Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

1/26

BRILLIA N TS

M O C K A LL-IN DIA TESTS (B.M A T)

N A TIO N A L SIT-D O W N

PRO G RESSIV E EV A LUA TIO N TEST 1FOR STUDENTS OF

OUR TWO-YEAR ELITE POSTAL COURSE

TOWARDS

IIT-JO INT EN TRA N C E EXA M INA TIO N , 2011

QUESTION PAPER CODE

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS:

Name: . Enrollment No.:

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. EELP/I PET/CMP/P(II)- 1

1

A. General

1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 57 questions. The booklet has 26 pages.

2. This question paper CODE is pr in ted on t he r igh t h an d t op cor ner of t his s heet a nd on t he ba ck pa ge

(pa ge no. 26) of t his booklet.

3. Th is q ues t ion pa p er con t a in s 6 b la n k pa g es f or y ou r r ou gh w or k. N o a d di t ion a l s heet s w i ll b e pr ovi dedfor rough work.

4. B la n k pa per s, clipb oa r ds , log t a bles , s lid e r ules , ca l cu la t or s, cellula r ph on es , pa g er s, a n d elect r on icgadgets in a ny form are not a llow ed to be car ried inside the examina tion hall.

5. F ill in t he boxes pr ovid ed below on t his pa ge a nd a ls o w r it e your Name a nd Enrollment No. in t hespa ce provided on the ba ck page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

6. The answ er sheet, a ma chine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided sepa ra tely.

7. DO NOT TAMPE R WITH /MU TILATE THE ORS OR THE B OOK LE T.

8. Do not break t he seals of the question-paper booklet before being inst ructed to do so by t he invigilators.

B. Filling the ORS

9. On t he low er pa rt of t he ORS , w rit e in ink, your na me in box L1, your E nr ollment No. in box L2 a ndNam e of the Centr e in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.

10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts.11. Ma ke sur e t he C OD E on t he ORS is t he sa me a s t ha t on t his booklet a nd put your signa tur e in ink in

box L4 on the ORS affirm ing tha t you have verified this.

12. IF THE CODE S D O NOT MATCH , ASK FOR A CHANG E OF THE BOOK LET.

C. Question paper format: Read the inst ructions printed on t he ba ck page (pa ge no. 26) of t his booklet.

D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

SEAL

S

EAL

DON

OTBREAKTHESEALSON

THISBOOKLET,

AWAITINSTRUCTIONSFROMT

HEINVIG

ILATOR

CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PHYSICSPAPER II

I have read all the instructionsand shall abide by them.

...............................................

Signature of the Candidate

I have verified all the informationsfilled in by the Candidate.

...............................................

Signature of the Invigilator

ELITE 2011

I PET/ C M P/ P( II) / Q NS

02 .08 .2009

7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

2/26

2

PART A : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),

(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLYONE is correct.

1.An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 mL. Thevolume of 0.1 N NaOH required to neutralize 10 mL of this solution is

(A) 40 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 10 mL (D) 4.0 mL

2. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is thetemperature of the gas then

(A)TH

2

= TN

2

(B)TH

2

< TN

2

(C)TH

2

> TN

2

(D)TH

2

= 7 TN

2

3. Given that the mass of an electron is 9.1 1031

kg and the velocity of electron is

2.2 106

ms1

. If the uncertainty in its velocity is 0.1%, the uncertainty in the

position would be

(A) 26 nm (B) 32 nm (C) 48 nm (D) 50 nm

4.A pair of compounds which have odd electrons in the group NO, CO, ClO2, SO

2

and O3

are

(A) NO, ClO2 (B) CO, SO

2 (C) ClO

2, CO (D) SO

2, O

3


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

3/26

3

SECTION II

Multiple Correct Choice Type


(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

5.A bond formed between two like atoms can be

(A) ionic (B) covalent (C) coordinate (D) metallic

6. Which of the following set of species have bond order more than 2.0:

O2

, NO, CO, O

2

2, O

2

(A) all (B)O2

, NO, CO

(C) O2

, O

2, O

2

2(D) O

2

, NO

7. Which of the following statements are true?

(A) The mean free path () of gas molecules is given by1

22N

.

(B) The relationship between average velocityv and root mean square velocity u

isv = 0.9213u.

(C) The root mean square velocity of the gas can be calculated by the formula

3RT

M

12

.

(D) Joule Thomson coefficient for a gas is zero at its critical temperature.



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

4/26

4

8. For which of the following set of species Bohrs theory is applicable.

Be3+

, H+, Li

2+, He

2+, H, H

2

.

(A) Be3+

, Li2+

(B) H, H2

(C) H+, H, He

2+ (D) Be

3+, H, H

+

9. In a chemical reaction:

K2Cr

2O

7+ x H

2SO

4+ y SO

2 K

2SO

4+ z Cr

2(SO

4)3

+ H2O

The incorrect values of x, y and z are

(A) 4, 1, 4 (B) 1, 3, 1 (C) 3, 2, 3 (D) 2, 1, 2

SECTION III

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C

and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given

statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE

statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles correspondingto the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated

in the following example:

If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and

D s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the

following.

10. Column I Column II

(A) C2 (p) No antibonding orbital

(B) N2

(q) Highest bond dissociation energy



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

5/26

5

(C) N2 (r) Bond order 1

2

(D) H2

(s) Diamagnetic

(t) Paramagnetic


(A) Boyles law (p)

(B) Charles law (q) log P = log V + Constant

(C) Helium gas (r) log V= log T + Constant

(D) Hydrogen gas (s) PV = RT + Pb

(t) Heating effect on Joule Thomsonexperiment

SECTION IV

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the

questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The

appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in

the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct

answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9

and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will

look like the following:



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

6/26

6

12.A gas at T1

is heated in such a way that its pressure and volume both become

two times. The absolute temperature (T2) of the gas becomes __________ times

that of T1.

13. The frequency of the spectral line emitted when the electron is n = 3 in H atom

deexites to ground state is given as x 1015

sec1

as x approximately is _______ .

14. The maximum number of water molecules that one water molecule can hold

through hydrogen bonding is __________ .

15. The number of molecules which are linear among the following:

C2H

2, NO

3

, BF

3, BeH

2, HgCl

2is ________ .

16.At 200 K, the root mean square (rms) velocity of a gas A (Molecular weight = 40)

is equal to the most probable velocity of gas B at 30 K. The molecular weight of B

is ______ .

17. The number of half-filled orbitals in Fe3+

ion (Fe = 26) is ________ .

18.A neutral atom of an element has K2L

8M

11and N

2electrons. The total number of

s electrons in the atom is ________ .

19. The molecule SF6

has an octahedral shape. The total number of different orbitals

involved in the hybridisation is _________ .



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

7/26

7

PART B : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Single Correct Choice Type



20. If a, b, c, d > 0, k 0 anda bk

a bk=

b ck

b ck=

c dk

c dk, then a, b, c, d are in

(A) A.P (B) G.P (C) H.P (D) None of these

21. If a1, a

2, ..., a

nare in G.P with common ratio r, then

a1a

2

a1

2 a

2

2

a2a

3

a2

2 a

3

2 ...

an 1

an

an 1

2 a

n

2is

(A)n 1 r

1 r(B)

nr

1 r(C)

n1 r

1 r2

(D)nr

1 r2

22. If A = sin1

sin4

3, B = cos

1cos

5

3, then

(A) A = 2B (B) B = 2A (C) A > B (D) A = B

23.A point P is inside an equilateral triangle. If the distances of P from the sides are4, 5, 6 units, then the length of the side of the triangle is

(A) 5 (B)5 3 (C)10 3 (D)15 3



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

8/26

8

SECTION II




24. The series of natural numbers is divided into groups as 1; 2, 3, 4; 5, 6, 7, 8, 9;10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16; ... . Then the sum of the numbers in the nth group is

(A) n3 3n

2+ 3n + 1 (B) n

3+ (n 1)

3

(C) (2n 1) (n2 n + 1) (D) (2n 1) n

2

25. If 3 sin = sin (2 + ), then

(A) sin = cos ( + ) sin (B) tan ( + ) = 2 tan

(C) 2 sin = sin ( + ) cos (D) None of these

26. If tan1

x, tan1

y, tan1

z are in A.P. and x, y, z are in A.P. (y 1, 1, 0), then

(A) (x y)2

+ (y z)2

+ (z x)2

= 0

(B) x = 2y = z

(C) x = y = z

(D) x = y = 2z

27. In a ABC, cos A cos B + sin A sin B sin C = 1, then the triangle is

(A) obtuse-angled (B) right-angled

(C) isosceles (D) equilateral



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

9/26

9

28. If sin1

x + sin1

y =2

3, cos

1x cos

1y =

3, then

(A) x =

1

2 (B) y =

1

2 (C) x = 1 (D) y = 1

SECTION III

Matrix-Match Type




statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE

statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding

to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustratedin the following example:

If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q;

and D s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like

the following.

29. The value of x when

Column I Column II

(A) sin1

x + cot1

1

2=

2is (p)

1

3

(B) 2 cos1

x + sin1

x = cos1 2 6

5is (q)

1

6

(C) 3 sin1 2x

1x2 4 cos

1 1x2

1 x2 2 tan

1 2x

1 x2

=

3is (r)

1

5



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

10/26

10

(D) tan1

2x + tan1

3x =

4is (s)

1

5

(t)1

3

30. The solutions of the trigonometric equations

Column I Column II

(A) 4 cot 2 = cot2 tan

2 (p) n +

4, n I

(B) sin4

x + cos4

x = sin x cos x (q) n

4, n I

(C) The common root of the equations (r) n, n I2 sin

2x + sin

22x = 2; sin 2x + cos 2x = tan x

(D) tan2

x sec10

x + 1 = 0 (s) (2n + 1)

4, n I

(t) (n + 1)

4, n I

SECTION IV

Integer Answer TypeThis section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the









7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

11/26

11

31. In a ABC, r1

= 1, r2

= 2 and C =

2, then area ofABC is ________ .

32. The value of tan 20 + 2 tan 50 tan 70 is ______

33. If the area of a ABC is 2 square units, then b2

sin 2C + c2

sin 2B is equal to

______ .

34. The sum of the first 10 terms of a G.P is equal to 244 times the sum of its first

five terms. Then the common ratio is ____________ .

35. For an A.P, S2n

= 3Sn. Then the value of

S3n

Sn

is ______ .

36. If the positive numbers a, x, y, z, b are such that when they are in A.P

x + y + z = 15 and when their reciprocals are in A.P 1

x

1

y

1

z=

5

3, then ab equals

___________ .

37. In a ABC, a = 5, b = 4 and cos (A B) =31

32, then the side c is _________ .

38. In a ACB, if 3b = c + a, cotC

2cot

A

2equals _______ .



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

12/26

12

PART C : PHYSICS

SECTION I

Single Correct Choice TypeThis section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),


39. Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length?

(A)A vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale.

(B)An optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength oflight.

(C)A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale.

(D)A spherometer of pitch 1 mm and 250 divisions on the head scale.

40.A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along the x-axis with a speed of 5.00 m/s.

The magnitude of its momentum is recorded as

(A) 17.56 kg m/s (B) 17.57 kg m/s

(C) 17.6 kg m/s (D) 17.565 kg m/s

41. The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 30 divisions which coincide against

29 main scale divisions. Each main scale division is1

2

. The least count of the

instrument is

(A) 30 (B) 10 (C) 1 (D) 0.1

42. The mass of a box is 2.3 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are

added to the box. The total mass of the box correct to relevant significant figuresis

(A) 2.3 kg (B) 2.34 kg (C) 2.3432 kg (D) 2.31 kg



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

13/26

13

SECTION II




43. Consider a rubber ball freely falling from a height h onto a horizontal elastic

plate. Assume that the duration of collision is negligible and the collision with

the plate is totally elastic. Then which of the following graphs best describe the

velocity as a function of time and the height as a function of time?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

44.A body A is at rest at x = 0. At t = 0, it starts moving in the positive x-direction

with constant acceleration 1 m/s2. At the same instant another body B passes

through x = 0 moving in the positive x-direction with a constant speed v = 2 m/s.



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

14/26

14

The position of the first body is given by x1

(t) after time t and that of the second

body by x2

(t) after the same time interval. Then

(A) The relative displacement (x1 x2) is zero at t = 4 s.

(B) The relative displacement attains the minimum value at t = 4 s.

(C) The relative velocity (v1 v

2) is zero at t = 2 s.

(D) The body B overtakes the body A at t = 4 s.

45. For a particle projected at an angle with the ground, which of the following

statements are correct?

(A) The angle of projection at which the range and the maximum height attained

by a projectile are equal is tan1 4.

(B) The motion of a projectile as observed from another projectile is a straightline.

(C) The projectile motion is a free motion and a projectile is a freely falling body.

(D) Radius of curvature of the projectile at the highest position is equal to itsmaximum height.

46.A particle is projected on an inclined plane which is

inclined at an angle to the horizontal with a constantspeed at an elevation , then

(A) its acceleration is always directed vertically down.

(B) if the direction of velocity is changed, the force acting on it does not change inmagnitude and direction.

(C) if the direction of velocity is changed, the force acting on it does not change inmagnitude but changes its direction.

(D) the linear momentum continuously changes.



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

15/26

15

47.A painter is applying force himself and the crate moves upward

with an acceleration of 5 m/s2

by a massless rope and pulleyarrangement. Mass of painter is 100 kg and that of crate is 50 kg. If

g = 10 m/s2, then

(A) tension in the rope is 1125 N.

(B) tension in the rope is 2250 N

(C) force of contact between the painter and the floor is 375 N.

(D) force of contact between the painter and the floor is 750 N.

SECTION III

Matrix-Match Type




statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR

MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles

corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be

darkened as illustrated in the following example:

If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q;

and D s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.

48. Column I gives a list of possible set of parameters measured in someexperiments. The variations of the parameters in the form of graphs are shown in

Column II. Match the set of parameters given in Column I with the graphsgiven in Column II.



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

16/26

16

Column I Column II

(A) Range of a projectile (y-axis) as a function of

its velocity (x-axis) when projected at a fixed

angle

(p)

(B) Displacement (y-axis) as a function of time

(x-axis) for one dimensional motion at zero or

constant acceleration when the body is movingalong the positive x-direction

(q)

(C) Speed (y-axis) as a function of time (x-axis)

of the ball during its flight when it is thrown

vertically upwards (constant air resistance isassumed)

(r)

(D) Velocity (y-axis) with displacement (x

-axis) of

a body starting from rest along a straight linewith zero or constant acceleration

(s)

(t)


(A) A body is in translatory equilibrium if (p) it may be at rest(B) If the velocity of a body is always (q) resultant force on it

perpendicular to its acceleration may be zero

(C) If the magnitude of the velocity of a (r) it may be in uniform linearparticle is constant and equal to its speed motion

(D) If a particle has zero displacement (s) it may be in circularmotion

(t) it may be thrown verticallyupward



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

17/26

17

SECTION IV

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the







50.At certain moment of time, velocities of block A and block B both are 1 m/s

upwards, find the magnitude of velocity of block C at that moment in m/s.

51.An elevator starts from rest at the ground floor of a building. It can accelerate at

1.5 m/s2

and then decelerate at 0.5 m/s2. Find the shortest time in s, it takes to

reach a floor 12 m above the ground.



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

18/26

18

52.An aeroplane lands on the straight runway, originally at 48 m/s when s = 0. If it

is subjected to the decelerations shown, the time needed to stop the plane is given

as t = 10x s. Find x.

53.A ball falls for 6 s under gravity. It passes through a cardboard which is 58.8 m

above the ground. After passing through the cardboard its velocity is reduced to

one third. Find the time taken to reach the ground.

54. Figure shows a block of m1

= 2.5 kg sliding on a

block of m2

= 0.5 kg which is placed on a smooth

inclined plane of inclination = 30. Find

tension in the string in newton.

55. Maximum range R1

down the inclined plane of

inclination 30 for a projectile is times the

maximum range R2

up the same inclined plane

for a given velocity of projection. Find .



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

19/26

19

56. Two blocks of mass m = 15 kg and M = 10 kg are connected by a string passing

over a pulley B as shown. Another string connects the centre of the pulley B to

mass C = 30 kg and passes over another pulley A as shown. All masses are placed

on the ground. If a upward force F = 500 N is applied at the centre of pulley A,

(Both the pulleys are massless) the initial acceleration of mass M in m/s2

is

57.A passenger is walking on an escalator at a speed of 5 km/hr relative to escalator.

The escalator is moving at 4 km/hr relative to ground and a total length of 300 m.

How long does it take him to reach the escalator? (Express in minute)



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

20/26

20



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

21/26

21



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

22/26

22



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

23/26

23



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

24/26

24



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

25/26

25



7/28/2019 Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

26/26

Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

B illi t T t i l P t Ltd EELP/I PET/CMP/P(II) 26

C. Question paper format:

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Mathematics and Part C: Physics).Each part has 4 sections.

14. Section I contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its

answer, out of which only one is correct.

15. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its

answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

16. Section III contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column Iand five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct

matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question,statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, againststatement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

17. Section IV contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer,

ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per theinstructions given at the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding

to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,

minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s)

corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In allother cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you havedarkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries amaximum of8 marks. There is no negative markingfor incorrect answer(s) for this section.

21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble correspondingto the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)

mark will be awarded.

Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2

Documents

Transcript of Elite2011 Pet1 Qns p2