© UCLES 2001 0100/0102

First Certificate in English

Examination Report Syllabuses 0100 and 0102

December 2000

CONTENTS

Page

Introduction 1

Paper 1 - Reading 3

Paper 2 - Writing 7

Paper 3 - Use of English 14

Paper 4 - Listening 19

Paper 5 - Speaking 24

Feedback Form 30

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 1

INTRODUCTION

The First Certificate in English examination appeared in its revised format for the first time inDecember 1996.

This Report is intended to provide a general view of how candidates performed on eachpaper and to offer guidance on the preparation of candidates. Candidates took either FCESyllabus 100 (Tuesday) or FCE Syllabus 102 (Saturday).

The overall pass rate for 0100 was 70.76% and for 0102 was 71.18%.

The following table gives details of the percentage of candidates at each grade.

0100 0102GRADE PERCENTAGE PERCENTAGE

A 08.33 08.60B 19.55 18.70C 42.88 43.88D 10.14 09.80E 19.11 19.03

• Grading Grading took place during January 2001 (approximately six weeks after the examination). The five FCE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Papers 1�5 are each weighted to 40marks. The candidate’s overall FCE grade is based on the total score gained by thecandidate in all five papers. Candidates do not ‘pass’ or ‘fail’ in a particular paper, but ratherin the examination as a whole. The overall grades (A, B, C, D, and E) are set according to the following information:

• statistics on the candidature;• statistics on the overall candidate performance;• statistics on individual items, for those parts of the examination for which this is

appropriate (Papers 1, 3 and 4);• the advice of the Principal Examiners, based on the performance of candidates, and on

the recommendation of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5);• comparison with statistics from previous years' examination performance and candidature. Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E).The minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order toachieve a grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Every candidate is providedwith a Statement of Results which includes a graphical display of the candidate’sperformance in each component. These are shown against the scale Exceptional – Good –Borderline – Weak and indicate the candidate’s relative performance in each paper. • Awards The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries have been confirmed. It dealswith all cases for special consideration, e.g., temporary disability, unsatisfactory examinationconditions, suspected collusion, etc. The committee can ask for scripts to be re-marked,check results, change grades, withhold results, etc. Results may be withheld because ofinfringement of the regulations or because further investigation is needed. Centres arenotified if a candidate’s result has been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.

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• Notification of Results Statements of results slips are issued through centres approximately two months after theexamination has been taken. Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue ofstatements of results slips. Requests for a check on results may be made through centres,within one month of the issue of statements of results. UCLES produces the following documents which may be of use in preparing candidates forFCE: • Regulations (produced annually, for information on dates, etc.);• FCE Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials);• Examination Report (produced after each administration);• Past Paper Pack (available approximately ten weeks after each examination session,

including Question Papers for Papers 1�4, sample Speaking Test materials, answerkeys, cassette and tapescript for Paper 4, and Paper 2 mark schemes and samplescripts).

Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to therelevant Past Paper Packs. These, together with further copies of this report are availablefrom: EFL Information University of Cambridge Local Examination Syndicate 1 Hills Road Cambridge CB1 2EU UK Tel: +44 1223 553355

Fax: +44 1223 460278

email: efl@ucles.org.uk

www.cambridge-efl.org.uk

Feedback on this Report is very welcome and should be sent to the Reports Co-ordinator, EFL, at the above address. Please use the feedback form at the end of this report.

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PAPER 1 - READING

Part Task Type and Focus Number ofQuestions

Task Format

1

Multiple-matching Main focus: main points

Syllabus0100

7

Syllabus0102

7

A text preceded by multiple-matching questions. Candidates must match aprompt from one list to aprompt in another list, or matchprompts to elements in the text.

2 Multiple-choice Main focus: detail

8 8 A text followed by four-optionmultiple-choice questions.

3 Gapped text Main focus: text structure

7 7 A text from which paragraphsor sentences have beenremoved and placed in jumbledorder after the text. Candidatesmust decide from where in thetext the paragraphs orsentences have been removed.

4 Multiple-matching,multiple-choice Main focus: specificinformation

13 13 As Part 1

• Marking Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is scanned bycomputer. Questions in Parts 1, 2 and 3 carry two marks each. Questions in Part 4 carryone mark each. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40. • Candidate performance

In general, candidates coped very competently with the four task formats of the papers. Thedifficulty levels of the two papers, as ascertained from pretesting, were comparable.Statistical evidence showed that the questions in all four parts provided a very reliableassessment of candidates' relative ability levels.

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Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Weight training

This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, was verycompetently handled by most candidates. Questions 1 and 5 were the easiest, while 3 and 4caused most problems for weaker candidates. Incorrect responses to these questions werefairly evenly spread.

Part 2, Ireland's wild west

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates' detailed comprehension,but also included a reference question. Candidates found this to be the easiest part of thepaper, with Questions 13 and 15 being the most straightforward. None of the questionsstood out as particularly difficult overall, though weaker candidates struggled with Question8. Weak candidates who did not choose the correct answer went for D, suggesting theypossibly misunderstood the force of the parenthetical phrase 'as I did', which refers to thewriter's walk, not to his expectations.

Part 3, Ruth Rendell mystery

This gapped-sentence task, focusing on text structure was, in general, competently dealtwith. Questions 16 and 18 were the easiest, while 19 and 22 were the most difficult overall.In 19, incorrect answers were evenly spread. Interestingly a high proportion of weakcandidates used the correct answer, E ('I didn't like it and I was bad at it'), as their choice for22, where there is no indication of support for a past tense. Possibly they did not pick up thepast time reference in the phrase 'a former journalist', which precedes gap 19. Far fewergood candidates made this error.

Part 4, Because it's still there

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific informationfrom the text. The easiest questions on this occasion were 33, 34 and 35. The majority ofthe other questions were competently answered, but 25 and 29 caused particular difficulty forweaker candidates. In 25, they preferred A to the key, E. This suggests a misunderstandingof the phrase 'finding evidence' in the question, since there are no such events in A. In E,the elements which make up the key are 'ropes', 'bolts' and 'the mess'. In Question 29, themost popular incorrect response was D. Here the phrases 'little reduction in the number ofguided tours' and 'today virtually anyone can sign up for an expedition' do not suggest a'general lack of enthusiasm for climbing Everest' as specified in the question.

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Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, Training to save lives

This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, wascompetently handled by most candidates. Questions 1 and 2 were extremely well answered,while 4 and 7 caused more problems for the candidates. In 4, the most popular incorrectanswer was F, 'Difficult cases', when that section of the article refers to only one ‘occasion'.In 7, a significant proportion of candidates chose H, in preference to the key. The paragraphdoes not focus on 'teaching rescuing techniques', but merely mentions 'SCAT training' at onepoint. The correct answer, by contrast, is supported by the phrase 'tackle any scale ofemergency thrown at them' and five examples of such emergencies.

Part 2, The showbiz mother

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates' detailed comprehension,but also included reference and lexical items. Question 11 proved to be the easiest item,with 14 causing most difficulty. Although incorrect responses were spread out, a significantproportion of candidates chose A, 'she spent too much time travelling', missing the point thatthe writer was 'on call day and night’, not actually travelling all that time. She says that shehad to 'kill time, a lot of which I spent worrying', which combines with a subsequent exampleof those worries to support the key, D.

Part 3, Ski industry accused of destroying the Alps

This gapped-sentence task, focusing on text structure, discriminated very well. Question 18stood out as the easiest item in the task, while the final question, 22, caused most difficulty,particularly for the weaker group, who, in general, did not cope well with the task. Thecorrect answer to 22, C, introduces the quotation from the head of a ski club which followsthe gap. Most weak candidates used C earlier in the task, where it was consistentlyinappropriate to the pro-environmental arguments being expressed in the surrounding text.

Part 4, First-time inventors

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates' ability to retrieve specific informationfrom the text. This was the easiest part of the Paper for most candidates. Questions 26, 31and 35 were particularly well answered. Only Question 27 posed particular problems, with asignificant number of candidates choosing C in preference to the correct answer, A, wherethe inventor says, 'if something annoys me, I have to look at ways of improving it.' Theinventor in C resigned from his job, but there is no suggestion of irritation as a motive. He isalso described as 'bruised and battered', but that is a consequence of marketing hisinvention, not a stimulus to which he reacted.

• RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Teachers and students should note that no single FCE 1 paper includes all possible tasks orquestion types. The FCE Handbook lists all the task types which may appear on the paper.

In addition to specific examination practice, students should be advised to read as widely asthey can, with a range of reading purposes reflecting those sampled in the paper (retrievingrelevant information, getting the 'gist', understanding detail, etc). Many of the texts for theReading Paper are drawn from magazines and newspapers, rather than books, and studentswill benefit from being familiar with these types of text.

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• DOs AND DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 1 READING

DO consider possible alternative meanings of heading in Part 1 before attemptingto match them to the text. Look out for figurative language in headings.

DO avoid being attracted solely by the presence in the text of a word used in thequestion ('word-spotting') (all parts). The mere presence of the word is noguarantee that it is the correct answer.

DO constantly review your choices. In Parts 1 and 3, as you work through thetask, difficulty in finding a particular answer may indicate that you havealready used the correct answer in completing an earlier question. Always beprepared to go back and check.

DO read the whole text first in Part 3. Concentrate on the overall direction of thetext, and try to predict what information is missing in each of the gaps.Research indicates that strong candidates can use a variety of strategies onthis task with some success. However, working on the extracts before forminga sound grasp of the base text tends to lead to confusion among weakercandidates.

DO pay careful attention to pronouns at the beginning and/or end of extractedsentences or paragraphs in Part 3. Where appropriate, they must refercorrectly to the nouns which precede and/or follow the gap in the text whichyou are considering.

DO spend plenty of time reading English, both fiction and non-fiction. There is noneed to look up everything you don't know in every piece you look at: justreading for fun will get you used to the rhythm of the language and help toincrease your reading speed.

DON’T forget that, if a Part 2 multiple-choice question is an incomplete sentence, thewhole sentence must match the text, not just the phrase presented as A, B, Cor D. The information in these options may be true in itself, but not work withthe sentence beginning you are given.

DON’T ignore the need in Part 3, to connect introductory adverbs or phrases with theideas which go before the gap you are working on (e.g. ‘However’ must bepreceded by a contrasting idea. ‘Another mistake we made ...’ must bepreceded by a previous mistake etc.).

DON’T ignore the need in Part 3 for the tenses in the extract to fit logically with thosealready present in the base text.

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PAPER 2 - WRITING

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Tasksand Length

Task Format

1 Q. 1 Writing a transactionalletter (formal/informal)

1 compulsory task

120 – 180 words

Candidates are required to dealwith input material of up to 250words, which may includegraphic and pictorial material.Texts may includeadvertisements, letters,postcards, diaries, shortarticles, etc.

2

Q. 2�4 Writing one of thefollowing:• an article• a non-transactional

letter• a report• a discursive

composition• a descriptive/narrative

composition/short story

4 tasks from whichthe candidateschoose 1

120 – 180 words

A situationally-based writingtask specified in no more than70 words.

Q. 5 Writing one of the aboveon a prescribedbackground reading text

Q. 5 has twooptions

• Marking All scripts are marked by experienced examiners, who must attend a training andstandardisation session before they commence any marking. Examiners award marksaccording to a General Mark Scheme, which has detailed Performance Bands from 0�5,where Band 3 describes a ‘satisfactory’ level. Within the bands, examiners place the scriptmore exactly at bottom, mid or top of the band range, e.g., 3·1, 3·2, 3·3. These scores areconverted to provide a mark out of 20 for each piece of writing. Examiners also use a Task Specific Mark Scheme for each question. This describessatisfactory Band 3 performance and covers content, organisation, range, register andformat, and effect on target reader. Examples of the mark schemes are included in the FCEPast Paper Packs. Examiners work in small teams and are monitored and advised by Team Leaders, who inturn are monitored by the Principal Examiner.

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• Candidate performance Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, a letter to a college principal about a visitto London. There were three separate pieces of reading input: the principal’s originalprogramme for the visit, an advertisement for a fashion show in London, and a notepadshowing the points to be included in the letter.

On the whole, the question was well answered, and candidates appeared to find the topicaccessible. For satisfactory Band 3 performance, candidates had to include five points intheir answer. Most candidates achieved this, and the mean mark for the question was aboveprevious Part 1 averages.

However, some candidates failed to cover adequately the first note on the notepad. It is vitalfor candidates to read the question carefully and include everything required. The note askedfor two separate things: thanks for the programme and a specification of what was‘especially’ good about it. Examiners accepted implicit thanks, but omission of the secondpart of the note had to be penalised.

Better candidates expanded the points successfully, for example explaining why they werelooking forward to a particular aspect of the programme, developing the information in theadvertisement, or justifying the visit to the fashion show. In this way, better candidates wereable to demonstrate a good range of vocabulary and structures.

Strong answers also achieved a consistently appropriate polite tone. Conversely, weakercandidates produced inconsistent register, often being inappropriately forceful when makingsuggestions for changes to the programme.

Candidates were generally good at starting and ending their letters appropriately and manyused a good variety of linking devices. Weaker candidates tended to limit themselves toFirstly, Secondly, Thirdly, Fourthly, following the sequence of the points on the notepad,which was adequate, but not Band 4 or 5 performance.

Part 2

The most popular questions were 3 and 4. Around 42.5% chose Question 4, the story, whilenearly 39% chose Question 3, the article about homes of the future. Over 14% of candidateschose Question 2, the composition on the media and famous people. Under 3% chose oneof the set text questions, Questions 5a and 5b (5b was the more popular of the two).

Question 2

This question was generally well done. Better candidates displayed good range andorganised their ideas well. It was clearly a subject that many candidates had thought aboutand most were able to refer to actual examples of famous people who have suffered at thehands of the media to support their arguments.

Question 3

This question had the second highest mean mark on the paper. Candidates included manyinteresting ideas about homes of the future, elaborating on both physical and morephilosophical differences from the present. There was some excellent range of vocabularyused in descriptions and original attempts at article format.

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Weaker candidates often planned their articles rather misguidedly, starting from the historicalstandpoint of the present and including a largely irrelevant introduction, and then dealing onlybriefly with the nub of the question, homes of the future. In certain cases, this may havearisen from the attempt to draw on a previous class assignment, which is unwise as it causescandidates to stray from the task set.

Question 4

This question had the highest mean mark on the paper. There were some very imaginativestories, including bungee-jumping and dangerous rescues. However, in a few cases, theelement of danger was entirely absent, and these scripts were penalised. Some candidateshad problems in linking the story to the prompt sentence in terms of the time sequence,though better candidates very successfully used flashback to do this.

Occasionally, the second part of the prompt sentence, ‘I knew I had to do it’, was ignored,which lost candidates marks, as it meant that the story following on did not relatesatisfactorily to the opening sentence.

Questions 5a and 5b

Although there were few answers to Question 5a, it was well done and there were some verygood answers on Cry Freedom and The Old Man and the Sea.

Question 5b was also well answered, especially in relation to The Old Man and the Sea.However, in some cases, there was insufficient reference to the book. Some candidateswrote about other books instead of the set texts, and therefore scored 0. This has beenpointed out in previous examination reports.

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• Candidate performance Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, where they had to write a letter to theorganiser of an international arts festival, giving feedback on this year’s festival and includinga suggestion for next year’s event. For Band 3 satisfactory performance, six points needed tobe included in the letter (see the task-specific mark scheme published in the Past PaperBooklet).

The majority of candidates had no difficulty with this question, dealing with the pointsadequately, linking them and adding small amounts of information. The point concerning theweekend ticket (‘Excellent because…’) proved a good opportunity for expansion, with ideassuch as ‘a great bargain for families with children…it meant that we did not waste timestanding in queues…it saved us considerable time and money’. However, this point wasalso occasionally problematic, with candidates failing to address the ‘because’ element in theprompt, and this was penalised. A surprising number of candidates confused ‘priced’ with‘prize’ and erroneously explained that it was reasonable to win a prize at the festival. Theseanswers were also penalised.

The other content points were mostly unproblematical. The concert halls being too small alsoallowed for some expansion, for example ‘...we were so packed in we could notbreathe…concert halls should be light and airy…we had to stand through the concert….’ Afew candidates confused ‘small’ with ‘short’ and strayed into accounts of concerts not beinglong enough and finishing too early. As stated in previous reports, it is very important to readthe question carefully and think about the points required before starting to write.

Weaker candidates were unable to achieve an appropriate tone in the letter. Somemisunderstood what was asked for and entered letter of complaint mode, and then inevitablyexperienced difficulty combining this negative approach with the first point, (‘Great idea!’).Better candidates were able to organize their answers well and used suitable linking words toachieve the right balance between positive and negative features, for example ‘very good’,‘although…’, ‘…convenient’, ‘whereas’.

Part 2

More than 58% of candidates chose Question 4, the informal letter about rules at home andat school. Question 2, the article about ways for students to earn money, was the secondmost popular question, with around 25% of candidates answering it. Only around 12% ofcandidates chose Question 3, the story, perhaps because this required the retelling of atraditional folk story. Some 3% of candidates answered one of the two questions on the setbooks, Questions 5a and 5b. Question 5a was the more popular of the two.

Question 2

This question was well answered and candidates had no difficulty in coming up with ideas forstudent jobs, writing about anything from gardening to being a dog walker or pet hairdresser!There were also some highly enterprising dot.com ventures, which would make students afortune in their spare time.

What distinguished the better candidates from the average ones was their approach to thearticle task type. Many candidates adopted a convincing direct style, for example ‘Are you anartist?’, and displayed a real attempt to engage the reader, for example, ‘Believe me, itworks… Be brave!’

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Question 3

As stated above, there were relatively few answers to this question. A broad view was takenof what constituted a ‘traditional folk story’, although candidates who wrote stories on goingshopping with a friend or going for a picnic were penalised. That said, there were manyexcellent stories, where the range of language, particularly of appropriate vocabulary, wasstriking and the general control of narrative good.

Question 4

This question was well answered on the whole and had the highest mean mark on the paper.The tone of the letter to the friend was well handled, with the inclusion of appropriateformulaic expressions. In terms of task completion, some candidates unfortunately failed todeal both with rules at home and at school, and these scripts were penalised.

Better candidates developed the content well, made good use of modal verbs and organisedtheir letters well.

Questions 5a and 5b

Answers to these questions that did not mention the book or wrote about a book not on thelist scored 0. Question 5a caused difficulties for some candidates, in that they appeared tofind it problematic to explain their views on the question asked with reference to the book.Weaker candidates struggled to explain their ideas clearly.

Question 5b was much more successfully answered in this respect and there were somevery good answers, especially on Wuthering Heights and The Old Man and the Sea.

• RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Fundamentally, and as stated many times in these reports, candidates must read eachquestion carefully and carry out what is required, including the necessary points and keepingto the task set, rather than ‘bending’ the question to fit an earlier piece of writing they havedone. Information about the target reader and the reason for writing is given in each questionto help the candidate, and this should be borne in mind during classroom preparation.Working with past papers in pairs or groups, where students spend time identifying thereader, the text type, and the important content points, is all useful planning.

It is often very instructive for students to work on a second draft of a homework answer. Inthis way, the teacher, or fellow students, can make useful suggestions regardingorganisation, language, and content omissions. The second draft can then be compared tothe first, which is not only instructive regarding weaknesses, but also builds confidence.

Part 1

Students should be encouraged to make a plan before they start writing, and should thenthink carefully about what they can say on each point. In class, paired discussion can oftenlead to more ideas for expansion.

Both 0100 and 0102 required candidates to produce letters containing formal register, with asuitably polite tone. It is important for students to be made more aware of this aspect of thePart 1 question, perhaps by spending time discussing what is and is not appropriate. Asuccessful way to deal with the aspect of tone is to give students examples of highly

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 12

inappropriate language, for example aggressive or threatening complaints, and to ask themto suggest improvements.

Candidates often score lower marks because they haven’t organised their writing well.Spending time on paragraphing and encouraging the command of a greater variety of linkersis recommended.

Part 2

For any composition, students should ideally brainstorm their ideas in class, as often theyneed to think through an argument, or review what language they need in order to expresstheir opinions. Planning before writing the answer is also important, to avoid repetition and toensure that the argument is presented in the most logical way.

A lot of work can be done in class to raise awareness of how articles are written. Textbooksusually contain a number of real articles and their presentation can be examined as a startingpoint for writing, for example the relationship between the title and opening paragraph, thedevices used to engage the reader, the register used.

Stories generally require a range of past tenses to be used and this area can be practised inclass, for example, the use of the past perfect in flashback to show time sequence. Fellowstudents can be asked to give their opinion about other students’ stories, in terms of their plotclarity, their effectiveness in holding attention, their general language range. Here especially,a second draft approach is often useful.

Class time could usefully be spent giving strategies for tackling the informal letter,encouraging students to use as wide a range of language as possible – for example,brainstorming different ways of saying that something is ‘great’ or ‘boring’, rather thanrepeating the same adjectives.

There are many ways to incorporate a set text into classroom work, and parts of it can beassigned for homework. Students will benefit from reading on their own, both in terms of newvocabulary and the reinforcement of structures already learnt. Early examination in class ofpast papers will allow students to practise questions regularly, in relation to different parts ofthe book.

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• DOs and DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 2 WRITING

DO read the question thoroughly and underline important parts.

DO make a plan for each answer.

DO expand the points in Part 1 with relevant ideas and information.

DO write in paragraphs, whenever appropriate.

DO use a range of vocabulary, even if you are unsure of the correct spelling.

DO check past tense endings, plural forms, and word order in sentences.

DO write clearly, so that the examiner can read your answer.

DO use the extra blank pages at the back of the booklet if necessary.

DON’T mis-spell key words which appear on the question paper.

DON’T ‘lift’ too much language from the question paper.

DON’T mix formal and informal language.

DON’T waste time writing addresses for a letter, as they are not required.

DON’T answer Question 5 if you haven’t read one of the books.

DON’T worry if you run slightly over the 180-word limit.

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PAPER 3 - USE OF ENGLISH

Part Task Type and Focus Number ofQuestions

Task Format

1 Multiple-choice cloze Focus: Vocabulary

15 A modified cloze text containing15 gaps and followed by 15four-option multiple-choicequestions.

2 Open cloze Focus: Grammar andvocabulary

15 A modified cloze text containing15 gaps.

3 ‘Key’ word transformations Focus: Grammar andvocabulary

10 Discrete questions with a lead-in sentence and a gappedresponse to complete using agiven word.

4 Error correction Focus: Grammar

15 A text containing errors. Somelines of the text are correct.Other lines contain an extraand unnecessary word whichmust be identified.

5 Word formation Focus: Vocabulary

10 A text containing 10 gaps. Eachgap corresponds to a word.The ‘stems’ of the missingwords are given beside the textand must be transformed toprovide the missing word.

• Marking Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to amark scheme and then scanned by computer. Questions 1�30 and 41�65 carry one mark each. Questions 31�40 are marked on a scale 0�1�2. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

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• Candidate performance Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, A famous explorerMultiple-choice Cloze

This was the part of the paper which gave candidates the fewest problems. The onlyquestion causing considerable difficulty was number 12. Although few were tempted to thinkthat ‘tour’ (D) was the appropriate word here, many felt, wrongly, that ‘travel’ (A) was the key.In Question 2, many of the weaker candidates chose ‘manage’ (A) or ‘succeed’ (B) as theiranswer. Similarly in Question 10 the weaker candidates had difficulty in distinguishing theprecise meanings of the four verbs listed. Questions 7, 8 and 9 were answered well byalmost all candidates.

Part 2, Indoor climbingOpen Cloze

This part proved rather more difficult than the preceding one. In Question 16, a majority ofcandidates showed that they did not know the expression ‘to take up’ in the sense of ‘toadopt’. Question 22 caused problems even though the mark scheme allowed for a fairly widerange of answers. In 27, a variety of verbs appeared – unfortunately, most of them wereinappropriate. In 28, there was uncertainty as to which preposition to use. Questions 18, 19,20 and 26, however, were dealt with well by the majority of candidates.

Part 3‘Key’ Word Transformations

This part turned out to be difficult for candidates. Wrong prepositions were often used inQuestions 34 (‘insisted in/to’) and 40 (‘had trouble to’). Question 40 generally proved to bethe most difficult with many candidates misunderstanding either the initial sentence or thesignificance of ‘trouble’ and producing answers such as ‘got into trouble for following’. Somecandidates inevitably lost marks in 32 by turning the prompt word into ‘stranger’. In 33,candidates quite often gave a wrong form of the passive, i.e. ‘have been driven’. A commonwrong answer given to 37 was ‘I have not seen Mark since a/one year’. Question 38 gavecandidates a number of problems, common wrong answers being ‘gave a good impressionto’, ‘made a good impression to’. The questions which the candidates dealt with mostsuccessfully were 31 and 32.

Part 4, FinlandError Correction

This part was generally done well by candidates. Some candidates, however, tended towrite down the first word in the line that they felt to be unnecessary as being wrong; they didnot, apparently, bother to read to the end of the line; thus, in line 41, a common choice was‘some’ rather than ‘who’. Although 43 was a correct line, many candidates decided that itcontained an error; probably the most common choice was ‘being’ which, whilst not beingvital for the meaning of the sentence, was by no means wrong. Most candidates found littledifficulty in identifying the other correct lines, 46, 48 and 55. In line 52, many candidatesdecided, wrongly, that words such as ‘has’, ‘any’, ‘such’ were incorrect whilst ‘the’ was acommon choice as a wrong word in line 54. Lines 42, 44 and 55 were dealt with particularlywell by the vast majority of the candidates.

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Part 5, Running round the worldWord Formation

This proved to be the most difficult part of the paper. In spite of this, certain questions weredone very well (57, 59, 65) but others proved extremely difficult for candidates (60, 63 and,especially, 56 and 64). It was clear in 56 that candidates did not think to use a prefix with‘ordinary’, presumably because they did not associate the word ‘extraordinary’ with ‘ordinary’.In 64, many candidates wrote ‘poisoned’ or ‘poisoner’ which suggested either that they hadnot understood the passage or that they were simply unaware of the word ‘poisonous’.

• Candidate performance Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Please note that the report below is based on performance in June 2000. The report onDecember 2000 will be available at a later date.

Part 1, Chess kingMultiple-choice Cloze

Candidates’ performance on this part of the paper was very much in line with theirperformance on Parts 2, 3 and 5. Question 6 caused difficulties for many candidates as theywere not aware of the word ‘holder’ in relation to a title. The most common wrong answerwas ‘owner’ (A). Many weaker candidates also chose ‘keeper’ (D) as the answer. Question9 also produced problems; it was often thought that ‘service’ (B) was the most appropriateword to fill the gap. Questions which proved easy for candidates were 4, 5, 12 and 14.

Part 2, BeesOpen Cloze

Question 27 caused problems for many candidates who assumed that the presence of ‘as’indicated that it was necessary to fill the gap with a noun which would make a comparisonwith the fragile ‘bodies of bees’. As a result of this, bizarre nouns appeared – ‘mosquito’,’zebra’, ‘frog’, and even ‘snowflake’ and ‘feather’ based on the idea of fragility. A morecareful reading of the whole sentence should have shown that a comparison here wasinappropriate. Question 30 proved to be very difficult as the expression ‘distance away’ was,presumably, not known. It was pleasing to note that Question 23 ‘how (far)’ was particularlywell done. Other questions which candidates handled well were 17, 19, 20 and 21.

Part 3‘Key’ Word Transformations

In 31, some candidates changed the prompt word to ‘frightened’; this, of course, lost themtheir marks. In 32, a few candidates abbreviated ‘something’ to ‘sthg’; this is not acceptable.A few candidates put a specific distance in their answer to 33; this was too precise to conveythe meaning of the initial sentence. A common error in 35 was to put the wrong tense, i.e. ‘Ihave ever’. It was, perhaps, not too surprising to find word order problems in answers forQuestion 37, many candidates writing ‘to have serviced your car’. Question 40 proveddifficult as many candidates put ‘of’ rather than ‘for’ after ‘reputation’. Numbers 35 and 40were the most difficult questions in this part of the paper.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 17

Part 4, The boat tripError Correction

This proved to be the most difficult part of the paper. The first question, number 41, wasanswered correctly by only a very small proportion of the candidates. As this questiondepends on reading the two example lines, one is led to believe that most candidatesbasically ignored these two lines and began reading at the beginning of line 41. Theexample lines are an integral part of the text and to ignore them is to risk losing marks, asindeed happened with a very large number of candidates. The difficulty of line 41 was tosome extent balanced by the high number of candidates producing the correct answer in line42. Many candidates gave wrong answers for lines 48 and 52. Line 48 was a long line andone imagines that candidates reading too quickly simply failed to notice the incorrect ‘a’ anddecided that the line was correct. In line 52, it was assumed that ‘passing from’ was correctand that ‘for’ or ‘about’ was incorrect; in fact, whilst ‘for’ and ‘about’ were not vital for the lineto make sense, they were in no way incorrect.

Part 5, How to package your mailWord Formation

Most candidates coped well with this part. Question 59 caused the greatest number ofproblems. The word ‘breakable’ did not seem to be widely known and many candidatestended to assume that the most likely word to be formed from ‘break’ was ‘broken’, eventhough the word does not really make any sense in the context.

• RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATIONIt is important to decide in advance how much time you should spend on each part of thepaper. If you spend too long on any one part, you may find yourself rushing to complete thelater parts and, consequently, not doing them with sufficient care. Try to make sure that youhave enough time to check through your answers at the end. You may find that you haveomitted some answers that you found difficult; now is the time to fill in these missinganswers.

Be careful to make your handwriting clear. If words are not clearly written, they are likely tobe penalised. Letters with which you should be particularly careful are a, e and o.

Do not write the answers to examples on your mark sheet, as, if you do this, all of your actualanswers will be one place out of order and you will have no space for your final answer (orfor your final two answers in Part 4).

In Part 3, read the initial sentence carefully before deciding upon your answer. Your answermust mean the same as the initial sentence. You must be careful to use the appropriatetense. Look at the following example:

The price of the article included the postal charges.

FORThe charges ……………. the price of the article.

As the initial sentence refers to the past, the answer must also refer to the past. Thus, ‘forpostage were included in’ is correct but ‘for postage are included in’ is wrong’.

In Part 5 be careful not to misalign answers, that is to say if, for example, the given wordappears at the end of the line with Question 57, the new form of that word must appear withQuestion 57 of your answer sheet.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 18

• DOs and DON’Ts for FCE PAPER 3 USE OF ENGLISH

DO make your handwriting clear in all parts of the paper.

DO make sure that the meaning of your answer in Part 3 is the same as that of theinitial sentence.

DO remember that in Part 4 the majority of lines will contain an error.

DO write only one answer for any question on any part of the paper.

DO make sure that you spell all the words that you use correctly.

DON’T choose your answers in any part before reading the whole of the passage.

DON’T decide upon an answer without reading the surrounding sentences.

DON’T write the answers to the examples on your answer sheet.

DON’T change the prompt word in Part 3 in any way.

DON’T spend so long on any one part of the paper that you do not have time tocomplete later parts.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 19

PAPER 4 - LISTENING

Part Task Type and Focus Number ofQuestions

Task Format

1 Multiple-choice Understanding gist, mainpoints, detail, function,location, roles andrelationships, mood,attitude, intention, feelingor opinion

8 A series of short unrelatedextracts, of approximately 30seconds each, frommonologues or exchangesbetween interacting speakers.The multiple-choice questionshave three options.

2 Note-taking or blank-filling Understanding gist, mainpoints, detail or specificinformation, or deducingmeaning

10 A monologue or text involvinginteracting speakers and lastingapproximately 3 minutes.

3 Multiple-matching As for Part 1

5 A series of short relatedextracts, of approximately 30seconds each, frommonologues or exchangesbetween interacting speakers.The multiple-matchingquestions require selection ofthe correct option from a listof 6.

4

Selection from 2 or 3possible answers As for Part 2

7 A monologue or text involvinginteracting speakers and lastingapproximately 3 minutes. Thequestions require candidates toselect between 2 or 3 possibleanswers, e.g., true/false;yes/no; three-option multiple-choice; which speaker saidwhat, etc.

• Marking Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to adetailed mark scheme and then scanned by computer. Each question carries one mark. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40. For security reasons, more than one version of the Paper 4 Listening Test is made availableat each session. As with all other FCE papers, rigorous checks are built into the questionpaper production process to ensure all versions of the test are of comparable content anddifficulty. In addition, for Paper 4, the marks are adjusted to ensure that there is noadvantage or disadvantage to candidates taking one particular version. All texts and tasks were representative of what can be expected in future versions of thePaper. In Part 4, three-way matching tasks as outlined in the FCE Specifications mayappear in future versions.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 20

• Candidate performance

Candidates did very well on all versions of the Paper; no one Part was significantly moredifficult than another.

NB The test being discussed is Test A. This is the one which is released in the Past PaperPack.

Part 1

Candidate performance on this part was generally very good, although in Test A twoquestions, 4 and 8 were the most challenging. In Question 4, some candidates opted for Brather than A. Candidates hear a man explaining that he is waiting for the police to clear theroad. ‘ … I can actually see it from here’, he says and goes on to say ‘Apparently it justmissed a lorry when it fell … ’. Candidates may have been distracted by the reference tolorry (which also appears in option B and consequently did not understand that ‘it’ referred tosomething falling near the lorry.

In Question 8, some candidates chose A instead of the key C. Initially the woman mentionsthat she has ‘spent weeks looking at information on jobs available …’ and then goes on tomention an advice centre which ‘helps you find the most suitable job’ by giving you a rangeof activities. She knows what she’s ‘good at’ in terms of her own skills and she does notneed to go on more courses. What she appreciates is the fact that the advice centre ‘is awonderful opportunity to explore different options for jobs’, not the fact that it offers skills andcourses.

Part 2

Candidates had few problems with this part in Test A and performed very well. Question 12proved slightly more difficult, not because candidates failed to understand what they hadheard, but in terms of recording their answer accurately.

The story in this play takes place in the 12 century.

The markscheme allowed for variations: ‘nineteenth’/’19th’/’XIXth’ but not ‘1900s’ or‘nineteen’.

Question 16 was answered successfully by those candidates who performed well generallyand who clearly understood the slightly unusual reference to ‘the mouth that eats salt andpepper’.

Part 3

Candidates found this part of the Paper more challenging but still coped well overall. Twoquestions, 20 and 22 proved more difficult than the other three. In Question 20 manycandidates chose F rather than E. The speaker mentions that his father would arriveunexpectedly to watch a football or a cricket match. He goes on to say ‘And the sad thingwas that I couldn’t really be with him, or talk to him for long – except in the half-time break, soit didn’t really work, if you see what I mean’. Candidates were possibly attracted by the word‘sad’ and the negative comment on the circumstances, so opted for F, whereas the focus ofwhat the speaker says is on the fact that his father ‘should’ve been busy doing other things inthe office.’

Question 22 was problematic for many candidates and the wrong answers ranged over A, Dand E indicating that candidates found it hard to focus on the key, F. The speaker talks

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 21

about how fame and money can affect family relationships: ‘it affects how you get on witheach other’ and concludes by saying: ‘I think, in a different situation, we would’ve got on verywell indeed together. As it was, we put up with each other – but only just!’ This clearly rulesout A, D and E, and F is the only possible answer: ‘Our relationship wasn’t a very happyone.’

Part 4

Candidates coped well with this part of Test A which was marginally the most challengingpart of the Paper. The task was a 3-option multiple-choice and the questions which provedmost difficult were those towards the end of the task, especially Questions 28 and 29. ForQuestion 28 candidates hear the interviewer ask: ‘What about other things people ate?’Terry’s reply mentions fruit and vegetables when they are in season, people who could affordto eat a lot of meat and people who lived inland who did not eat sea fish. The inferencecandidates are expected to draw indicates that the correct answer is C; people only hadaccess to what was available where they lived, and Terry does not say that people ate morefruit and vegetables or that their diet consisted of mainly meat and fish. In Question 29,many candidates overlooked the correct answer B; Terry refers to many actors beingvegetarian, so he has to ‘make up dishes that look like meat but are actually vegetarian.This keeps the actors happy.’ He certainly mentions that food can begin to smell, but heemphasises that he has to be creative in making a lot of meat dishes vegetarian and that is‘very demanding’.

• RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Part 1

Candidates should be aware that this part of the Paper is designed to enable them to settleinto the Listening Test in a relatively gentle way. Unlike elsewhere, they both hear and readthe questions and it is important that candidates realise that this support is intended toremove some of the stress of doing a test in ‘real time’. However, this does not mean thatthe questions are ‘easy’; candidates should attempt to concentrate as much as possible,particularly since an option that may seem to be obviously correct on a superficial listeningmay not in fact be correct. Additionally, teachers should give students plenty of practice indealing with the range of text types and focuses listed on page 19, so that candidates areprepared for the pace and the change from question to question within Part 1.

Part 2

In preparing for this part of the test, candidates should be encouraged to establish the bestapproach to recording the short answers which are the focus of this productive task.Examiners make specific mention that some candidates’ handwriting is not sufficiently legibleto be easily read, and moreover that candidates do not always appear to take care that whatthey write matches what comes before and, if relevant, after the gap. It is very unlikely thatany answer will need more than four words and more often than not gaps can be filled usingfewer than four words. Candidates who hedge their bets by, for example, writing a numberand then unnecessarily also writing it in words may well penalise themselves if the additionalmaterial is incorrect.

Candidates are not expected to rephrase what they hear and should therefore focus onwriting down the key information as it is heard in the text. Minor spelling mistakes areaccepted if the meaning of the word is not changed, but the words and phrases tested arelimited to those which candidates can reasonably be expected to spell correctly.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 22

Part 3

Candidates should be advised to make good use of the second listening, even if they haveanswered every question on the first listening. They may discover that they need to changemore than one answer if they discover a mistake, because one correct answer may have aknock-on effect on other questions.

Part 4

Candidates should be prepared to encounter any of the task types listed in the Specificationson page 19, as any of them could appear in any version. They should know that with all thetask types, adequate time is given for them to read the questions before they hear therecording. In the multiple-choice question task, candidates are given a full minute to readthrough the questions. In addition they should realise that, although a particular option istrue according to what is said in the recording, it is not necessarily the correct answer to thequestion that the candidate is being asked to focus on. For example, ‘What did he findannoying about his journey?’ may be followed by more than one option describing somethingthat really did happen to a speaker, but only one option will be something that he found‘annoying’.

With regard to the matching tasks, any of the following formats may be used:

• choosing from three options, e.g., which of the three places/things does this statementrefer to?

• choosing from one option, another option or both, e.g., which book mentions this: Book A,Book B or Both of them?

• choosing from one option, another option or neither option, e.g., which person is this trueof, Person A, Person B or Neither of them?

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 23

• DOs AND DON'Ts for FCE PAPER 4 LISTENING

DO use the full time you are allowed before hearing each recording to carefullyread through all the questions so you are prepared for what you hear.

DO look carefully at what is printed before and after the gap in Part 2 and thinkabout the kind of information that you are listening for.

DO write your answers as clearly as possible in Part 2.

DO check that your idea of what the correct answer is when you first hear therecording is confirmed when you hear it for the second time.

DO remember that any mistake you discover in Part 3 when hearing the recordingfor a second time may affect your answers.

DO concentrate on understanding what speakers say, especially in Parts 1, 3and 4, in as much depth as possible, rather than just being satisfied withthe surface meaning.

DON’T rephrase what you hear in Part 2; write down the figure(s) or word(s) that youhear spoken.

DON'T complicate an answer in Part 2 by writing extra, irrelevant information.

DON'T spend too much time on a question you are having difficulty with, as this maymake it harder to answer other questions.

DON’T forget to make sure that you transfer your answers correctly to the answersheet.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 24

PAPER 5 - SPEAKING

Part Task Type and Focus Length of Parts Task Format 1 Short exchanges between

each candidate and theinterlocutor

3 minutes The interlocutor encouragesthe candidates to giveinformation about themselves.

2

Giving personalinformation; socialising Long turn from eachcandidate, with a briefresponse from the othercandidate Exchanging personal andfactual information;expressing attitudes andopinions; employingdiscourse functions relatedto managing a long turn

4 minutes The candidates are in turngiven visual prompts (twocolour photographs) which theyeach talk about forapproximately 1 minute. Theyare also asked to commentbriefly on each other’sphotographs.

3 Candidates talk with oneanother Exchanging information,expressing attitudes andopinions

3 minutes The candidates are given visualprompts (photographs, linedrawings, diagrams, etc.) whichgenerate discussion throughengagement in tasks such asplanning, problem solving,decision making, prioritising,speculating, etc.

4 Candidates talk with oneanother and theinterlocutor Exchanging and justifyingopinions

4 minutes The interlocutor encourages adiscussion of matters related tothe theme of Part 3.

• Marking The Speaking tests are conducted by trained examiners, who attend biannual co-ordinationsessions to ensure that standards are maintained. The Assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the testaccording to the four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management,Pronunciation and Interactive Communication). The Interlocutor awards marks according tothe Global Achievement scale, which assesses the candidate’s overall effectiveness intackling the tasks. These scores are converted by computer to provide a mark out of 40.

• Candidate performance

Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with that of June 2000 andhistorical norms. Feedback from Oral Examiners has been very positive and students overallwere very well prepared for this paper. Feedback indicates that this year's test materials havebeen well received. Students who performed less well were those who did not listen carefullyto the instructions given or those who dominated the interaction at the expense of theirpartner. To perform well a candidate should answer the task set and therefore should not be

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 25

afraid to ask for repetition of instructions before embarking on the task. Candidates should bemade aware that asking for the instructions to be repeated will not affect their marks in anyway, whereas redirection by the examiner once the task has begun may affect theirperformance.

Part 1

This part of the test gives the examiners their first impression of the candidates and it istherefore important that the candidates speak about themselves and their lives withappropriate detail. One word responses are inadequate and will affect the score forInteractive Communication. Candidates should also be advised not to prepare longresponses to questions that they feel they may be asked as this often means that they do notanswer appropriately. This tactic does not lead to effective Interactive Communication, andis easily noticed by examiners. Candidates who have not met prior to the test should not feelconcerned as feedback from examiners indicates that this does not affect performance and insome cases leads to a more natural interaction in this part of the test.

Part 2

The tendency in this part of the test is for candidates to focus on the pictures without listeningcarefully to the task set by the examiner. Simply comparing and contrasting the two picturesis unlikely to provide the candidate with enough to talk about for a full minute. Candidateswill always be asked to compare/contrast 'and say ... (something specific about thephotographs)...'. They should be trained to listen very carefully for the 'and say ...' so thatthey complete the task and are able to continue for the full minute. Candidates should notfeel concerned if the examiner interrupts as this simply means that they have completed thetask. It is important for candidates to start talking as soon as they can in order to make fulluse of their long turn.

Comments on released Test Materials

Finding Out

Candidates were shown two photographs of children finding out about things in differentways. The first photograph showed a father and his son looking at the night sky together,pointing at the stars, and the second showed children in the classroom looking at countrieson a globe. (Candidates were not expected to know the word ‘globe’, but to be able to saye.g. ‘The children are learning about different countries in the world’). Candidates wereasked to compare and contrast the photographs and say what they would find interestingabout each situation. Candidates whose responses were restricted to: ‘In this picture I cansee a father and son. They’re looking at the sky. In this picture the children are in class’, willnot have performed as well as those who went on to find further points of comparison e.g.learning with the teacher/learning from your family, the importance of learning about theworld in the classroom/the value of learning about the world by going and seeing it foryourself. Candidates should also have moved beyond the pictures themselves to discusshow interesting they find learning about different countries, why they are interested, and howmuch they would enjoy e.g. the experience of being out at night in the countryside with thefamily. In this way candidates will not run out of things to say and will make full use of theirlong turn.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 26

Picnics

Candidates were given two photographs showing people having picnics in different places.The first showed a family on the beach with a car in the background and the second showeda different family on a picnic out in the countryside surrounded by flowers. Candidates wereasked to compare and contrast the photographs and say why they thought people enjoyedeating outside. Candidates were expected to compare the beach scene with the countrysidescene and say how much they thought the people were enjoying each situation, how theyhad got there (e.g. car journey/walk in the countryside), the comfort of each situation (sittingon the ground/round a table). They should then have moved on to talk about why peopleenjoy eating outside, whether it is worth the necessary preparations, the advantages anddisadvantages of picnics, whether they would prefer to picnic in the countryside or at thebeach and so on.

Part 3

The aim of this part of the test is for candidates to discuss the task outlined by the examineras fully as possible, and to work towards a negotiated outcome in the time available. In thispart of the test candidates are always invited to do two things. They are required to respondto and give their views on a range of visual prompts, then to come to a negotiated decision.The wording of the rubric is:'First talk to each other about......... . Then decide......................’.Candidates, presented with the visual stimulus, sometimes fail to hear the first part of theinstructions which is in fact the bulk of the task. Candidates who performed less well weretherefore those who made their decisions very early on in the interaction without firstconsidering and discussing as fully as possible the range of suggestions presented to themand, as a result, ran out of things to say. Candidates should be trained to listen carefully forthe words 'First talk to each other about.....' and to internalise the task set. As alreadymentioned in the section on candidate performance, candidates should be made aware thatthey will not lose marks if they need to ask the examiner to repeat the rubric.

To perform well in this part of the test, candidates should be able to take a full and active partin the interaction, making use of the range of visual stimulus available, expressing their ownviews clearly, listening to their partner and developing their partner's comments. However,candidates should be aware of the importance of inviting their partner to respond, ensuringthat both candidates take an equal part in the development of the interaction. Candidatesare expected to negotiate an outcome and should not be concerned if they do not agree.Disagreeing in a friendly way can be an effective part of Interactive Communication.However, strong disagreement can undermine their partner's confidence and an overbearingcandidate may lose marks. Candidates should make full use of the time available, startingpromptly and finishing only when the examiner interjects. They should not feel concerned ifthey are asked to stop as this will probably mean that they have talked for the allotted time.

Comments on released Test Materials

The Photo

Candidates were asked to imagine that they wanted to give an elderly friend a photographframe as a present. They were then shown eight photographs representing different times inher life, together with a picture of the empty frame. Some of the photographs were black andwhite to indicate the age of the photograph. The photographs showed:

• the elderly lady as a child playing with her sister• her wedding day

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 27

• with her own young child• her home• with her husband• with her grandchildren• on a holiday• an up to date photograph of the lady herself.

Candidates were asked to talk to each other about why each photograph might be importantto her and then decide which photograph she would choose to put into the frame.Candidates are often tempted to start with the words ‘I think she would choose the photo ofher wedding day because ...’. Candidates who did this often performed less well becausethey came to their final decision without having fully explored the alternatives. Candidatesshould not feel concerned if they are unable to make use of the full range of visual promptsbut they should have managed to discuss several photographs before making their decision.Candidates should therefore be trained to discuss the different ideas offered as fully aspossible in the available time and come to a negotiated decision towards the end of theirthree minutes, rather than making a decision at the outset and running out of things to say. Inthis case candidates needed to explore the reasons why the different photographs wereimportant to the lady e.g. how important one big day in her life would be compared toremembering the time when she was a child or the pleasure she would get looking at apicture of her grandchildren, whether it was likely that she would want a picture of her homein the frame and so on. Candidates were then expected to try to agree on a photograph forthe frame but were not penalised if they ran out of time.

Part 4

In this part of the test candidates are given a further opportunity to demonstrate theirlanguage ability by engaging in a discussion with the examiner and their partner. It istherefore vital that candidates offer more than a minimal response and take the opportunity toinitiate discussion as well as answer the examiner's questions. Candidates who performedwell in this part of the test were those able to develop and illustrate the topic, demonstrating arange of vocabulary. Candidates generally performed confidently in this part of the test andwere often so enthusiastic that it became necessary for examiners to draw the Speaking Testto a close!

Comments on released Test Materials

Following the discussion of the photographs (see Part 3), candidates were asked why theythought people liked collecting photographs, whether they liked having their photographtaken and how easy it is to take really good photographs. The discussion then became moregeneral and candidates were asked what other things help us to remember the past and howinterested they were in learning about the past. Finally they were asked what they thoughtpeople would remember most about the twentieth century. Candidates who performed wellwere those who responded fully to the questions asked.

• RECOMMENDATIONS FOR CANDIDATE PREPARATION

Candidates are expected to take a full and active part in the test. It is important, therefore,that candidates seek as many opportunities to practise their spoken English as possible,inside and outside the classroom. 'Exam training' can help with nervousness and candidatescertainly benefit from being familiar with the different parts of the test, but this is no substitutefor a genuine interest in the language. Candidates who put themselves in a position wherethey need to use English on a regular basis are likely to perform well.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 28

Part 1

For this part of the test candidates will benefit from finding opportunities to practise talkingabout themselves, their likes and dislikes, personal/educational history, presentcircumstances, plans and hopes for the future etc.

Part 2

Candidates can improve their performance in this part of the test by choosing pairs ofthematically linked photographs, practising comparing and contrasting them, and going on totalk about the theme in a more general way. Candidates should time themselves to checkthat they are able to keep going for a full minute. Without practice, candidates may find itdifficult to speak for a full minute in the test.

Part 3

The best preparation for this part of the test is for candidates to practise taking part indiscussions in small groups so that all candidates have the opportunity to take the floor.Candidates with a quieter disposition should be encouraged to develop strategies to ensurethey are able to take their turn. Stronger candidates should be encouraged to invite opinionsfrom others. Suitable thematic areas for discussion can be found in FCE coursebooks andshould relate to the candidate's own experience rather than more abstract concepts. (Seethe FCE Handbook for a list of topic areas.)

Part 4

As in Part 3, candidates will benefit from being given as many opportunities as possible togive their opinions on a range of issues, and to expand on their views while inviting opinionsfrom others and responding to them.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 29

• DOs and DON'Ts FOR PAPER 5 SPEAKING

DO familiarize yourself with the focus, function and procedures of all parts of thetest.

DO take every opportunity to practise your English in groups and pairs and outsidethe classroom before the test.

DO listen carefully to instructions given and questions asked throughout the testand focus your answers appropriately.

DO respond to your partner's contributions and invite your partner to contribute inParts 3 and 4.

DO speak clearly so that both the assessor and the interlocutor can hear you.

DO make use of opportunities to speak in all parts of the test and give extendedcontributions where you can.

DO ask for repetition of instructions if you are unclear about what you should do.

DO make sure that you answer the additional question in Part 2, as well ascomparing and contrasting the photographs.

DO be prepared to initiate discussion as well as responding to what your partnerhas said.

DON'T prepare long responses in advance. You are unlikely to answer questionsappropriately.

DON'T try to give your views during your partner's long turn.

DON'T try to dominate your partner or to interrupt him or her in an abrupt way.

DON'T allow frequent pauses and hesitations during the interaction or during yourown turn. Make full use of the time available.

DON'T worry if you disagree with your partner in Parts 3 and 4. As long as you arenot overbearing this is all part of interactive communication.

DON'T worry about being interrupted by the examiner. For administrative reasons itis important that tests do not overrun.

© UCLES 2001 0100/0102 30

FCE Examination Report December 2000 - 0100 and 0102

We are interested in hearing your views on how useful this report has been.

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UCLESReports Co-ordinatorEFL1 Hills RoadCambridgeCB1 2EU

Fax: +44 1223 460278

1. Please describe your situation: (e.g. EFL teacher, Director of Studies, Examinations Officer, Local Secretary, etc.)

2. Have you prepared candidates for FCE? YES/NO

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