ENT & Ortho for Anglofibroma of Nasopharynx, The Most Appropriate

KIMS ENT & Ortho I.S

1. For anglofibroma of nasopharynx, the most appropriate investigation is

a. Plain x-rayb. MRI scanc. CT scand. Angiography

2. In positional vertigo, semicircular canal involved is

a. Posteriorb. Anteriorc. Laterald. Superior

3. Rinne test will be negative if the loss of hearing is at --------dB

a. 45-60b. 0-15c. 15-20d. 30-40

4. In atrophic rhinitis nasal blockade is due to

a. Polypb. Turbinate hypertrophyc. Granulomad. Crusting

5. Blood supply of nasal septum is a. Mainly internal carotid artery

and partly external carotid artery

b. Mainly external carotid artery and partly internal carotid artery

c. Internal carotid arteryd. External carotid artery

6. Treatment of bilateral abductor vocal cord palsy is

a. Endotracheal intubationb. Adrenalinec. Tracheostomyd. None of the above

7. Korner’s septum is formed by which of the following

a. Squamous tympanic fissureb. Lateral margin of Tegmen

tympanic. Petrosquamous sutured. Petrosquamous fissure

8. External auditory canal is formed by groove

a. First branchialb. First visceralc. Second branchiald. Second visceral

9. Orontral fistula is common after the extraction of

a. 1st molarb. 2nd incisorc. 2nd premolard. 1st premolar

10. Not a contraindication for tonsillectomya. Past history of Peritonsillar

abscessb. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitusc. URTId. Epidemic of poliomyelitis

11. Type IV thyroplasty is fora. Vocal cord medializationb. Vocal cord lateralizationc. Vocal cord shorteningd. Vocal cord lengthening

12. Carhart’s notch in audiogram is deepost frequency of

a. 0.5KHzb. 2KHzc. 4 KHzd. 8 KHz

13. In coid caloric stimulation ten, which of the following is TRUE of movements of the eye ball

a. Towards the opposite sideb. Towards the same sidec. Upwardsd. Downwards

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14. Which of the following is the narrowest part of larynx is

a. Supraglottis b. Sacculec. Rima glottidisd. Vestibule of pharynx

15. Abductors of vocal cord area. Thycarytenoidb. Cricothyroidc. Posterior cricoarytenoidd. Lateral cincoarytenoid

16. Which of the following does not form nasal septum

a. Nasal crest of maxillab. Perpendicular plate of ethmoidc. Concha of sphenoidd. Vomer

17. In which of the following conditions, cortical inastoidectomy is indicated

a. Malignant disease of middle earb. CSOM without Cholesteatomac. Acute coalescent mastoiditisd. CSOM with Cholesteatoma

18. Floor of middle ear is pierced bya. Vagusb. Tympanic branch of 9th nervec. Caroticotympanic nerved. Deep auricular artery

19. The function of stria vascularis is a. To produce perilymphb. To absorb perilymphc. To maintain the electronic

milieu of Endolymphd. None of the above

20. Adenocarcinoma of ethmoid is most common is

a. Dye industry workerb. Chimney workerc. Wood workersd. Nickel workers

21. In myringotomy, the incision is applied in the region of the posteroinferior quadrant. This is the preferred site for all the following reasons EXCEPT?

a. Easily accessibleb. Less vascular regionc. Less damage to ear ossiclesd. Less change of injury to the

chorda tympani nerve22. A chronic smoker with a history of

hoarseness was found on examination to have keratosis of the larynx. All the following are used for treatment except

a. Partial laryngectomyb. Stripping of the vocal cortc. CO2 laser vaporizerd. Stop smoking

23. True regarding Reinke’s edema is a. Cyst of ventricle of larynxb. Edema of ventricular bandc. Edema of free margin of vocal

cordd. Edema of uvula

24. In which of the following conditions negative Rinne test is seen

a. Meniere’s diseaseb. Acoustic neuromac. Tympanosclerosisd. Sensorineural deafness

25. False regarding tympanic membrane is a. It has sensory supply via

auriculotemporal nerveb. It is inclined at an angle of 350

to the mealusc. Lined by stratified epithelium in

continuity with external auditory canal

d. Tympanic membrane is attached to annulus ring made of fibrous cartilage

26. Cause of otitis externa hemorrhagica is



a. Picornavirusb. Influenza virusc. Adenovirusd. Enterovirus

27. In hypopharynx which of the following part is not included

a. Posterior pharyngeal wallb. Anterior pharyngeal wallc. Posterior cricoid regiond. Pyriform sinus

28. Gradenigo’s triad includes which of the following

a. Abducens nerveb. Facial nervec. Optic nerved. Trigeminal nerve

29. Acoustic neuroma most commonly arises from

a. Superior vestibular nerveb. Interior vestibular nervec. Cochlear nerved. Facial nerve

30. Foreign body in erect position lies in a. Right lateral basal segmentb. Right medial basal segmentc. Right posterior basal segmentd. Right anterior basal segment

31. Which of the following sinuses is not present at birth

a. Ethmoidalb. Maxillaryc. Frontald. Sphenoid

32. In radical mastoidectomy all the following are done EXCEPT

a. Lowering of facial ridgeb. Mucosa and middle ear muscles

are removedc. All the ossicles are removed

except the stapes foot plate

d. Maintains patency of Eustachian tube

33. Sensory supply of middle ear cavity is by

a. 5th nerveb. 10th nervec. 9th nerved. Greater occipital nerve

34. Pulver Taft weave is a technique of a. Nerve repairb. Vein repairc. Bone repaird. Tendon repair

35. The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis culture sensitivity report is

a. Erythromycinb. Rolitetracyclinec. Doxyclyclined. Ampicillin

36. In plummer Vinson syndorme, the region involved is

a. Posterior pharyngeal wallb. Valleculaec. Postcricoid regiond. Pyriform sinus

37. Most common location of vocal nodules is

a. Anterior commissureb. Posterior 1/4th and anterior

2/3rd junction c. Anterior 1/3rd and posterior

2/3rd junctiond. Posterior 2/3rd and anterior

2/3rd junction38. Stapedius is supplied by

a. V cranial nerveb. VI cranial nervec. VII cranial nerved. IX cranial nerve

39. Which of the following is TRUE about Rhinosporidiosis



a. The most common organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

b. Seen only in immunocompromised patient

c. Presents as a nasal polypd. Can be diagnosed by isolation

of the organism40. A 7 year old child who presents with

acute otitis media does not respond to ampicillin. Examination reveals that the tympanic membrane is full and bulging. The treatment of choice of

a. Systemic steroidsb. Ciprofloxacinc. Myringotomyd. Cortical mastoidectomy

41. CSF rhinorrhoea is commonest in fracture of the

a. Temporal boneb. Nasal bonesc. Temporo sphenoidd. Cribriform plate

42. In cerebellopontine angle tumor, the ‘earliest’ manifestation is

a. Ipsilateral papillary dilatationb. Ipsilateral tongue paralysisc. Ipsilateral lateral squintd. Loss of corneal reflex

43. Antrum of Highmore is also known asa. Frontalb. Maxillaryc. Ethmoidald. Mandibular

44. Cartilage which has signet ring sign is a. Arytenoidb. Cuneiformc. Thyroidd. Cricoids

45. A diabetic patient complains of discharge of blackish crusts. Most likely the cause of this is

a. Candidiasisb. Histoplasmosisc. Aspergillosisd. Mucormycosis

46. 55 years old, Hema was undergoing a face lift operation to reduce or eliminate facial rhytids, or wrinkles. While operation she suffered a nerve injury, which nerve is most likely to be injured

a. Lesser occipital nerveb. Zygomatic branch of facial

nervec. Greater auricular nerved. Lesser petrosal nerve

47. Audiogram in early Meniere’s disease shows

a. Notch at 2 kHz in bone conduction

b. Notch at 4 kHz in air conductionc. A flat curved. A rising curve

48. Cheval let fracture of nasal septum is a. Horizontal backwardsb. Vertical backwardsc. Transverse backwardsd. Oblique backwards

49. Trotter’s triad included all excepta. Conductive deafnessb. Ipsilateral temporal neuralgiac. Palatal paralysisd. Contralateral temporal

neuralgia50. The extent of glomus tumor is best

shown bya. CT scanb. MRIc. Angiographyd. X-rays

51. A 45yr male, trumpet player presents with complain of cough, Dyspnea,



hoarseness & swelling in neck. Swellign is reducible & increases in size during Valsalva & coughing he’s likely to be suffering from

a. Thyroglossal cystb. Laryngoccclec. Chondromad. Ductal cyst

52. Which of the following virus is associated with Otosclerosis

a. Mumps virusb. Measles virusc. EBVd. RSV

53. Investigation of choice for Acute sinusitis is

a. X-ray (Water’s view)b. Computerized tomography (CT)

scanningc. MRId. Ultrasonography

54. The largest cartilage of larynx is a. Thyroidb. Cricoidsc. Arytenoidsd. Corniculate

55. Most common complication of tracheostomy is

a. Tracheoesophageal fistulab. Tracheocutaneous fistulac. Surgical emphysemad. Tracheal stenosis

56. Klippel- Feil syndrome results froma. Congenital contracture of the

sternocleidomastoid muscleb. Failure of descent of the

scapulac. Failure of closure of the third

branchial archd. Failure of segmentation of

mesodermal somites

57. CSF is similar to a. Endolymphb. Perilymphc. Cortilymphd. None

58. The “cone of light” is seen in which quadrant of tympanic membrane?

a. Anterosuperiorb. Anteroinferiorc. Posterosuperiord. Posterorinferior

59. The most mobile part of tympanic membrane

a. Centralb. Peripheralc. Bothd. None

60. What should be the loss of hearing at least for weber’s test to lateralize?

a. 5 dbb. 10 dbc. 15 dbd. 20 db

61. Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?

a. Impedance audiometryb. Brainstem evoked response

audiometry (BERA)c. Free field audiometryd. Behavior audiometry

62. Ear is sensitive to which frequency of sound

a. 500-3500 Hzb. 1000-3000 Hzc. 3000-5000 Hzd. 5000-8000 HZ

63. Tuberculous otitis media is characterized by all EXCEPT

a. Multiple perforationb. Pale granulationsc. Earache



d. Thin odourless fluid64. A 3-year old child present with fever

and earaches on examination there is congested tympanic membrane with slight bulge. The treatment of choice is

a. Myringotomy with penicillinb. Myringotomy with grommetc. Only antibioticd. Wait and watch

65. Bezold’s abscess is situated at a. Diagstric triangleb. Tip of mastoid, deep to

sternomastoidc. Subtemporallyd. Parotid area

66. Tobey Ayer test is useful for diagnosing a. Lateral sinus thrombosisb. Medial sinus thrombosisc. Serous otitis mediad. Eustachian tube defect

67. Gelle’s test is done ina. Senile deafnessb. Traumatic deafnessc. Otosclerosisd. Glue ear

68. Phlep’s sign is seen in a. Glomus jugulareb. Vestibular neuromac. Glomus tympanicumd. Meniere’s disease

69. Caloric test hasa. Slow component onlyb. Fast component onlyc. Slow and fast componentsd. Fast component occasionally

70. A 30-year old woman with family history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, with audiometry shows conductive hearing

loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

a. Otosclerosisb. Acoustic neuromac. Otitis media with effusiond. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis

71. Nasolacrimal duct opens intoa. Superior meatusb. Middle meatusc. Inferior meatusd. Sphenoethmoidal recess

72. Abel’s bacillus ausesa. Rhinoscleromab. Rhinosporodiosisc. Atrophic rhinitisd. Rhinolith

73. Mylasis is a. Maggots seen in noseb. Maggots in the anusc. Inflammatory disease of nosed. Necrotic inflammation with

maggots in ear74. The most important cause unilateral

nasal obstruction is a. Atrophic rhinitisb. Allergic rhinitisc. Nasal polypd. Deviated nasal septum

75. Fossa of Rosenmuller is situated ata. Base of skullb. Behind the opening of

Eustachian tubec. In posterior pharyngeal walld. Behind the opening of parotid

duct76. All of the following are true about

fungal sinusitisa. Steroids spray may be usefulb. Heterogenous echogenicityc. Endoscopic surgery is TOC



d. Tissue invasive is seen77. Opening in Caldwell Luc operation is

made in which of the followinga. Middle meatusb. Inferior meatusc. Canine fossad. Dental sulcus

78. Dacrocystorhinostomy (DCR) is contraindicated in all the following EXCEPT

a. Atrophic rhinitisb. Deviated nasal septumc. Carcinoma lacrimal glandd. Chronic dacrocystitis

79. View for superior orbital fissure is a. Basal viewb. Occipitomental viewc. Towne’s viewd. Basal skull view

80. The most common malignancy of the oropharynx

a. Tonsilb. Soft palatec. Tongue based. Valleculae

81. Killiance dehiscence is seen in a. Oropharynxb. Nasopharynxc. Cricopharynxd. Vocal cords

82. Which of the following statements is true for Ludwig’s angina?

a. It is an ischemic, painful condition of pectoralis minor muscle

b. It is diffuse cellulitis affecting the floor of the mouth

c. Glycerin nitrate, local application is quite helpful

d. None of the above

83. All muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT

a. Myoglossusb. Palatoglossusc. Genioglossusd. Hyoglossus

84. Lower esophageal sphinctera. Has no tonic activityb. Has a tone which is provided by

the sympathetic systemc. Relaxes on increasing

abdominal pressured. Relaxes ahead of the peristaltic

wave85. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to

a. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery

b. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery

c. Compression by aortic archd. Obstruction by foreign body

86. Vocal cord is linked bya. Stratified columnar epitheliumb. Pseudostratified columnar

epitheliumc. Stratified Squamous epitheliumd. Cuboidal epithelium

87. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is closely related to

a. Superior laryngeal arteryb. Superior thyroid arteryc. Inferior thyroid arteryd. Middle thyroid vein

88. Most common cause of stridor after birth is

a. Laryngeal webb. Laryngeal stenosisc. Laryngomalaciad. Vocal cord palsy

89. “Mouse nibbled” appearance of vocal cord is seen in



a. Carcinoma larynxb. Papillomac. Syphilisd. TB

90. “kiss ulcer” of larynx is due to a. Vocal abuseb. Papillomac. Vocal noduled. Tuberculosis

91. Commonest cause of unilateral vocal cord palsy is

a. Idiopathicb. Thyroid surgeryc. Traumad. Epiglottic tumor

92. A 10-year old body developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of diphthera. On examination his right vocal cord was paralysed. The treatment of choice for paralysed vocal cord will be

a. Gel foam injection of right vocal cord

b. Fat injection of right vocal cordc. Thyroplasty –type1d. Wait for spontaneous recovery

of vocal cord93. Sideropenic Dysphagia is seen in

a. Iron deficiency anaemiab. Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemiac. Folic acid deficiency anaemiad. Any of the above

94. The laryngeal mask airways (LAM) used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except

a. In a difficult intubationb. In cardiopulmonary

resuscitationc. In a child undergoing an

elective/ routine eye surgery

d. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral caviry

95. Reinke’s oedema is a. Oedema of the uvulab. Oedema of the free margin of

the vocal cordc. Oedema of the ventricular bandd. Cyst of the ventricle of the

larynx96. Maximum stridor is seen in

a. Unilateral complete paralysis of cord

b. Bilateral incomplete paralysisc. Unilateral complete paralysisd. Bilateral complete paralysis

97. In bilateral abductor palsy of vocal cords, the voice described is

a. Mogiophoniab. Phonastheniac. Goor or normald. Woody voice

98. For androphonia in females, which thyroplastry is useful?

a. Type Ib. Type IIc. type IIId. type IV

99. hoarseness of voice with little or no affection of respiration is the feature of

a. bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

b. unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

c. carcinoma of pyriform fossad. retropharyngeal abscess

100. partial recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy produces vocal cord in which positon?

a. Cadavericb. Adducted (median)c. Abductedd. Paramedian



101. The commonest cause of pathological fracture is generalized affection is

a. Carcinomab. Osteoporosisc. Cystd. All of the above

102. The treatment of choice in pathological fracture is

a. Internal fixationb. Plaster of paris castsc. Skin tractiond. External skeletal fixation

103. What is March fracture?a. Fracture of 2nd metatarsalb. Fracture of 4th metatarsalc. Fracture of cuboidsd. Fracture of cuboids

104. Marker for bone formation is a. Tartrate resistance acid

phosphateb. Osteocalcinc. Urinary calciumd. Serum nucleotidase

105. Non “union is a complication of a. Scaphoid #b. Colle’s #c. Inter – trochanteric # of hipd. Supra condylor # of the

humerus106. Hill sachs lesion in recurrent shoulder

dislocation is a. Injury to humeral headb. Rupture of tendon of

supraspinatus musclec. Avulsion of glenoid labrumd. None of the above

107. Which nerve is damaged in ant dislocation of shoulder

a. Axillaryb. Medianc. Radial

d. Musculocutaneous108. Duga’s test is helpful in

a. Dislocation of hipb. Scaphoid fracturec. Fracture neck of femurd. Anterior dislocation of shoulder

109. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a pt develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured is

a. Radial nerveb. Musculocutaneous nervec. Axillary nerved. Ulnar nerve

110. A 6 year old boy has a history of recurrent dislocation of the right shoulder. On examination, the orthopedician puts the patient in the supine position and abducts his arm to 90 degrees with the bed as the fulcrum and then externely rotates it but the boy does not allow the test to be perfomed. The test done by the opthopedician is

a. Apprehension testb. Sulcus testc. Dugas testd. MC Murray’s test

111. “figure of eight” bandage used commonly in the fracture of

a. Scapulab. Humerusc. Clavicled. Metacarpals

112. All are true regarding clavicular fracture except

a. May be caused by a fall on to the outstretched arm

b. Commonly occurs between the insertions of caraco-clavicular



and the costo Clavicular ligaments

c. May jeopardize blood supply to the overlying skin

d. Usually requires careful reduction

113. In fracture surgical neck of humeus, the following nerve injury is common

a. Axillaryb. Radialc. Ulnard. Median

114. Treatment of choice in 65 year of old female with impacted # neck of humerus is

a. Triangular slingb. Arm chest strappingc. Arthroplastyd. Observation

115. Hanging cast is used in a. # femurb. # Radiusc. # Tibiad. # humerus

116. The best radiological view for fracture Scaphoid

a. APb. PAc. Laterald. Oblique

117. Avascular necrosis of bone is most common in

a. Scapulab. Scaphoidc. Calcaneusd. Cervical spine

118. Carpal bone which fracture commonlya. Scaphoidb. Lunatec. Hammated. Pisciform

119. In classical Scaphoid cast position of wrist is

a. Dorsal & ulnar flexionb. Dorsal & radial flexionc. Ventral & ulnar flexiond. Ventral & radial flexion

120. Which carpal bone fracture causes median nerve involvement?

a. Scaphoidb. Lunatec. Trapeziumd. Trapezoid

121. Commonest dislocation of the hip is a. Posteriorb. Anteriorc. Centrald. None

122. Traumatic dislocation of hip is characterized by

a. Adduction internal rotation deformity

b. Abduction external rotation deformity

c. Adduction external rotation deformity

d. Abduction internal rotation deformity

123. Vascular sign of Narath is noticed is a. Fracture neck of femurb. Perthes diseasec. Posterior dislocation of hipd. All of the above

124. Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury over his right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the Right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affected lower limb will be

a. External rotation, extendion & abduction

b. Internal rotation, flexion & adduction



c. Internal rotation, extension & abduction

d. External rotation, flexion & abduction

125. In anterior dislocation of hip, the positive of lower limb will be

a. Abduction, externally rotated and extension

b. Abduction, externally rotated and flexion

c. Abducted externally rotated and flexion

d. Adducted, internally rotated and flexion

126. In per rectal examination, femora head is palpable in

a. Anterior dislocation of hipb. Posterior dislocation of hipc. Central dislocation of hipd. Lateral dislocation of hip

127. ‘Whip-lash’ injury is caused due to a. A fall from a heightb. Acute hyperextension of the

spinec. A blow on top to headd. Acute hyper flexion of the spine

128. Jefferson’s # is a. C1b. C2c. C2 C1d. C2 C3

129. True regarding Hangman’s fracture is a. Odotoid process fracture of C2b. Spondylolisthesis of C2 over C3c. Whiplash injuryd. Fracture of hyoid bone

130. The compression fracture is commonest in

a. Cervical spineb. Upper thoracic spinec. Lower thoracic spine

d. Lumbosacral region131. A paralysed bladder following spinal

injury is best manged bya. Gibbon’s catheterb. Malicot catheterc. Foley’s catheterd. Metallic catheter

132. “Tinel ‘s sign “ indicatesa. Neurofibromab. Injury to peripheral nervesc. Atrophy of nervesd. Regeneration of nerves

133. In seddon’s classification, complete division of nerve is

a. Neuropraxiab. Axonotmesisc. Neurotmesisd. None of the above

134. Most common cause of neurological deficit in upper limb is

a. Poliob. Erb’s palsyc. C1-C2 dislocationd. Fracture dislocation of cervical

spine135. All of the following are features of

musculocutaneous nerve injury at axilla except

a. Loss of flexion of shoulderb. Loss of flexion of elbowc. Loss of supination of forearmd. Loss of sensation on radial side

of forearm136. The following is the commonest cause

of loose body in jointa. Osteoarthritisb. Osteochondral fracturec. Synovial chondromatosisd. Osteochondritis dissecans

137. Disease where distal interphalangeal joint is characteri-stically involved



a. Psoriatic arthritisb. Rheumatoidc. SLEd. Gout

138. Biamboo spine is seen in a. Tuberculosisb. Rheumatoid arthritisc. Ochronosisd. Ankylosing spondylosis

139. MC joint involved in Gouta. Kneeb. Hipc. MP joint of the big toed. MP joint of thumb

140. Earliest radiological sign of spinal tuberculosis is

a. Wedging of vertebrab. Syndesmophyte formationc. Formation of paravertebral

abscessd. Decreased joint space

141. X-ray showing decreased intervertebral space and presence of para vertebral shadow. What could be the diagnosis?

a. Tuberculosis of spineb. Ankylosing spondylitisc. Eosinophilic granulomad. Multiple myeloma

142. The ideal surgical treatment for pott’s paraplegia is

a. Laminectomy and decompression

b. Anterior decompression and bone grafting

c. Anterolateral decompressiond. Costotransversectomy

143. Short long bones of hand and foot are commonly infected by the following organism

a. Pyogenic

b. Tuberculosisc. Fungald. All of the above

144. All are feature of joint tuberculosis except

a. Synovium is involvedb. Synovial fluid has < 20% blood

sugarc. Kissing arthritis –subchondral

bone is involvedd. Pain is a common feature

145. Simple bone cyst is seen most commonly in

a. Tibiab. Radiusc. Femurd. Humerus

146. Soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, the treatment of choice is

a. Local excisionb. Excision and bone graftingc. Amputationd. Radiotherapy

147. Most common site of origin of adamantinoma is

a. Mandible near molar toothb. Middle alveolar marginsc. Hard palated. Mandible near symphisis menti

148. Most common benign tumor of the bone is

a. Giant cell tumorb. Simple bone cystc. Osteochondromad. Enchondroma

149. A 60 yrs old male has bone pain, vertebral collapse, fracuture pelvis, the probable diagnosis is

a. Multiple myelomab. Secondariesc. TB



d. Hemangioma of bone150. Metastases least common in

a. Skullb. Pelvisc. Proximal part of long bones of

the upper limbd. Small bones of the hand



Answer

1. C2. A3. C4. D5. B6. C7. C8. A9. A10. A11. D12. B13. A14. C15. C16. C17. C18. B19. D20. C21. D22. A23. C24. C25. B26. B27. B28. A29. A30. C31. C32. D33. C34. D35. D36. C37. C38. C39. C40. C41. D42. D43. B

46. D47. D48. B49. D50. B51. B52. B53. B54. A55. D56. D57. A58. B59. A60. B61. B62. A63. C64. A65. B66. A67. C68. C69. C70. A71. C72. C73. A74. D75. B76. A77. C78. D79. D80. A81. C82. B83. B84. D85. A86. A87. C88. C

91. A92. C93. A94. C95. B96. B97. C98. C99. B100. B101. B102. A103. A104. B105. A106. A107. A108. D109. B110. A111. C112. D113. A114. A115. D116. D117. B118. A119. B120. B121. A122. A123. C124. B125. B126. C127. B128. A129. B130. C131. C132. D133. C

136. D137. A138. D139. C140. D141. A142. B143. B144. B145. D146. B147. A148. C149. A150. D

44. D45. D

89. D90. A

134. B135. A


ENT & Ortho for Anglofibroma of Nasopharynx, The Most Appropriate

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Transcript of ENT & Ortho for Anglofibroma of Nasopharynx, The Most Appropriate