ECONOMICS - · PDF file4. The questionnaire should comprise of at least 15 relevant questions....

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Dear Parent, The school shall remain closed from 23 rd May to 03 rd July 2016. Summer vacations are one of the occasions when you can connect with your child in many ways. As you are your child’s first and most important teacher, you can encourage your child’s love of learning by participating in fun filled educational activities at home or even while travelling!! Working together on activities and spending quality time with your child always helps your child to build confidence, to learn to reason and develop skills necessary for him/her education. Kindly spend some quality time with your child and inculcate your family values in him/her. Also get your child’s medical check-up done during these vacations. Guidelines All Projects to be hand written unless specified All the questions/ assignments to be done on separate A4 registers( 1 for each subject) and printouts of the same to be pasted. All project work to be done neatly as they shall be evaluated and marks for practical work will be assigned on the basis of these projects. Practical files should have neat, labelled diagrams, wherever required. Practical files should be properly covered. ECONOMICS GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:- 1. The project has to be done in a project file. 2. The information has to be collected through field investigations i.e. visit to the nearby market, neighbors, friends and relatives. 3. The project should have an objective, collection of data through questionnaires, organization in form of distributions and tables.

Transcript of ECONOMICS - · PDF file4. The questionnaire should comprise of at least 15 relevant questions....

Dear Parent, The school shall remain closed from 23rd May to 03rd July 2016. Summer vacations are one of the occasions when you can connect with your child in many ways. As you are your child’s first and most important teacher, you can encourage your child’s love of learning by participating in fun filled educational activities at home or even while travelling!! Working together on activities and spending quality time with your child always helps your child to build confidence, to learn to reason and develop skills necessary for him/her education. Kindly spend some quality time with your child and inculcate your family values in him/her. Also get your child’s medical check-up done during these vacations. Guidelines

All Projects to be hand written unless specified

All the questions/ assignments to be done on separate A4 registers( 1 for each subject) and printouts of the same to be pasted.

All project work to be done neatly as they shall be evaluated and marks for practical work will be assigned on the basis of these projects.

Practical files should have neat, labelled diagrams, wherever required.

Practical files should be properly covered.

ECONOMICS

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:-

1. The project has to be done in a project file.

2. The information has to be collected through field investigations i.e. visit to the

nearby

market, neighbors, friends and relatives.

3. The project should have an objective, collection of data through

questionnaires,

organization in form of distributions and tables.

4. The questionnaire should comprise of at least 15 relevant questions. The

number of

respondents should be at least 15.

5. Depict them through diagrams and graphs.

6. Interpreting the results and giving conclusions.

7. Date of submission:- 5 July 2016

8. Ensure it is a hand written project.

PART – A

1. Prepare a Questionnaire on any product of your choice. Discuss about characteristics, utility and usage of the product. Also mention the awareness about the product and consumer forums, courts etc. Prepare at least 15 questions. These questions will be further used for collection and analysis of data. Get these questionnaire filled by at least 15 persons. Q2. Make a pocket dictionary of at least 50 Economic words or terms along with their meanings in a creative form. (Use coloured sheets).

PART – B

Make a Project on any two topics :

Following essentials are required to be fulfilled for its preparation and

submission.

a) The total length of the project report will be 15 – 20 pages.

b) The project report will be hand written and credit will be awarded to original

drawings, illustrations and creative use of materials.

c) The project report will be presented in a neatly bound simple folder.

d) The project report will be developed in this sequence :

Cover page showing project title, student information, school and year

List of contents

Acknowledgements and preface (acknowledging the institution, offices and

libraries visited and persons who have helped) Introduction Chapters with suitable headings. Planning and activities to be done during the project, if any. Conclusions (summary and suggestions or findings, future scope of study)

Bibliography List of suggested Projects for class XI (Do any two ) : Make a project which may have primary & secondary data or both, Case studies of few organizations may also be encouraged.

1) A report on demographic structure of your neighborhood.

2) Changing consumer awareness amongst households.

3) Study of a Cooperative Institution : milk cooperatives, marketing cooperatives

etc.

4) Case studies on public private partnership, outsourcing and outward FDI.

5) Global warming.

6) Designing eco-friendly projects applicable in school such as paper and water

recycle.

7) Changing prices of a few vegetables in market (mother diary and local

market).

8) The demand of consumer durables comparing various brands available.

9) Consumer’s preference of newspapers.

BUSINESS STUDIES

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:-

1. Holidays Homework is required to be done in the Separate Project file. 2. Paste the leaflets ,pictures and cuttings in your Project File. 3. Both Part - A and Part – B are compulsory. 4. Date of submission :- 5 July 2016

Part- A

1. Visit a departmental store and pick up five products manufactured by multinational corporations. Prepare a brief profile of the concerned multinational corporations.

2. Approach a nearby bank and collect information about various

facilities offered by them and also collect leaflets about salient

features of different schemes. Compile and suggest what

extra services you feel the bank should be providing.

Part- B

Make a Project on two topics:-

Following essentials are required to be fulfilled for its preparation and submission.

1. The total length of the project report will be 15 – 20 pages.

2. The project report will be hand written and credit will be awarded to original drawings, illustrations and creative use of materials.

3. The project report will be presented in a neatly bound simple folder.

4. The project report will be developed in this sequence.

Cover page showing project title, student information, school and year

List of contents

Acknowledgements and preface (acknowledging the institution, offices and libraries visited and persons who have helped)

Introduction

Chapters with suitable headings.

Planning and activities to be done during the project, if any.

Conclusions (summary and suggestions or findings, future scope of study)

Bibliography List of suggested Projects for class XI (Do any Two )

1. Types of Retailer in India

2. E-Banking Services of Banks

3. Stock Exchange Market

4. Modes of Communication

5. E-Commerce

6. LIC and Different types of Insurance

7. Import /Export Procedure

8. Aids to trade

9. Forms of business organizations

10 Private and Public sector enterprises

English 1. Research on the Egyptians civilizations –with particular reference to Tut’s Mummy and its

discovery. Stick pictures.

2. Research on Khushwant singh’s life and works. Find out about the role of Khushwant singh’s

father in building Delhi.

3. Research on sailing terminology and parts of a boat and gather information about Isle

Amsterdam.

4. Design a poster as an appeal for conserving water as most parts of India are facing serious

problems and have been hit by drought.

5. Read the The Canterville Ghost by Oscar Wild as prescribed by CBSE and highlight any one of

the characters that fascinates you the most

6. Cut out 5 clippings of Classified Ads under the heads – For sale To-let Situation vacant

For matrimonial Pets / kennels

NOTE : The Holiday Homework should be done in Literature Classwork register.

7. Read at least two works of fiction of your choice and write your rewiew on that?

You are hereby instructed to do all your work in A4 sheets and make separate folder for each of

your activities.

Physical Education

Complete the practical/project file with the following games on it with

diagrams and dimensions.

- badminton

-basket ball

-cricket

-table tennis

-volleyball

-boxing

-kabaddi

-kho- kho

Accountancy

General Instructions:

i. The questions given in the assignment should be answered in a separate

notebook.

ii. Very short answer type questions carrying ONE mark each should be answered

in one sentence.

iii. Short answer type questions carrying THREE or FOUR marks each should be

answered in not more than 70 words.

iv. Long answer type questions carrying SIX marks each should be answered in not

more than 100 words.

v. Answers should be brief and to the point and the word limits mentioned above

should be adhered to as far as possible.

Very short questions

Q1 Which system of accounting is widely used Q2 Name the external user of accounting information from whom the firm purchases goods on credit. Q3 Out of the following assets which is not an intangible asset? Patents (b) Investments (c) Goodwill (d) Trademark Q4 At the end of the financial year, during which sale of goods was worth Rs. 2,00,000, the closing stock is valued at Rs. 10,000. This is (a) An event (b) A transaction (c) Both an event as well as transaction (d) None of (a) and (b) Q5 Godrej Ltd. Imported from Germany one machinery for sale in India and another machinery for production purpose. Will you treat them goods or fixed assets? Q6 Money spent on heavy advertising, whose benefit is to continue for three years to come is a Revenue expenditure (b) Capital expenditure (c) Deferred revenue expenditure (d) None of these Q7 Purchase refers to the buying of Stationary for office use (b) Assets for the factory (c) Goods for resale (d) Investment Q8 A person to whom a money is owed by the business is termed as (a) Creditor (b) Debtor (c) Investor (d) None of these Q9 Cash discount is:

Which is received at the time of making the payment

Which is received at the time of sale of goods

Which is received at the time of purchase of goods

Which is received both at the time of making the payment and purchase of goods

Q10 During the company purchased ball point pens of Rs. 500. These were issued to employees and were still in use at the end of the year. Which accounting concept you would follow in dealing with this item? Q11 According to money measurement concept , which of the following will not be recorded in the books of accounts- Profit on sale asset (b) Quality of the staff (d) Salary paid to Manager (d) Goods sold to Amit Q12 During the financial year 2014-15, Shyam earned a total revenue of Rs. 4,70,000 by selling the goods. Out of the total sales, there were credit sales of Rs. 1,30,000. The total expenses for the year were Rs. 2,50,000, out of which Rs. 30,000 are still outstanding. Find out Shyam’s income for 2014-15 as per: Cash basis of Accounting Accrual basis of Accounting Q13 What are drawings? Q14 Difference between revenue expenditure and capital expenditure. Q16 Choose the best alternate Mohan is a furniture dealer. Which one of the following will not be recorded in his books? (a) Purchase of timber for Rs.10,000 (b) Sofa set worh Rs. 20000 taken to his home (c) Sale of household furniture for Rs. 2,000.

(d) Dining table of Rs. 15,000 given to his friend as gift.

Q17 What is the Accounting Period concept? Q18 Rent paid to Landlord is debited to (A) Landlord ‘s Account (B) Rent Account (C) Cash Account (D) House Account Q19 Which of the following transactions is of financial character and will be recorded in the business?

Goods taken from the business by the proprietor for her personal use

Interviewing the candidates for employment

Sale of household furniture Rs. 5,000

Received an order for sale of goods Q20 Which of the following will be treated as drawings:

(a) Withdrawing money for the payment of salary to employees (b) Withdrawing money for the payment to creditors (c) Withdrawing money from business for private expenses

(d) Withdrawing money for the purchase of asset. Q21 Interest received on loan is shown: 1

(A) On the credit side of trading A/C (B) On the Credit side of Profit & Loss A/c (C) On the Liability side of Balance Sheet (D) None of the above

Long Questions Q22 show the following accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions Rs. (i) Ajay started business with cash 10,000 (ii) Purchased goods for cash 2,000 (iii) Purchased goods on credit 1,000 (iv) Furniture Purchased 2,000 (v) Goods sold on credit (cost price Rs. 2,500) 3,000 (vi) Wages paid 500 (vii) Withdrew cash for private use 1,000 Q23 Use Accounting equation to show the effect of the following transactions on assets, liabilities and capital and show that in Balance Sheet Ram started business with cash of Rs. 1,80,000, Goods Rs. 50,000, Debtors Rs. 10,000, Furniture Rs. 10,000 and Creditors Rs. 20,000. Goods costing Rs. 6,000 sold to Amit at loss of 10% out of which Rs. 2,000 received in cash. Cash deposited into bank Rs. 5,000 Received cheque from Amit Rs. 3,200 in full settlement of Rs. 3400. Cheque deposited on the same date. Insurance paid in advance Rs. 1,000 Paid to creditors Rs. 18,000 by cheque in full settlement of Rs. 20,000. Depreciate furniture @ 10% Unearned interest Rs. 2,000 Q.24 Show the effect of the following business transactions on assets, liabilities and capital through accounting equations: 1. Commenced business with cash 20,000 2. Goods purchased on credit 7,000 3. Furniture purchased 3,000 4. paid to creditors 2,000 5. Amount withdrawn by the proprietor 4,000 6. Creditors accepted a bill for payment 1,500 7. interest on capital 1,000 8. Transfer from capital to loan 5,000 9. Allotted shares to creditors 1,000 Q25 Prepare Accounting equation on the basis of following information:

(1) Sohan started business with cash =80,000 Machinery =10,000 And stock =10,000 (2) Interest on the above capital was allowed @ 10% (3) Money withdrew from the business for his personal use 10,000/- (4) Interest on drawings 500/- (5) Depreciation charged on machinery 2,000/- Q26 Show the Accounting equation on the basis of the following transactions and prepare a balance sheet on the basis of the last new equation:- 4

1. Mukesh started business with cash 80,000 2. Purchased goods for cash 28,000 3. Purchased goods on credit 20,000 4. Purchased furniture for cash 6,000 5. Paid rent 2,000 6. Received commission 500 7. Withdrew cash for private use 3,000 8. Sold goods on credit(cost price Rs.30,000) 40,000 9. Paid to creditors 15,000

Q27 How the assets liabilities and capital will be affected under following cases:

(1) Purchase of building for cash (2) Purchase of furniture on credit (3) Receipt of commission (4) Payment to creditors. Q28. Prepare accounting equation

(1) Mohan commenced business with 70000 (2) Purchased goods on credit 14000 (3) Withdrew for private use 1700 (4) Purchase goods for cash 10000 (5) Paid wages 300 (6) Paid to creditors 10000 (7) Sold goods on credit 15000 (8) Sold goods(costing 3000) 4000 (9) Purchase furniture 500

Q29 . Differentiate between bookkeeping and accountancy. Q30. Explain various terms in detail

(1) Business transaction (2) Account (3) Assets (4) Capital receipts and revenue receipts (5) Deferred revenue expenditure (6) Stock (7) Expense

Q31. Explain any five principles of accountancy in detail. Q32. Who are the various users of accounting information?

Q33 Is “Accounting is an integral part of every business organization.” justify your answer Q34 Give any three points of difference between cash basis and accrual basis of accounting.

BIOLOGY CHAPTER-8: Cell: The Unit of Life

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is the significance of vacuole in a plant cell?

2. What does ‘S’ refer in a 70S & an 80S ribosome?

3. Mention a single membrane bound organelle which is rich in hydrolytic enzymes.

4. What are gas vacuoles? State their functions?

5. What is the function of a polysome?

6. What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?

7. What is refered to as satellite chromosome?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Discuss briefly the role of nucleolus in the cells actively involved in protein synthesis.

2. Explain the association of carbohydrate to the plasma membrane and its significance.

3. Comment on the cartwheel structure of centriole.

4. Briefly describe the cell theory.

5. Differentiate between Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER).

6. Give the biochemical composition of plasma membrane. How are lipid molecules arranged in the membrane?

7. What are plasmids? Describe their role in bacteria?

8. What are histones? What are their functions?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?

2. Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory

a. Robert Virchow

b. Schielden and Schwann

3. Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of

organisms.

4. Structure and function are correlatable in living organisms. Can you justify this by taking plasma membrane as an

example?

5. Eukaryotic cells have organelles which may

a. not be bound by a membrane

b. bound by a single membrane

c. bound by a double membrane

Group the various sub-cellular organelles into these three categories.

6. The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species where as the extra chromosomal DNA is found

to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.

7. Justify the statement, “Mitochondria are power houses of the cell”

8. Is there a species specific or region specific type of plastids? How does one distinguish one from the other?

9. Write the functions of the following

a. Centromere

b. Cell wall

c. Smooth ER

d. Golgi Apparatus

e. Centrioles

10. Are the different types of plastids interchangable? If yes, give examples where they are getting converted from one

type to another.

CHAPTER-10: Cell Cycle & Division

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 1. Between a prokaryote and a eukaryote, which cell has a shorter cell division time? 2. Which of the phases of cell cycle is of longest duration? 3. Name a stain commonly used to colour chromosomes. 4. Which tissue of animals and plants exhibits meiosis? 5. Given that the average duplication time of E.coli is 20 minutes, how much time will two E.coli cells take to become 32 cells? 6. Which part of the human body should one use to demonstrate stages in mitosis? 7. What attributes does a chromatid require to be classified as a chromosome? 8. The diagram shows a bivalent at prophase-I of meiosis. Which of the four chromatids can cross over?

9. If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell undergone? 10. An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them? 11. At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place? 12. It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle? 13. It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit ___________ phase to enter an inactive stage called ___________ of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks. 14. In which phase of meiosis are the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.

a. Synaptonemal complex ____________________________ b. Recombination nodules ____________________________ c. Appearance/activation of ____________________________

enzyme recombinase d. Termination of chiasmata ____________________________ e. Interkinesis ____________________________ f. Formation of dyad of cells ____________________________

Hints : 1) Zygotene, 2) Pachytene, 3) Pachytene, 4) Diakinesis, 5) After Telophase-I /before Meosis-II, 6) Telophase-I /After Meiosis-I.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 1. State the role of centrioles other than spindle formation. 2. Mitochondria and plastids have their own DNA (genetic material). What is known about their fate during nuclear division like mitosis? 3. Label the diagram and also determine the stage at which this structure is visible.

4. A cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes mitotic division. What will be the chromosome number (N) during metaphase? What would be the DNA content (C) during anaphase? 5. While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16 chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes. What possible reasons could you assign to this difference in chromosome number? Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes or vice versa? 6. The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Name the phase against each of the events.

a. Disintegration of nuclear membrane _________ b. Appearance of nucleolus ___________ c. Division of centromere ____________________ d. Replication of DNA _________________

7. Mitosis results in producing two cells which are similar to each other. What would be the consequence if each of the following irregularities occurs during mitosis?

a. Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate b. Duplication of DNA does not occur c. Centromeres do not divide d. Cytokinesis does not occur.

8. Both unicellular and multicellular organisms undergo mitosis. What are the differences, if any, observed in the process between the two? 9. Name the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs. 10. Two key events take place, during S phase in animal cells, DNA replication and duplication of centriole. In which parts of the cell do events occur? 11. Comment on the statement – Meiosis enables the conservation of specific chromosome number of each species even though the process per se, results in reduction of chromosome number. 12. Name a cell that is found arrested in diplotene stage for months and years. Comment in 2-3 lines how it completes cell cycle? 13. How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells? LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS 1. Comment on the statement – Telophase is reverse of prophase. 2. What are the various stages of meiotic prophase-I? Enumerate the chromosomal events during each stage? 3. Differentiate between the events of mitosis and meiosis 4. Write brief note on the following a. Synaptonemal complex b. Metaphase plate 5. Write briefly the significance of mitosis and meiosis in multicellular organism. 6. An organism has two pair of chromosomes (i.e., chromosome number = 4). Diagrammatically represent the chromosomal arrangement during different phases of meiosis-II.

CHAPTER-1: The Living World

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Linnaeus is considered as Father of Taxonomy. Name two other botanists known for their contribution to the field

of plant taxonomy? 2. What does ICZN stand for? 3. Couplet in taxonomic key means ________________ .

4. What is a Monograph?

5. Amoeba multiplies by mitotic cell division. Is this phenomena growth or reproduction? Explain.

6. Define metabolism.

7. Which is the largest botanical garden in the world? Name a few well known botanical gardens in India.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A ball of snow when rolled over snow increases in mass, volume and size. Is this comparable to growth as seen in

living organisms? Why?

2. In a given habitat we have 20 plant species and 20 animal species. Should we call this as ‘diversity’ or

‘biodiversity’? Justify your answer.

3. International Code of Botanical nomenclature (ICBN) has provided a code for classification of plants. Give

hierarchy of units of classification botanists follow while classifying plants and mention different ‘Suffixes’ used for

the units.

4. A plant species shows several morphological variations in response to altitudinal gradient. When grown under

similar conditions of growth, the morphological variations disappear and all the variants have common morphology.

What are these variants called?

5. How do you prepare your own herbarium sheets? What are the different tools you carry with you while collecting

plants for the preparation of a herbarium? What information should a preserved plant material on the herbarium sheet

provide for taxonomical studies?

6. What is the difference between flora, fauna and vegetation? Eichornia crassipes is called as an exotic species while

Rauvolfia serpentina is an endemic species in India. What do these terms exotic and endemic refer to?

7. A plant may have different names in different regions of the country or world. How do botanists solve this

problem?

8. Brinjal and potato belong to the same genus Solanum, but to two different species. What defines them as seperate

species?

9. Properties of cell organelles are not always found in the molecular constituents of cell organelles. Justify.

10. The number and kinds of organism is not constant. How do you explain this statement?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. What is meant by living? Give any four defining features of life forms.

2. A scientist has come across a plant which he feels is a new species. How will he go about its identification,

classification and nomenclature.

3. Brassica campestris linn

a. Give the common name of the plant.

b. What do the first two parts of the name denote?

c. Why are they written in italics?

d. What is the meaning of linn written at the end of the name?

4. What are taxonomical aids? Give the importance of herbaria and museums. How are Botanical gardens and

Zoological parks useful in conserving biodiversity?

5. Define a taxon. What is meant by taxonomic hierarchy. Give a flow diagram from the lowest to highest category for

a plant and an animal. What happens to the number of individuals and number of shared characters as we go up the

taxonomical hierarchy?

6. A student of taxonomy was puzzled when told by his professor to look for a key to identify a plant. He went to his

friend to clarify what ‘Key’ the professor was refering to? What would the friend explain to him?

7. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms without exception. Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are

not living things but surely living reactions. Comment.

8. Do you consider a person in coma-living or dead?

9. What is the similarity and dissimilarity between “whole moong daal” and “broken moong daal” in terms of

respiration and growth? Based on these parameters classify them into living or nonliving?

10. Some of the properties of tissues are not the constituents of its cells. Give three examples to support the statement.

Math

1. Convert angles of 60 , 75 and 120 into radians.

2. Convert angles of 2 5

, ,15 12 6

and

1

4 into degrees.

3. The arc of a circle of radius 21 cm. subtends an angle of 60 at the centre. Find the

length of the arc.

4. The angles of a quad are in A.P. and the greatest angle is 120 . Express the angles in

radians.

5. The angles of a triangle are in A.P. The number of degrees in the least is to the number

of radians in the greatest is 60 : . Find the angles in degrees.

6. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle what radius should be used If the track is to

change direction by 25 in a distance of 40 metres ?

7. The number of sides in two regular polygons are 5:4 and the difference between their

angles is 6 . Find the no. of sides in polygons

8. If the angular diameter of the moon be 30 how far from the eye a coin of diameter 2.2

c.m be kept to hide the moon.

9. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand of a clock when the time is 7 : 20 .

10. A wheel make 180 revolutions per minute. Through how many radians does it turn in 1

second.

11. One angle of a triangle is 2

x3

grades and another is 3

x2

degrees while the third angle

is x

75

radians. Find all the angles in degrees.

12. Prove that

(a) (1cot cosec) (1tan sec) 2

(b) 4 4 2secA(1sinA)2tanA1

(c) (secAtanA1)(secAtanA1)2tanA0

(d) secx1tanx1cosx

tanxsecx1 sinx

13. Prove that 4 2 6 63(sinxcosx)6(sinxcosx)4(sinxcosx) is independent of x.

14. 8 8 2 2 22sincos(sincos)x(12sincos)

15. If cos sin 2cos. prove that cos sin 2sin .

16. If (secA tanA) (secB tanB) (secc tanc) = (secA tanA) (secB tanB)

(secc tanc) . Prove that each side is equal to 1

17. If 3(cosec sin) a , 3sec cos b . Then prove that 22 2 2ab(a b) 1

18. Prove that 2

1sincos 1cos

1sincos 1cos

19. Is the equation 2

2

4xysec

(x y)

possible for all values of x and y ? If not find the

relation between x and y so that it may be possible.

20. Eliminate from

(a) cosecsinm,seccosn

(b) acos bsin p, asin bcos q

(c) asec 1btan 2 2 2 2asec 5btan

(d) x a hcos , y b ksin

21. If 2 2tan 1 e . Prove that 3 23/2sectancosec(2e) .

22. If sec tan P, obtain the values of sec , tan and sin in terms of P.

23. Find the values of other five trigonometric functions:

(a) 3

tan ,4

in quadrant III (b) 1

cos ,2

in quadrant II

24. If 3

cos5

and

3

2

find the value of

cosec cot

sec tan

25. If 1

cos2

and

3

2

find the value of 2 24tan 3cosec

26. By using trigonometric ratios of allied angles find the value of.

(a) cos210 (b) sin( 480 ) (c) tan( 1125 )

(d) cos(1755 ) (e) tan(4530 ) (f) cosec(1845 )

27. If A, B, C, D are angles of cyclic quadrilateral prove that cosA cosB cosc cosD 0

28. Prove that8 23 13 35 1

sin cos cos sin3 6 3 6 2

29. 1

cos24 cos55 cos125 cos204 cos3002

30. 2 2 2 27 4

sin sin sin sin18 9 18 9

= 2

31.

cos(2 ).cosec(2 ) tan2

sec .cos .cot2

= 1

32. Find the values of

(a) sin15 (b) cos15 (c) cos75

33. If 13

cos14

, 1

cos7

where , are acute angles show that 3

.

34. Prove that2

tan(45 x) 1 tanx

1 tanxtan(45 x)

35. Prove that tan70 tan20 2tan50

36. If A B4

. Prove that (1 tanA)(1 tanB) 2

37. Prove that tan3A tan2A tanA tan3A.tan2A.tanA

38. Prove that sin(n 1)A.sin(n 2)A cos(n 1)A cos(n 2)A cosA

39. If tan( ) tan( ) Show that (n 1)sin2 (n 1)sin2

40. Prove that 2 2A A 1sin sin sinA

8 2 8 2 2

41. If 12

sinA13

and 4

sinB5

where A2

, 0 B

2

Find

(a) sin(A B) (b) cos(A B)

42. Prove thatcos11 sin11

tan56cos11 sin11

43. If 5

tan A6

and1

tanB11

prove that A B4

44. Prove that 2 2 3cos 45 sin 15

4

45. Prove thatsin(A B) sin(B C) sin(C A)

0sinAsinB sinBsinC sinCsinA

46. 2 2

2 2

tan(A B) tan A tan B

cot(A B) 1 tan A tan B

47. Prove that if 2

tanx tan x tan x 33 3

then

3

2

3 tan x tan x1

1 3 tan x

48. If m

tan Am 1

and 1

tanB2m 1

then prove that A B4

.

49. Prove that2 2

2 2

tan 2 tantan3 .tan

1 tan 2 tan

50. Prove that2 2

2 2

tan(A B) sin A sin B

cot(A B) cos A sin B

51. Prove by Induction

(a) 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + …….. + n = n n 1

2

(b) 2 2 21 2 3 ………

2 nn12n1n

6

(c) 3 3 31 2 3 ……..

223 n n 1n

4

(d) 1 + 4 + 7 + ……. + ( 3n - 2) =

n 3n 1

2

(e) 1 1 1

12 23 34

………+

1 n

nn 1 n 1

52. Prove by Induction :1 1 1

13 35 57

………..

1 n

2n12n1 2n1

53. Prove that n(n + 1) (n + 2) is divisible by 6, where n is a natural number.

54. Prove by induction that n nx y is an integral multiple of (x - y)

55. Prove that if 2n3 is divided by 8 the remainder is always 1.

56. Prove that if sum of n terms is given by : 3 2Snn 3n 5n3 then it is divisible by 3.

57. Prove that for n N

(a) n n210 34 5 is divisible by 9. (b) 2n 110 1 is divisible by 11

(c) n4 15n 1 is divisible by 9.

58. Prove the inequality n

1 x 1 nx

59. 1 + 2 + 3 + …… + n < 1

8 (2 n + 1)2

60. Prove that 2n25 24n 25 is divisible by 576

61. Prove by mathematical induction : 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 + 3.4.5 + …………..+ n (n + 1) (n + 2) =

4

)3n()2n()1n(n

62. Let A = { 1, 2, 3, 4 } B = { 3, 4, 5, 6 }, C = { 5, 6, 7, 8 } and D = {7, 8, 9, 10}. Find :

(a) A B (b) A B D

(c) B C D

63. Let A = { 3, 6, 12, 15, 18, 21 },

B = { 4, 8, 12, 16, 20 }, C = { 2, 4, 6,8, 10, 12, 14, 16 },

D = {5, 10, 15, 20}. Obtain :

(a) A – B (b) B – C (c) C – D (d) D – C

64. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 }, A = { 1, 2 }, B = { 3, 4, 5 }, Find AC, BC, AC BC and A B.

65. Let A = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, }, B = { 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 }. Find (A – B) (B – A)

66. Which of the following pairs of sets are disjoint ?

(a) { 1, 2, 3, 4 } and { x : x is a natural number and 4 x 6 }

(b) { a, e, i, o, u } and { c, d, e, f }

(c) { x : x is an even integer } and { x : x is an odd integer }

67. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }

A = { 2, 4, 6, 8 } and B = { 2, 3, 5, 7 }, verify that :

(a) (A B)C = AC BC (b) (A B)C = AC BC

68. Draw appropriate Venn diagram for each of the following :

(a) (A B)’ (b) A’ B’ (c) (A B)’ (d) A’

B’.

69. If X and Y are two sets such that n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23 and n (X Y) = 38, find n (X Y).

70. Let A and B be two sets containing 3 and 6 elements respectively. Find the maximum

and minimum number of elements in A B.

71. In a survey of 400 students in a school, 100 were listed as drinking apple juice, 150 as

drinking orange juice and 75 were listed as both drinking apple as well as orange juice.

Find how many students were drinking neither apple juice nor orange juice.

72. Out of 500 car owners investigated, 400 owned car A and 200 owned car B, 50 owned

both A and B cars. Is this data correct ?

73. In a survey of 25 students, it was found that 15 had taken Mathematics, 12 has taken

Physics and 11 had taken Chemistry, 5 had taken Mathematics and Chemistry, 9 had

taken Mathematics and Physics, 4 had taken Physics and Chemistry and 3 had taken all

three subjects. Find the number of students that had taken :

(a) Only Chemistry

(b) Only Mathematics

(c) Only Physics

(d) Physics and Chemistry but not Mathematics

(e) Mathematics and Physics but not Chemistry

(f) Only one of the subjects

(g) at least one of three subjects

(h) none of the three subjects.

74. If A, B and C are three sets and U is the universal set such that :

n(U) = 700, n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300, n(A B) = 100. Find n (AC BC).

75. In a committee 50 people speak French, 20 speak Spanish and 10 speak both Spanish

and French. How many speak at least one of these two languages?

76. Find the smallest set Y such that Y { 1, 2 } = { 1, 2, 3, 5, 9 }

77. In a town of 10,000 families, it was found that 40% families buy newspaper A, 20%

families buy newspaper B and 10% families buy newspaper C, 5% families buy A and B,

3% buy B and C and 4% buy A and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers, find

the number of families which buy :

(a) A only (b) B only

(c) none of A, B and C

PHYSICS

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. Name the strongest force in nature. What is its range?

2. Give two discoveries of Physics used in your daily life.

3. What is the relation between light year and par sec.

4. Give the order of magnitude of the following :

(i) size of atom

(ii) size of our galaxy.

5. How many kg make 1 unified atomic mass unit?

6. Name same physical quantities that have same dimension.

7. Name the physical quantities that have dimensional formula [ML–1 T–2]

8. Give two examples of dimension less variables.

9. State the number of significant figures in

(i) 0.007m2 (ii) 2.64 × 1024 kg

(iii) 0.2370 g cm–3 (iv) 0.2300m

(v) 86400 (vi) 86400 m

10. Given relative error in the measurement of length is .02, what is the

percentage error?

11. If a physical quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb T–c and the percentage

errors in the measurements of Mm L and T are , and . What will be

the percentage error in X.

12. A boy recalls the relation for relativistic mass(m) in terms of rest mass (m0),

velocity of particle v, but forgets to put the constant c (velocity of light). He

writes m

m 0

2 1 2

1 v

correct the equation by putting the missing ‘c’.

13. Name the technique used in locating.

(a) an under water obstacle

(b) position of an aeroplane in space.

14. Deduce dimensional formulae of—

(i) Boltzmann’s constant

(ii) mechanical equivalent of heat.

15. Give examples of dimensional constants and dimensionless constants.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. What is a physical standard? What characteristics should it have?

2. Define the term unit. Distinguish between fundamental and derived units.

3. Describe the principle and use of SONAR and RADAR.

4. State the principle of homogeneity. Test the dimensional homogeneity of

equations—

(i)

S ut 1

at 2

2

(ii)

S n u a

2n 1

2

a

5. In van der Wall’s gas equation

dimensions of a and b.

P

2 v

v b RT . Determine the

6. Using dimensions convert (a) 1 newton into dynes (b) 1 erg into joules.

7. Magnitude of force experienced by an object moving with speed v is given

by F = kv2. Find dimensions of k.

8. A book with printing error contains four different formulae for displacement.

Choose the correct formula/formulae

(a) y a sin 2

t T

(b) y = a sin vt

9. Give limitations of dimensional analysis.

10. For determination of ‘g’ using simple pendulum, measurements of length and

time period are required. Error in the measurement of which quantity will have

larger effect on the value of ‘g’ thus obtained. What is done to minimise this

error?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. Give the name of six Indian Scientists and their discoveries.

2. Name the discoveries made by the following scientists : (a)

Faraday (b) Chadwick

(c) Hubble (d) Maxwell

(e) Newton (f) Bohr.

3. Name the scientific principle on which the following technology is based. (i)

Steam engine (ii) Laser

(iii) Aeroplane (iv) Rocket propulsion

(v) Radio and T.V. (vi) Production of Ultra high magnetic field.

4. Describe a method for measuring the molecular size of Oleic acid.

5. What types of phenomena can be used as a time standard. What are the

advantages of defining second in terms of period of radiation from cesium

–133 atom.

6. Deduce the dimensional formula for the following quantities

(i) Gravitational constant (ii) Yung’s modules

(iii) Coefficient of viscosity.

7. Define the following units :

(i) Light year (ii) Parsec

(iii) Astronomical unit (Au)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1. Name the four basic forces in nature. Write a brief note of each. Hence

compare their strengths and ranges.

2. Distinguish between the terms precision and accuracy of a measurement.

3. Explain

(i) absolute error (ii) mean absolute error

(iii) relative error (iv) percentage error

(v) random error

NUMERICALS

1. Determine the number of light years in one metre.

2. The sides of a rectangle are (10.5 ± 0.2) cm and (5.2 ± 0.1) cm. Calculate its

perimeter with error limits.

3. The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.3 kg. Two gold

pieces 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box.

(i) What is the total mass of the box?

(ii) The difference in masses of the pieces to correct significant figures.

4. 5.74 g of a substance occupies 1.2 cm3. Express its density to correct

significant figures.

5. If displacement of a body s = (200 ± 5) m and time taken by it t = (20 +

0.2) s, then find the percentage error in the calculation of velocity.

6. If the error in measurement of mass of a body be 3% and in the

measurement of velocity be 2%. What will be maximum possible error in

calculation of kinetic energy.

7. The length of a rod as measured in an experiment was found to be 2.48m,

2.46m, 2.49m, 2.50m and 2.48m. Find the average length, absolute error and

percentage error. Express the result with error limit.

8. A physical quantity is measured as a = (2.1 ± 0.5) units. Calculate the

percentage error in (i) Q2 (2) 2Q.

9. When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million km from the earth, its

angular diameter is measured to be 35.72´´ of arc. Calculate diameter of

Jupiter.

10. A lesser light beamed at the moon takes 2.56 and to return after reflection at the

moon’s surface. What will be the radius of lunar orbit.

11. Convert

(i) 3m . S–2 to km h–2

(ii) G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2 to cm3 g–1 S–2

12. A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals 4.2 J where IJ = 1kg m2S–2.

Suppose we employ a system of units in which unit of mass is kg, unit of

length is m, unit of time is s. What will be magnitude of calorie in terms

of this new system.

13. The escape velocity v of a body depends on–

(i) the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ of the planet,

(ii) the radius R of the planet. Establish dimensionally the relation for the

escape velocity.

14. The frequency of vibration of a string depends of on, (i) tension in the string

(ii) mass per unit length of string, (iii) vibrating length of the string. Establish

dimensionally the relation for frequency.

15. One mole of an ideal gas at STP occupies 22.4 L. What is the ratio of molar

volume to atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen? Why is the ratio so large.

Take radius of hydrogen molecule to be 1°A.

Other H.W.

Write Practicals of Vermier Callipear, Screw Gauge, Spherometer,

Parallelogram Law of Vector Addition

Do all the numericals of Errors & Dimensions of NCERT & Pardeeps

2

2

2

3

2

3

2

2

3

CHEMISTRY

Assignment1

1. Calculate the mass percentage of Na and Cl atoms in common salt. (Given molar mass NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)

2. How many significant figures are present in ? (a) 126000 (b) 126.0

3. How much CO is produced when 1.0 mol of carbon is burnt in 16.0 g oxygen ? 4. 0.5 mol each of H S and SO are mixed together in a reaction flask in which the

following reaction takes place : 2H S (g) + SO (g) 2H

2O (l) + 3S (s)

Calculate the number of moles of sulphur formed. 5. Pure oxygen is prepared by thermal decomposition of KClO

according to the

equation :

KClO (s) KCl (s)

3

O ( g )

3 2

2

Calculate the volume of oxygen gas liberated at STP by heating 12.25 g KClO3

(s).

6. Classify the following as pure substance or mixture ?

(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Blood

(c) 22 carat gold (d) Air

7. How many significant figures are present in the answer of following

calculations :

(a) 0.0125 + 0.7864 0.023 (b) 0.025 298.15 0.1155

0.5785

8. Which of the following samples has the largest number of atoms :

(a) 1.0 g H2

(g) (b) 1.0 Na (s)

(c) 1.0 g CH3OH (l) (d) 1.0 g Br

2 (l)

9. Determine the molecular formula of an oxide of iron in which the mass percent of iron and oxygen are 69.9 and 30.1 respectively. Molar mass of this oxide is

170.0 g mol1. [Ans. : Fe O ] 2 3

10. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g mL1. Calculate molality of solution. (Molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g mol1).

11. Calculate the molarity of an aqueous solution of methanol in which the mole

fraction of ethanol is 0.040. Assume the density of water to be 1.0 g mL1.

[Ans. :

12. How many grams of HCl react with 5.0 g MnO according to the equation :

4HCl (aq) + MnO2

(s) 2H2O (l) + MnCl

2 (aq) + Cl

2 (g)

[ Ans. : 8.40 g]

13. How are 0.5 mol Na CO and 0.5 M Na CO are different from each other ?

2 3 2 3

14. If mass of air at sea level is 1034 g cm2, calculate the pressure in pascal. (Given

g = 9.8 ms2, 1 Pa = 1 Nm2) [Ans. : 1.01332 105

Pa]

15. A polluted water sample has been found (CHcl ) to have 15 ppm CHCl in it.

(a) Express this value in percent by mass.

(b) Determine the molality of chloroform (CHCl3) in the water sample.

Assignment 2

1. (a)

(b)

State and explain Avogadro’s law. Illustrate it with an example.

10.0 L of a welding gas weighs 11.6 g at STP. Calculate the molar mass of this gas. [Ans.: 26.0 g/mol]

2. (a) Calculate the mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with 25mL

of 0.75 M HCl. [Ans.: 0.938 g]

(b) Calculate volume of CO2 released at STP in this reaction. [Ans.: 0.21 L]

3. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other to produce ammonia according

to following chemical equation :

N2 (g) + 3H

2 (g) → 2NH

3 (g)

(a) Calculate the mass of ammonia gas formed if 2.0 kg of nitrogen gas

reacts with 1.0 kg of hydrogen gas.

(b) Which of the two reactants is the limiting reagent and why ?

(c) Which of the two reactants will remain unreacted and what will be the

amount left unreacted ? [Ans.: m (NH3) = 2.571 kg, H

2 will remain

unreacted its mass is 571.5 g]

4. (a) Calculate the molarity of solution prepared by dissolving 175.5 g NaCl

in enough water to form 1.0 L of brine solution.

(b) Calculate molality of solution if its density is 1.25 g ml−1.

(c) Calculate the mole fraction of NaCl.

5. Calculate the number of atoms in :

(a) 5.0 L oxygen gas at STP

(b) 4.4 g of CO2

(c) 52 u of He

6. Calculate the number of moles :

(a) 05. L of 0.75 M Na2CO

3

(c) 34.2 g sucrose (C12

H22

O11

)

(b) 7.85 g iron

7. A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon and 71.65% chlorine.

Its molar mass is 98.96 g. Determine its emperical and molecular formulas.

Assignment 3

1. (a) Write the difference between a homogenous and a heterogeneous

mixture.

(b) State Gay Lussac’s Law of gaseous volumes.

(c) Calculate the volume of 0.1 M NaOH solution is required to neutralise

100 mL of concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid which contains 98%

H2SO

4 by mass. The density of conc. H

2SO

4 is 1.84 g/mL.

NaOH reacts with H2SO

4 according to the following equation :

2NaOH + H2SO

4 → Na

2SO

4 + 2H

2O

(At. mass/g mol−1 H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

2. (a) How much Cu can be obtained from 100 g CuSO4 ?

(b) Boron occurs in nature in the form of two isotopes 11 B and

10 B in ratio

5 5

81% and 19% respectively. Calculate its average atomic mass.

(c) If the density of methanol is 0.793 kg L−1, what is its volume needed

3.

(a)

for making 2.5 L of its 0.25 L of 0.25 M solution ?

Define molality of a solution. How is it different from molarity ?

(b) 1.24 g white phosphorus was allowed to react with oxygen to produce

P4O

6, an acidic oxide. The solution of P

4O

6 in water is acidic and is

neutralised with NaOH. How many moles of NaOH are required to

neutralise H3PO

4 generated in above case.

[Hint : The chemical reactions mentioned in above case are :

P4

+ 3O2 → P

4O

6

P4O

6 + 6H

2O → 4H

3PO

3

2NaOH + H3PO

3 → Na

2HPO

3 + 2H

2O

Moles of NaOH (nNaOH

) can be calculated as :

1 mol P4 ≡ 1 mol P

4 O

6 ≡ 4 mol H3 PO

3

1 mol H3

PO3 ≡ 2 mol Na OH

nNaOH = 1.24 g P4

4 4 4 6 3 3

1 mol P 1 mol P O 4 mol H PO 2 mol NaOH × 4 × 4 6 × 3 3 ×

124 g P 1 mol P 1 mol P O 1 mol H PO

= 0.01 × 4 × 2 = 0.08]

Assignment 4 SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY

1. 1.7 g of AgNO3 is dissolved in 100 g of water. 0.585g of NaCl dissolved in 100g

of water is added to it and chemical reaction occurs. 1.435g of AgCl and 0.85 g of

NaNO3 are formed. Justify that the data obey the law of conservation of mass

2. (a) When 4.2g of sodium bicarbonate is added to a solution of acetic acid

weighing 10g, it is observed that 2.2g of CO2 is released into atmosphere.

The residue is found to weigh 12g. Show that these observations are in

agreement with the law of conservation of mass.

(b) If 6.3 g of sodium bicarbonates is added to 15g of acetic acid solution, the

residue is found to weigh 18g, what is the mass of

reaction?

CO2 released in the

3. In an experiment, 1.375g of CuO was reduced by heating in a current of hydrogen

and the weight of copper that remained was 1.098g. In another experiment,

1.179g of CuO was dissolved in nitric acid and the resulting Copper(I) nitrate

converted into CuO by ignition. The weight of CuO that was formed was 1.476g.

Show that these results illustrate the law of constant proportions.

4. Carbon and oxygen are known to form two compounds. The carbon content in

one of these is 42.9% while in the other is 27.3%. Show that this data is in

agreement with the law of multiple proportions.

5. On analysis, it was found that black oxide of copper and red oxide of copper

contained 79.9% and 88.8% of copper respectively. Show that this data is in

accordance with the law of multiple proportions.

6. Calculate the mass of 1 molecule of nitrogen

7. Calculate the mass of 1 molecule of water and 100 molecules of C12 H 22 O11

8. Calculate the mass of an atom of silver (Ag = 108 amu)

9. Calculate the number of atoms in (a) 52 moles of He (b) 52 a.m.u of He (c) 52 g

of He

10. Calculate the volume occupied by the following at STP

a. 14 g of nitrogen gas

b. 1.5 gram mole of CO2

11. Calculate the number of moles in each of the following:

a. 392 g of sulphuric acid

b. 44.8 l of sulphur dioxide at STP

c. 6.022 10 22

molecules of oxygen

d. 8g of Calcium

12. Calculate the number of atoms in

a. 0.5 moles of nitrogen atom

b. 0.2 moles of nitrogen molecule

c. 3.2 g of sulphur

13. Calculate the mass of an atom of 12

C ?

14. Calculate the number of atoms in 52 moles of Argon?

15. Calculate the volume at STP occupied by 10 21

molecules of oxygen?

16. Chlorophyll, the green coloring matter of plants contains 2.68% of magnesium by

weight. Calculate the number of magnesium atoms in 2g of chlorophyll.

17. Calculate the number of atoms of oxygen present in 8g of CO2 ? What would be

the weight of CO having the same number of oxygen atoms?

18. Potassium bromide (KBr) contains 32.9% by mass potassium. If 6.40g of bromine

reacts with 3.6g of potassium, calculate the number of moles of potassium which

combines with bromine to form KBr.

19. Write the empirical formula of the following:

C6 H 6 , C6 H 12 , H 2 O2 , Na 2 CO3 , B2 H 6 , N 2 O4 , Fe2 O3

20. Calculate the percentage composition of the following:

a. Urea NH 2 CONH 2

b. Glucose C6 H 12 O6

21. The molecular mass of an organic compound is 78 g and its percentage

composition is Carbon: 92.4% and hydrogen: 7.6%. Determine the molecular

formula of the compound

22. A compound has the following composition:

Mg – 9.76%, S – 13.01%, O – 26.01%,

formula.

H 2 O 51.22% . Find its empirical

23. An organic compound has the following percentage composition:

Carbon: 57.8%, Hydrogen: 3.6% and oxygen: 39.6%. Vapour density of the

compound was found to be 83. Find the molecular formula.

24. A compound has the composition Na-14.31%, S-9.97%, H-6.22% and O-69.5%.

Calculate the molecular formula assuming that all the hydrogen in the compound

is present in combination with oxygen as water of crystallization. The molecular

mass is 322

25. Butyric acid contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. 4.2 mg sample of butyric

acid is completely burnt to give 8.45 mg of

the mass percent of each element in the acid?

CO2 and 3.46 mg of water. What is

26. Calculate the empirical and molecular formula of the compound with the

following composition:

Na – 36.5%, H – 0.8%, P – 24.6% and O – 38.1%

The molecular mass is 126 amu. Also name the compound

27. Determine the empirical formula of a compound having the percentage

composition as given below:

Fe: 20%, S: 11.5%, O: 23.1%, H 2 O : 45.4%

28. An organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen gave the

following composition: C : 40.68%, H : 5.08%

The vapour density of the compound is 59. Calculate its molecular formula

29. How many moles of nitrogen are required to produce 8.2 moles of ammonia by

reaction with hydrogen?

30. What mass of calcium oxide will be obtained by heating 3 moles of calcium

carbonate?

31. How many grams of chlorine are required to completely react with 0.4 g of

hydrogen to yield hydrochloric acid? Also calculate the amount of acid formed.

32. Calculate the amount of KClO3 needed to supply sufficient oxygen for burning

112 litres of CO2 gas at S.T.P

33. Calculate the volume of oxygen at S..P that will be required to convert 5.2 litres

of CO to CO2 ?

34. 3g of hydrogen reacts with 29 g of oxygen to form water.

(a) Which is the limiting reagent?

(b) Calculate the maximum amount of water that can be formed

(c) Calculate the amount of one of the reactants that remains unreacted

35. 1 g of Magnesium is burned in a closed vessel which contains 0.5 g of oxygen.

(a) Which is the limiting reagent?

(b) What is the amount of magnesium oxide formed in the reaction?

36. How much MgS can be obtained from 2 g of Magnesium and 2 g of sulphur by

the reaction Mg S MgS

(a) Which is the limiting reagent?

(b) What is the amount of the unreacted reactant?

37. How many grams of oxygen are required to completely react with 0.2 g of

hydrogen to yield water? Also calculate the amount of water formed

38. Magnesium carbonate reacts with sulphuric acid as shown below:

MgCO3 H 2 SO4 MgSO4 H 2 O CO2

What weight of sulphuric acid will be required to dissolve three grams of

Magnesium carbonate?

39. Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating manganese dioxide with

aqueous hydrochloric acid according to the reaction

4HCl aq MnO2 s MnCl 2 aq 2H 2 O l Cl 2 g How many grams of HCl react with 5.0 g of manganese dioxide?

40. A solution is prepared by dissolving 18.25 g of NaOH in distilled water to give

200 cm 3

of solution. Calculate the molarity of the solution.

41. How many grams of

0.5 M solution?

Na 2 CO3 must be dissolved in 500 ml of solution to make

42. A sample of NaOH weighing 0.38 g is dissolved in water and the solution is made

to 50 cm 3

in a volumetric flask. What is the molarity? How many moles of NaOH

are contained in 27 cm 3 of 0.15M NaOH solution?

43. What volume of 10 M HCl and 3 M HCl should be mixed to get 1 litre of 6 M

HCl solution?

44. A sample of sodium nitrate weighing 0.38 g is placed in a 50ml volumetric flask.

The flask is then filled with water to the mark on the neck. What is the molarity of

the solution?

45. In a reaction vessel, 0.184 g of NaOH is required to be added for completing the

reaction. How much, in milliliters, of 0.150M NaOH solution should be added?

46. Commercially available sulphuric acid contains 93% acid by mass and has a

density of 1.84 g . cm

3

(a) Calculate the molarity of the solution (b) What volume of concentrated acid is required to prepare 2.5 l of 0.5 M

sulphuric acid?

47. Commercially available concentrated hydrochloric acid contains 38% HCl by

mass and has a density of 1.19 g . cm

3

(a) Calculate the molarity of the solution (b) What volume of concentrated acid is required to prepare 1 l of 0.1 M

hydrochloric acid?

48. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous hydrochloric acid according to the

reaction given below:

CaCO3 s 2HCl aq CaCl 2 aq H 2 O l CO2 g What mass of calcium carbonate is required to react completely with 25 ml of

0.75 M HCl solution?

49. 500 ml of 0.25M sodium sulphate solution is added to an aqueous solution of 15 g

of Barium chloride resulting in the formation of the white precipitate of insoluble

Barium sulphate. How many moles and how many grams of Barium sulphate are

formed?

50. What volume of 0.25M HCl is required to completely react with 22.6g of sodium

carbonate according to the reaction Na 2 CO3 2HCl 2 NaCl H 2 O CO2