R C S D P

PART – C 1. 1 2. 5 3. 7 4. 6 5. 4 6. 4

Paper Code

XXXX.0




HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS PART – A

1. D Sol. Velocity is constant, so acceleration is zero. That‘s why block will remain stationary. 2. A

Sol. Change in K.E. = g Dw w

2 21

2f j Dm v v mgh w

3. C

Sol. 2 21 1100

2 2f im v v E E m

2 21 1 1' 400 100 300

2 2 2f iE m v v m m

' 3E E

4. D

Sol. 2 r

TV

r

TV

5. C

Sol. P F V

6. D

Sol. 21

. 92

mgh K E mv J

7. C

Sol. 50

5 /10

iv m s 220

2 /10

NJ m s

kg

f iv v at

5 20 25 /fv m s

21 1

. 10 625 31252 2

f fK E mv J

2

1

1 1. 10 25 125

2 2iK E mv J

. . 3000 3K E J KJ

8. A 9. B, C

Sol.

21

2 . cos 0

mv

F V FVt

cos 0

0 00 90

2.0

2

K E P

t mt

2 0P

10. A, C




Sol.

11. B, C

Sol. 120W g

W in water = 180 g displaced water = 210 – 180 = 30 g

So, 210

. 730

M

gS G

g

W in liquid = 120 g

30m wW W g

90m lW W g

90

. 330

lS G

12. C, D Sol. Speed is constant and changing its direction

21

.2

K E mv v is constant

PART - B 1. A P B Q, S C Q, R, S D R

Sol. (A) S increasing with t S

vt

(B) May be condition

(C) During AB it a point S

t constant, +ve and – ve

(D) 0S

t so negative

2. A S B R C P D P Sol. Fact Based

PART – C 1. 8 Sol. 0.72 0.72

0.36 0.36

0.36 10.8

g T a

T g a

g a

0.36

1.08 3

g ga 0.36 kg

0.72 kg

2 0.72

3

gT

t = 1s 21 1

2 2 3

gS at

So, 2 0.72

82 3 3

g gW J

2. 2

Sol. W mgh

= 0.2 19.8 10 20

x = 0

+ x - x




20 10 20 4000J

4000 3

2 /100 60

WP J s

t

3. 4 Sol. sinF mg ma

12F N

4 /V at V m s

12 4P So, K = 4

sinmg

F21 /a m s

030

4. 2

Sol. 2 21 1

2 2kx mv

2

2 220 1100 2 50 2 2

100 25v v v

2 21 1

10 10 22 2

h gt t t

So, 2x vt m

5. 5

Sol. 21

2mgh mv mgs

6. 0 Sol.

immersedthMg F W

2

1thMg F eg R h

2

1

2

2

510 2 1 0

thF Mg g R h

g

CHEMISTRY PART – A

1. B Sol. Atomicity is the number of atoms present in a molecule. 2. C Sol. At. mass = 27 and At. mass of F = 19

In 3AlF 27 : 57 = 9 : 19

3. D

Sol. 31 1000m L

Number of moles = 1000

44.622.4

4. B Sol. mass of H2O = 18 g

No. of molecules in H2O = 236.023 10

No. of electrons in 18 g water = 236.023 10 10

= 246.023 10

As we know each molecule of water contains 10 electrons.

ih

F mg




5. B

Sol. No. of atoms = 230.1 3 6.022 10

231.806 10

6. D Sol. Average atomic masses are determined by multiplying the atomic mass of each isotope by its fractional

abundance and adding the value thus obtained. 7. D Sol. A chemical formula indicates (a) The elements in the make up of the compound and (b) the combining

ratio of these elements in a particular compound. 8. A Sol. Atomic mass can be defined as the number which indicates how many times the mass of one atom of

the element is heavier in comparison to 1

12th part of the mass of one atom of C-12.

9. C, D Sol. 1 mole = gram molecular mass = 22.4 L at STP.

So, N2 = 14 2 28g

Moles = 1

2

given massmole=11.2L

Molecular mass

Like that in CO = 12 + 16 = 28 g 28 g = 1 mole

14 g = 1

2 mole = 11.2 L

10. A, C, D Sol. Concept Based. 11. A, D

Sol. 1 mole = gram atomic or gram molecular mass or 236.022 10 particles

12. C, D

Sol. 1 mole = gram atomic or gram molecular mass or 236.022 10 molecules

14 g N2 = 1

2mole, 1.0 g of H2

1

2mole

Thus 1

2 mole of N2 and H2 will contain same.

PART - B 1. A R B S C Q D P 2. A S B R C P D Q

PART – C 1. 7

Sol. Moles of 3AgNO be 170

x

Moles of 0.041NaCl

Moles of 0.041AgCl

Moles of 3 0.041NaNO

Therefore 0.041 0.082170

x

0.041 0.041 170170

xx

7.00 gm

2. 2

Sol. Molarity =

5.85

58.5

0.05

moles of solute

volume in litre




= 2 mol L-1

3. 1

Sol. 1 1 2 2M V M V

25 300 1500M

2

15001

1500M M

4. 2

Sol. 3 2 2 326 3 2

1 mol 2 mol

Ca P H O Ca OH PH

5. 2

Sol. 3 2CaCO CaO CO

100 g of CaCO3 evolve CO2 at NTP = 22.4 L

So, 9 g of CaCO3 = 22.4

9100

= 2 L 6. 2

Sol. No. of moles in 128 g of SO2 = 128

264

MATHEMATICS

PART – A

1. C Sol. To cut y axis, x – coordinate most up zero

Putting x = 0 in equation 2 3 9x y , we get y = 3

coordinate (0, 3) 2. D Sol. y intercept is zero therefore line passes through the origin. 3. B Sol. Given quadrilateral is a rhombus. 4. C Sol.

060

060060

060

060 060

5. C 6. C Sol. In ABC

AB is median

Ar ABD Ar ADC

Ar ABD

Ar ABE Ar BED

1

4Ar BED Ar ABC B

D

A

C

E

7. D 8. B Sol. Range = [ Highest observation – Lowest observation = 25.7 – 2.8 = 22.9 9. A, C Sol. Linear equation is an equation with degree 1




10. A, C 11. A, C, D 12. A, D

PART – B

1. A S B R C Q D P 2. A Q B R C S D P

PART – C 1. 1

Sol. 2 2

2 1 0x y

2, 1x y

1x y

2. 5

Sol. 1

20 10 52

3. 7

Sol. 10 202

x yx y

and 6x y

7y

4. 6

Sol. 2 4 2 12x y x y

6y

5. 4 Sol. 1 3 (give.)

3 2 (alt. int. angle)

1 2

AB BP

1

2AB BC (P is the mid-point)

1

2AB AD BC AD 4AB cm A

B

P

D

C

3

2

1

6. 4

Sol. 6.5 26h

4h


PHASE TEST – III

QP CODE: XXXX.0






Instructions The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.


Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.









Name of the Candidate : ……………….………………………………….. Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

SECTION – A (SST) 1. Gujjar Bakarwals are found in (A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) Himanchal Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Uttarakhand 2. Which Nomad Community belongs to Rajasthan? (A) Gaddi (B) Gujjars (C) Raikas (D) Dhangars 3. After Partition, which of the new areas Raikas shifted their migration in India? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Haryana (C) Punjab (D) Himanchal 4. What happened to grazing lands after colonial rule? (A) They were turned into cultivable fields (B) They were turned into white settlements (C) They were turned into reserves (D) All of the above 5. Where do Dhangars stayed in Monsoon? (A) Deccan Platean (B) Konkan lands (C) Central plateau of Maharsthra (D) Gujarat 6. What are Dhars? (A) High meadows (B) Deep valleys (C) Futile plains (D) Desert land 7. When did Tanganyika came under British control? (A) 1914 (B) 1917 (C) 1919 (D) 1921




8. Who were nomads (A) People move from one place to another for livelihood (B) Rich farmers (C) Colonial officials (D) None of the above 9. Which of the statement is false in reference to how pastoralist coped with changes occurred during

colonial rule? (A) Some pastoralists discovered new grounds for grazing. (B) Some settled as peasants cultivating land. (C) They started working with colonial officials. (D) Some became labourers, working on fields or in small towns 10. How many acts were passed by British Parliament legalizing field enclosures? (A) 1000 (B) 2000 (C) 3000 (D) 4000 11. What is Bushel? (A) Measure of capacity (B) Measure of length (C) English currency (D) Measure of weight 12. Who was then American President in 1800 AD? (A) A. Lincon (B) Thomas Jefferson (C) John F.Canedy (D) George Bush


13. Which of these is not a proper reason for coming of ‗Black Blizzards‘? (A) Entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripping off al grass (B) Recless uproot of all vegetation. (C) Blocked the flow of rivers (D) Tractors had turned the soil over, broken sod into dust 14. One maund was equal to (A) 40 seers (B) 40 kgs (C) 400 kg (D) 400 gms 15. Virgin vegetation which are of Indian origin are known as (A) Exotic (B) Endangered (C) Indigenous (D) Extinct 16. At more than 3600 mts, which of the vegetation is found? (A) Temperate (B) Mangrove (C) Alpine (D) Deciduous 17. Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal found in (A) Deciduous forests (B) Alpine forests (C) Thorn forests (D) Mangrove forests 18. Acacias plant mainly found in _______________ vegetation. (A) Thorn forests (B) Deciduous (C) Montane (D) Evergreen 19. Which of the following herbs or medicinal plants used to cure asthma and ulcers? (A) Arjun (B) Kachnar (C) Jamun (D) Tulsi 20. India has ____________ percentage of world‘s total number of flowing plants




(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 13 21. India stands at the __________place in the world and __________place in Asia in plant diversity. (A) 4

th and 2

nd (B) 10

th and 4

th (C) 4

th and 10

th (D) 2

nd and 4

th

22. The term used to denote plants of a particular region or period? (A) Fauna (B) Plant Kingdom (C) Flora (D) Vegetation 23. The total number of bio reserves in India, which have been included in world‘s network of Biosphere

reserves, are (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 14 24. Strike the odd one out (A) Nanda Devi (B) Sunderbans (C) Simlipal (D) Dudhwa 25. In which of the following state is the ‗Dachigam‘ National Park located? (A) Punjab (B) Orissa (C) Jammu & Kashmir (D) Assam 26. In Ladakh the Tibetan wild ass is also known as (A) Bharal (B) Kiang (C) Nilgai (D) Chausingha


27. Tropical Deciduous forests are also known as (A) wet temperate forests (B) evergreen forests (C) Monsoon forests (D) Coniferous 28. Forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar are found at a height of (A) Less than 1000 mts (B) Between 1000 to 2000 mts (C) Between 1500 to 3000 mts (D) More than 3600 mts 29. Which of the following states has lowest Lok Sabha constituencies in India? (A) Tripura (B) Manipur (C) Meghalaya (D) Mizoram 30. In total 543 Lok Sabha Constituencies in India how many seats are reserved for scheduled castes? (A) 100 (B) 79 (C) 41 (D) 30 31. Which of the following conditions not comes under minimum conditions of democratic election? (A) Every one has one vote and every vote has equal values. (B) The candidate preferred by people should get elected. (C) The candidate must be financially very good. (D) The elections must be held regularly after every few years. 32. The second backward classes commission appointed by the government of India in 1979 is also known

as (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Kaka Kalekar Committee (C) Mandal Commission (D) Mukherjee Committee 33. Executives, who are appointed on a long term basis by the government are known as (A) Ministers of cabinet (B) Ministers of state (C) Civil services (D) Lok Sabha 34. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country? (A) The Supreme Court (B) The President (C) The Prime Minister (D) The Parliament




35. According to world development Report, 2001, the percentage of population below $1 a day in India

was (A) 8.2 (B) 17.0 (C) 35.3 (D) 36.0 36. Which state of India has lowest poverty ratio in 1999 – 2000? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Gujarat (C) Delhi (D) Punjab 37. Which of the scheme assured 100 days employment every year to every rural household, in India? (A) NFWP (B) NREGA (C) PMRY (D) REGP 38. Which of the scheme promotes poor families to organize into self help groups? (A) SGSY (B) PMGY (C) PMRY (D) REGP 39. In India the accepted average calorie requirement per person per day in Urban areas is (A) 2800 calories (B) 2400 calories (C) 2100 calories (D) 1800 calories 40. The current anti-poverty strategy of government is based on the polices of (A) Promotion of economic growth (B) Providing monthly pensions to the poor families (C) Provide reservations in the jobs (D) None of these


SECTION – B (MATHEMATICS)

1. The measures of the angles of a quadrilateral taken in order are proportional to 1: 2:3: 4, then the

quadrilateral is: (A) parallelogram (B) trapezium (C) rectangle (D) rhombus 2. ABCD is a parallelogram, P and Q are the points on the diagonal AC such that AP = QC, then

quadrilateral BPDQ is a: (A) trapezium (B) parallelogram (C) square (D) None of these 3. In a parallelogram ABCD, bisectors of consecutive angles A and B intersect at P. Find the measure of

:APB

(A) 900 (B) 60

0 (C) 120

0 (D) data insufficient

4. In the given figure AE = BC and AE II BC and the three sides AB, CD

and ED are equal in length. If m 0102 ,A find measures of :BCD

(A) 1380 (B) 162

0

(C) 880 (D) None of these

A

B C

D

E

1020

5. A point X inside a rectangle PQRS is joined to the vertices then, which of the following is true:

(A) A PSX A RXQ (B) A PSX A PXQ A RSX A RQX

(C) A PXS A RXQ A SRX A PXQ

(D) None of the above

6. ABCD is a parallelogram. M 030 , 20DAB BC cm and 20AB cm . Find the area of parallelogram:

(A) 150 cm2 (B) 200 cm

2 (C) 400 cm

2 (D) 260 cm

2




7. The length of a side of rhombus is 10m and one of its diagonal is 12m. The length of the other diagonal is:

(A) 15 m (B) 18m (C) 16m (D) can‘t be determined 8. In a rectangle ABCD, P, Q are the mid-points of BC and AD respectively and R is any point on PQ, then

ar ARB equals:

(A) 1

2ar ( ABCD (B)

1

3ar ( ABCD

(C) 1

4ar ( ABCD (D) None of these

9. Diagonals of a parallelogram are 8 m and 6 m respectively. If one of side is 5m, then the area of

parallelogram is: (A) 18 m

2 (B) 30 m

2 (C) 24 m

2 (D) 48

m

2


10. C is the mid – point of DE. Area of parallelogram ABED = 16 Sq.

cm. Area of triangle ABC is (A) 8 sq. cm (B) .16 sq. cm (C) 0.016 sq. cm (D) 1.6 sq. cm

A B

CD E

11. PQST and QRST are parallelogram. What is the area of PRST?

(A) 3

2ab (B)

1

2

(C) ab (D) 3ab

P

Q

R

T Sa

b

12. A and B are two cities 100 km apart. From this two cities two cars start moving in the same direction

and they meet after 5 hours. If they moved towards each other then they would meet after 1 hours. What were the velocities of the cars A & B.

(A) 40 km/hr, 60 km/hr (B) 60 km/hr, 40 km/hr (C) 50 km/hr, 50 km/hr (D) None of these

13. A person has to cover a distance of 80 km in 10 hours. If he covers half of the journey in 3

5 time, what

should be his speed to cover the remaining distance in the time left . (A) 10 km/hr (B) 20 km/hr (C) 30 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr. 14. The line x = 3 passes through (A) 1

st and 2

nd quadrant (B) 2

nd and 3

rd quadrant

(C) 1st and 3

rd quadrant (D) 1

st and 4

th quadrant

15. The line y = 7 is parallel to (A) positive x – axis (B) positive y – axis




(C) negative x – axis (D) both (A) and (C) 16. If median is 1 mean is 1, then mode is (A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 0 (D) none of these





17. The mean of n observations is x . If the first item is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then the new mean is

(A) x n (B) n

x2

(C) n 1

x2

(D) none of these

18. The mean of set of observations 1 2 10, ........,x x x is 20 then mean of 1 2 3 104, 8, 12,....... 40x x x x

is (A) 34 (B) 42 (C) 28 (D) 40 19. Aman has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing

his average by 8 runs. His new average is- (A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 32

20. Mean of n observations 1 2, ,......., nx x x is x . If an observation xP is replaced by '

Px then new mean is

(A) '

P Px x x (B) '1 Pn x x

n

(C)

'

P Pnx x x

n

(D) x






1. A block of wood floats in a liquid with four-fifths of its volume submerged. If the relative density of wood is 0.8, what is the density of the liquid in units of kg m

-3?

(A) 750 (B) 1000 (C) 1250 (D) 1500 2. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new momentum will be (A) three times its initial value (B) four times its initial value (C) twice its initial value (D) unchanged 3. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of

their mass is: (A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4 4. A cube of ice is floating in water contained in a vessel. When the ice melts, find the change in the level

of water in the vessel if density of ice and water is same. (A) rises (B) falls (C) remains unchanged (D) falls at first and then rises to the same height as before 5. A body is dropped from a certain height. When it lost an amount of potential energy. ‗U‘, it subsequently

acquires a velocity ‗v‘. The mass of the body is

(A) 2

2U

v (B)

22

U

v (C)

2U

v (D)

2

2

2U

v 6. Density of ice is 900 kg/m

3. A piece of ice is floating in water of density 1000kg/m

2. Find the fraction of

volume of the piece of ice outside the water. (A) 0.9 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4 7. A body starts from rest and acquires a velocity V in time T. The work done on the body in time t will be

proportional to:

(A) V

tt

(B) 2 2V t

T (C)

2

2

Vt

T (D)

22

2

Vt

T 8. A ball is released from a certain height which loses 50% of its K.E. on striking the ground. It will attain a

height again (A) one fourth the initial height (B) half the initial height (C) three fourth initial height (D) none of the above 9. It is easier to draw up a wooden block along an inclined plane then to haul it up vertically, principally

because: (A) the friction is reduced (B) the mass becomes smaller (C) only a part of the weight has to be overcome (D) g becomes smaller.


10. A bucket tied to a string is lowered at a constant acceleration of g/4. If the mass of the bucket is m and

is lowered by a distance d, the work done by the string will be (assume the string to be massless):




(A) 1

mgd4

(B) 1

mgd3

(C) 3

mgd4

(D) 3

mgd4

11. The figure shows the vertical section of a friction less surface. A block of mass

2.0 kg is released from position A. Its kinetic energies (in J) as it reaches positions B, C and D (Given gravitational field 9.8 J/m/kg) are (A) 176.4; 274.4; 137.2 (B) 137.2; 176.4; 274.4 (C) 176.4; 137.2; 274.4 (D) 274.4; 137.2; 176.4

A

14.0 m

5.0 m7.0 m

B

C

D

12. A boy whose mass is 51 kg climbs, with constant speed, a vertical rope 6 m long in 10 seconds. How

much work does the boy perform? (Take 210 /g m s )

(A) 30 J (B) 306 J (C) 3060 J (D) 36000 J 13. A cricket ball is hit at 30

0 to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest

point is:

(A) K (B) 3

2

K (C)

2

K (D)

3

4

K

14. Force –displacement curve for a body is shown in the figure.

Displacement is one dimensional. Work done by the force in displacing the body from displacement zero to 6 m is given by: (A) zero (B) 10 J (C) 20 J (D) 60 J

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

+20 +10 0

-10

-20

Displacement (meter)

Fo

rce

(N

ew

ton

)


1. The formula mass of Al2O3 is (A) 100 gm (B) 103 gm (C) 102 gm (D) 101. 2. Who put forward the law of constant proportions? (A) Dalton (B) Lavoisier (C) J.L. Proust (D) Bohr. 3. The No. of atoms in 4.25 gm of NH3 is approximately

(A) 231 10 (B)

232 10 (C) 234 10 (D)

236 10


4. Which has maximum No. of atoms? (A) 24 gm C (B) 56 gm Fe (C) 27 gm Al (D) 108 gm Ag. 5. The percentage of Nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) is about




(A) 46 % (B) 85% (C) 18% (D) 28% 6. An organic compound made of C, H & N contains 20% nitrogen. Its empirical formula weight is (A) 70 (B) 140 (C) 100 (D) 65 7. 1 amu has mass equal to

(A) 281.99 10 kg (B)

271.66 10 kg (C) 319.11 10 kg (D)

263.011 10 .kg

8. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same No. of molecules? (A) 16 gm O2 & 14 gm of N2 (B) 8 gm O2 and 22 gm of CO2 (C) 28 gm of N2 and 22 gm of CO2 (D) 32 gm O2 & 32 gm of N2. 9. Which has the highest mass? (A) 50 gm of iron (B) 5 moles of N2 (C) 0.1 gm atom of Ag (D) 10

23 atom of carbon.

10. The No. of atoms is greatest in (A) 71 gm of chlorine (B) 48 gm of Magnesium (C) 127 gm of iodine (D) 4 gm of hydrogen

11. Boron has too stable isotopes 10 19%B and 11 81% .B The atomic mass should appear for boron

in the periodic table is (A) 10.8 (B) 10.2 (C) 11.2 (D) 10.0 12. The total No. of atoms in 48 gm of O3 at NTP?

(A) 236.023 10 (B)

2312.044 10 (C) 241.8066 10 (D)

232.007 10

13. The No. of atoms present in 16 gm of oxygen is?

(A) 226.02 10 (B)

233.01 10 (C) 223.01 10 (D)

236.02 10

14. Which of the following contains greatest no. of atoms. (A) 1 gm O (B) 1 gm O2 (C) 1 gm O3 (D) All have the same No. of atoms.



1. A reservoir of infection is the one in which (A) Large scale infection occurs (B) The pathogen resides without producing disease (C) The pathogen passes its sexual phase (D) The pathogen passes its asexual phase




2. A fomite method of transmission of disease is through (A) Food (B) Door handles (C) Mosquitoes (D) Soil 3. BCG is a vaccine meant for protection against (A) Mumps (B) Tuberculosis (C) Poliomyelitis (D) Tetanus 4. A disease against which vaccination is resorted only during epidemics (A) Diarrhoeal diseases (B) Tetanus (C) Cholera (D) Taeniasis 5. An antibody is (A) Phagocyte (B) Molecule that inactivates antigen (C) Component of RBC (D) Component of blood 6. Cancer is (A) Nonmalignant tumour (B) Controlled division of cells (C) Uncontrolled division of cells (D) Viral infection 7. Congenital diseases are (A) Diseases present at birth (B) Deficiency diseases (C) Spread from one individual to another (D) Occur during life 8. Jaundice is due to (A) Excessive intake of Curcuma (B) Excessive intake of sugar (C) Pork (D) Contaminated water 9. Vaccination protects a person from disease because it (A) Helps in better digestion (B) Increases RBC count (C) Produces antibodies (D) Corrects body heating system 10. A communicable disease is (A) Kwashiorkar (B) Diphtheria (C) Diabetes (D) Hypertension 11. Cerebral malaria is caused by (A) Plasmodium vivax (B) P.ovale (C) P.malariae (D) P.falciparum 12. Zoonotic disease transmitted to humans is (A) Measles (B) Diphtheria (C) Rabies (D) Trachoma






PHASE TEST – III

QP CODE: XXXX.0

Scholastic Aptitude Test ANSWERS

SECTION-A SST

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A

SECTION-B MATHEMATICS

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. C

SECTION-C PHYSICS

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. A

SECTION-D CHEMISTRY

1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. D

SECTION-E BIOLOGY

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C





PHASE – 3

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT) QP CODE: XXXX.0


INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.











Booklet with them.










1. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 440 kms in 4 hours, then the

speed of the first train is: (A) 47.4 km/hr (B) 57.19 km/hr (C) 68.13 km/hr (D) None of these 2. A worker reaches his work place 15 minutes late by walking at 4 kmph from his house. The next day he

increases his speed by 2 kmph and reaches in time. Find the distance from his house to his work place (A) 2 km (B) 6 km (C) 8 km (D) 3 km 3. I had to catch a bus which was 225 m ahead of me. The bus also started at the same time. If the speed

of the bus was 2.5 m/sec and my speed was 36 kmph, in how much time can I catch the bus? (A) 20 sec (B) 25 sec (C) 30 sec (D) 40 sec 4. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 65 kmph and 45 kmph. The faster train crosses a man in

slower train in 18 seconds. The length of the faster train is (A) 120 m (B) 180 m (C) 100 m (D) 145 m 5. A train of length 150 m takes 40.5 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 300 m. The speed of the train (in

km/hr) is (A) 13.33 (B) 26.67 (C) 40 (D) 400 6. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr will pass an electric pole in (A) 20 sec (B) 16 sec (C) 15 sec (D) 18 sec 7. Alok maintained his average speed for a journey at 25% more than his usual average speed. The time

he must have taken to cover it must be

(A) 5

4th of the usual time (B)

4

5 of the usual time

(C) 4

3rd of the usual time (D)

3

4th of the usual time

8. 6 6 6 ... is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 9. The sum of the squares of two natural consecutive odd numbers is 394. The sum of the numbers is (A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 28

10. Given that 4096 64, the value of 4096 40.96 0.004096 is

(A) 70.4 (B) 70.464 (C) 71.104 (D) 71.4 11. The average of 3 numbers is 154. The first number is twice the second and the second number is twice

the third. The first number is (A) 264 (B) 132 (C) 88 (D) 66





12. Walking at 3km per hour, Pintu reaches his school 5 minutes late. If he walks at 4 km per hour he will

be 5 minutes early. The distance of Pintu‘s school from his house is

(A) 1

1 km2

(B) 2km (C) 1

2 km2

(D) 5km

13. If x and y are positive with x – y = 2 and xy = 24, then yx

11 is equal to

(A) 12

5 (B)

12

1 (C)

6

1 (D)

6

25

14. If 391 is divided into three parts proportional to 3:3

2:

2

1, then the first part is

(A) 150 (B) 160 (C) 180 (D) None

15. A car covers 1

5 of the distance from A to B at the speed of 8km/hr,

1

10 of the distance at 25 km per

hour and the remaining at the speed of 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of the whole journey. (A) 12.625 km/hr (B) 13.625 km/hr (C) 14.625 km/hr (D) 15.625 km/hr 16. Pointing to a man a boy said he is my father‘s only brother how is the man related to that boy (A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father in law (D) None of these

17. A man driving at 3

4th of his original speed reaches his destination 20 minutes later than the usual time.

Then the usual time is (A) 45 minutes (B) 60 minutes (C) 75 minutes (D) 120 minutes 18. A motor-boat can travel at 10 km/hour in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river and then

returned to the same place, talking altogether 20 hours. Find the rate of flow of river (A) 3 km/hour (B) 4 km/hour (C) 2 km/hour (D) 5 km/hour 19. A motor-boat, travelling at the same speed, can cover 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8

hours. At the same speed, it can travel 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. The speed of the stream is

(A) 2 km/hr (B) 3 km/hr (C) 4 km/hr (D) 5 km/hr 20. If a = 4b + 26, and b is a positive integer, then a could be divisible by all of the following EXCEPT (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6





21. Ray and Janelive 150 miles apart. They each drive toward the other‘s house along a straight road

connecting the two, Ray at a constant rate of 30 miles per hour and Jane at a constant rate of 50 miles per hour. If Ray and Jane leave their houses at the same time, how many miles are they from Ray‘s house when they meet?

(A) 40 (B) 2

151 (C)

4

156 (D) 75

22. If a

2b = 12

2 and b is an odd integer then a could be divisible by all of the following except

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 9 23. Vineet started walking towards west. Then he turned to the right. Once again he turned to the right

and last of all, he turned to the left. Towards which direction is he going now? (A) north (B) south (C) east (D) west 24. In the given figure, P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400

km north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is

(A) 250 km

(B) 250 2 km

(C) 300 km (D) 350 km

North

Q

O P

R

East 25. Starting from a point A, Prasad walked 60 m towards east, and turning to his right walked 40 metres.

Turning again to his right he walked 45 metres. He turned again to his right and walked 40 m and reached a point B. How far is point A from point B and in which direction?

(A) 20 m west (B) 75 m east (C) 15 m west (D) 15 m east 26. A dog is taken out every evening by the owner whose house faces East. They walk 200 m West, then

500 m. in South direction. Which direction should they take to reach home? (A) North-East (B) North (C) North-West (D) South-East 27. A young man turned towards north from point A and walked 30 mtrs. Then he turned to his left and

walked another 40 mtrs. Then he reached the point B. Locate the direction of point B. (A) east – west (B) north – west (C) east – south (D) south – west 28. A rat runs 20 m towards east and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 m and again turns

to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which direction is the rat facing?

(A) East (B) North (C) West (D) South 29. A travelled 5 km westward, turned left and travelled 3 km turned right and travelled 9 km. He then

travelled 3 km north. How far was A from the starting point? (A) 3 km (B) 5 km (C) 10 km (D) 14 km





30. A chameleon climbs 50 cm in half an hour and immediately slides down 10 cm. How much time does it

take to reach the top of a wall 200 cm high? (A) 3 hrs (B) 2 hrs 30 min (C) 2 hrs 24 min (D) it will never reach the top 31. Ramesh stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 metre and then

turned Northwards and walked another 12 metre. How far was he then from the starting point (A) 12 metre (B) 10 metre (C) 9 metre (D) 5 metre 32. At my house I am facing west, Then I turn left and go 10 m, then I turn 90° anti-clockwise and go 5 m,

and then I go 5 m to south and from there 5 m to the west. In which direction am I from my house? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 33. Four friends A, B, C and D live in a same locality. The house of B is in the east of A‘s house but in the

north of C‘s house. The house of C is in the west of D‘s house. D‘s house is in which direction of A‘s house?

(A) South-East (B) South (C) North (D) South – West 34. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 p.m. hour –hand points to North. In which

direction the minute-hand will point at 9:15 p.m.? (A) South – East (B) South (C) North (D) West Directions (Questions 35 to 37): A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight persons of a family. G is E‘s father-in-law

and has two grandchildren. A is the only brother of B. C is the wife of A and has one daughter. H is D‘s grandmother. H has two children.

35. Who is married to G? (A) B (B) F (C) H (D) D 36. Who is the daughter of A and C? (A) F (B) D (C) Either F or D (D) E 37. How is A related to D? (A) Father (B) Mother (C) Uncle (D) Can‘t be determined

38. S T means ‗S is the brother of T‘.

S T means ‗S is the mother of T‘.

S T means ‗S is the father of T‘.

Which of the following represents ‗M is the son of Q‘?

(A) M R Q (B) M R Q (C) M R Q (D) Q M R

39. P + Q means ‗P is the brother of Q‘. P Q means ‗P is the father of Q‘. P – Q means ‗P is the sister of Q‘. Which of the following represents S is the niece of T?

(A) T S M K (B) T M S K (C) K S M T (D) T M S K





Directions (Questions 40 to 42):

A B means ‗A is the daughter of B‘.

A B means ‗A is the son of B‘.

A B means ‗A is the wife of B‘.

40. Given ,P Q S which of the following is true?

(A) S is the wife of Q (B) P is the daughter of Q (C) S is the father of P (D) Q is the father of P

41. Given ,T S B M which of the following is not true?

(A) B is the mother of S (B) M is husband of B (C) S is the daughter of B (D) T is the wife of S

42. Given ,Z T S U P how is U related to Z?

(A) Grandmother (B) father (C) Mother (D) Can‘t say 43. Pointing to a woman, a girl said, ‗She is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father‘s son‘.

How is the woman related to the girl? (A) Sister-in-law (B) Cousin (C) Mother (D) Aunt 44. Pointing to a lady, a man said, ‗She is the only daughter of my mother‘s husband‘s only son‘. How is the

lady related to the man? (A) Sister (B) Aunt (C) Daughter (D) Niece 45. Introducing a girl, Vinay said, ―The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife‘. How is the girl

related to Vinay? (A) Grandmother (B) Mother-in-law (C) Maternal aunt (D) Sister of father-in-law 46. Pointing to a photograph a man tells his friend, ‗She is the daughter of the only son of my father‘s wife‘.

How is the girl in the photograph related to the man? (A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Wife (D) Cousin





Directions (Questions 47 to 48): A B means ‗A is the father of B‘. A * B means ‗A is the sister of B‘. A + B means ‗A is the bother of B‘. A – B means ‗A is the mother of B‘. A B means ‗A is the son of B‘. A = B means ‗A is the daughter of B‘. 47. Which of the following means X is the grandfather of Y?

(A) X Z Y (B) Y Z X (C) Z X Y (D) X Y Z 48. Which of the following means Y is the mother of X and Z?

(A) X Y Z (B) Y X Z (C) Y X Z (D) Y X Z 49. A person travels a distance of 5 m towards the East from his house, he then travels a distance of 8 m

towards the North and then travels a distance of 4 m towards the East and finally 12 m towards North. What is his approximate distance from his house?

(A) 20 m (B) 22m (C) 23 m (D) 24 m 50. A person starts from his house and travels 6 m towards the West, he then traveled 4 m towards his left

and then travels 8 m towards West and 3 m towards South. Finally he turns right and travels 5m. What is the horizontal distance he has traveled from his house?

(A) 19 m (B) 20 m (C) 21 m (D) 22m





FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE – 3


QP CODE: XXXX.0

ANSWERS

1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. C 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. A

FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE – III SET- B





(ENG) QP CODE: XXXX.0


INSTRUCTIONS

Directions (1 – 5): Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. Stories of dolphins saving human lives have been told throughout history. The latest incident happened

recently when dolphins save the life of an Australian surfer from shark which tore a chunk out of his surfboard. As the shark moved in for the kill it was chased away by a group of dolphins.

Some scientists argue that such behavior is an instinctive response to distress signals. Others insist

that incidents like these are deliberate acts of compassion adding support to the widespread belief that dolphins are highly intelligent.

A: General :


pen.











Booklet with them.










Two factors were initially responsible for sparking off the popular idea that dolphins might possess high intelligence. The first was the size of the dolphin brains. In some species it is about the same weight as out own. The second factor was the work of Dr. John Lilly who convinced that dolphins must possess a language, set about trying to prove this theory by teaching captive dolphins to speak English. But Lilly‘s work, though appealing, proved nothing except that dolphins are talented vocal mimics.

But in seeking to establish whether dolphins share human characteristics, we may be barking up the

wrong tree. As dolphins have evolved in an environment completely like out own, it is reasonable to expect that their intelligence will be a different kind too.

1. What does the phrase ‗ braking up wrong tree‘ mean? (A) Taking the bark of wrong tree. (B) Climbing up a wrong tree. (C) Moving in different directions. (D) Making the mistake of taking wrong direction. 2. What sort of environment are dolphins believed to have evolved for themselves? (A) completely like our own. (B) altogether different from ours. (C) like that of any other species. (D) like that of other marine creatures. 3. Who tried to teach the captive dolphins to speak English? (A) a scientist (B) a doctor (C) Dr. John Lilly (D) an Australian surfer 4. What ‗widespread belief‘ s referred to? (A) that dolphins instinctively respond to distress signals. (B) that dolphins are compassionate. (C) that dolphins share human characteristics. (D) that dolphins are highly intelligent. 5. Chasing of the shark by a group of dolphins was (A) in response to distress signals (B) an act of compassion (C) they took the victim to their fellows (D) both (1) and (2)





Directions (6 – 9): Complete the paragraph by property re-arranging the given sentences, without disturbing the first and the last sentences: 6. S1 With the declaration of independences, some mad people caused Hindu – Muslim riots at so many

places in the country. S2 S3 S4 S5 But this godly man, who had always preached non –violence, fell victim to violence. Re – arrange the sentences (PQR) property between S1 and S5. P - He observed fasts to end the mutual hostility and establish peace between the Hindus and Muslisms Q – He impressed upon both the communities to live like brothers R - Gandhiji felt deeply hurt at this madness. Choose from the options given below: (A) RPQ (B) PQR (C) PRQ (D) RQP 7. S1 Gandhiji is, no doub, dead. S2 S3 S4 S5 Indeed, Gandhiji was an apostle of truth and non – violence, a true servant of humanity, who left his

foot prints on the sands of time. Re – arrange the sentences (PQR) property between S1 and S5. P - We will continue for all ages to remember him as Bapu, the Father of the Nation. Q – But his spirit of truth, service and non – violence is alive. R - It will always guide and inspire us. Choose from the options given below: (A) PQR (B) QRP (C) QPR (D) PRQ 8. S1 The problem of rising prices must be tackled by our government. S2 S3 S4 S5 Besides, public protest against the price rise should be organized by social organizations and fair

minded people. Re – arrange the sentences (PQR) property between S1 and S5. P - The hoarders, black marketers and profiteers should be brought to book.

Q – Fair price shops should be opened in large numbers and public distribution system of essential commodities should be geared up.

R - A very strong and strict action needs to be taken against such enemies of the society who reap undue profits at the cost of consumers.

Choose from the options given below: (A) PQR (B) PRQ (C) QRP (D) RPQ





9. S1 The growing industrialization and multiplying means of transport are most hazardous to air

pollution. S2 S3 S4 S5 Besides, air pollution is responsible for respiratory ailments, T.B., eye ailments, even cancer and

mental retardation of children. Re – arrange the sentences (PQR) property between S1 and S5. P - The exhaust of carbon monoxide and nitrogen etc. from our automobiles is further worsening the

state of air pollution. Q – The emission of smoke, coal dust, toxic chemicals radioactive wastes etc. from the chimneys of factories is causing a lot of air pollution.

R - The excessive presence of dangerous chemicals in the atmosphere sometimes causes acid rains which are injurious to soil, vegetation and water species.

Choose from the options given below: (A) PQR (B) RQP (C) QPR (D) RPQ Directions (10 – 14): Choose the appropriate sentence from the given options to complete the short para of three sentences. The second sentence is missing from each para. 10. A. There is a lot of vulgarity, obscenity and immorality shown on the T.V.

B. _________________________________________ C. Most of the films, serials, advertisements and other programmes have a negative impact on the

viewers. Options (A) T.V. serials and films contain vulgar pictures and dialogues. (B) Our long cherished morals and values are disrespected. (C) There is hardly any moral preaching done in the T.V. programmes. (D) Actions, behaviour, dresses etc. of the actors and actresses in the T.V. programmes are mostly

objectionable. 11. A. An ideal teacher leads a very simple life.

B. _________________________________________ C. His first and foremost priority is his duty towards his students. Options (A) He has minimum possible needs (B) His thoughts and ideas are dignified and desirable. (C) An ideal teacher is most regular and punctual. (D) He is most disciplined and law – abiding. 12. A. Games and sports play a very important part in out life.

B. _________________________________________ C. Also, they provide a pleasant diversion. Options (A) Playing games makes us refreshed and recharged. (B) Games and sports provide a good training for the game of life. (C) They make us healthy, both physically and mentally. (D) A person who does not take part in games and sports is a greater loser.





13. A. T.V. has destroyed much of our active life

B. _________________________________________ C. There is hardly any active participation of the viewer. Options (A) T.V. is a mixed blessing. (B) It is a passive recreation. (C) Mostly, people prefer watching T.V. to entertaining themselves through outdoor activities. (D) T.V. watching has an adverse effect on out social activities. 14. A. People should be educated about the need of family planning.

B. _________________________________________ C. A big family is a curse not only for an individual but also for the nation. Options (A) In a big family proper upbringing and education of children becomes difficult. (B) Hence the size of the family must be restricted. (C) They should be made to realize the advantages of small families. (D) 15. Leave a two – inch _____________on each page for the teacher‘s remarks. (A) border (B) margin (C) blank (D) gap 16. Physically we are now all neighbours, but psychologically we are ____________ to each other. (A) primitives (B) complimentary (C) strangers (D) cowards 17. It is not what you say that ___________ but what you do. (A) matches (B) implies (C) matters (D) moves 18. The ___________ job made him obese and led to diabetes. (A) detestable (B) hard (C) irregular (D) sedentary 19. The actor‘s sitting room was luxurious and ______________. (A) congested (B) elevated (C) costly (D) ostentatious 20. Though they are paid high wages, bonus and other amenities, the workers appear to be ___________. (A) lazy (B) untruthful (C) hardworking (D) sluggish 21. In his testimonial the witness gave a ____________ distortion of the truth. (A) grotesque (B) unbelievable (C) exact (D) countless 22. His mental ___________ accounts for this kind of work. (A) firmness (B) alertness (C) aberration (D) tightrope





Directions (23 – 30): Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms 23. Pull back (A) Push back (B) Withdraw/retreat (C) Hold back (D) Keep back 24. Cut down (A) Reduce (B) Hold down (C) Keep down (D) Take down 25. Look back (A) See backwards (B) Examine (C) Think of the past (D) Rejoice over some past

happening 26. Take after (A) Take care (B) Resemble (C) Get after (D) Look after 27. Push for (A) Demand persistently (B) Ask politely (C) Be aggressive (D) Be submissives 28. Take off (A) Get off (B) Withdraw (C) Pull back (D) Remove 29. Put by (A) Keep by (B) Spare something for future (C) Have something for present (D) Push back 30. Put something down (A) Hold something down (B) Present something (C) Ask for something (D) Record something Directions (31 – 38): Fill in the blanks (of the passage) by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank

from the given options. Very soon Galileo found (31) _____ in trouble at the university. He was (32)______ strong young man

with red hair (33)_______ a cheerful face but a very short temper. He often disagreed (34)_______ his teachers. The professors at Pisa disliked him (35)________ he was determined to think for himself and test (36)________ practical experiments (37)______ the theories they taught him. But (38)________ a true scientist, Galileo refused to accept any idea without questions.

Options: 31. (A) him (B) them (C) her (D) himself 32. (A) an (B) a (C) very (D) too 33. (A) as (B) and (C) as well as (D) very





34. (A) to (B) on (C) with (D) towards 35. (A) for (B) since (C) but (D) and 36. (A) for (B) the (C) to (D) in 37. (A) for (B) and (C) to (D) as 38. (A) for (B) since (C) such (D) like Directions (39 – 48): Choose the correct phrase from the given options to complete the sentence. 39. We should not indulge in ______ (A) high talks (B) low talks (C) great talks (D) tall talks 40. Do not _________your superiors in office. (A) talk down (B) run down (C) walk out (D) stand out 41. They failed to ________his tricks. (A) see through (B) see on (C) see at (D) see for 42. Passing this examination is not ______________; work hard. (A) a child‘s game (B) a child‘s dream (C) a child‘ play (D) a child‘s race 43. His evil deeds __________after his death. (A) came to night (B) came to light (C) has come to light (D) came to dark 44. She_______ to win him over but failed. (A) did her best (B) done her best (C) do her best (D) will do her best 45. We ____________ different types of people during travel. (A) came over (B) met over (C) came across (D) came on 46. He _________ her as his own sister. (A) look at (B) looked at (C) looked over (D) looked on 47. Grand father is _________ a chair in the garden. (A) reclining at (B) reclining for (C) reclining over (D) reclining on 48. He will ______ the subject tomorrow. (A) dwelt on (B) dwell in (C) dwell on (D) dwell upon Directions (49 – 50): Which of the following option correctly defines the antonym of the highlighted word. 49. There is quite tenuous evidence for it (A) substantial (B) enough (C) reasonable (D) ample 50. The injection was given to the patient to alleviate the pain (A) Elevate (B) sharpen (C) aggravate (D) promote





FIITJEE COMMON TEST


PHASE – III SET- B

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST (ENG) QP CODE: XXXX.0

ANSWERS

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D

5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. C

49. A 50. C

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

Class-IX

CCPPTT--IIVV ((NNoorrmmaall)) ((AA--LLOOTT)) PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

SET-A

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Date : Maximum Marks: 240




INSTRUCTIONS



E. General Instructions


2. This question paper contains Three Sections.


4. Each part is further divided into three parts : PART-A, PART-B & PART-C



F. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR

sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment No.

and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. 3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers. C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. (i) Part-A contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries

+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer. Part -A contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct

answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(ii) Part-B contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.

(iii) Part-C contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .






1. For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be

(Given velocity of sound = 344 m/s): (A) 17.2 m (B) 34.4 m (C) 172 m (D) 344 m

2. When light waves and sound waves travel from air to water then choose the most appropriate option: (A) Light bend towards normal while sound bend away from normal (B) Sound bend towards normal while light bend away from normal (C) Both light and sound bends towards normal (D) Both light and sound bends away from normal 3. On a rainy wet day, a thunder is heard 6 second after lightening. If speed of sound is 350ms

–1 the

altitude of the clouds is: (A) 1.8 km (B) 1.9 km (C) 2.5 km (D) 2.1 km 4. On a hot, dry summer day a boy is standing between plane parallel vertical cliffs separated by 75m. He

is 30 m away from one of the cliffs. Consider speed of sound in air on that hot day to be 360 m/s. The boy claps loudly and hears its successive echoes. The time in seconds at which he hears the first four echoes are respectively:

(A)1 1 5 5

, , ,6 4 12 12

(B)1 1 7 2

, , ,6 4 12 3

(C)1 1 5 7

, , ,4 3 12 12

(D)1 1 1 5

, , ,6 4 3 12

5. Which of the following waves can propagate in a vacuum? 1. Radio waves 2. Infrasonic waves 3. X-rays 4. Ultrasonic waves Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: (A) 1and 3 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4

6. If at a given place speed of infrasonic sound, audible sound and ultra-sonic sound be Vi, Va and

Vurespectively. Then which of the following relation is correct:

(A) Vi=Va =Vu (B) Vi>Va>Vu (C) Vi<Va<Vu (D) Vu>Vi=Va

7. A Boy‘s audible range is 30-16500 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, then the longest

wavelength of sound in air, which the boy can hear is: (A) 0.02 m (B) 2m (C) 7m (D) 11m 8. An observer standing in front of a vertical wall claps 10 times in 1 seconds. He adjusts his distance from

the wall in such a way that the sound of his clapping coincides with the echo. This happens when his distance from the wall is 17.5 m, then the speed of the sound is:

(A) 300 m/s (B) 330 m/s (C) 340 m/s (D) 350 m/s

More than One Correct Type

9. Which of the following are transmitted by a wave? (A) Momentum (B) Energy (C) Mass (D) None of these 10. A mechanical wave propagates in a medium along x-axis, then the particles of the medium: (A) May move along the x- axis (B) May move along the y- axis. (C) May move along the z- axis (D) Must move along the x- axis. 11. The velocity of sound is affected by change in: (A) Pressure (at constant temperature) (B) Medium (C) Density of medium (D) Temperature of medium 12. Choose the correct statement/statements: (A) Amplitude of a sound wave determines its loudness. (B) Frequency of a sound wave determines its pitch.




(C) Quality or timbre depends upon the shape of the wave form of a sound wave. (D) Frequency of sound heard by a stationary listener is more than actual frequency of sound if a

source of sound moves towards it.

PART - B

MATRIX TYPE



(A) The phenomenon of persistence or prolongation of sound in auditorium

(p) SONAR

(B) The branch of physics that deals with generation , propagation and reception of sound

(q) Acoustics

(C) The phenomenon of change in frequency of a wave due to relative motion between source and observer

(r) Reverberation

(D) Technique that uses sound propagation to navigate or communicate or detect a object

(s) Doppler‘s effect

14. Match the folowing :


(A) Sound waves in solids (p) Electromagnetic

(B) Light waves (q) Mechanical

(C) Micro waves (r) Transverse

(D) Waves on surface of water (s) Longitudinal

PART – C

Numerical Based

15. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 2.5 cm. If 10 complete waves pass through any point per 5 second then calculate velocity of the wave in cm/sec.

16. A source of frequency 500 Hertz emits waves of wavelength 0.2 meter, then calculate the time in

second taken by the wave in travelling 300 meters distance. 17. Sound is emitted from a source on the one end of a metallic tube of length 664 m. Two sounds are

heard at an interval of 1.5 sec on the other end of the tube. The velocity of sound in metal is given as k × 332 m/s, then calculate value of k.

(Velocity of sound in air is 332 m/sec.) 18. If the frequency of a sound wave is 100 Hz then number of times the particles of the medium cross their

mean position in one second is given as k × 100, then calculate value of k. 19. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100m apart and whose velocity is 25 m/s. These

waves strike the boat once every k seconds, then calculate the value of k. 20. A sound wave produces 60 compressions and 60 rarefactions in 0.6 second; such that the frequency of

the sound wave is k × 100 hz, then calculate value of k.




SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)


21. The ion that is iso-electronic with CO is

(A) O2– (B) N2

+ (C) CN

– (D) O2

+

22. According to Aufbau principle the 19

th electron in an atom goes into the :

(A) 4s-orbital (B) 3d-orbital (C) 4p-orbital (D) 3p-orbital 23. Which electron transition in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy ?

(A) From n = 1 to n = 2 (B) From n = 2 to n =3 (C) From n = to n = 1 (D) From n = 3 to n = 5 24. The energy of an electron in n

th orbit of hydrogen atom is :

(A) 4

13.6eV

n (B)

3

13.6eV

n (C)

2

13.6eV

n (D)

13.6eV

n

25. Electron is a particle having a (A) negative charge of one unit and zero mass (B) positive charge of one unit and zero mass (C) negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 9.1 × 10

–31 kg

(D) negative charge of one unit and a mass of about 1.67 × 10–27

kg 26. If wavelength of photon is 2.2 × 10

–11 m, h = 6.6 × 10

–34 Js, then momentum of photon is :

(A) 3 × 10–23

kg m s–1

(B) 3.33 × 1022

kg m s–1

(C) 1.452 × 10

–44 kg m s

–1 (D) 6.89 × 10

43 kg m s

–1

27. In the decay series, A B C D

(A) A and B are isobars (B) A and C are isobars (C) A and D are isotopes (D) B and C are isotopes 28. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression :

(A) 4 + 2 (B) 4 – 2 (C) 2 + 1 (D) 2n2


29. The angular momentum of any electron can have the value(s) :

(A) h

3

(B) h

2.5

(C) 0.5h

(D) h

30. Which order of energies of orbitals is / are incorrect in a multielectron atom ? (A) 3d < 2s (B) 2s > 2p (C) 4s < 5s (D) 3s < 3p 31. Which of the following electron configuration(s) follow the Pauli‘s exclusion principle ? (A) 1s

2 2s

2 2p

7 (B) 1s

2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 (C) 1s

2 2s

2 (D) 1s

2 2s

2 2p

4 3s

3

32. Which of the following match is / are correct ? (A) Maximum number of electrons in a principal shell (n) – 2n

2 rule

(B) Maximum number of orbitals in a shell – n2 rule.

(C) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom – 2 + 1 rule (D) Total number of subshells in a principal shell – 2n

2 rule

PART - B

MATRIX TYPE

33. Match the following column :


(A) Energy of electron in nth orbit (p) n

2




(B) Wavelength of an electron in nth orbit (q)

2

1

n

(C) Velocity of electron in nth orbit (r) n

(D) Radius of electron in nth orbit (s)

1

n

34. Match the following column :


(A) Na (p) Valence electron in 3rd

orbit

(B) P (q) Valence electron in 2nd

orbit

(C) Li (r) Half filled subshell

(D) Mg (s) One unpaired electron


35. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M electrons. The number of occupied subshells in ground state is: 36. An atom has 35 nucleons and has atomic number equal to to 17. The number of electrons with n = 2,

m = 0 in it is: 37. Maximum number of electrons in an atom which can have n = 2 is :

38. En = 2

313.6

n Kcals/mol. If the value of En = –34.84 Kcals/mol, to which value of ‗n‘ corresponds :

39. Maximum number of electrons with clockwise spin that can be accommodated in a f-subshell is : 40. The number of unpaired electrons in the electronic configuration 1s

2 2s

2 2p

4 is :






41. Diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral are the diameters of that circle, then quadrilateral is a : (A) parallelogram (B) square (C) rectangle (D) trapezium 42. In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of a circle. AB and CD are its two

chords. If OM AB, ON CD and OM = ON, then

(A) AB CD (B) AB < CD (C) AB > CD (D) AB = CD

43. A 10 cm deep well with diameter 6 cm is dug and the earth spread even to form a platform

22 cm × 10 cm × x cm. The value of x is (A) 2.2 (B) 1.12 (C) 1.28 (D) 1.3 44. A hemispherical bowl has outer diameter 16 cm and thickness 1 cm. Find the volume of milk it can hold. (A) 718.66 cm3 (B) 719.66 cm3 (C) 717.33 cm3 (D) 718.33 cm3 45. If the perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 cm, then its surface area is : (A)120 cm

2 (B) 150 cm

2 (C) 125 cm

2 (D) 400 cm

2

46. Probability of an event can be

(A) – 0.7 (B) 11

9 (C) 1.001 (D) 0.6

47. A coin is tossed 40 times and it showed tail 24 times. The probability of getting a head was :

(A) 2

5 (B)

3

5 (C)

1

2 (D)

17

40

48. A bag contains 10 balls, out of which 4 balls are white and the others are non-white. The probability of

getting a non white ball is :

(A) 2

5 (B)

3

5 (C)

1

2 (D)

2

3





49. Two circles are drawn with sides PQ and PR of a triangle PQR as diameters. Circles intersect at a point S. Then

(A) PSQ and PSR form a linear pair angles (B) PSQ and PSR are complementary angles

(C) PSQ and PSR are supplementary angles (D) Points Q, S, R are collinear points 50. The base radii of two right circular cones of the same height are in the ratio 3 : 5 respectively r1 and r2.

The ratio of their volumes is :

(A) 2 22 1r : r (B) 2 2

1 2r : r (C) 25 : 9 (D) 9 : 25

51. Which of the following is/are not outcome ? (A) Rolling a pair of dice (B) Landing on red (C) Choosing two marbles from a jar (D) Tossing a coin

52. Which of the following is not the sample space when two coins are tossed ? (A) {H, T, H, T} (B) {H, T} (C) {HH, HT, TH, TT} (D) {HH, TT}


53. Match the column:

Column – I Column – II (A) In the given figure, ADC =

(p) 120°

(B) In the figure given below, O is the centre

of the circle. If AB = BC and AOB = 70°

then OBC is equal to

(q) 75°

(C) In the given figure, the points A, B, C and

D lie on a circle. If ACB = 75° then

ADB is equal to

(r) 45°

(D) If an equilateral triangle PQR is inscribed

in a circle with centre O, then QOR is equal to.

(s) 55°

54. Match the column: Column – I Column – II

(A) Total surface area of right circular cylinder is (p) 21

r h3

(B) Total surface area of right circular cone is (q) r2h

(C) Volume of cylinder is (r) r(l + r) (D) Volume of cone is (s) 2r(r + h)


55. A sphere has only ___ surface and that is curved. 56. Maximum no. of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles is:




57. The Volume of a metallic cylindrical pipe is 748 cm3. Its length is 14 cm and its external radius is 9 cm.

then its thickness is ________ 58. In the given figure, A and B are the centres of the circles shown. The circles intersects at C and D. Find

1

40 (CED + CFD)

59. A dice is rolled. Find the number of outcomes for getting a composite number. 60. A coin is tossed 20 times and head occurred 12 times. How many times did tail occur ?

* * * * * *




ANSWER KEY SET-A

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

S.No. Ans. C.Code S.No. Ans. C.Code S.No. Ans. C.Code

1. (A) [P090602] 21. (C) [C090407] 41. (C) [M090907]

2. (A) [P090607] 22. (A) [C090405] 42. (D) [M090905]

3. (D) [P090606] 23. (A) [C090404] 43. (C) [M091206]

4. (A)

[P090602] 24. (C) [C090404] 44. (A) [M091206]

5. (A) [P090606] 25. (C) [C090401] 45. (B) [M091201]

6. (A) [P090608] 26. (A) [C090410] 46. (D) [M100202]

7. (D) [P090605] 27. (C) [C090409] 47. (A) [M100203]

8. (D) [P090601] 28. (A) [C090405] 48. (B) [M100203]

9. (A,B) [P090607] 29. (B,C,D) [C090404] 49. (A, C, D) [M090913]

10. (A,B,C) [P090607] 30. (A,B) [C090405] 50. (B, D) [M091205]

11. (B,C,D) [P090606] 31. (B,C) [C090405] 51. (A, C, D) [M100202]

12. (A,B,C,D) [P090607] 32. (A,B) [C090404] 52. (A, B, D) [M100202]

13.

A-r; B-q; C-s; D-p

[P090609, [P090601]]

33.

(A) q; (B) r; (C) s; (D) p

[C090404]

53.

(A) r; (B) s; (C) q; (D) p

[M090906]

14.

(A)-q,r,s; (B) p, r; (C)-p, r; (D)-q, r, s

[P090608] [P090607]

34.

(A) p,r,s; (B) p,r; (C) q,r,s; (D) p

[C090405]

54.

(A) s; (B) r; (C) q; (D) p

[M091203, M091205]

15. (5) [P090606] 35. (5) [C090405] 55. (1) [M091203]

16. (3) [P090603] 36. (4) [C090401] 56. (4) [M090910]

17. (4) [P090601],

[P090606] 37. (8) [C090405]

57. (1) [M091206]

18. (2) [P090605] 38. (3) [C090404] 58. (3) [M090906]

19. (4) [P090603] 39. (7) [C090405] 59. (2) [M100202]

20. (1) [P090607] 40. (2) [C090405] 60. (8) [M100202]




HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

1. (A)

Sol. To hear an echo, we have

min2d

V =

1

10 (persistence of human ear)

dmin= 17.2 m

2. (A)

Sol. For Sound we have, Air – denser medium Water – rarer medium So, when sound moves from air to water it moves away from Normal. For light we have, Air – rarer medium Water – denser medium So, when light moves from Air to water it moves towards normal. 3. (D) Sol. Since, speed of light is much greater than speed of sound; we can assume lightening will be seen

instantaneously without any time lag. Let altitude of clouds is x.

350 = x

6

x = 2100 m = 2.1 km

4. (A)

Sol. Let time to hear successive echoes to be t1, t2, t3 & t4 then,

t1 = 2

2 30 1 2 45 1; t

360 6 360 4

t3 = t4 = 150 5

360 12

30 m 45 m

75 m

5. (A) Sol. Electromagnetic Waves can travel through vacuum but mechanical waves cannot travel through

vacuum.

6. (A) Sol. Speed of sound wave depends on medium not on its frequency. 7. (D) Sol. For Boy we have, fmin = 30 Hz And, fmax = 16,500 Hz For longest wavelength frequency should be minimum so,

v = fmin max

330 = 30 × max

max = 11 m 8. (D) Sol. As per question we have, No. of claps in 1 second = 10

Time interval between two claps = 1

10 = 0.1 s

Distance travelled by sound, d = 2 × 17.5 m = 35 m




For the condition given in question time taken should be, t = 0.1 sec

v = 350 m/s

9. (A, B) Sol. A wave transports Energy and Momentum.

10. (A, B, C) Sol. Medium particles may oscillate to and fro in the direction of propagation of wave (in case of longitudinal

waves) or in the direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave (in case of transverse waves).

11. (B, C, D) Sol. The velocity of sound is affected by change in medium or change in temperature and density of medium

but it is independent of change in pressure at constant temperature.

12. (A, B, C, D) Sol. Loudness of a sound wave is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibrating object. Pitch of a sound wave depends on its frequency. Quality or timbre depends upon the shape of the sound wave. As per Doppler‘s effect in sound frequency of sound heard by a stationary listener is more than actual

frequency of sound if a source of sound moves towards it. 13. A-r; B-s; C-q; D-p Sol. Knowledge Base 14. (A)-q,r,s; (B) p, r; (C)-p, r; (D)-q, r, s Sol. Knowledge Base. 15. (5)

Sol. As we know distance between two consecutive crests is so,

= 2.5 cm

T = 1

2 sec or f = 2 Hz

v = f

v = 2 × 2.5 = 5 cm/s 16. (3) Sol. As we know,

v = f = 500 × 0.2 = 100 m/s So, time taken by wave to travel 300 m distance is,

t = 300

3s100

17. (4) Sol. As per question we have,

time taken by sound to reach other end of the tube in air is 1

664t

332

time taken by sound to reach other end of the tube in metal is 2

664t

k(332)

So we have,

664 664

1.5332 k 332

k = 4 18. (2) Sol. As we know in one oscillation medium particle crosses its mean position two time, so as per question

we have,




f = 100 Hz

100 oscillation in one second, so particle will cross its mean position 200 times in one second 19. (4)

Sol. As we know distance between two consecutive crest is so,

= 100 m v = 25 m/s

Then, f = v 25 1

Hz100 4

so, waves strike the boat every 4 second. 20. (1) Sol. As we know a sound wave produces 1 compressions and 1 rarefaction in one oscillation so as per

question 60 oscillation are performed in 0.6 second so,

T = .6 1

second60 100

Or f = 100 Hz 21. (C)

Sol. CO and CN–, both have 14 electrons each.

22. (A) Sol. Orbital are filled in the order 1s

2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 4s

1

23. (A) Sol. Energy difference between first and second energy levels is very large. 24. (C)

Sol. En = 2

13.6eV

n

25. (C) Sol. Mass of electrons is 9.1 × 10

–31 kg.

26. (A)

Sol. 34 2 1

11

h h 6.6 10 kg m sor mc

mc 2.2 10 m

= 3 × 10

–23 kg ms

–1.

27. (C)

Sol. Emission of one followed by two -particles produces isotopes. 28. (A)

Sol. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression 2(2 + 1) i.e. (4 + 2). 29. (B,C,D)

Sol. Angular momentum of an electron = h

n2

30. (A,B)

Sol. Lower (n + ) value lower will be the energy of orbital. If (n + ) values same then lower value of ‗n‘ will have lower energy.

31. (B,C) Sol. An orbital can have maximum two electrons with opposite spins. 32. (A,B)

Sol. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom = 2(2 + 1).

Total number of subshells () in a shell (n) will be equal to ‗n‘ value. 33. (A) q; (B) r; (C) s; (D) p




Sol. Knowledge base 34. (A) p,r,s; (B) p,r; (C) q,r,s; (D) p Sol. Knowledge base 35. (5) [C090405] Sol. EC. = 1s

2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

3

It has five subshells (1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p) 36. (4) Sol. E.C. 1s

2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

5

For n = 2, l = 0, 1, m = 0, 0 ± 1 So each m = 0 has two electrons and it total these will be four. 37. (8) Sol. 2n

2 rule.

38. (3) [C090404]

Sol. 2

313.634.84

n

n2 = 9 n = 3

39. (7) [C090405] Sol. In a f-subshell 14 electrons can be accommodated out of which 7 will have clockwise spin. 40. (2) Sol. 1s

2 2s

2 2p

2x 2p

1y 2p

1z

41. (C) Sol. Knowledge base 42. (D) Sol. Chords of a circle which are equidistant from the centre of the circle are equal. 43. (C) Sol. Volume of earth taken out = volume of plateform

r2H = lbh

22

3 3 10 22 10 x7

x = 1.28 44. (A)

Sol. inner radius = 16

1 7cm2

volume of milk that bowl can hold = 32r

3

= 2 22

7 7 73 7 = 718.66 cm

3

45. (B)

Sol. Edge of cube = 20

cm4

= 5 cm,

Surface area = 6 × 52 cm

2 = 150 cm

2

46. (D) Sol. Probability of an event always lies between 0 and 1. 47. (A)

Sol. P(getting a head) = 40 – 24 16 2

40 40 5




48. (B) Sol. Total no. of balls = 10 No. of white balls = 4 No. of non-white balls = 10 – 4 = 6

So, required probability = 6 3

10 5

49. (A, C, D) Sol.

Since, PQ and PR are diameters of circle

PSQ = 90° and PSR = 90°

PSQ + PSR = 180°

PSQ and PSR form a linear pair angles.

Q. S. R. lie on a line

S lies on QR 50. (B, D) Sol. Let r1 and r2 be the radii of two cones and V1 and V2 be their volumes. Let h be the height of the two cones, then

V1 = 21

1r h

3 and V2 = 2

1

1r h

3

221

1 1

222 22

1r h

V r 931v 25rr h3

( r1 : r2 = 3 : 5)

51. (A, C, D) Sol. Knowledge base 52. (A, B, D) Sol. Knowledge base 53. A –r; B – s; C – q; D – p

Sol. (A) ADC = 1

2AOC =

1

2× 90° = 45°

(Angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle formed by it on the remaining part of the circle)

(B) BOC = 70° ( equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre).

OBC + OCB = 180° – 70° = 110°

OBC = 55° (OB = OC OBC = OCB) (C) Since angles in the same segment of a circle are equal

ADB = ACB = 75° (D) Since PQR is an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle,

QPR = 60°

QOR = 2 × QPR = 120°




54. A –s; B – r; C – q; D – p Sol. Knowledge base 55. (1) Sol. Knowledge base 56. (4) Sol. Knowledge base 57. (1)

Sol. (R2 – r

2)h = 748

2 222(9 r ) 14

7 = 748

r = 8 cm

thickness of pipe = 9 – 8 = 1 cm 58. (3) Sol. (i) Join AB, which is the radius of both the circles. (ii) AC = AD = BC = BD = radius

(iii) ABC and ABD are equilateral triangles, CAD = CBD = 120°

(iv) CED =CFD = 1

2CAD =

1

2CBD = 60°

(Angle at the centre is equal to half the angle at the circumference. )

1

40(CED + CFD)

= 1

40 (60° + 60°) = 3

59. (2) Sol. E = {4, 6} n (E) = 2 60. (8) Sol. Tail occurs = 20 – 12 = 8




FIITJEE COMMON TEST

(Applicable for class IX)

PHASE TEST – IV (Normal-A-Lot)

(SET-A)




INSTRUCTIONS

Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

A: General :


pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is

strictly prohibited.


4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.






Booklet with them.








Directions: In each of the following questions, there are six figures, the first and last of which are

unnumbered and the remaining are numbered as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These six figures form a series. However, one of the four numbered figures does not fit into the series. The number of that figure is the answer.

1.

2.

3.

4.




5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.




12.

Direction: In each of the following questions, Select a figure form amongst the four alternatives,

which when placed in the blank space of fig. (X) would complete the pattern.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.




19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

Directions: In each of the following questions, form amongst the figures marked (A), (B), (C) and

(D), select the one which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dot as in fig. (X).

25.




26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.




33.

34.

35.

36. A does half as much work as B in three-fourth of the time. If together they take 18 days to complete the

work, how much time shall B take to do it? (A) 30 days (B) 35 days (C) 40 days (D) none of these 37. A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. The number of days, it takes B to do

the same piece of work, is:

(A) 6 (B) 1

64

(C) 1

72

(D) 8

38. A is thrice as good a workman as B and takes 10 days less to do a piece of work than B takes. B alone can do the whole work in:

(A) 12 days (B) 15 days (C) 20 days (D) 30 days

39. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3 days before the completion of the work, A leaves off. The total number of days to complete the work is:

(A) 3

65

(B) 1

82

(C) 1

105

(D) 1

132

40. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days; B and C can do it in 120 days; A and C can do it in 90 days. In what time can A alone do it?

(A) 150 days (B) 120 days (C) 100 days (D) 80 days

41. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, which B and C together can do in 16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes in 13 days. In how many days C alone will do the work?

(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 48

42. 45 men can complete a work in 16 days. Six days after they started working, 30 more men joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8




43. 12 men can complete a work in 18 days. Six days after they started working, 4 men joined them. How many days will all of them take to finish the remaining work?

(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 15

44. A job is completed by 10 men in 20 days and by 20 women in 15 days. How many days will it take for 5 men and 10 women to finish that work?

(A) 1

172

(B) 1

177

(C) 17 (D) 1

17120

45. A piece of work can be done by 6 men and 5 women in 6 days or 3 men and 4 women in 10 days. It can be done by 9 men and 15 women in:

(a) 1 day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 4 days

46. 4 men and 6 women finish a job in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women finish it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women working together finish it

(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 36 (D) 40

47. 12 children take 16 days to complete a work which can be completed by 8 adults in 12 days. 16 adults started working and after 3 days 10 adults left and 4 children joined them. How many days will it take them to complete the remaining work?

(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3

48. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 9 and 12 days respectively, if they work for a day alternately, A beginning, in how many days the work will be completed?

(A) 1

102

(B) 1

103

(C) 1

104

(D) 2

103

49. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days respectively, working alone. How

soon can the work be done If A is assisted by B and C on alternate days? (A) 7 days (B) 8 days (C) 9 days (D) 10 days 50. A father can do a job as fast as his two sons working together. If one son does the job in 3 hours and

the other in 6 hours, how many hours does it take the father to do the job? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

* * * * * *




FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST–IV (SET-A)


ANSWER KEY

1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C)

11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (D)

21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (A)

31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)

41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (B)




Solutions

1. (D) Sol. Four and three half-leaves are lost from the figure alternately. 2. (D) Sol. The number of line segments increases by two in one step and decreases by one in the next step. Also,

the line segments rotate through 90° in each step. There should be three vertical line segments in fig. (D).

3. (D) Sol. One line segment is added to the figure in each step (leading to the formation of complete squares in

three steps). These lines are added in the order left, upper, right, lower, left, 4. (A) Sol. In one step, the arrow rotates 90°CW. In the next step, the arrow rotates through 180º and moves to the

adjacent corner of the square boundary in an ACW direction In fig. (A), the arrow must point in an opposite direction.

5. (D) Sol. In each step, the figure gets vertically inverted and a line segment gets added to it. 6. (A) Sol. In one step, the arrow rotates 90°CW and moves two spaces (each space is equal to half-a-side of the

square boundary) in an ACW direction. In the next step, the arrow gets rotated through 180°. In fig. (A) the arrow should point in the opposite direction.

7. (A) Sol. In each step, each element gets laterally inverted; the RHS element moves to the LHS position and the

other two elements move one space to the right. In fig. (A), the element ‗S‘ must be laterally inverted.

8. (D) Sol. Three and two line segments are added alternately in a set pattern. Figure (D) should have two 1es

number of line segments.

9. (B) Sol. In each step, one side of the lower-right square disappears. These sides disappear in the sequence —

lower, upper, right, left. Once the lower-right square has disappeared completely, the same procedure is repeated with the lower-left square and so on. In fig. (B), the upper side of the lower-right square must have disappeared instead of the right side.

10. (C) Sol. In one step, one element remains static while the other moves to the opposite corner (of the square

boundary) and gets replaced by a new element. In the next step, the second element remains static while the first one moves to the opposite corner and gets replaced by a new element.

11. (A) Sol. The figure rotates 90°ACW in each step. 12. (B) Sol. The arrow reverses its direction in one step and moves to the other side of the central line in the next

step. The arrow should be in the opposite direction in figure (B) 13. (B) Sol.

14. (D) Sol.




15. (B) Sol.

16. (B) Sol.

17. (A)

Sol.

18. (C)

Sol.

19. (D)

Sol.

20. (D)

Sol.

21. (C)

Sol.




22. (D) Sol.

23. (B) Sol.

24. (C) Sol.

25. (D) Sol. In fig. (X), the dot is contained in the region common to the square and the circle only. Out of the four

alternatives, only fig. (D) contains a region common to the square and the circle only. 26. (C) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the square and the triangle and another dot lies

in the region common to the circle and the triangle. In each of the alternatives (A), (B) and (D), the region common to the square and the triangle lies within the circle. Therefore, in each of these figures, there is no region common to the square and the triangle only. Only the alternative (C) consists of a region common to the square and the triangle only and another region common to the circle and the triangle only. Hence, fig. (C) is the answer.

27. (C) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only and the other dot

lies in the circle alone. In each of the two figures (A) and (B), there is no region common to the circle and the triangle only. In fig. (D) there is no region which lies in the circle alone. Only fig. (C) consists of both the types of regions.

28. (D) Sol. In fig. (X),.one of the dots lies in-the region common to the square and the triangle only and the other

dot lies in the region common to all the three figures — the circle, the square and the triangle. In each of the alternatives (A) and (B), there is no region common to the square and the triangle only. In alternative (C), there is no region common to all the three figures. Only, alternative (D) consists of both the types of regions.

29. (D) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the rectangle only and the other

dot lies in the region common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. In each of the figures (A) and (B), there is no region common to the circle and the rectangle only. In fig. (C), there is no region




common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. Only fig. (D) consists of both the types of regions.

30. (A) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the square and the triangle only, another dot lies

in the region common to the circle and the triangle only and the third dot lies in the region common to the triangle and the rectangle only. In fig. (B), there is no region common to the square and the triangle only. In fig. (C), there is no region common to the circle and the triangle only. In fig. (D) there is no region common to the triangle and the rectangle only. Only fig. (A) consists of all the three types of regions.

31. (A) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the square alone, another dot lies in the triangle alone and the third dot

lies in the region common to the circle and the square. In fig. (B) there is no region that lies in the square alone, in fig. (C) there is no region that lies in the triangle alone and in fig. (D) there is no region that lies in the region common to the circle and the square only. Only fig. (A) Consists of all the three types of regions.

32. (A) Sol. In fig. (X‘, one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the square only. another dot lies in

the region common to all the three figures — the circle, the square and the triangle and the third dot lies in the circle alone. In fig. (2) there is no region common to the circle and the square only and in each of the figures (3) and (4) there are regions which lie in the circle alone. Only fig. (1) consists of all the three types of regions.

33. (D) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only, another dot lies

in the region common to all the three figures—the circle, the square and the triangle and the third dot lies in the region common to the circle and the square only. In each of the figures (A) and (C), there is no region common to the circle and the square only and in fig. (B), there is no region common to the circle and the triangle only. Only fig. (D) consists of all the three types of regions.

34. (D) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the rectangle only, another dot lies

in the region common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only and the third dot lies in the region common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. In each of the figures (A) and (C) there is no region common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only and in fig. (B), there is no region common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. Only, fig, (D) consists of all the three types of regions.

35. (B) Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only, another dot lies

in the region common to the circle, the square and the triangle only and the third dot lies in the region common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only. In each of the figures (A) and (C) there is no region common to the circle and the triangle only. In fig. (D) there is no region common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only. Only fig. (B) consists of all the three types of regions.

36. (A) Sol. Suppose B takes x days to do the work.

A takes 3 3x

2 x4 2

days to do it.

(A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work 1

.18

1 2 1

x 3x 18 or x = 30.

37. (C) Sol. Ratio of times taken by A and B = 160 : 100 = 8 : 5

8 : 5 : : 12 : x or 8x = 5 × 12 or x = 1

72

days.




38. (B) Sol. Ratio of times taken by A & B = 1 : 3. If difference of time is 2 days, B takes 3 days.

If difference of time is 10 days, B takes 3

10 152

days.

39. (C)

Sol. B‘s 3 day‘s work 1 1

3 .21 7

Remaining work 1 6

17 7

(A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work 1 1 5

.14 21 42

Now, 5

42 work is done by A and B in 1 day.

Therefore 6

7 work is done by A and B in

42 6 36

5 7 5

days.

Total time taken 36

35

days = 1

105

days.

40. (B)

Sol. (A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work 1

,(B C)72

‘s 1 day‘s work 1

,120

(A + C)‘s 1 day‘s work 1

.90

Adding 2 (A + B + C)‘s 1 day‘s work 1 1 1 12 1

.72 120 90 360 30

(A + B + C)‘s 1 day‘s work 1

.60

A‘s 1 day work 1 1 1

.60 120 120

A alone can finish the work in 120 days. 41. (B) Sol. (A + B)‘s 5 day‘s work + (B + C)‘s 2 day‘s work + C‘s 11 day‘s work = 1.

5 2

C's12 16

11 day‘s work = 1

C‘s 11 day‘s work 11

24

C‘s 1 day‘s work 11 1 1

.24 11 24

C alone can finish it in 24 days. 42. (C) Sol. (45 × 16) men can complete the work in 1 day.

1 man‘s 1 day‘s work 1

.720

45 men‘s 6 day‘s work 1 3

6 .16 8

Remaining work 3 5

1 .8 8





.720 48

Now 5

48 work is done by them in 1 day.

5

8 work is done by them in

48 56

5 8

days.

43. (A) Sol. (12 × 18) men can complete the work in 1 day.

1 man‘s 1 day‘s work 1

.216


6 .18 3

Remaining work 1 2

1 .3 3


.216 27

2


2


27 29

2 3

days.

44. (B) Sol. Let 1 man‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 woman‘s 1 day‘s work = y.

Then, 10x = 1

20 and

120y .

15 So,

1x

200 and

1y .

300

(5 men + 10 women)‘s 1 day‘s work 5 10 7

.200 300 120

So, they will finish the work in 120 1

177 7

days.

45. (C) Ans. Let 1 man‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 woman‘s 1 day‘s work = y.

Then, 6x + 5y 1

6 , 3x + 4y

1

10 .

On solving, we get 1

x54

and 1

y .90

(9 men + 15 woman)‘s 1 day‘s work 9 15 1

.54 90 3

They will finish the work in 3 days. 46. (D) Sol. Let 1 man‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 woman‘s 1 day‘s work = y.

Then, 4x + 6y 1

8 and 3x + 7y

1

10 .

Solving, we get : 1

y .400

10 women‘s 1 day‘ work 10 1

.400 40

10 woman will finish the work in 40 days. 47. (A) Sol. Let 1 child‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 adult‘s 1 day‘s work = y.




Then, 1

12x16

or 1

x192

and 1

8y12

or 1

y .96

Work done in 3 days 1 1

16 3 .96 2

Work left 1 1

1 .2 2

(6 adults + 4 children)‘s 1 day‘s work 6 4 1

.96 192 12

1


1


112 6

2

days.

48. (C)

Sol. (A + B)‘s 2 day‘s work 1 1 7

.9 12 36

Work done in 5 pairs of days 7 35

5 .36 36

Remaining work 35 1

1 .36 36

On 11th day, it is A‘s turn.

1

9 work is done by him in 1 day.

1

36 work is done by him in

1 19

36 4

day.

Total time taken 1

104

days.

49. (B)

Sol. (A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work 1 1 31

.11 20 220

(A + C)‘s 1 day‘s wrok 1 1 6

.11 55 55

Work done in 2 days 31 6 55 1

.220 55 220 4

Now, 1

4 work is done in 2 days.

Whole work will be done in (4 × 2) = 8 days. 50. (B)

Sol. Father‘s 1 hour‘s work 1 1 1

.3 6 2

Time taken by father to complete the work = 2 hours.

* * * * *




FIITJEE COMMON TEST

CLASS IX

PHASE TEST – IV (NORMAL A-LOT)

SET-A



Instructions


Section – A contains 40 questions of SST.

Section – B contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – C contains 14 questions of Physics.

Section – D contains 14 questions of Chemistry.

Section – E contains 12 questions of Biology.









Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .




SECTION – A (SST)

1. According to the Census 2011, the total population of India is: (A) 1210 million (B) 1017 million (C) 928 million (D) 1128 million 2. What is the population density of India as per 2011 Census ? (A) 323 (B) 324 (C) 382 (D) 325 3. Who is a ‗literate‘ person according to Census of 2001 ? (A) Can read and write his/her name (B) Can read and write any language (C) Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding (D) knows 3 R‘s 4. What was the life expectancy rate in India in 2011 ? (A) 61 years (B) 59 years (C) 58 years (D) 64.7 years 5. An official enumeration of population along with certain economic and social statistics in a given area is

called the : (A) Report (B) Population Density (C) Periodic survey (D) Census 6. Which is most important element of food security ? (A) Availability of food (B) Accessibility of food (C) Affordability of food (D) All of the above 7. Which of following state was most affected during famine of 1943 ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Orissa (C) West Bengal (D) Bihar 8. According to National Health and Family Survey 1998-99, how much women and children were food

insecure ? (A) 15 crore (B) 16 crore (C) 11 crore (D) 10 crore 9. When Wheat Revolution was observed in India ? (A) 1967 (B) 1968 (C) 1966 (D) 1970 10. Maximum impact of Green Revolution was observed in which of following state ? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Haryana (D) Orissa 11. Which of following Agency keeps buffer stock of India ? (A) Department of Rural Development (B) State Governments (C) F.C.I. (D) None of these 12. At which price Government purchases food grains from farmers for buffer stock ? (A) MSP (B) Issue Price (C) Controlled Price (D) None of these 13. How much ration shops are there in country ? (A) 4.6 Lakh (B) 5.5 Lakh (C) 1 Crore (D) 10 Lakh 14. Where was the world‘s first cricket club formed ? (A) Marylbone (B) Hambledon (C) Melbourne (D) Adelaide 15. When were the first laws of cricket drawn up ? (A) 1750 (B) 1740 (C) 1745 (D) 1744 16. Aluminium bat was first used by : (A) C.K. Naidu (B) Pawanlkar Vithal (C) Thomas Arnold (D) Dennis Lillee 17. Pads were first introduced in : (A) 1848 (B) 1780 (C) 1760 (D) 1788 18. Amateurs were called : (A) Players (B) Professionals (C) Gentleman (D) Empire




19. The first Indian club, the Calcutta cricket club was established in : (A) 1700 (B) 1791 (C) 1721 (D) 1792 20. Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay was founded by : (A) Hindus (B) Muslims (C) English (D) Parsis 21. Who among the following was India‘s first captain ? (A) C.K. Nayudu (B) Vijay Hazare (C) Palwankar Vithal (D) Palwankar Baloo 22. Imperial Cricket Conference was renamed International Cricket Conference in : (A) 1932 (B) 1965 (C) 1989 (D) 1950 23. Which of the following events was introduced by Mr. Kerry Packer ? (A) Ranji Trophy Matches (B) Quadrangular tournament (C) World Series Cricket (D) 5 day Test Match 24. Sumptuary laws were made to : (A) Prohibit people from wearing knee breeches (B) Prohibit people from wearing silk clothes (C) Control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors (D) Control the living standard of rich 25. Ermine, fur, silk, velvet or brocade could be worn in France only by : (A) Royalty (B) Clergy (C) Peasantry (D) Commons 26. Jacobins called themselves as ‗Sans Culottes‘ because : (A) They liked the name (B) The name was royal symbol (C) They wanted to distinguish themselves from aristocracy (D) They wore fashionable clothes 27. The colours of France that became popular as sign of patriotic citizens were : (A) Blue, Green, Yellow (B) Blue, Green, White (C) Blue, Red, Green (D) Blue, White, Red 28. Suffrage movement means movement for : (A) Right to wear dresses of one‘s own choice (B) Right to equality with man (C) Right to vote (D) Right to freedom 29. Slavery was abolished in Travancore in : (A) 1850 (B) 1847 (C) 1855 (D) 1857 30. Shoe-respect was made stricter by : (A) Dalhousie (B) Amherst (C) Canning (D) Dyer 31. The movement launched against partition of Bengal in 1905 was : (A) Quit India Movement (B) None Co-operation Movement (C) Civil Disobedience Movement (D) Swadeshi Movement 32. Which of the following cloths became symbol of national movement ? (A) Silk (B) Cotton (C) Khadi (D) Linen 33. Gandhiji first appeared in lungi and kurta in 1913 in : (A) Johannesburg (B) London (C) Durban (D) Ahmedabad 34. New York was attacked on : (A) 11 September, 2001 (B) 13 December, 2001 (C) 15 September, 2001 (D) 15 September,

2001 35. In Saudi Arabia the king is : (A) Elected by people (B) Hereditary (C) Constitutional Monarch (D) Dictatorial ruler 36. All citizens of India are equal before law according to : (A) Right to freedom (B) Right to vote




(C) Right to constitutional remedies (D) Right to equality 37. Begar is a practice of : (A) Bonded labour (B) Forced labour (C) Paid labour (D) Volunteer labour 38. A secular state is one that : (A) Favours one religion (B) Favours only two religions (C) Does not favour any religion (D) Does not believe in god 39. Citizens have right to promote their language under : (A) Right against exploitation (B) Right to freedom (C) Cultural and educational Rights (D) Right to freedom of Religion 40. ‗Right to Constitutional Remedies‘ is the heart and soul of our Constitution. This was said by : (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Mahatma Gandhi

SECTION–B (MATHEMATICS)

41. If a month is selected at random in a year, then find the probability that the month is either March or

September.

(A) 1

12 (B)

1

6 (C)

3

4 (D) None of these

42. A dice is rolled 600 times and the occurrence of the outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are given below in the table.

Outcome 1 2 3 4 5 6

Frequency 200 30 120 100 50 100

Find the probability of getting a prime number.

(A) 1

3 (B)

2

3 (C)

49

60 (D)

39

125

43. From the letters of the word ―MOBILE‖, if a letter is selected, what is the probability that the letter is a vowel ?

(A) 1

3 (B)

4

7 (C)

3

7 (D)

1

2




44. The percentage of attendance of different classes in a year, in a school is given below.

Class X IX VIII VII VI V

Attendance 30 62 85 92 76 55

What is the probability that the class attendance is more than 75% ?

(A) 1

6 (B)

1

3 (C)

5

6 (D)

1

2

45. The runs scored by Sachin Tendulkar in different years is given below :

Year 1996-97 1997-98 1999-2000

2000-01 2001-02 2002-03 2003-04

Score 1000 3000 1000 5000 3000 8000 4000

What is the probability that in a year Sachin scores more than 3000 runs ?

(A) 3

7 (B)

1

4 (C)

3

4 (D)

5

8

46. To know the opinion of people about the political leaders, a survey on 1000 members was conducted. The data recorded is shown in the following table. Option Number of people Like 200 Dislike 500 No opinion 300 Find the probability that a person chosen at random is with no opinion on political leaders.

(A) 1

2 (B)

3

10 (C)

1

5 (D) None of these

47. In the given figure, CDEF is a cyclic quadrilateral. CG and DH are the angle

bisectors of C and D respectively. If E = 100° and F = 110°, then find CPD. (A) 105° (B) 80°

(C) 150° (D) 90°

48. In the figure shown (not to scale) the chords AC and BD intersect at E and

BAE = ECD + 20°. If CDE = 60°, find ABE (A) 40° (B) 60° (C) 80° (D) None of these

49. In the figure given along side, DE and FG are equal chords of the

circle subtending DHE and FHG at the point H on the circle. If

DHE = 1

232 , then find FHG.

(A) 1

272 (B) 30°

(C) 1

232 (D) 60°




50. In the figure given below, O is the centre of the circle. If MPN = 55°, then find

the value of MON + OMN + 1

2MNO.

(A) 145° (B) 1

1622

(C) 1

1582 (D) 180°

51. In the shown figure, AC is the diameter. AB and AD are equal chords. If AED =

110°, then find BAD. (A) 40° (B) 55° (C) 110° (D) 120°

52. In the figure given below, O is the centre of the circle and CD = DE = EF = GF. If

COD = 40°, then find reflex COG. (A) 200° (B) 90° (C) 80° (D) 160°




53. In the figure given below(not to scale), D is point on the circle with

centre A and C is a point on the circle with centre B. AD BD and

BCCA . Then which of the following is true ?

(A) BD = AC, when AD = BC.

(B) BD = AC, when AD || BC

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) BD = AC is always true

54. Three cubes of sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are melted and formed into a larger cube. What

is the side of the cube formed ? (A) 7cm (B) 6 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 4 cm

55. If the ratio of the volumes of the spheres is 8 : 27, then the ratio of their surface areas is ___ . (A) 4 : 9 (B) 9 : 4 (C) 4 : 3 (D) 2 : 9

56. The volume of a hemisphere is 18cm3. What is the total surface area of the hemi-sphere ?

(A) 18 cm2 (B) 27 cm

2 (C) 21 cm

2 (D) 24 cm

2

57. A classroom is 5m long, 2.5 m broad and 3.6 m high. If each student is given 0.5 m

2 of the floor area,

then how many cubic metres of air would each student get? (A) 1.4 (B) 1.8 (C) 1.2 (D) 1.6

58. How many cubes each of total surface area 54 sq. dm can be made from a cube of edge of 1.2 metre. (A) 64 (B) 81 (C) 125 (D) 25 59. A tank is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a cone of an equal radius. The height of the cone is

6 m and the total height of the tank is 18 m. Find the volume of the tank if the base radius of the cylinder is 5 m.

(A) 1650 m3 (B) 1244 m

3 (C) 1100 m

3 (D) 2200 m

3

60. A water tank of dimensions 11 m × 6 m × 5 m is full of water. The tank is emptied through a pipe of

cross section 33 cm2 in 20 hours. Find the rate of flow of water (in kmph).

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 10


61. What is the wavelength of radio waves received at 100 MHz on your radio

(A) 3m (B) 1m (C) 0.3 m (D) 10 m

62. Choose the wrong statement: (A) In transverse waves vibrations are at right angles to the direction of propagation but in longitudinal

waves vibration are along direction of propagation. (B) Transverse wave can be generated in solid and on liquid surface but longitudinal waves can be

generated in all three states of matter i.e. solids, liquids and gases. (C) Transverse waves contain alternate crests and troughs but longitudinal waves contains alternate

compressions and rarefactions (D) None of these 63. The speed of the sound wave in a given medium is : (A) Directly proportional to its frequency (B) Inversely proportional to its frequency (C) Directly proportional to the square of its frequency (D) Independent of its frequency




64. In slinky (long spring) following waves can be produced: (A) Both longitudinal waves and transverse waves (B) Only transverse waves (C) Only longitudinal waves (D) Neither longitudinal waves nor transverse waves 65. Which of the following cannot travel through vacuum? (A) Light waves (B) Heat waves (C) X-rays (D) Sound waves

67. A child hears the echo of a sound 4s after its reflection from a cliff. How far is the cliff from the child?

[Take velocity of sound in air = 344 ms–1

] (A) 1376 m (B) 688 m (C) 344

m (D) 172

m

68. The wavelength and frequency of a sound wave in a certain medium are 40 cm and 825 Hz,

respectively. In the same medium, if another sound wave has the wavelength equal to 33 cm, calculate its frequency:

(A) 104 Hz (B) 0.1 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) 1000 Hz

69. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower.

When is the splash heard at the top ? Given, g = 10 ms–2

and speed of sound = 340 ms–1

. (A) 10 s (B) 10.5 s (C) 11 s (D) 11.5 s 70. In SONAR, we use : (A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Infrasonic waves (C) Radio waves (D) Audible sound waves 71. Choose the wrong statement regarding waves among the following options : (A) All non-mechanical waves are transverse in nature (B) Mechanical waves can be either longitudinal or transverse (C) For the propagation of mechanical waves it is essential that the medium must possess elasticity

and inertia (D) If a wave is mechanical it must be longitudinal 72. Which of the following statements is correct about sound waves ? (A) The time taken for one oscillation is the frequency. (B) The distance covered by a vibrating particle while making one complete oscillation is four times the

amplitude. (C) The greater the amplitude of a vibrating body, the higher will be the pitch of the sound it gives out. (D) When sound waves moves from one medium to another its wavelength changes in the same

proportion as its frequency. 73. Consider the following statements 1. Sound waves are elastic waves 2. In sound waves, medium particles vibrates perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels Which of these statements is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 74. Hertz stands for :

(A) Second (B) Second-1 (C) Metre (D) Metre-1

66. The diagram below shows a section of a waveform. The numbers in the diagram show distances in centimeter. The speed of the wave is 800 ms

–1. Then the frequency

of wave is: (A) 4000 Hz (B) 400 Hz (C) 800 Hz (D) 80 Hz





75. Which of the following atoms has same number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus? (A) Hydrogen (B) Deuterium (C) Tritium (D) None of these 76. Hydride ion is isoelectronic with: (A) He

+ (B) H

+ (C) Be

+ (D) He

77. Rutherford‘s model of the atom accounts for the : (A) Scattering of alphaparticles by thin metal foils (B) stability of the electron orbits (C) stability of the atom (D) line spectra of light elements 78. According to Bohr‘s atomic theory the angular momentum of an electron in 5

th orbit is :

(A) 25 h/ (B) 15 h/ (C) 5 h/ (D) 2.5 h/ 79. The ratio of charge and mass would be greater for : (A) Proton (B) Electron (C) Neutron (D) Alpha particles 80. The total number of orbitals possible for principal quantum number (n) is : (A) n (B) n

2 (C) 2n (D) 2n

2

81. The protons and neutrons are collectively known as : (A) Deutrons (B) Mesons (C) Positrons (D) Nucleons 82. For which of the species, Bohr‘s theory is not applicable ? (A) Be

3+ (B) Li

2+ (C) He

2+ (D) H

83. In a given atom, no two electrons in an atom can have the same values of all the quantum numbers.

This is called : (A) Hund‘s rule (B) Aufbau‘s principle (C) Uncertainity principle (D) Pauli‘s exclusion principle 84. Which of the following subshells is not permitted ? (A) 4f (B) 2d (C) 3s (D) 4d

85. A subshell having n = 5 and = 2 is designated as : (A) 5s (B) 4p (C) 5d (D) 5f




86. In the nuclear reaction

27 4 30 113 2 15 0Al He X n, the element ‗X‘ is :

(A) Sulphur (B) Carbon (C) Phosphorus (D) Silicon

87. 23 2411 12Na and Mg are :

(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars (C) Isodiaphers (D) Isotones 88. The ratio of nucleons in O

16 and O

18 is :

(A) 8

9 (B)

4

5 (C)

9

8 (D) 1


89. Gymnosperms differ from pteridophytes (gymnosperms are characterised by) : (A) Naked ovule (B) Circinate ptyxis (C) Leaf arrangement (D) abscence of vascular tissue 90. Amphibians of plant kingdom are : (A) Algae (B) Bryophytes (C) Thallophytes (D) Floating plants 91. First land vascular plants are : (A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Gymnosperms (D) None of these 92. Presence of vessels is unique character of : (A) Gymnosperms (B) Angiosperms (C) Pteriodophytes (D) Bryophytes 93. Which is not true of monocots : (A) Parallel venation (B) Single seed leaf (C) Floral parts in multiple of4-5 (D) Adventitious roots 94. What is common among Silver fish, Scorpion, Crab and Honey Bee: (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Apical meristem (D) None of the above 95. Which of the following is common among plants and animals: (A) Both are prokaryotic (B) Both are eukaryotic (C) Both are heterotrophic (D) Both are autotrophic 96. Coelenterates have the following level of organisation : (A) Cellular (B) Tissue (C) Organ (D) Organ system 97. Porous body with water canal system is the characteristic of : (A) Protozoa (B) Coelenterata (C) Porifera (D) None of these 98. Which of the following is the largest phylum : (A) Arthropoda (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Coelenterata 99. Whittaker, in his system of classification included single celled, non-nucleated organisms in: (A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Eukarya (D) Protozoa 100 . Roundworms differ from flatworms in having a : (A) Circulatory system (B) Pseudocoelom (C) organ level of organization (D) None of

the above

* * * * * *




FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – IV (SET-A)


ANSWERS KEY & CONCEPT CODE

S.NO. Answer Subject C. CODE S.NO. Answer SUBJECT C. CODE

1 (A) SST 51 (A) Mathematics [M090907]

2 (C) SST 52 (A) Mathematics [M090905]

3 (C) SST 53 (C) Mathematics [M090901]

4 (D) SST 54 (B) Mathematics [M091207]

5 (D) SST 55 (A) Mathematics [M091205]

6 (D) SST 56 (B) Mathematics [M091203]

7 (C) SST 57 (B) Mathematics [M091202]

8 (C) SST 58 (A) Mathematics [M091203]

9 (B) SST 59 (C) Mathematics [M091208]

10 (C) SST 60 (B) Mathematics [M091208]

11 (C) SST 61 (A) Physics [P090604]

12 (A) SST 62 (D) Physics [P090607]

13 (B) SST 63 (D) Physics [P090606]

14 (B) SST 64 (A) Physics [P090607]

15 (D) SST 65 (D) Physics [P090607]

16 (D) SST 66 (A) Physics [P090604]

17 (A) SST 67 (B) Physics [P090602]

18 (C) SST 68 (D) Physics [P090603]

19 (D) SST 69 (D) Physics [P090601]

20 (D) SST 70 (A) Physics [P090609]

21 (A) SST 71 (D) Physics [P090607]

22 (B) SST 72 (B) Physics [P090607]

23 (C) SST 73 (A) Physics [P090607]

24 (C) SST 74 (B) Physics [P090605]

25 (A) SST 75 (B) Chemistry [C090401]

26 (C) SST 76 (D) Chemistry [C090407]

27 (D) SST 77 (A) Chemistry [C090403]


29 (C) SST 79 (B) Chemistry [C090401]


31 (D) SST 81 (D) Chemistry [C090401]

32 (C) SST 82 (C) Chemistry [C090404]



35 (B) SST 85 (C) Chemistry [C090405]

36 (D) SST 86 (C) Chemistry [C090409]

37 (B) SST 87 (D) Chemistry [C090406]

38 (C) SST 88 (A) Chemistry [C090401]

39 (C) SST 89 (A) Biology [B090312]

40 (B) SST 90 (B) Biology [B090310]

41 (B) Mathematics [M100202] 91 (B) Biology [B090311]

42 (A) Mathematics [M100202] 92 (B) Biology [B090313]

43 (D) Mathematics [M100202] 93 (C) Biology [B090313]

44 (D) Mathematics [M100202] 94 (D) Biology [B090320]

45 (A) Mathematics [M100203] 95 (B) Biology [B090303]


47 (A) Mathematics [M090907] 97 (C) Biology [B090315]

48 (A) Mathematics [M090906] 98 (A) Biology [B090320]

49 (C) Mathematics [M090905] 99 (A) Biology [B090304]





FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST – IV (SET-A)


SOLUTIONS 1. (A) Sol. India‘s population as on March, 2011 stood at 1210 million, which accounts for 17.5% of the world

population. 2. (C) Sol. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq./km. 3. (C) Sol. According to the Census of 2001, a person aged 7 years, and above who can read and write with

understanding in any language, is treated as literate. 4. (D) Sol. Life expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 64.7 years in 2011. 5. (D) Sol. A Census is an official enumeration of population done periodically. 6. (D) Sol. Availability, accessibility and affordability of food is called food security. 7. (C) Sol. The most devastating famine that occurred in India was the Famine of Bengal in 1943. 8. (C) Sol. According to the National Health and Family Survey 1998-99, the number of such women and children

is approximately 11 crore. 9. (B) Sol. In 1968, wheat revolution was observed in India.




10. (C) Sol. The highest rate of growth was achieved in Punjab and Haryana. 11. (C) Sol. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through

F.C.I. 12. (A) Sol. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price. 13. (B) Sol. Presently there are 5.5 Lakh ration shops in India. 14. (B) Sol. The world‘s first cricket club was formed in Hambledon in the 1760s. 15. (D) Sol. The first written ‗Laws of Cricket‘ were drawn up in 1744. 16. (D) Sol. Australian Cricketer Dennis Lillee tried to play an innings with an aluminium bat. 17. (A) Sol. Pads were first introduced in 1848. 18. (C) Sol. Amateurs were called Gentlemen while Professionals had to be content with being described as

players. 19. (D) Sol. The first Indian club, the Calcutta Cricket Club was established in 1972. 20. (D) Sol. The Parsis founded the first Indian Cricket Club, the Oriental Cricket Club in bombay in 1848. 21. (A) Sol. C.K. Nayudu was the first India‘s Captain. 22. (B) Sol. Imperial Cricket Conference was renamed International Cricket Conference in 1965. 23. (C) Sol. Kerry Packer an Australian was introduced World Series Cricket. 24. (C) Sol. Sumptuary laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from

wearing certain clothes. 25. (A) Sol. Ermine, fur, silk, velvet or brocade could be worn in France only by Royalty. 26. (C) Sol. Jacobin clubs even called themselves the ―Sans Culottes to distinguish themselves from the aristocracy

who wore the fashionable ―Knee breeches‖. 27. (D) Sol. Blue, white, red are the colours of France that became popular sign of patriotic citizens. 28. (C) Sol. Suffrage movement means movement for Right to vote. 29. (C) Sol. Slavery was abolished in Travancore in 1855.




30. (A) Sol. Shoe-respect was made stricter by Lord Dalhousie. 31. (D) Sol. The movement launched against partition of Bengal in 1905 was Swadeshi movement. 32. (C) Sol. Khadi became symbol of national movement. 33. (C) Sol. Gandhiji first appeared in Lungi and Kurta in 1913 in Durban. 34. (A) Sol. New York was attacked on 11 September 2001. 35. (B) Sol. In Saudi Arabia the king is Hereditary. 36. (D) Sol. According to Right to equality all citizens of India are equal before the law.




37. (B) Sol. Begar is a practice of forced labour. 38. (C) Sol. A secular state is a state which doesn‘t support one religion. 39. (C) Sol. According to cultural and educational Right, citizens have right to promote their language. 40. (B) Sol. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that ‗Right to Constitutional Remedies‘ is the heart and soul of our Constitution. 41. (B) Sol. P(March or September) =

2

Total Number of Months in a year

= 2

12 =

1

6

42. (A) Sol. P(getting a prime number) =

Sum of frequences of getting prime numbers

total number of times dice rolled

= 30 120 50 200 1

600 600 3

43. (D) Sol. (i) Probability of selecting a vowel

= Number of vowel

Total number of letters

(ii) The word contains 3 vowels viz., O, I, E. (iii) The total number of letters in the word are 6.

P(E) = 3

6 =

1

2

44. (D) Sol. P(the attendance of the class more than 75%)

= number of classes with more than 75% atte ndance

total number of classes =

3 1

6 2

45. (A) Sol. (i) Total years = 7 (ii) In the years 2000 – 01, 2002-03 and 2003–04, he scored more than 3000 runs. (iii) Favorable years = 3

P(E) = 3

7

46. (B) Sol. P (a person chosen with no opinion on political leaders)

= number of persons with no opinion

total number of persons surveyed =

300 3

1000 10

47. (A)

Sol. C + D = 360° – (E + F)

1

2(C + D) = 180° –

1

2 (E + F)

= 180° – 1

2(100° + 110°)




1

2(C + D) = 75°

1

2 (C + D) + CPD = 180°

CPD = 180° – 75° = 105° 48. (A)

Sol. CDE = BAE ( angles in the same segment)

CDE = ECD + 20°

60° = ECD + 20°

ECD = 40°

ABE = 40° (angles in the same segment) 49. (C) Sol. Equal chords subtend equal angles on the circumference of the circle.




50. (B) Sol. Angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it on the remaining part of

the circle.

MON = 110°

OMN = OMN = 1

2(180° – 110°) = 35°

MON + OMN + 1

2MNO = 110° + 35° +

35°

2

= 1

1622

51. (A) Sol. Join BD, ABDE is a cyclic quadrilateral.

ABD = 180° – 110° = 70°

ADB = 70° AB = AD)

BAD = 180° – 140°

40° 52. (A) Sol. Join OD, OE and OF. Equal chords subtend equal angles at the centre.

Reflex COG = 360° – 4 × 40° = 200° 53. (C) Sol. (i) Join AB. Now using Pythagoras theorem AB

2 = AD

2 + DB

2 and AB

2 = AC

2 + CB

2.

(ii) If BD = AC, then AD = BC.

(iii) If AD || BD , then AC || BD, so ABCD is a rectangle.

54. (B) Sol. Volume of the larger cube = sum of the volumes of smaller cubes.

a3 = 27 + 64 + 125 = 216

a = 6 cm. 55. (A)

Sol. 3

1 1

32 2

V r 8

V 27r

1

2

r 2

r 3

21

22

r 4

9r

S1 : S2 = 4 : 9 56. (B)

Sol. 32r 18

3

r = 3

T.S.A. = 3r2

= 27 cm

2

57. (B)

Sol. No. of students = Area of floor

0.5 =

12.525

.5

The amount of air, each student would get = Volume of the room

No. of students

= 5 2.5 3.6

1.825




58. (A) Sol. (i) Edge (a) of small cube is to be found by using 6a

2 = 54.

a = 3 dm. = 0.3 m. (ii) Number of small cubes =

Volume of big cube

Volume of each small cube =

1.2 12 1264

.3 .3 .3

59. (C) Sol. Required volume is the sum of the volumes of conical part and cylindrical part.

V = 2 21 1r H r h

3 2

= 2 Hr h

3

= 22 6

5 5 127 3

[h = 18 – H = 18 – 6 = 12 m.]

= 22

5 5 147

V = 1100 m3

60. (B) Sol. 1100 × 600 × 500 = 33 × h h = 10000000 cm. h = 100000 m. h = 100 km. in 20 hrs., flow of water = 100 km.

in 1 hr., flow of water = 5 km.

rate of flow of water = 5 km/hr. 61. (A) Sol. As we know speed of radio waves in air is, v = 3 × 10

8 m/s

So, = 8

6

v 3 103m

f 100 10

62. (D) Sol. Knowledge base

63. (D) Sol. The speed of the sound wave in a given medium is independent of its frequency.

64. (A) Sol. In slinky (long spring) both longitudinal waves and transverse waves can be produced. 65. (D) Sol. Mechanical waves can‘t travel through vacuum. 66. (A) Sol. Knowledge Base 67. (B) Sol. Let the distance of the cliff from the child = d Total distance traveled by the sound, S = 2d Time take, t = 4s Distance of the cliff, d = ?

Distance

VelocityTime

v = 2d

t




d = v t 344 4

d 688 m2 2

Distance of the cliff = 688 m 68. (D)

Sol. Given = 40 cm = 0.4 m, f = 825 Hz

v = f × = 825 × 0.40 = 330 ms–1

In the second case, since medium is the same, the velocity of sound will remain the same.

Now, v = 330 ms–1

, = 33 cm = 0.33 m

From v = f

v 330

f 1000 Hz0.33

69. (D) Sol. Here, s = 500 m, u = 0 ms

–1, g = 10 ms

–2

Using s = 21ut gt

2

Or 500 = 210 10t

2

Or t2 = 100

Or t = 10s So, the stone reaches the pond is 10 s. Now, given that, speed of sound = 340 ms

–1

Time taken sound to cover 500 m = 500

1.5sec.340

Total time taken = (10 + 1.5)s = 11.5 s

The splash will be heard at the top after 11.5 s 70. (A) Sol. Knowledge base 71. (D) Sol. Knowledge base 72. (B) Sol. Knowledge base 73. (A) Sol. Knowledge base 74. (B) Sol. Hertz is unit of frequency and it is inverse of second. 75. (B) Sol. Deuterium has one proton and one neutron in its nucleus. 76. (D) Sol. H

– and He, both have 2-electrons.

77. (A)

Sol. Rutherford‘s experiment could explain scattering of -particles by thin metal foils. 78. (D)

Sol. Angular momentum = h 5h h

n 2.52 2 2

79. (B) Sol. E/m has maximum value for electron as its value of ‗m‘ is least. 80. (B)




Sol. The number of orbitals in an energy level = n2

81. (D) Sol. Protons and neutrons together are known as nucleons. 82. (C) Sol. He

2+ has no electrons.

83. (D) Sol. Pauli‘s exclusion principle states that no two electrons can have same values of quantum numbers. 84. (B)

Sol. For n = 2, ‗‘ can not be 2 so 2d is not permitted.




85. (C)

Sol. When = 2, it means d-subshell, n = 5 means 5th energy level. So it is 5d subshell.

86. (C) Sol. The element with atomic number = 15 is phosphorus. 87. (D)

Sol. 23 2411 12Na and Mg contain same number of neutrons, therefore these are isotones.

88. (A) Sol. The no. of nucleons in O

16 and O

18 are 16 and 18 respectively.

89. (A) Sol. Ovule is absent in pteridophytes whereas it is present in Gymnosperms but is naked. 90. (B) Sol. Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom. Although they are land plants they require

water for their sperms to swim towards eggs. 91. (B) Sol. Pteridophytes are the first land plants with vascular tissue present in them. 92. (B) Sol. Xylem vessels are absent in all other plant groups except Angiosperms 93. (C) Sol. In monocots floral parts are in multiple of three. 94. (C) Sol. Silver fish, Scorpion, Crab and Honey Bee are arthropods because they have jointed legs. 95. (B) Sol. Plant and animals are eukaryotic. 96. (B) Sol. Coelenterates have tissue level of organization. 97. (C) Sol. Porifera has a porous body with water canal system.




98. (A) Sol. Arthropoda is the largest phylum with maximum number of organisms present in it. 99. (A) Sol. Whittaker included unicellular non-nucleated or prokaryotic organisms in the group Monera. 100. (B) Sol. Roundworms are pseudocoelmate whereas flatworms are Acoelomate.

* * * * * *

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

CLASS IX

PHASE TEST – IV (Normal-A-Lot)

SET-A




INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :


pen.










duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.








Enrolment No. :

Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

I. Choose the sentence that is correct : 1. (A) Would you help my brother I shall get you a decent job. (B) Had you helped my brother I shall get you a decent job. (C) Did you help my brother I shall get you a decent job. (D) Should you help my brother I‘ll get you a decent job. 2. (A) She is more intelligent than any other boy in the class. (B) She is more intelligent than any girl in the class. (C) She is more intelligent than any other girl in the class. (D) She is the most intelligent than any other girl in the class. 3. (A) Anita was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple, with her lap full of newspapers, when

Bunty and Bitto came up. (B) Anita with her lap full of newspapers was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when

Bunty and Bitto came up. (C) With her lap full of newspapers Anita was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when

Bunty and Bitto came up. (D) Anita was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when Bunty and Bittu came up with

her lap full of newspapers. 4. (A) As he is careless he will not hear what the teacher says. (B) As he is careless he will not hear to what the teacher says. (C) As he is careless he will not listen what the teacher says. (D) As he is careless he will not listen to what the teacher says. 5. (A) A good teacher provides a student all the useful information (B) A good teacher provides to a student all the useful information (C) A good teacher provides a student with all the useful information (D) A good teacher provides to student with all the useful information 6. (A) I do not understand to whom she is talking. (B) I do not understand whom she is talking about. (C) I do not understand who she is talking to. (D) I do not understand whom she is talking.




II. Correct the errors in the following sentences. Some of them may not have errors: 7. When he left the house, it has not ceased raining. (A) Ever before (B) Ever since (C) Until (D) No improvement 8. All that I wish to tell you is that you better revise this essay. (A) should better (B) could better (C) had better (D) no improvement 9. Whenever Suresh gets into trouble he makes a story to get out of it. (A) makes for (B) makes out (C) makes up (D) no improvement 10. I had given him a lot of money, but he ran up it in a couple of weeks. (A) ran into (B) ran down (C) ran through (D) no improvement 11. It is time you start earning your own living: (A) started (B) would start (C) may start (D) no improvement 12. He evaded to pay income tax (A) from paying (B) against paying (C) paying (D) no improvement 13. The members swore on the constitution to uphold the integrity of the country. (A) by (B) at (C) upon (D) no improvement 14. More he gets, more he wants (A) The more he gets, the more (B) The more he gets, more (C) More gets, the more (D) no improvement 15. Let‘s go for a picnic, shouldn‘t we ? (A) won‘t (B) shan‘t (C) shall (D) no improvement 16. To some extent, every child takes after his father. (A) upon (B) for (C) off (D) no improvement III. Select the option that best explains the following idioms/phrases: 17. The worse for wear (A) worrisome (B) financially poor (C) hostile (D) shabby from use 18. To browbeat (A) to bully (B) to chase (C) to give a hint (D) to revive old

friendship




19. In tatters (A) in prison (B) under mortgage (C) ruined (D) under confusion 20. Raise somebody‘s hackles (A) to praise somebody (B) to deceive somebody (C) to flatter somebody (D) to make somebody angry 21. Beneath contempt (A) guilt (B) completely unworthy of respect (C) animosity (D) under wraps IV. Select the correct meaning of the keyword from the option given: 22. There was a major split in the congress party in 1969. (A) breach (B) division (C) break (D) unity 23. Wealth acquired through dishonourable means lead to moral downfall. (A) incredulous (B) discreditable (C) incredible (D) disgraceful 24. The man lives long through his good deeds after he had died. (A) beneficial (B) benevolent (C) beneficent (D) benediction 25. The field was even enough for the joggers to have their practice. (A) plane (B) plain (C) plan (D) plaine V. Select the word that means the opposite of the keyword from the options given: 26. SCANTY (A) arrogant (B) plentiful (C) painful (D) handsome 27. INQUISITIVE (A) insincere (B) indifferent (C) insensitive (D) insulting 28. PANICKY (A) confident (B) sober (C) quiet (D) calm 29. MOURNFUL (A) playful (B) joyous (C) laughable (D) humorous 30. SURVIVAL (A) evolution (B) development (C) creation (D) extinction




VI Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentences : 31. Shalini was not …. by the criticism and paid no.... even when her best friend talked against her. (A) bothered; attention (B) troubled; mind (C) threatened; warning (D) deterred; head 32. He preaches liberal views but in practice, he is not … and is … narrow-minded than almost any other

person. (A) hard; openly (B) tolerant; more (C) ambitious; hardly (D) acceptable;

genuinely 33. The police was at last able to … the … of her disappearance from her husband‘s home (A) reveal; secret (B) expose; mystery (C) confirm; doubt (D) solve; mystery 34. Prabha‘s …. in athetics yielded rich … as she got a scholarship. (A) performance, money (B) defeat; results (C) behaviour; appreciation (D) excellence; dividends 35 The police … any attempt of arson by … at the trouble spot quite in time. (A) squashed; surrounding (B) made; encircling (C) pre-empted; arriving (D) thwarted;

presenting VII. Read the paragraph below that has gaps. Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks :

We are citizens of no mean country and we are … 36. …. of the land of our birth, of our people, our

culture and our … 37 … That pride should not be for a romanticized past to which we have to …38…

nor should it encourage exclusiveness or a want of …. 39… of other ways than our own. It must never

allow us to … 40…. our many weaknesses and failings or …. 41…. our longing to be rid of them. We

have a long way to go and much leeway to make … 42 …. before we take our proper … 43 .... with

others in the van of human civilization and progress. And we have to … 44 … for the time at our

disposal is … 45… .

36. (A) aware (B) proud (C) reminded (D) fond 37. (A) customs (B) ceremonies (C) traditions (D) festivals 38. (A) return (B) glorify (C) sing (D) cling 39. (A) appreciation (B) enthusiasm (C) criticism (D) condemnation 40. (A) reject (B) forget (C) avoid (D) remember 41. (A) blunt (B) demolish (C) disappear (D) spur 42. (A) out (B) for (C) up (D) of 43. (A) role (B) site (C) equation (D) station 44. (A) tarry (B) hurry (C) ponder (D) debate 45. (A) scarce (B) sufficient (C) plenty (D) limited VIII. Spot the errors in the following sentences : 46. He as well as you is tired of this long and troublesome affair. No error a b c d e 47. Along the northern frontier of India is seen the Himalayas mighty in their splendour. No error a b c d e




48. It is in 1929 when we first flew to the United States. a b c d e 49. Our country need a number of self sacrificing and devoted political leaders. a b c d 50. The alarmed report of an earthquake frightened everyone in that disaster prone village. a b c d

* * * * * *




LANGUAGE (ENGLISH)

SET (A)

ANSWER KEY

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)

21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)

31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)

41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)

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