ET 502 (Part A) - webservices.ignou.ac.in

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TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT

ET 502 (Part A)

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

Note : All questions are compulsory. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Strength of Materials.

Maximum Marks : 100 Weightage : 30%

Course Code : ET-502A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTWRE

Q.1 A steel bar is placed between two copper bars each having the same area and length as the steel bar at 15oC. At this stage they are rigidly connected together at both the ends. When the temperature is raised to 315oC, the length of bar increases by 1.50 mm. Determine the original

length and the final stresses in the bars. Take Es = 2.1 × 105 N/mm2; Ec = 1 × 105 N/mm2, αs = 0.000012 peroC, αc = 0.0000175oC.

Q.2 A compressed tube is made by striking a thin steel tube on a thin brass tube. As and Ab are the sectional areas of steel and brass tubes, and Es and Eb are the corresponding values of Young’s Modulus. Show that for any tensile load the extension of the compound tube is equal to that of a single tube of the same length and total cross-sectional area, but having a Young’s modulus of (Es As + Eb Ab) / (As + Ab).

Q.3 A square prism of wood 50 mm × 50 mm in cross-section and 300 mm long is subjected to a tensile stress of 40 N/mm2 along its longitudinal axis and lateral compressive stresses of 20 N/mm2 on one set of lateral tensile stress of 10 N/mm2 on the other set of lateral forces. Find the changed dimensions of the prism. Take Poisson’s Ratio = 0.4 and Modulus of

elasticity of 1.5 × 104 N/mm.

Q.4 The intensity of loading on a simply supported beam of 5 meters span increases uniformly from 8 kN/m at the one end to 16 kN/m at the other end. Find the position and magnitude of the maximum bending moment. Also draw shear force and Bending Moment diagram.

Q.5 Two rectangular plates, one of steel and other of brass each 37.5 mm by 10 mm are placed together to form a beam 37.5 mm wide and 20 mm deep on two supports 750 mm apart. The brass component being on the top of the steel component. Determine the maximum central load if the plates are :

(i) separate and can bend independently, and

(ii) firmly secured throughout their length.

Permissible stresses for brass and steel are 70 N/mm2. Take Eb = 0.876 × 105 N/mm2 and

Es = 2.10 × 105 N/mm2.

Q.6 ABCDE is a continuous beam supported at B, C and D. The over hand AB and DE are each of length x. The span BC and CD are each of length l. The beam carried a uniformly distributed load of w per unit run over the whole length. Find the over hang length x for the condition, the reaction at the three supports are equal.

Q.7 A hollow steel shaft 240 mm external and 160 mm internal diameter is to be replaced by a solid alloy shaft. If the both shafts should have the same polar modulus, find the diameter of

the latter and the ratio of the torsional rigidities. Take C for steel = 2.4 × C for alloy. If alternatively, the two shafts should have the same torsional rigidity, find the ratio of their polar moduli.

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Q.8 A composite shaft 7.50 m long consists of a steel shaft 250 mm in diameter surrounded by a closely fitting 30 mm thick bronze tube. If the shear in the steel shaft shall not exceed 15 N/mm2, find the maximum power transmitted by the shaft at 250 rpm.

Take Cs = 8.5 × 104 N/mm2 and Cb = 4.2 × 104 N/mm2.

Q.9 Two planes AB and BC, which are at right angles, carry shear stress of intensity 17.5 N/mm2 while these planes also carry tensile stress of 70 N/mm2 and compressive stress of 35 N/mm2 respectively. Determine the principal planes and principal stresses. Also determine the maximum shear stress and the planes on which it acts.

Q.10 If a circular shaft is subjected to an axial twisting moment T and a bending moment M, show that when M = 1.2 T, the ratio of maximum shearing stress to the greatest principal stress is approximately 0.566.

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ET 502 (Part B)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Structural Analysis.


Course Code : ET-502B Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Draw the influence line diagrams for the following components in the structure given in

Figure 1(a).

Figure 1(a)

(i) Reaction at A (ii) Reaction at B

(iii) Reaction at D (iv) Bending Moment at P

(i) Bending Moment at B (vi) Shear at P

(b) Draw the influence line diagram for the forces in members CD, CJ, JK and JD of the truss shown in Figure 1(b). The load is moving on a floor system resting on the bottom cord of the truss.

Figure 1(b)

Find the maximum value of the axial force in the members due to the following moving load systems :

(i) A 2 m long moving uniform load of 12 kN/m.

A

B C D E F

G

H I J K L

6 @ 4 m

3 m

A B P D C

2 m 2 m 2 m 1 m

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(ii) A long uniform moving load of 10 kN/m and a concentrated moving load of 80 kN.

(iii) A truck traveling from left to right, the wheel loads of which are shown in Figure 1(c).

Figure 1(c)

Q.2 (a) A three hinged unsymmetrical parabolic arch has a span of 90 m. The right hand springing B is 10 m above the left hand spring A. The crown C is at 50 m from A and 30 m above it. It carries two loads of 50 kN and 100 kN at 10 m and 20 m from left hand support A respectively and a uniformly distributed load of 3 kN/m over the right portion starting from crown C. Draw the bending moment diagram and calculate the bending moment, normal thrust and radial shear at a point 30 m from the right hand support.

(b) Find the forces in the members of the truss shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Q.3 (a) Analyse the continuous beam shown in Figure 3(a) using Three Moment Theorem and draw bending moment and shear force diagrams.

Figure 3(a)

A

B C D E

F

G H I J

5 @ 4 m

3 m

80 kN

120 kN

2 m 4 m 4 m 2 m

2 kN/m 20 kN 15 kN 50 kN

EI = Constant

80 kN 50 kN 120 kN 60 kN

2 m 2 m 2 m

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(b) For a continuous beam shown in Figure 3(b), the support A settles by 5 mm and support B settles by 2 mm along with the given loading. Draw the bending moment diagram for the beam.

Figure 3(b)

Q.4 (a) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 4(a) using slope deflection method and draw bending moment diagram.

Figure 4(a)

(b) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 4(b) using moment distribution method.

Figure 4(b)

EI = Constant = 72 × 103 kNm

2

3 kN/m

80 kN 50 kN

2 m 2 m 2 m 1 m 1 m

A B

C

3 m

4 kN/m

100 kN

EI = Constant

A

B C

D

4 m

4 m

80 kN

120 kN

A

B C

D

1 m 1 m

2 m 3 m

4 m

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Q.5 (a) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 5(a) using symmetry concept.

Figure 5(a)

(b) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 5(b).

Figure 5(b)

Q.6 (a) Find the deflection at B and slope at C in the beam shown in Figure 6(a) for the given loading.

Figure 6(a)

(b) Find the slope and deflection at point C and slope at Point B in the beam shown in Figure 6(b) for the given loading.

Figure 6(b)

4 kN/m

A

B C

D

5 m

2 m

2 m

80 kN

80 kN

A

B C

2 m 2 m

120 kN

3 m

3

6 m

I

2 I

2 m 2 m

4 kN/m

A

B

C

I 2 I

50

1 m 1 m 2 m

3 kN/m 30 kN

A

EI = Constant

B

C

Hing

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A B

C

P

W

Q.7 (a) Analyse the portal frame shown in Figure 7(a) using unit load method.

Figure 7(a)

(b) A semi-circular arch of uniform flexural rigidity, having one end hinged and other end placed on roller subjected to a horizontal force P and a vertical downward load W at crown C in the middle. Find the horizontal displacement of the roller end.

Figure 7(b)

Q.8 Generate flexibility and stiffness matrix for the plane frame shown in Figure 8.

Figure 8

3 m

EI = Constant

A

B

C

D

4 m

5 m

70 kN

A

B C

D

2 m 3 m

4 m 5 m

2 I

2 I

I

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Q.9 (a) A suspension bridge cable of span 100 m and central dip 10 m is suspended from the same level at two towers. The bridge cable is stiffened by a three hinged stiffening girder which carries two concentrated loads of 30 kN each at points 20 m from both the ends. Draw the Bending Moment and Shear Force diagrams for the girder and calculate the maximum tension in the cable.

(b) A hollow cylindrical cast iron column 175 mm external diameter and 25 mm thick is 7 m in length having both ends hinged. Find the load using Rankine’s formula. Compare this load with that given by Euler’s formula.

Take σc = 550 N/mm2 and a = 1/160.

Q.10 Find the collapse load for the frames and beam shown in Figure 9.

Figure 9(a)

Figure 9(b)

Figure 9(c)

2 m 2 m 1 m

2 MP MP

2 P P/2

A

B C

D

2 m 2 m

4 m

3 m

4 m

2 m

3 m

P 5 m

MP

2 M

MP

3 P

5 m

A

B

C

D

2 m

4 m

3 m

P

5 m

3 M

2 M

MP

4 P

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ET 521 (Part A)

PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF BUILDINGS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Planning and Construction of Buildings.



BTCM

Q.1 A plot of land measures 11 m x 22 m. The front road is 9 m wide facing north. Service lane is on the rear measuring 6 m. Prepare a suitable plan of a two bedroom residential house keeping in mind the restrictions imposed by local body as maximum covered area to be 75% of the total plot area with minimum setback of 2 m in front and rear of the building.

Q.2 Give the classification under which the following buildings fall :

(i) Dormitories (ii) Collage

(iii) Hospital (iv) Gymnasiums

(v) Offices (vi) Stores

(vii) Refineries (viii) Cold Storages

Q.3 Determine the minimum area of a plot for three storied residential building having four flats of 180 m2 area in each floor for the given data :

(i) Area for stair case and access should not exceed 25% of the ground floor area of the building, and

(ii) FAR is to be restricted to 1.50.

Q.4 (a) Discuss the basic requirements for judging the suitability of a site for all types of buildings.

(b) Explain the procedure of construction of a wind rose diagram for a particular site.

Q.5 (a) Discuss the various parameters relevant for a functionally appropriate design of a given building project.

(b) Describe the general requirements of “Industrial Buildings”. Also explain the important points to be considered in the planning of these buildings.

Q.6 (a) Explain the minimum standards for rural housing as per NBO.

(b) Discuss the essential parts of a rural sanitary latrine with the help of a neat sketch.

Q.7 (a) Discuss the various causes for settlement of foundations.

(b) Describe the various factors to be considered while deciding the depth of a foundation.

Q.8 (a) Discuss the purpose of providing a bond in the construction of a brickwork.

(b) Explain the procedure of construction of plywood partitions in an office building.

Q.9 (a) Discuss the design of windows in a room.

(b) Explain the criteria of fixing the dimensions of treads and risers in stairs.

Q.10 (a) Explain the main functions of paving surfaces.

(b) Discuss the influence of orientation on thermal comfort.

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ET 521 (Part B)

BUILDING ARCHITECTURE

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Building Architecture.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Differentiate between architect, engineer and sculptor.

(b) What is the role of science and technology in architecture?

(c) How are form and function related to each other?

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.2 (a) List the elements that constitute our visual language. How do they affect your design?

(b) What principles govern a good design? Give an example of a building in which some of these principles have been employed.

(c) Explain “Colour” and “Texture” by comparing “Taj Mahal” with “Meenakshi Temple at Mahabalipuram”.

(4 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Describe the dwelling of prehistoric man. List the prehistoric megalithics.

(b) What was the system of construction in Egyptian Architecture?

(c) Describe system of construction of Greek Architecture. Name the types of building in Greek Architecture.

(d) State the major characteristics of Roman Architecture. Name the building types in Roman Architecture.

(2.5 × 4 = 10)

Q.4 Write short notes on :

(i) Prehistoric Architecture

(ii) Pyramids

(iii) Development of Modern Architecture in India and its pioneers

(iv) Nagara or Northern Indian Temple architecture

(v) Construction system in Islamic architecture in India.

(2.5 × 4 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Discuss the contribution of the Corbusier in the development of aesthetics, functional aspects and construction system in modern design movement in Architecture.

(b) Explain the term “Anthropometry”. Why is it important to relate the size of built environment to human dimensions? Trace its development from ancient Greece upto the “modulor” by Le Corbusier.

(5 + 5 = 10)

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Q.6 (a) Select a building of your choice (your own house or a community building like school, etc. nearby). Draw its proportionate sketch plan showing its dimensions and its actual furnishing. Identify the various activity-related spaces in that building and put them into the following categories :

(i) Primary function spaces

(ii) Supporting function spaces

(iii) Connecting or link spaces

Are they related to the size or space provided for them? Did you see any shortcomings? Evaluate the actual spatial requirements for the activities listed above. Mention the psychological dimension of the space inside this building of your choice. How will you improve it? What will you change?

(b) Mention the main stages in the development of design of an architect.

(d) What parameters determine climate of a particular place? How will you use these factors to classify different climatic zones? List the different climatic zones in India. Be brief.

(6 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.7 (a) What is comfort? What conditions make for comfort inside a building? How does an architect ensure comfort inside a building?

(b) Write four lines each :

(i) Traps

(ii) Water supply system inside a building

(iii) Symbols for different electrical installations

(iv) Fire safety in a building

(v) Working principle of an Air Conditioning system.

(c) Write a short note on Energy Conservation in buildings?

(3 + 5 + 2 = 10)

Q.8 (a) What are shell and pneumatic structures? Where would you use such a structure? And where will you put a space frame?

(b) Differentiate “Arch” and “Vault”.

(c) Briefly explain :

(i) Truss

(ii) Geodesic dome

(iii) Simple Rigid Frame

(d) Sketch a cable roof structure.

(3 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 10)

Q.9 (a) Differentiate between shallow foundations and deep foundations.

(b) Differentiate between painting, varnishing and distempering.

(c) List some joints employed for frames and shutters of the doors and windows.

(d) What is the role of lintel in the superstructure? When will you use an Arch?

(e) Where will you suggest the following flooring type :

(i) Flag-stone flooring

(ii) PVC flooring

(iii) Glass flooring

(iv) Cork flooring.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

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Q.10 (a) Explain the role of an architect vis-à-vis construction management aspect of a building project.

(b) What is a professional code of conduct?

(c) Explain the duties and liabilities of an architect.

(d) How does computer help in architect’s work?

(4 + 2 + 2 + 2 =10)

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ET 521 (Part C)

DESIGN DETAILING

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Design Detailing.


Course Code : ET-521C Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Determine the self weight of a brick wall per running meter, considering its height to be 3 m when brick wall thickness is 230 mm and plaster of 12 m on inner face while 20 mm on the outer face.

(b) Why do we need concrete cover over reinforcement? Mention the requirement for different member types.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Draw neat sketch of a square foundation of size 3.5 x 3.5 m for a rectangular column of size 600 x 300 mm considering sloping footing.

(c) State the advantages of Limit-state approach method.

(8 + 2 = 10)

Q.3 Draw to a suitable scale a layout plan of a continuous beam of size 350 × 900 mm over three spans. The two-end spans being 7 m while central one is 4 m. Construction is monolithic with RCC slab 150 mm thick which is one way continuous in direction perpendicular to the beam.

The slab 18 × 10.5 sq.m is spanning over 4 beams equispaced at 3 m c/c and overhanging by 0.75 m on either side.

The slab is subjected to an imposed live load of 5 kN/m2. Assuming slab to be 150 mm thick, draw a neat detail of continuous slab.

Write a suitable schedule of reinforcement detail of the slab.

(10)

Q.4 (a) Explain in brief notes :

(i) Form lining materials

(ii) Telescopic beam.

(b) Design the sheetings and beams for RCC flat slab 200 mm thick on 5 m × 5 m module, height 4 m. Assume 25 mm planks are available.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Determine the working moment of resistance (MR) in kNm units of ISMB 400 and ISMC 400. Refer standard tables, in the IS handbook for structural engineers.

(b) How does built-up sections achieve economy.

(6 + 4 = 10)

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Q.6 Design the member and gusset plate connection for a tension member for a truss to carry an axial tension of 150 kN. Draw a neat sketch showing the connection.

(10)

Q.7 (a) In how many different ways can one weld two structural member? Draw appropriate sketches to explain them.

(b) ISMC 200 provided @ 250 mm c/c designed to carry a compression load of 300 kN and the two legs are attended by 250 x 10 mm plates @ 1000 c/c. Design the connecting bolts of 20 mm diameters.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 (a) Draw a typical detail of a purlin supported on truss.

(b) Draw a detail of an open web girder at its end supported on steel column of I-section for a hinged connection.

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.9 (a) Calculate the number of twin mirror optic fluorescent fixtures with 40 w tubelights for an

office area of 20 m × 20 m with a floor to false ceiling height of 2.5 m. The required illumination is 300 lux. Use the following data :

C = Coefficient of utilization for the room with spacing to height ratio of 1.3 is 0.7.

D = Lamp derating factor is 0.90.

I = Lumens per watt is 55.

M = Mutual induction for two lamps in the same fittings is 0.92

(b) Sketch and explain physical requirement for lifts in a building.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Write short notes on :

(i) Principle of air conditioning

(ii) Water chillers

(b) Calculate solar and trans gain at 4 : 00 pm for the month of June in New Delhi. Inside design condition is 24oC DB and 50% RH. The wall under consideration is facing south-west and is 3 m high and 10 m long, with 200 mm thick brick exposed on the exterior but interior plastered.

(4 + 6 = 10)

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ET 521 (Part D)

QUANTITY SURVEYING & VALUATION

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Quantity Surveying and Valuation.


Course Code : ET-521D Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Discuss the various factors influencing the accuracy of estimate in building construction.

(b) What do you mean by abstracting of quantities and how is it done?

Q.2 Draw (to scale) the plans (off all floors) and sections of polytechnic from where you have received your diploma in Civil Engineering on a drawing sheet and prepare an estimate of quantities of all the items concerning the structure.

Q.3 State the features of a software which is available in the market and useful for preparing the billing of quantities of a eleven storied residential flat.

Q.4 (a) Discuss the role of specifications in quality control.

(b) Explain the detailed specification of cement concrete 1 : 1½ : 3.

Q.5 Calculate the cost of providing and laying cement concrete 1 : 5 : 10 (1 cement : 5 Coarse sand : 10 graded stone aggregate) in foundation and plinth.

Q.6 (a) Briefly describe the various methods of calculating depreciation.

(b) Discuss the main features of Capital Gains Tax.

Q.7 Calculate the carpet area of a building having a plinth area of 2500 m2. It may be assumed that 30% of the built up area will be taken by the corridors, verandah, lavatories, staircases, etc. and 10% of the built up area will be occupied by walls. Also prepare a preliminary estimate of this building. It is given that :

(i) Plinth area rate Rs. 400 per m2

(ii) Extra for special Architectural treatment 2% of building cost

(iii) Extra for Water supply and Sanitary installations 5% of building cost

(iv) Extra for internal Electric installations 20% of building cost

(v) Extra for other services 5% of building cost

(vi) Contingencies 4% of overall cost

(vii) Supervision charges 8% of overall cost

Q.8 Find the capital value of a premises consisting of land and a well-built house, let out for Rs. 5000/- per month inclusive of all taxes. Assume the following data :

Outgoings : 20% of gross rent

Expected rate of return : 8%

Future life of the building : 60 years

Solve this problem by rental method of valuation.

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Q.9 Write short notes on the following :

(i) Revised Estimate.

(ii) Computerized Estimation as a management tool.

(iii) Mechanics of writing specification

(iv) Reversionary value

Q.10 Differentiate between the following :

(i) Plinth Area and Carpet Area

(ii) Amount and Compensation

(i) Secured Ground rent and Unsecured Ground rent

(ii) Book Value and Salvage Value

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ET 522

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUES

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Concrete Technology and Construction Techniques.


Course Code : ET-522 Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Explain the process of manufacturing of Portland Cement in detail.

(b) Describe the hydration of cement and discuss the behaviour of each of the products of hydration.

Q.2 (a) Explain the various factors affecting the workability of concrete.

(b) Discuss the use of admixtures in cement concrete work.

Q.3 (a) What is compaction of concrete and why it is necessary?

(b) Describe various methods of compacting freshly laid concrete.

Q.4 (a) Discuss the various tests required to be conducted for determination of strength of concrete.

(b) What do you mean by Segregation? Explain the conditions which could encourage segregation?

Q.5 (a) Discuss the special features of “hot weather concreting” and “cold weather concreting”.

(b) Define Water/cement ratio. Explain its significance

Q.6 (a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of light weight concrete.

(b) What do you mean by no fine concrete? Explain its uses.

Q.7 (a) What do you mean by shotcreting? Explain the various processes used in shotcreting. Which process of shotcreting would you prefer?

(b) Discuss in brief various methods of dewatering. Explain their advantages and disadvantages

Q.8 (a) Explain the various types of polymer concrete. Explain their applications.

(b) Explain the important parameters to be considered for concrete mix design. Discuss how these parameters affect concrete mix design?


(i) Chemical grouting

(ii) Fineness modules

(iii) Pozzolana admixtures

(iv) Fiber-reinforced concrete.

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(i) Retarders and Accelerators

(ii) Segregation and Bleeding

(iii) Creep and Shrinkage of Concrete

(iv) Water proofing and Damp proofing.

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ET 523 (Part A)

CONSTRUCTION WORKS SUPERVISION

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Construction Works Supervision.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Considering yourself as supervisor, write the steps that you will take to maintain the progress of construction works.

(b) Explain the following terms :

(i) Bill of Quantity, and

(ii) Work Order Book.

Q.2 (a) Explain the term Approximate Estimate and how it is prepared?

(b) Differentiate between “Administrative Approval” and “Technical Sanction”.

Q.3 Describe the contents of Bill.

Q.4 What is Inspection Register? Name the various stages of works which are generally recoded in it and passed by Engineer-Incharge.

Q.5 What procedure should be followed to ensure the proper accounting of major spare parts?

Q.6 (a) Differentiate between the Techniques of Consolidation between Cohesive and Cohesion less soil.

(b) “It is important to examine the bore before concreting” discuss.

Q.7 (a) Do you agree that dry bricks or stones should not be used while laying? Discuss.

(b) How bricks masonry is classified into different grades?

Q.8 Briefly describe the concrete equipments for Ready Mixed Concrete.

Q.9 (a) How testing of pipeline for water supply scheme is conducted?

(b) As a supervisor, how will you ensure the coordination between Electrical and Civil work awarded to different contractors.

Q.10 What is formwork? Discuss its importance in the construction work; also enumerate the factors affecting the stripping of formwork.

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ET 523 (Part B)

OPERATION AND MAINTENANCE OF CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Operation and Maintenance of Construction Equipment.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Explain how would you charge rental of a construction equipment?

(b) How are repair charges considered over the life of a construction equipment?

Q.2 (a) Explain the major points of maintenance and upkeep of a storage battery.

(b) How would you ensure safety in construction work? What preventive measures should be taken for a safe working in construction?

Q.3 (a) If mis-match is experienced in two machines working as a team, how will the cost of a unit item of work be affected?

(b) Explain job schedule, material schedule and equipment schedule.

Q.4 (a) Elaborate the role of Project Manager in maintenance schedule considering project manager’s record, repair/replacement decisions, maintenance programme coordination, personnel training and authority of project manager.

(b) State the information a Log Book is supposed to contain. Why a Log Book is considered as a historical record?

Q.5 (a) What is the importance of equipment rental charge? How is it determined? What are the special considerations of equipment rental?

(b) What is Maintenance Record? What items shall be entered in the Maintenance Record? How lubrication schedule is related to Maintenance Record?

Q.6 (a) State the considerations of selecting hammers.

(b) Explain the operation of vibratory pile-driver. Mention its advantages.

Q.7 (a) A duplex double acting reciprocating pump has piston diameter of 15 cm × 25 cm stroke driven by 1450 rpm prime mover. If the total head is 30 m and pump efficiency is 75%, calculate the maximum power required and quantity of water delivered.

(b) Describe the working principles of screw pump. State its advantages and disadvantages.

Q.8 (a) Describe how will you measure discharge of a pump?

(b) What are the different drivers available to operate pump? State how a pneumatic pump works?

Q.9 (a) What are the characteristics of IC engines needed for heavy construction equipment?

(c) Describe the fuel system of a Diesel Engine.

Q.10 (a) What is an Air Blower? Describe in brief the working of a multistage Air Blower.

(b) Describe in brief the construction and operation of Grout Mixer.

23


ET 523 (Part C)

REPAIR AND MAINTENANCE OF BUILDINGS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Repair and Maintenance of Buildings.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Explain the singular causes of deterioration in structures.

(b) Discuss the various defects in timber.

Q.2 (a) Discuss the classification of tree.

(b) Explain the defects in timber due to natural forces.

Q.3 (a) Discuss the defects in steel reinforcement during construction.

(b) Describe the effects of the concrete environment on corrosion.

Q.4 (a) Explain the various defects in sanitary fittings.

(b) Describe the common defects in Bibtap and Stopcock.

Q.5 (a) Explain the qualities and requirements of a good preservative.

(b) Describe the purposes of seasoning of timber.

Q.6 (a) Explain the different methods of excluding external sources of chloride ion from concrete.

(b) Describe the techniques which prevent corrosion of the reinforcement.

Q.7 (a) Explain the methods of cleaning out a trap.

(b) Discuss the common maintenance problems in a building plumbing.

Q.8 (a) Discuss the various causes of failure of foundations and their remedial measures.

(b) Describe the general classification of floor finishes with the help of a neat sketch.

Q.9 (a) Enlist the various sources of defects in different stages in the life of a masonry.

(b) Explain the various types of waterproofing with the help of a neat sketch.


(i) Deterioration

(ii) Transpassivity

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ET 524 (Part A)/ET 534 (Part A)

PRINCIPLES OF ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT AND ECONOMICS

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the bracket. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Principles of Engineering Management and Economics.


Course Code : ET-524A/534A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 (a) With the help of an organizational chart, describe the structure of your organization.

(b) What is Group Decision making? Please discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

Q.2 (a) What do you mean by monopoly in the market? Distinguish between simple monopoly and discriminating monopoly.

(b) Do you agree that sociological environment affects and gets affected by economic environment of business? Please give you comments.

Q.3 Define training. Why it is necessary to the growth of a company? As a Training Manager, how will you assess the training needs of employee of your company?

Q.4 Distinguish between Coordination and Departmentation. Explain the classical principles of vertical and horizontal coordination.

Q.5 Distinguish between the concepts of each of the following pairs :

(i) Centralization and Decentralization of authority.

(ii) Quality Assurance and Quality Control.

(iii) X and R Charts.

Q.6 Discuss the techniques used in different steps of decision making.

Q.7 A television manufacturing must decide how many black and white and how many colour sets he should produce for each day’s sale so as to maximize his daily profit. Each day he has available the following supplies :

Sl. No. Item Number

1. TV Chassis 24

2. Production Hours 160

3. Colour Tubes 10

Each black and white set requires 5 production hours and yields a profit of Rs. 60. Each colour set requires 10 production hours and yields a profit of Rs. 150. Formulate the manufacturer’s problem as a linear programming problem.

Q.8 Discuss the various project clearances which are necessary for the project implementation.

Q.9 What are the main objectives of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)? With the help of a flow chart show the various activities involved in EIA.

Q.10 What is FAST diagramming? For what purpose it is used? Discuss the ground rules for constructing a FAST diagram.

25

Q.1 (a) Explain the various factors on which site selection of a project depends.

(b) Discuss the necessity of efficient site organization.

Q.2 (a) Briefly describe the various types of drawings.

(b) “Removal of existing services to be given utmost importance” Discuss this statement.

Q.3 (a) Discuss the reasons for removal of top soil in a construction site.

(b) Explain the objectives of estimating in a construction project.

Q.4 The arch of a culvert subtends an angle of 120o at the centre. The span of the arch is 7.00 m and the thickness of the arch is 70 cm. The length of arch from face to face is 10 m. Calculate the quantity of arch masonry work.

Q.5 The network of a certain project is shown in Figure 1 with the estimated durations of various activities. Determine the following :

(i) Earliest event time and latest event time

(ii) Earliest and latest start and finish times of each activity

(iii) Total and free floats for each activity

(iv) Critical path for the network

4

2

1 6

5

8

3 7

B F

H

A

G

L

E

D I

J

KC

= 2t = 6t

= 4t

= 7t

=

0t

= 7

t t = 8

=

6t

= 3t

t = 6

t = 5

=

4t

Figure 1

Q.6 (a) Discuss the meaning and significance of cash flow.

(b) Explain the purpose of performing economic comparisons.


ET 524 (Part B)

CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT-I

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Construction Management-I.



BTCM

26

Q.7 (a) Discuss the “Statutory Provisions” of charging depreciation.

(b) Explain the various considerations to be kept in view before procuring an equipment.

Q.8 (a) Explain the classification of construction works and the contribution of various participants in managing the construction process.

(b) Discuss the contractual arrangement for Design and Build approach.

Q.9 (a) Describe the checklist for scrutinizing the tender documents prior to issue.

(b) Discuss the functions of Construction Manager.

Q.10 Write short notes on the followings :

(i) Techniques of pricing

(ii) Rater of return analysis

(iii) Work Breakdown Structure

(iv) Contractual Arrangement for Management Contract

27


ET 532 (Part A)

HYDROLOGY

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all

Blocks of Hydrology.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Enumerate the science associated with hydrology.

(b) Discuss the major components to be considered for carrying out a regional water budget study.

(c) What are the main processes responsible for making water available on land surface? Why do we need to study our atmosphere?

(d) Calculate the perceptible water (mm) in a 10 km high saturated atmospheric column if the surface conditions are : air temperature = 22oC, pressure = 101.3 kPa and the lapse rate (α) is 6.0oC/km.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Discuss how to express the net solar energy received at the earth’s surface. Explain atmospheric circulation system.

(b) Discuss differential heating of earth and its effect on the atmosphere.

(c) Discuss the important features of different types of rain gauge.

(d) A reservoir with a surface area of 300 hectares had the following average values of parameters during a given week : water temperature = 20oC, relative humidity = 40% and wind velocity at 1.0 m above the ground = 18 km/h. Estimate the average daily evaporation from the lake and the total volume of water evaporated from the lake during that one week.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Calculate by energy balance method, the evaporation rate from an open water surface, if the net radiation is 200 W/m2 and the temperature is 25oC, assuming no sensible heat or ground heat flux.

(b) Explain analytical methods for the determination of lake evaporation.

(c) A catchment area, near Delhi, is at a latitude of 12o18’N, and at an elevation of 750 m above MSL.

The mean monthly temperatures are given below :

Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec

Mean Monthly Temp. (˚c)

21.5 24.5 26.0 28.0 27.0 25.0 24.0 23.5 24.5 24.0 24.5 21.0

Calculate the monthly and annual PET for this catchments using Thornthwaite formula.

(d) Bring out the difference between depression storage and surface detention.

(2 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 10)

28

Q.4 (a) What is the importance of infiltration in hydrologic cycle? Explain the typical shape of an infiltration curve. Discuss the practical importance of (φ-index).

(b) Explain the basic steps evolved in estimation of storm runoff.

(c) For a catchments in Uttar Pradesh, the mean monthly rainfall and temperature are given below. Calculate the annual runoff coefficient by Khosla formula.


Temp. (oC)

12 17 20 28 30 35 30 30 27 28 20 14

Rainfall (cm)

4 4 2 0 2 12 31 30 16 2 1 2

(d) Explain flow duration curve and also explain the characteristics of flow duration curve.

(3 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Observed values of runoff at a stream gauging site are given below. Upstream of the gauging site, a weir, built across the stream, diverts 3.0 and 0.5 million m3 of water per month for use in irrigation and industry. The return flows from irrigation, estimated at 0.8 mm3 per month, and from the industry at 0.3 mm3 per month, joins the stream upstream of the gauging site. Estimate the virgin flow of the river. If the catchments area is 120 km2 and the average annual rainfall is 185 cm. Also determine the runoff-rainfall ratio.


Runoff (cm)

2.0 1.5 0.8 0.6 2.1 8.0 18.0 22.0 14.0 9.0 7.0 3.0

(b) The velocity of float in a stream was observed to be 5.0 m/s. Compute the average flow velocity corresponding to this observation. Adopt a reasonable value of the required coefficient and explain why this coefficient is needed.

(c) In a rectangular channel which is 16 m wide, the depth of flow and cross-sectional areas are measured as 3.5 m, 52.5 m2 and 3.4 m, 51.0 m2 at two sections 250 m apart. The drop in the water surface elevation was found to be 0.10 m. Assuming Manning’s coefficient to be 0.015 estimates the discharge through the channel.

(d) Explain “Synthetic unit hydrograph” and methods used for the development of synthetic unit hydrograph.

(4 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.6 (a) The rainfall records at a station for five days in the month of July are 8, 3, 5, 12, 10 mm. Find the mean of the rainfall values.

(b) Evaluate the mean, variance, standard deviation, coefficient of variation, Skewness, coefficient of Skewness, Kurtosis, and coefficient of Kurtosis of the following grouped data :

Rainfall (mm)

15 18 21 22 25 24 26

No. of Days

7 4 5 4 8 5 2

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Explain the methods of parameter estimation techniques.

(b) Explain Index-flood method (USGS method).

(c) Explain “test of independence in time”.

(d) For a hydraulic structure having a design life of 120 years, what will be the risk involved if it is designed for (i) 60-year return period flood, and (ii) 1000-year return period flood?

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

29

Q.8 (a) If a dam is having project life of 60 years then what is the probability that a flood with return period of 100 years will occur.

(i) Once, and

(ii) Twice during the life of the dam.

(b) Write in details the design criteria for hydraulic structures.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.9 (a) A river cross section was divided into strips, and soundings were taken at the end of each strip. Observations are tabulated as under; plot the section, and compute the total discharge :

Strip No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Remarks

Distance of sounding point from left bank (m)

2.0 2.75 3.85 6.2 7.8 9.9 10.95 11.35 13.15 14.50

Value of sounding (m)

2.6 2.95 4.2 6.8 6.4 5.1 8.8 9.7 5 1

Average velocity in the strip (m/s)

0.7 0.9 1.2 1.5 2.4 2.8 1.95 1.9 0.95 0.8

Tabulate your results

(b) Write notes with neat sketch on “stages in life of lake”.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Following observations at a gauging station, at the outlet of a chosen basin, due to a 6-h storm are available as under (Area of the basin = 750 km2) :

Time (Hr) 0 13 16 19 22 25 28 31 34 38 41 43 46

Flow (cumec)

0 80 120 250 310 360 245 202 105 75 35 25 0

Plot this hydrograph to a suitable scale, drawing a smooth curve through the plotted points.

(b) Derive the ordinates (and plot) of a 6-h unit hydrograph.

(c) Explain in details the ultrasonic method of river gauging with figure of equipment.

(4 + 2 + 4 = 10)

30


ET 532 (Part B)

GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Ground Water Development.



BTWRE

Q.1 Give a 250 words write-up regarding ground water investigations (other than aerial photography). Collect the data about an actual field investigation, and include it in your write-up.

Q.2 Discuss in detail (taking the help of a practical example) as to how aerial photographic data is interpreted for the occurrence of ground water.

Q.3 Compare and contrast, regarding all aspects, the following types of wells :

(i) Dugwells,

(ii) Borewells,

(iii) Tubewells,

(iv) Collector wells, and

(v) Infiltration Galleries.

Q.4 Explain the statement – “Knowing the chemical composition of water is important for understanding the geologic cycle as well as it forming a basis for several uses of water”.

Q.5 Discuss the physical and chemical quality of ground water, and suggest treatments for improving the quality.


(i) Representation of geochemical data,

(ii) Isoline map,

(iii) Bacterial quality of ground water, and

(iv) Ground water recharge.

Q.7 Explain the following statements :

(i) A basin is a hydrologic unit for all practical purposes.

(ii) Infiltration and not percolation, replenishes soil moisture, recharge aquifers and supports stream flow.

Q.8 Discuss in details, the various elements of the water balance equation.

Q.9 Bring out the significance of watershed development in about 300 words, including at least one practical example.

Q.10 Write a note (of at least 150 words) about the management of a watershed, and bring out the significance of cooperative, in this respect.

31


ET 533 (Part A)

IRRIGATION ENGINEERING

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Irrigation Engineering.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Explain various irrigation methods with the help of schematic diagram.

(b) Explain various components needed for the development and management of irrigation projects with the help of a schematic diagram.

Q.2 (a) For a three-phase soil system, prove that :

w

vs

e Gsθ

=θ

where all the terms have their usual meaning?

(b) A soil mass is contained in a container measuring 10 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm. The soil consists of spherical grains of size 1 cm in diameter. Determine the maximum possible voids ratio, porosity and percent solids.

Q.3 (a) What are the various types of soil existing in India? Discuss the suitability of each from irrigation view point.

(b) What do you mean by cropping pattern? Explain various factors influencing the choice of cropping pattern.

Q.4 (a) What is evapotranspiration? Discuss Blancy Criddle method for its estimation.

(b) Explain in brief various infiltration measuring devices.

Q.5 (a) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of Drip Irrigation.

(b) Determine consumptive and net irrigation requirements for a crop from the following data. Also determine field irrigation requirement (FIR) and gross irrigation requirement

(GIR). Assume ηc = 75% and ηa = 80%.

Period October

1-31 November

1-30 December

1-31 January

1-31 February

1-20

Pan Evaporation (cm) 8.0 15.2 12.8 12.2 6.5

Consumptive Use Coefficient

0.45 0.55 0.90 0.98 0.78

Effective Rainfall (cm) 2.5 2.0 0.5 0.3 0.2

Q.6 (a) Explain the objectives of a good drainage system. Also discuss components of a drainage system.

(b) Explain water distribution practices in Western Region of India?

32

Q.7 (a) Discuss the considerations in Land Grading Design.

(b) Explain the factors affecting selection of equipment for Land Grading.

Q.8 (a) Discuss how a vertical turbine pump is selected.

(b) Estimate the dimensions of a centrifugal pump impeller with 7 blades. The suction side is axial and discharge is 120 l/sec at a total head of 45 m. Prime mover is electric motor of 1500 rpm with the efficiency of the pump being 75%. The data given are :

Shaft diameter = 4 cm

Volumetric efficiency = 95%

Velocity coefficients for inlet and outlet are 0.157% and 0.121, respectively.

Q.9 (a) Explain the possible modes of disposal of drainage water from a collection and conducting drain system.

(b) Design an unlined canal as per BIS 7112-1973 for following data :

Discharge = 50 m3/sec, and

Silt factor = 1.1

Q.10 Write short notes on following :

(i) Furrow Irrigation Method,

(ii) Infiltration Indices,

(iii) Leaching Requirement, and

(iv) Pressure rise in Impeller.

33


ET 533 (Part B)

OPEN CHANNEL FLOW

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Open Channel Flow.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Starting from the basic principles, find out the Praadtt-Karman equation of velocity distributors.

(b) Find the discharge in a trapezoidal channel with a bed width of 10 m side slope 1 : 1 and depth of flow of 2.0 m under uniform flow condition. S = 10– 4 and n = 0.02. Also find Chezy’s coefficient at this depth.

Q.2 (a) Describe the formation of hydraulic Jump in a rectangular channel.

(b) Starting from the basic principles, show that the ratio of post-jump depth (y2) to pre-jump depth (y1) in a horizontal rectangular channel is given by :

221

1

11 8 1

2r

yF

y

= + −

Q.3 (a) A flow of 1.2 m3/s flows through a pipe (running full) that is laid at an angle of 30º to the horizontal. The flow takes place from 30 cm diameter end (higher end) to 50 cm diameter end (lower end) over a distance of 500 m (horizontal). Draw the energy grade line and also the hydraulic grade line, if f = 0.1.

(b) A discharge of 20 m3/s flows in a 10 m wide rectangular channel under the critical condition. Find the depth and specific energy corresponding to this condition. Also find critical slope if n = 0.015.

Q.4 The depth of uniform flow in a rectangular channel 5 m wide (n = 0.02, S0 = 4 × 10– 2) is 0.50 m. A low dam raises the water to a depth of 2 m. Find weather a hydraulic jump takes place and if so at what distance upstream of the dam.

Q.5 (a) Design a Lacey channel to carry 5 m3/s through 0.5 mm sand.

(b) A trapezoidal channel (b = 3.8 m, and z = 1) has a bed slope of 0.0015, and n = 0.0016. Determine the normal discharge for yn = 3.0 m.

Q.6 (a) Explain the assumptions made in deriving the dynamic equation of gradually varied flow.

(b) Show that the slope of the water surface with reference to the channel bed can be written as :

21

o f

r

S Sdy

dx F

−=

− α

34

Q.7 Show that hydraulic exponent (M) for critical flow conditions can be expressed as :

3y A dT

M TA T dy

= −

Also show that the value of hydraulic exponent (M) is 5 for a triangular channel.

Q.8 (a) What do you mean by surge? Describe various types of surge in brief.

(b) Starting from the basic principles, show that absolute velocity of the wave (Vw) can be expressed as :

1

2

2 2 1 11

11

2

( )

1

wA y A y g

V VA

AA

− = +

−

where all the terms have their usual meaning.

Q.9 (a) Explain the Numerical integration method for computation of gradually varied flow in Prismatic channels.

(b) Differentiate between the following :

(i) Hydraulic Gradient and Energy Gradient,

(ii) Laminar Flow and Turbulent Flow,

(iii) Natural and Artificial channels, and

(iv) Total Energy and Specific Energy.


(i) Pressure distribution in a section,

(ii) Flow below a sluice,

(iii) Specific Energy curve, and

(iv) Standard step method for non-prismatic channels.

35


ET 534 (Part B)

SYSTEMS METHODS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all

Blocks of Systems Methods.



BTWRE

Q.1 Give short answers to the following questions :

(i) Define ‘system model’. Give the names of different types of system models.

(ii) Explain ‘biological systems’ with examples.

(iii) Can we consider a window or a door as a system? If yes, what are its components and how are they put together?

(iv) Give the block diagram of the system for controlling the temperature within a refrigerator with thermostat. Is it an open-loop or closed-loop system?

(v) What is Kirchoff’s current law for an electric circuit? Explain with an example.

(vi) Give the equations and Laplace transforms of the five basic standard input signals used for system analysis.

(vii) Define the terms Reference input signal, Feedback signal, Error signal, Controller, Plant, Output signal and Feedback element.

(viii) Give disadvantages of closed-loop systems.

(ix) Cite at least one example each with block diagram of hydraulic, mechanical, thermal and electro-mechanical control systems.

(x) What are the methods of controlling the speed of :

(a) separately excited

(b) shunt and

(c) series d. c. motor? (20)

Q.2 (a) Explain the concepts of ‘duality’ and ‘sensitivity analysis’ in linear programming. For a given maximization primal problem how will you write the dual in following cases :

(i) All constraints of ‘less than or equal to’ type

(ii) One or more constraints of ‘greater than or equal to’ type

(iii) One or more constraints of ‘equal to’ type.

(b) Solve the following problem using Simplex Method :

Minimise C (Total Cost) = 3 X + 4Y

Subject to

20 + 60Y ≥ 80

30 + 40Y ≥ 100

X, Y ≥ 0 (10)

36

Q.3 (a) What are second order systems? Give examples of second order system. Derive equations of time response of a second order system to a periodic inputs like impulse, step and ramp.

(b) What is transfer function? Derive the closed-loop transfer function of a second order system?

(10)

Q.4 (a) What is linear programming? What are its industrial applications? What are the limitations of linear programming?

(b) A scrap metal dealer has received an order from a customer for at least 2000 kg of scrap metal. The customer requires that at least 1000 kg of the shipment metal must be of a high quality metal called Alpha that can be melted down and used to produce metal tubings. Furthermore, the customer will not accept delivery of the order if it contains more than 175 kg of metal that he deems unfit for commercial use, i.e. metal that contains an excessive amount of impurities and cannot be melted down and refined profitably.

The dealer can purchase scrap metal from two different suppliers in unlimited quantities with following % ages (by weight) of Alpha and unfit :

Table : Scrap

Supplies A Supplies B

Alpha 25% 75%

Unfit Scrap 5% 10%

The costs per kg of metal purchased from supplies A and B are Re 1 and Rs. 4, respectively. By graphical method, determine optimum quantities of metal for the dealer to purchase from each of the two suppliers.

(10)

Q.5 (a) A company has factories at A, B and C which supply warehouses at D, E, F and G. Monthly factory capacities are 160, 150 and 190 units, respectively. Monthly warehouse requirements are 80, 90, 110 and 220 units, respectively. Unit shipping costs (in rupees) are as follows :

To From

A B C D

A 42 48 38 37

B 40 49 52 51

C 39 38 40 43

Determine the optimum distribution for this company to minimize shipping costs using Vogel’s Approximation Method.

(b) A company has factories at A and B which supply warehouses at C and D. Monthly factory capacities are 500 and 400 units, respectively. Monthly warehouse requirements are 300 and 600 units, respectively. Unit shipping costs (in rupees) are as follows :

To From

C D

A 2 2

B 1 3

Determine the optimal distribution for this company to minimize shipping costs using Stepping-store method

(10)

37

Q.6 (a) A foreman has four mechanics and four jobs to be performed. The mechanics differ in efficiency and the jobs differ in their intrinsic difficulty. His estimates of the time (in hours) each mechanic would take to perform each job is given in the effectiveness matrix below. How should the jobs be allocated, one to a mechanic, so as to minimize the total time taken? Solve using Hungarian method.

(b) Arrival of machinists at a tool crib are considered to be Poisson distributed at an average rate of 6 per hour. The service time at the tool crib is exponentially distributed with an average of 3 minutes

(i) What is the probability that a machinist arriving at the tool crib will have to wait?

(ii) What is the average number of machinists at the tool crib?

(iii) The company will install a second tool crib when convinced that a machinist would have to wait atleast six minutes before being served. By how much the flow of machinists to the tool crib must increase to justify the addition of a second tool crib?

(10)

Q.7 (a) Derive the formula for EOQ and total inventory cost for the following cases :

(i) EOQ model with uniform demand

(ii) EOQ with different rates of demand in different cycles

(iii) EOQ when shortages (back orders) are allowed

(iv) EOQ with uniform replenishment

(v) EOQ with price (or quantity) discounts

Also, give characteristics and limitations of each of the above models.

(b) XYZ company buys in lots of 500 boxes which is a 3-month supply. The cost per box is Rs. 125 and the ordering cost is Rs. 150. The inventory carrying cost is estimated at 20% of unit value

(i) What is the total annual cost of the existing inventory policy?

(ii) How much money could be saved by employing the economic order quantity?

(10)

Q.8 (a) With reference to PERT and CPM network models explain the following concepts : (i) Activities, (ii) Events, (iii) Predecessor, successor, concurrent and dummy activities, (iv) Rules for constructing network diagrams, (v) Project duration and critical path, (vi) Earliest expected completion time of event, (vii) Latest allowable completion time of an event, (viii) Probability of completing the project on or before a specified time, (ix) PERT algorithm and (x) Float of an activity :

(b) A truck can carry a total of 10 tons of commodity. Three types (A, B and C) of commodities are to be carried. These commodities have the characteristics as shown in the following table

Commodity Unit Weight

(Tons) Profit per Ton

(Rs.)

A 4 100

B 5 130

C 3 80

Given the total allowable weight, determine the number of units of each of the three commodities to carry so as to maximize the total profit. Use dynamic programming approach.

(20)

38


ET 534 (Part C)

WATER RESOURCES PLANNING

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Water Resource Planning.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Write an essay (of at least 250 words) on a minor irrigation scheme being operated in your neighbouring region making use of field data that you may collect.

(b) “In developing countries there is discerned a steady migration of population from rural to urban/industrial centres”. Discuss this statement.

Q.2 (a) What do you understand by command area development? What is its impact on upliftment of the area?

(b) State the advantages and disadvantages of Gravity dams and Buttress dams.

Q.3 (a) Explain the importance of land use pattern, its changes and causes of change due to live-stock population pressure and social values.

(b) An average of 1.2 m drop in the water table of an area is noticed over an extent of 100 km2, due to the withdrawal of 16 million m3 of water from the aquifer (unconfined) during a period of draught. Later on, after a rainfall of 1500 mm experienced in the area and water levels rose up on the average by 1.10 m. Determine the specific yield in the zone of water-level function, and the recharge co-efficient, assuming the specific yield to be uniform.

Q.4 (a) Describe briefly about some software for reservoir planning and operation.

(b) What kinds of problems are generally faced in reservoir operations? Describe in brief.

Q.5 Explain the following terms :

(i) Duty and delta of a crop,

(ii) Crop-water production factor,

(iii) Sediment concentration in water, and

(iv) Internal rate of return.

Q.6 Explain the following considering geographical area of India :

(i) Cropping pattern and factors affecting it.

(ii) Types of crops and their growing seasons.

Q.7 (a) Describe how water demand forecasting helps in planning bringing out its importance in forecasting water demand.

(b) Describe India’s water budget in about 150 words.

39

Q.8 (a) Assuming the present total population of a metro city to be 70 lakhs, estimate the total water requirement that need to be supplied per capita per day, as per various parameters that define life in a metro.

(b) How does watershed management approach can help in increasing water availability of an area?

Q.9 Discuss a plan for utilisation of surface and ground water resources for the following :

(i) a region in Gujarat or Karnataka, and

(ii) a region in Bihar or Uttar Pradesh.

Also bring out the essential differences amongst the respective plans.


(i) Cross drainage works,

(ii) Aqueduct,

(iii) Level Crossing,

(iv) Spillways, and

(v) Crop water requirement.

40


ET 581 (Part A)

TESTING FOR QUALITY CONTROL

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Testing for Quality Control.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Define fineness of cement. Explain the procedure of determination of fineness of cement by Blaine Air Permeability method.

(b) Describe the procedure of determination of Initial Setting time and Final Setting time in laboratory.

Q.2 (a) Explain the significance of soundness of cement. Describe the Le-chatelier method of determination of soundness of cement.

(b) Describe the significance of carrying out tests on water to be used for making and curing of concrete.

Q.3 (a) Explain the test procedure for determination of materials finer than 75 microns in a heap of aggregates.

(b) Describe the method of determination of Angularity Number of an aggregate as described in IS : 2386 (Part-I) – 1963.

Q.4 (a) Explain the test for determination of bulk density and voids in a volume of aggregates.

(b) Describe the test for the determination of Aggregate crushing value.

Q.5 (a) Explain the compacting factor test for the measurement of workability of concrete.

(b) Explain the procedure of testing for performance of admixtures in concrete.

Q.6 (a) Discuss the effect of height / diameter ratio on strength.

(b) Explain the ring tension test. Also describe its advantages and limitations.

Q.7 (a) Explain the Resonance Frequency method. Describe its major limitations.

(b) Describe the procedure of determination of moisture content of Hardened Concrete.


(i) Bulking of fine aggregate

(ii) Penetration Techniques

(ii) Characteristic strength

(iii) Mycological Test

Q.9 (a) Describe the suggestive criteria for acceptance and rejection of concrete.

(b) Explain the various methods for testing the impermeability of AC sheets.


(i) Initial setting and Final setting time

(ii) Indentation and Rebound principles

41


ET 581 (Part F)

MECHANICAL EQUIPMENT IN CONSTRUCTION (ELECTIVE-I)

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Mechanical Equipment in Construction.


Course Code : ET-581F Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2012

BTCM

Q.1 (a) What is productivity of a construction equipment? How would you select a construction equipment based on its productivity? With the help of an example explain how two machines work as a team?

(b) How would you determine the annual cost of a construction equipment? What are the different components of hire charges of a construction equipment?

Q.2 (a) What is the purpose of a construction organization chart? Give an account of fueling of construction equipment.

(b) What are the steps to be taken for providing proper lubrication of a construction equipment? How would you perform your duties for wire rope and tool lubrication?

Q.3 (a) What is meant by breakdown of a construction equipment? How would you handle breakdowns?

(b) Given an account on safety in construction, citing examples.

Q.4 (a) How would you determine the operating cost of a construction equipment? For electrically operated equipment how would you compute the energy consumed?

(b) What id down time? Giving examples of typical down times of a machine how the analysis of the records provides the necessity of further training of operator?

Q.5 (a) Explain with the help of a suitable graph the various elements of cost and degree of maintenance. From the above, explain how would you arrive at the optimum degree of maintenance?

(b) For a green field construction site what infrastructure developments are necessary? Give briefly accounts of such developments.

Q.6 A batch concrete consists of 20 kg cement, 40 kg sand and 80 kg coarse concrete and 50 kg water. The temperature of the constitents are cement 40oC, sand 25oC and coarse aggregate 15oC. If the sand and coarse aggregate contains free moisture of 5% and 1.5% and if it is desired to provide a pouring temperature of 12oC. Assume specific heat of cement, sand and aggregate to be 0.25. Calculate the quantity of ice required at – 3oC having specific heat of 0.5. Assume the temperature gain from mixing to pouring is 2oC. Take water temperature as 5oC and latent heat of fusion of ice as 80 kcal/kg.

Q.7 (a) Describe briefly a concrete batching and mixing plant. Explain how the above plant functions?

(b) Explain in brief the different methods of ceiling aggregate, mentioning their advantages and disadvantages.

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Q.8 (a) How would you differentiate the function of a valve from that of a gate? For dams and conduits what different types of gates are employed?

(b) Explain the construction and function of a Needle Valve and a Butterfly Valve.

Q.9 (a) What is a rammer compactor? How are manually operated rammer compactor used? What factors affect the output of compactors?

(b) Explain briefly the blasting operation. What do you understood by delayed fixing in blasting? What are the advantages of delayed firing?

Q.10 (a) What is preventive maintenance? How does breakdown maintenance different from preventive maintenance?

(b) Explain routine maintenance and periodic maintenance?

ET 502 (Part A) - webservices.ignou.ac.in

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