FFIIIITTJJEEEE JJEEEE AADDVVAANNCCEEDD … · 7 –JEE Advanced Part Test 1_Paper–2_ 18/04/2018...

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General: 1. This booklet is your Question paper. Do not open the booklet before being instructed to do

so by the invigilators. 2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work. No

additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 3 Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones,

pagers, and electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall. 4. Use a black ball point pen; darken the bubbles on the OMR sheet.

B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:

(i) Part–A (01 – 8) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one option is correct. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. Part–A (9 – 13) contains 5 multiple choice questions out of which one or more than one option is/are correct. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Part–A (14 – 17) contains 2 Paragraph. Each Paragraph contains 2 questions which have

only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer and 0 mark for all other cases.

(iii) Part–B (1 – 1) contains 1 Matrix Match Type Questions which have statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. There may be One or More Than One Correct choices. Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer however for each correct row +2 marks will be awarded and –1 mark for each row matched incorrectly.

(iv) Part–C (1 – 5) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer

FFIIIITTJJEEEE JJEEEE AADDVVAANNCCEEDD TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS

Part Test–1

(Paper–2)

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2 JEE Advanced Part Test–1_Paper–2_ 18/04/2018

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PHYSICS

PART–A

SECTION–1

Multiple Choice Questions This Section contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions out of which only one option is correct.

1. A vessel of height H and length L contains a liquid of density upto height H/2. The vessel starts accelerating horizontally with acceleration a towards right. If A is the point at the surface of the liquid at right end while the vessel is accelerating and B is the point at bottom of the vessel on the other end, the difference of pressure at B and A will be :

(A) gH aL2

(B) gH aL

2

(C) 2 gH aL (D)

3gH aL

2

2. A liquid is placed in a cylindrical glass container of radius R0. In gravity free space, free surface of liquid

has spherical shape of all radius of curvatureR1.Nowsame liquid is placed in a large spherical glass container of radius R2 in uniform gravity. If surface of liquid in spherical container is found to be flat, then find the height of liquid surface in spherical container from centre of container.

(A) 1 2

0

R R

R (B) 1 2

0

R R

R (C) 1

02

RR

R (D) 2

01

RR

R

3. Inside a cart that is accelerating horizontally at acceleration a , there is a block of mass M connected to

two light springs of force constant k1 and k2 .The block can move without friction horizontally. Find the possible expression(s) for vibration frequency of the block?

(A) 1 2k k1

2 M

(B)

1 2

1 2

k k1

2 k k m (C) 1 2k k1

2 m

(D)

1 2

1 2

k k1a

2 k k m

Space for rough work




4. A fish floats in water with its eye at the centre of an opaque walled full tank of water of circular cross section. When the fish looks upward, it can see a fish-eye view of the surrounding scene i.e., it is able to view the hemisphere of the scene above the water surface, and centred at the loop of the tank. The diameter of the tank is 30 cm, and the critical angle for water is 48°. At what depth 'd' below the surface

of water must the fish be floating? (Given : sin 48° 0.74 & cos 48° 0.67)

(A) 16.7 cm (B) 13.5 cm (C) 11.2 cm (D) 10 cm 5. A cart of mass m moving at 12m/s to the right collides elastically with a cart of mass M1 that is originally

at rest. After the collision, the cart of mass m moves to the left with a velocity of 6m/s. Assuming an elastic collision in one dimension only, what is the velocity of the centre of mass of the two carts before the collision ?

(A) 2m/s (B) 3m/s (C) 6m/s (D) 9m/s 6. A small sphere of radius r and mass m is placed on a big hemisphere of mass 2m and radius R which is

kept on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Find the displacement of hemisphere when line joining between centre of small sphere and centre of big hemisphere makes 30º with the vertical (initially this line was vertical and assume small sphere is not losing the contact with hemisphere)

(A) R r

2

(B)

R r

3

(C)

R r

6

(D) none of these





7. A large metal cylindrical cup floats in a rectangular tub half filled with water. The tap is placed over the cup and turned on, releasing water at a constant rate. Eventually the cup sinks to the bottom and is completely sub merged. Which of the following graph correctly represent the water level in the sink as a function of time ? (The graphs are NOT to scale)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

8. An equilateral triangle is sitting on an inclined plane. Friction is too high for it to slide under any

circumstance, but if the plane is sloped enough it can topple down the hill. For what value of the angle of the incline the triangle will topple ? (A) 10° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 75°

Multiple Choice Questions This Section contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions out of which one or more option is/are correct.

9. A bird in air is diving vertically downward over a tank with speed 5 cm/s while base of tank is silvered. A

fish in the tank is rising upward along the same line with speed 2 cm/s. Water level is falling at rate of 2 cm/s. Take μwater = 4/3

(A) Speed of image of fish as seen by bird directly is 6 cm/s. (B) Speed of image of fish as seen by bird directly is 3 cm/s. (C) Speed of image of fish as seen by bird after reflection from mirror is 3 cm/s.

(D) Speed of image of fish as seen by bird after reflection from mirror is 6 cm/s. Space for rough work




10. A triangular block ABC of mass m and sides 2a lie on a smooth horizontal plane as shown. Three point masses of mass m each strike the block at A, B and C with speeds v as shown. After the collision the particles come to rest. Select the correct alternative(s)

(A) the centre of mass of ABC remains stationary after collision (B) the centre of mass of ABC moves with velocity v along the x-axis after collision

(C) the triangular block rotates with an angular velocity 2mva1 3

3 I about its centre of mass

(here, I is the moment of inertia of triangular block about its centroid axis perpendicular to its plane) (D) none of these 11. A mass m, lying on a horizontal, frictionless surface, is connected to one end of a spring of spring

constant k. The other end of the spring is connected to a wall, as shown in the figure. At t = 0, the mass is given an impulse J as shown. Taking left direction as positive. The time dependence of the displacement, acceleration and the velocity of the mass are:

(A)J k

x sin tmmk

(B)

J k 3v sin t

m m 2

(C) 3

J k ka sin t

mm

(D)

3

J k ka sin t

mm





12. A disc of radius R is spun to an angular speed 0 about its axis and then imparted a horizontal velocity

of magnitude 0R

4

(at t = 0) with its plane remaining vertical. The coefficient of friction between the disc

and the plane is sufficient to allow pure rolling, once it starts. The sense of rotation and direction of its linear speed are shown in the figure. Choose the correct statement.

(A) The disc will return to its initial position.

(B) the disc will stop finally irrespective of value of v and .

(C) if v0 = 0 R/2 then the disc will stop.

(D) the friction will act in rightward direction after the rolling(without slipping) starts.

13. A solid cylinder of mass m and radius r is rolling without slipping down on a rough inclined plane of

inclination . The coefficient of friction between the cylinder and incline is µ. Then

(A) frictional force is always µ mg cos

(B) work done by the friction is zero

(C) by decreasing , frictional force decreases

(D) friction opposes translation and supports rotation.





Paragraph Type Question This Section contains 2 paragraph consist of 2 questions each. Out of which only one option is correct.

Paragraph for Question 14 and 15

A liquid of density is filled in tube having three vertical arms each of length L as shown. Initially height

of liquid in each arm is L/2. If left vertical arm is now closed and whole system is rotated with angular velocity

about vertical axis passing through middle arm, the height of liquid in left arm becomes5L

8. Given

3 3 2 5 2atm

40L m, 10 kg / m , g 10m / s , P 10 N / m

3

, air is treated as ideal gas

14. Find the angular velocity

(A) 21

rad / sec4

(B) 7

rad / sec2

(C) 5 rad / sec (D) 3

rad / sec4

15. The height of liquid in the middle arm

(A) 20

m3

(B) zero m (C) 10

m3

(D) 40

m3






Three identical uniform solid cylinders each of mass M and radius R are in contact and kept on a rough

horizontal surface. Coefficient of friction between cylinder-1 and surface is cylinder-2 and

surface is 2 and between cylinder-3 and surface is 3.

There is no friction between cylinders. A horizontal time varying force F = mgt, here t in sec, starts

acting on cylinder-1, exactly at the horizontal level of centers of cylinder from t = 0. Answer the following two questions:

16. How long after t = 0, cylinder-1 will start slipping? (A) 5 sec (B) 9 sec (C) 17 sec (D) 24 sec 17. How long after t = 0, cylinder-3 will start slipping? (A) 5 sec (B) 9 sec (C) 17 sec (D) 24 sec





PART–B Matrix Match Type Questions

This section contains one question, having two matching Columns. Choices for the correct combination of elements from Column-I and Column-II are given as option (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which one or more than one are correct.

1. In the following figures identify the points w.r.t. which angular momentum (AM) is conserved.

Column – I Column – II

(A)

(P) A

(B)

(Q) B

(C)

(R) C

(D)

(S) D

(T) Conserved about all the point (i.e., A, B, C and D)





PART – C Integer Answer Type

This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).

1. A soap bubble of radius 4 cm has uniform surface charge density of 17.7 μC/m2. If the surface

tension of the liquid is 0.07N/m. Find the air pressure difference between inside and outside the soap bubble in N/m

2.

2. Neglecting friction at the axle and the inertia of the two step pulley shown in figure find the acceleration

'a' of the falling weight P in (m/s2) (assume P = 2 kg, Q = 2 kg & r2 = 2 r1)

3. An ideal liquid is flowing in two pipes, one is inclined and second is horizontal. Both the pipes are

connected by two vertical tubes, of length h1 and h2 as shown in the figure. The flow is streamlined in both the pipes. If velocity of liquid at A, B, C are 2m/s, 4m/s and 4m/s respectively. the velocity at D will

be 2 N N m/s–1

. Fill the value of N in OMR.





4. A bob of mass 100 gm is connected to a thread of length l and projected horizontally with speed of

6gl so that it completes vertical circle. What is the difference between maximum tension and

minimum tension (in N)?

5. A uniform stick of mass m and length l spins around on a frictionless horizontal plane, with its Centre

of Mass stationary. A mass M is placed on the plane, and the stick collides elastically with it, as shown (with the contact point being the end of the stick). What should M (in kg) be so that after the collision the stick has translational motion, but no rotational motion? take m = 10 kg.

M

m





CHEMISTRY

PART–A

SECTION–2


1. pK

In of some indicators are given below:

Methyl orange = 3.7, Methyl red = 5.1, Litmus = 7.0, Phenol red = 7.8

The indicator that should be used for the titration of 0.10 M 2 3KH BO with 0.10 M HCl?

Given: Ka (H

3BO

3) = 12.8 × 10

–10

.

(A) Methyl orange (B) Methyl red (C) Litmus (D) Phenol red 2. In the Haber process for the industrial manufacture of ammonia involving the reaction,

2 2 3 N 3H 2NH at 200 atm pressure in the presence of a catalyst,

a temperature of about 500°C is used. This is considered as optimum temperature for the process because

(A) yield is maximum at this temperature (B) catalyst is active only at this temperature (C) energy needed for the reaction is easily obtained at this temperature (D) rate of the catalytic reaction is fast enough while the yield is also appreciable for this exothermic

reaction at this temperature.

3. For a 0.12 M solution of oxalic acid ( 2 2 4H C O )?

[Given: K1 =

210 M and K2 =

43 10 M]

(I) The concentration of H is 0.03M

(II) The concentration of 2 2 4H C O is 0.09M

(III) The concentration of 2 4HC O is 0.0297M

(IV) The concentration of 2

2 4C O is

43 10 M

Which is/are correct

(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) All

4. One mole of an ideal gas is subjected to the following change of state:

Reversible Isochoric reversible

Isothermal expansion cooling Adiabatic compression(500K, 5.0bar) (3.0bar)(250K,1.0bar)

v

A B C D

given :C 1.5R

The net work done in the process is (A) +1042 J (B) −540J (C) +540J (D) −2088 J





5. During winters, moisture condenses in the form of dew and can be seen on plant leaves and grass. The entropy of the system in such cases decreases as liquids possess lesser disorder as compared to gases. With reference to the second law, which statement is correct, for the above process?

(A) The randomness of the universe decreases (B) The randomness of the surroundings decreases (C) Increase is randomness of surroundings equals the decrease in randomness of system (D) The increase in randomness of the surroundings is greater as compared to the decrease in

randomness of the system. 6. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at 5 bar and 300K are expanded irreversibly up to a final

pressure of 1 bar and 240K against an external pressure of 0.5 bar. How much work (in J) is done by the gas?

(A) –90R (B)–120R (C) –180R (D)–360R

7. An indicator has InpK = 5.3. In a certain solution this indicator is found to be 80% ionised in its basic

form. The pH of the solution is (A) 4.69 (B) 5.90 (C) 8.10 (B) 9.3 8. A non-metal oxide XO4(g) decomposes according to following reaction:

XO4(g) XO2(g) + O2(g) ………..(I)

Initially there are only 10 moles of XO4(g) in a 5L vessel, at 27℃. At equilibrium mole fraction of O2is

38

. The value of Kp for the following reaction

XO4(g) XO2(g) + O2(g) at 27℃ is

(A)221.6 atm (B) 48.19 atm (C) 44.33 atm (D) 34.23 atm






9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Hybridisation of carbon in 3 2C O is sp2

(B) In 2

2 7Cr O , six Cr–O bonds are identical

(C) Three centre two electron bonds exist in 2 6B H and 2 3 6Al CH

(D) In a molecule, if all the central atoms are 2sp hybridized then the structure must be planar in

shape 10. A closed jar having waters vapours in equilibrium with liquid suddenly all the vapours of the jar is

transferred to another identical jar and is subjected to compression. Assume initial temperature to be the same and negligible volume occupied by the liquid water. Select the observation in the record jar

(A) liquid water will Start forming in the jar (B) vapour will undergo gradual compression without any condensation. (C) temperature of the vapour will increases. (D) final pressure will be the same as initial pressure.

11. The given graph represent the variations of Z (compressibility factor Z=pV

nRT ) versus p, for three real

gases A, B and C. Identify the correct statement.

(A) For the gas A, a=0 and its dependence on p is linear at all pressure (B) For the gas B, b=0 and its dependence on p is linear at all pressure (C) For the gas C, which is typical real gas for which neither a nor b =0, by knowing the minima and

the point of intersection, with Z=1, a and b can be calculated (D) At high pressure, the slope is positive for all real gases.





12. Select the correct statement(s) (A) An adiabatic system can exchange energy with its surroundings. (B) An insulated system can exchange energy with surrounding (C) Work done in free expansion is zero. (D) For an isolated system, the entropy can never decrease 13. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic and isothermal conditions is shown in figure.

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

1 1 1P ,V ,T

2 2 2P ,V ,T

3 2 3P ,V ,T

IsothermalAdiabatic

P

V

(A) 2 3T T (B) isothermal adiabaticW W

(C) adiabatic isothermalW W (D) isothermal adiabaticU U





Paragraph Type Question This Section contains 2 paragraph consist of 2 questions each. Out of which only one option is correct.


An inorganic compound (A) is a strong reducing agent. Itshydrolysis in water gives a white turbidity (B). Aqueous solution of (A) gives a white precipitate (C) with NaOH solution which is soluble in excess of NaOH. (A) reduces auric chloride to produce purple of cassius. (A) also reduces iodine and gives chromyl chloride test.

14. Compound A is

(A) 2SnCl (B) 4SnCl (C) Sn(OH)Cl (D) 2Sn(OH)

15. Compound C is

(A) 2SnCl (B) 4SnCl (C) Sn(OH)Cl (D) 2Sn(OH)


From the given T-S diagram of a reversible carnot engine, find

A

B C

D

T(K)

S(J/K)

100

200

300 600

16. Work delivered by engine in each cycle (A) 30 kJ (B) 60 kJ (C) 90 kJ (D) 100 kJ 17. Heat taken from the source in each cycle. (A) +30 kJ (B) +60 kJ (C) +90 kJ (D) +100 kJ







1. Match the column I with column II

Column (I) Column (II)

(A) At low pressure P pbZ 1

RT

(B) At higher pressure Q

m

aZ 1

V RT

(C) At low density of gas R Gas is more compressible

(D) For 2H and He at 0 C S Gas is less compressible







1. Half-life period of the radioactive element A is 10 days. Amount of A left on the end of 11

th day starting

with 1 mole A is

n 6

1012

mole. What is the value of n.

2. In the carbon dating of a fossil it is found out that the ratio of 14C to

12C is 1:12(8 10 ) .The age of

the fossil is 3000x years. The value of ‘x’ is.

(Given: The proportion of 14C to

12C in living matter 1:1210 ,

141/2t of C 6000 years )

3. A particular water sample has 408 ppm CaSO4. 10x % of water must be evaporate in a container

before solid CaSO4 begins to deposit? The value of ‘x’ is.(KspCaSO4=49 10 , M.W of 4CaSO =136)

4. Solubility of PbI2(Ksp= –92.91 10 ) in water, which is 90% dissociated is

3x 10 M . The value of

x is 5. The relative humidity below which CuSO4.5H2O would efflorescent at 25°C is 5x. For the

reactionCuSO4.5H2O(s) CuSO4.3H2O(s) + 2H2O(g)

at 25°C pK is 41.0 10 atm

2 and vapour pressure of water is 30.4 torr.

(Given: Relative humidity is the ratio of amount of moisture in air to the maximum amount of moisture that could exist in air at specific temperature in percentage)

The value of ‘x’ is





MATHEMATICS

PART–A

SECTION–3


1. cos cosx 1

dx af(x) bg(x) c, (0, )cos cosx

(A)

xtan cot

2 2a cos ,b sin ,f(x) x 1, g(x) lnx

tan cot2 2

(B) 2 1 xa sin ,b cos ,f(x) sinx, g(x) tan tan tan

2 2

(C) 2 1

xtan cot

2 2a sin ,b cos ,f(x) cos x, g(x) tanx

tan cot2 2

(D)

xtan cot

2 2a 1,b cosec ,f(x) x, g(x) lnx

tan cot2 2

2. Let f(x) be a cubic polynomial with leading coefficient unity such that f(0) = 1 and all the roots of f (x) = 0

are also roots of f(x) = 0. If f x dx g x C , where g(0) = 1

4and C is constant of integration, then

g(3) – g(1) is equal to (A) 27 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 81

3. Suppose the function gn(x) = x2n + 1

+ anx + bn (n N) satisfies the equation 1

n

1

px q g x dx 0

for

all linear functions (px + q) then

(A) an = bn = 0 (B) bn = 0; an = – 3

2n 3

(C) an = 0; bn = 3

2n 3

(D) n n

3 3a ;b

2n 3 2n 3





4. Let g be a differentiable function satisfying x

4 2

0

x t 1 g t dt x x for all x 0. The value of

1

0

12dx

g x g x 10 is equal to

(A) 6

(B)

3

(C)

4

(D)

2

5. A function y = f(x) satisfies the condition f’(x) sin x + f(x) cos x = 1, f(x) being bounded when x 0. If I = / 2

0

f(x)

dx then:

(A) 2

I2 4

(B)

2

I4 2

(C) 1 I

2

(D) 0 < I < 1

6. Let I be the purchase value of an equipment and V(t) be the value after it has been used for t years.

The value V(t) depreciates at a rate given by differential equation dV(t)

k (T t)dt

, where k > 0 is a

constant and T is the total life in years of the equipment. Then the scrap value V(T) of the equipment is

(A) 2kT

I2

(B) 2k(T t)

I2

(C) kTe (D) 2 I

Tk

7. If the area enclosed by g(x), x = -3, x = 5 and x-axis where g(x) is the inverse of f(x) = x

3 + 3x + 1 is A,

then [A] equals [Note: [k] denotes the greatest integer function less than or equal to k] (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

8. Let f(x) = x2 + 6x + 1 and R denotes the set of points (x, y) in the coordinate plane such that f(x) + f(y)

0 and f(x) – f(y) 0. The area of R is equal to

(A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 8 (D) 4


9. Let Sn = 2 2n

3k 1

k n

n

and

2 2n 1

n 3k 0

k nT

n

for n = 1,2,3,….. then

(A) n

4S

3 (B) n

4T

3 (C) n

4S

3 (D) n

4T

3





10. Let A =

2e

1

ln x

x dx. Identify which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1

A 2 ee

(B)

1A e 1 2

e

(C) 2

t

0

A t e dt (D) 3 < A < 5

11. Which of the following pair(s) is/are orthogonal?

(A) 2 2 1616x y c and y kx (B) y = x + ce-x and x + 2 = y + ke

-y

(C) y = cx2 and x

2 + 2y

2 = k (D) x

2 – y

2 = c and xy = k

Where c and k arbitrary constant

12. Let function y = f(x) satisfies the differential equation 1

2 2 xdy

x y e (x 0)dx

and x 0

lim f(x) 1

. Identify the

correct statement(s) :

(A) Range of f(x) is (0, 1) 1

2

(B) f(x) is bounded

(C) x 0

lim f(x) 1

(D) e 1

0 0

f(x)dx f(x)dx

13. The function y = f(x) is continuous over [0, 10]. If the area bounded by f(x) and the x-axis between x = 0

and x = 10 is S where -10 f(x) 10, then which of the following is/are not always correct?

(A) S 100 (B)

10

0

f(x)dx S (C)

10

0

f(x)dx S (D)

10

0

S f(x)dx





Paragraph Type Question

This Section contains 2 paragraph consist of 2 questions each. Out of which only one option is correct.


Consider (a, b, t) = a4 – 5a

2 + b

2 + 5t

2 – 4bt – 2t +

33

4 where a, b, t R. Given that f(t) and g(b) are

the minimum values of (a, b, t).

14. dx

f(x) is s

(A) tan–1

(x – 1) + C (B) 11 x 1tan C

2 2

(C) ln[x – 1 + 2x 2x 2 ) + C (D) 1 x 1

ln C2 x 1

[Note : Where C is the constant of integration]

15. If ex g(x) dx = e

x(Ax

2 + Bx + C) + D, where D is constant of integration, then (A + B + C) is equal to

(A) 2 (B) 14

5 (C) 5 (D)

19

5


Let f be a function defined on the interval [0, 2] such that x 0

0 x

(f '(t) sin2t)dt f(t) tant dt and f(0) = 1.

16. The maximum value of f(x) is

(A) 5

4 (B)

9

8 (C) 1 (D)

1

4

17. The number of solution of f(x) = 1 in interval [0, 2] is: (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6







1. Match the following:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Let an =

1/ n1

1

n 1

tan (nx)dx

and bn = 1/ n

1

1

n 1

sin (nx)dx

then n

nn

alim

bhas the

value equal to

(P) 0

(B) If M =

1 31 1

0 2

sin 1 x dx cos x 2 dx , then [M] is equal to (Q) 1

2

(C) Given that f(0) = 0, f(0) = 1, f(2) = 3 and f(2) = 5. The value of the

definite integral 1

0

xf 2x dx is equal to

(R) 1

(D) If the value of definite integral

22 2 2 3

0

x sin xdx k

, then k equals (S) 2







1. Suppose 2

7 2 7

1 7cos x g(x)dx C

sin xcos x sin x

, where C is an arbitrary constant of integration. Then find the

value of g’(0) + g”4

.

2. If

2011 1002

0

2021 1002

0

1 1 x .xdxp

q1 1 x .xdx

where p, q N, then find the least value of (p – q).

3. Given a curve C. Let the tangent line at P(x, y) on C is perpendicular to the line joining P and Q (1, 0). If

the line 2x + 3y – 15 = 0 is tangent to the curve C then the length of the tangent from the point (5, 0) to

the curve C is n (where n N). Find the value of n.

4. If the area enclosed by the curve y2 = 4x and 16y

2 = 5(x – 1)

3 can be expressed in the form

L M

N

where L and N are relatively prime and M is a prime, if k = (L + M + N) then the sum of digits of k is

5. If 1

3

0

44x f x f x dx

7 then if the area of region bounded by y = f(x), x-axis and coordinate x = 1

and x = 2 is 2

15z, then z =





FFIIIITTJJEEEE JJEEEE AADDVVAANNCCEEDD TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ANSWER KEY

Part Test–1

(Paper–2)

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

PART–A PART–A PART–A

1. A 1. B 1. D

2. D 2. A 2. C

3. A 3. D 3. B

4. B 4. D 4. C

5. B 5. D 5. A

6. C 6. C 6. A

7. C 7. C 7. C

8. D 8. C 8. C

9. AC 9. BC 9. CD

10. BC 10. AD 10. ABCD

11. AD 11. ACD 11. ABCD

12. AC 12. ABCD 12. ABD

13. BCD 13. ABCD 13. BCD

14. A 14. A 14. A

15. B 15. D 15. A

16. B 16. A 16. B

17. D 17. B 17. C

PART–B PART–B PART–B

1. A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q 1. A-QR, B-PS, C-QR, D-PS

1. A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-S

PART–C PART–C PART–C

1. 6 1. 5 1. 5

2. 4 2. 6 2. 1

3. 7 3. 9 3. 3

4. 4 4. 1 4. 7

5. 5 5. 5 5. 1

FFIIIITTJJEEEE JJEEEE AADDVVAANNCCEEDD … · 7 –JEE Advanced Part Test 1_Paper–2_ 18/04/2018...

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