Echocardiography Board Review (500 Multiple Choice Questions with Discussion) || Chapter 7
Transcript of Echocardiography Board Review (500 Multiple Choice Questions with Discussion) || Chapter 7
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CHAPTER 7
7
Questions
121. Bicuspid aortic valve may be associated with:
A. Coronary anomalies
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. Atrial septal defect
D. None of the above
122. A dilated coronary sinus could be seen in all of the following conditions except:
A. Right atrial hypertension
B. Persistent left superior vena cava
C. Coronary A–V fistula
D. Unroofed coronary sinus
E. Azygos continuity of inferior vena cava
123. Atrial septal defect (ASD) of sinus venosus type is most commonly associated
with:
A. Anomalous drainage of right upper pulmonary vein into the right atrium
B. Anomalous drainage of left upper pulmonary vein into the right atrium
C. Persistent left upper superior vena cava
D. Coronary artery anomalies
124. Ostium primum ASD is most commonly associated with:
A. Cleft in anterior mitral leaflet
B. Cleft in septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
125. Dilatation of the pulmonary artery is seen in all of the following conditions except:
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Valvular pulmonary stenosis
C. Infundibular pulmonary stenosis
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Echocardiography Board Review: 500 Multiple Choice Questions with Discussion, Second Edition.Ramdas G. Pai and Padmini Varadarajan.© 2014 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd. Published 2014 by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.
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126. Risk of aortic dissection is increased in the following conditions except:
A. Marfan’s syndrome
B. Bicuspid aortic valve
C. Pregnancy
D. Mitral stenosis
127. A 52-year-old patient with a 31mm St. Jude mitral valve has severe shortness of
breath. Left ventricular function and aortic valve are normal. The disk motion
of the prosthetic valve is normal. Analysis of transmitral flow with continuous
waveDoppler revealed an E-wave velocity of 2.6m/s, A-wave velocity of 0.6m/s,
E-wave pressure half-time of 40ms, diastolic mean gradient of 6mmHg at a heart
rate of 60/min, and isovolumic relaxation time (IVRT) of 30ms. This patient is
likely to have:
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Pannus growth into the prosthetic valve
C. Prosthetic valve thrombosis
D. Normal prosthetic valve function
128. In a person with suspected paravalvular (mechanical) mitral regurgitation, the
following transducer position has the best chance of revealing the mitral regur-
gitation jet:
A. A.Parasternal long axis view
B. Apical four-chamber
C. Apical two-chamber
D. Apical long axis
129. A patient with a bileaflet mechanical aortic valve has shortness of breath on exer-
tion. An echocardiogram revealed normal left ventricular systolic function and
mitral valve function. The left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) dimension was
2.2 cm, LVOT (V1) velocity was 1.5m/s, and aortic transvalvular velocity (V2) was
4.5m/s, with no aortic regurgitation.Measurements obtained 2 years earlier when
the patient was asymptomatic were LVOT diameter 2.2 cm, V1 0.9m/s, and V2
2.7m/s. Likely cause of this patient’s shortness of breath is:
A. Prosthetic valve stenosis
B. Patient–prosthesis mismatch
C. High cardiac output state, patient may be anemic
D. None of the above
130. A patient with a mechanical prosthetic mitral valve has gastrointestinal bleed-
ing and the following measurements were obtained: diastolic mean gradient
11mmHg, peak gradient 16mmHg, pressure half-time 65ms, heart rate 114/min.
This increased gradient is likely to be:
A. Likely normal
B. Likely abnormal
C. Cannot comment
131. The following measurements were obtained in a patient with mitral regurgita-
tion: proximal isovelocity surface area (PISA) radius 1 cm at a Nyquist limit of
50 cm/s, peak mitral regurgitation velocity 5m/s, and mitral regurgitation signal
time velocity integral 100 cm. The regurgitant volume is:
A. 63 cc/beat
B. 31 cc/beat
C. 63 cc/s
D. 63%
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132. Distribution of leaflet thickening and calcification in rheumatic mitral stenosis is:
A. More at the tip
B. More at the base
C. Uniform throughout the leaflets
133. Leaflet calcification in degenerative mitral stenosis is:
A. More at the tip
B. More at the base
C. Uniform throughout the leaflets
134. The predominant mechanism of chronic ischemic mitral regurgitation is:
A. Restriction of mitral leaflet closure
B. Papillary muscle dysfunction
C. Ruptured chordae tendinae
D. Ruptured papillary muscle
135. In a person with chronic ischemic mitral regurgitation (MR) due to old inferior
myocardial infarction (MI) and an ejection fraction of 50%, the location of the MR
jet would be:
A. Medial commissure
B. Lateral commissure
C. Central
136. In the above patient, the jet direction would be:
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Central
137. In a patient with old anteroseptal MI with an ejection fraction of 28%, an ischemic
MR jet is likely to be:
A. Central
B. Lateral wall hugging
C. Medial wall hugging
138. Mitral regurgitation in aortic stenosis is related to which of these factors:
A. Degree of mitral annular calcification
B. Severity of aortic stenosis
C. An increase in LV end systolic dimension
D. Degree of aortic leaflet calcification
139. Left atrial myxoma may be differentiated from a left atrial thrombus by all of the
following characteristics except:
A. Enhancement with transpulmonary contrast agent
B. Presence of blood vessels on color flow imaging
C. Attachment to the atrial septum
D. Similar mass in the left ventricle (LV) with normal LV function.
140. The most common location of a left atrial thrombus is:
A. Left atrial appendage
B. Body
C. Atrial septum
D. Atrial roof
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Answers for chapter 7
121. Answer: B.Bicuspid valve is associated with coarctation of the aorta. Biscuspid aortic valve
occurs in 1–2% of the population. In these people, aortic coarctation is rare, but
25% of patients with coarctation have a bicuspid aortic valve.
122. Answer: E.Coronary sinus can be dilated due to increased pressure or flow. There is an
increased flow in the coronary sinus in the left superior vena cava, which
drains into the coronary sinus, coronary A–V fistula due to increased shunt,
and unroofed coronary sinus due to increased flow from the left atrium (LA) to
coronary sinus. Right atrial hypertension causes increased pressure, which will
lead to dilated coronary sinus.
123. Answer: A.ASDof sinus venosus type ismost commonly associatedwith anomalous drainage
of the right upper pulmonary vein into the right atrium.
124. Answer: A.Ostium primum ASD is most commonly associated with a cleft anterior mitral
leaflet. This is a form of endocardial cushion defect or partial AV canal defect.
125. Answer: C.Infundibular pulmonary stenosis is not associated with dilatation of the pul-
monary artery. Poststenotic dilatation is seen only in valvular pulmonary stenosis
and not in subvalvular pulmonary stenosis. In ASD the pulmonary artery dilates
due to increased flow and pulmonary hypertension dilatation is due to increased
pressure. Idiopathic dilatation of the pulmonary artery can also occur. Marfan
syndrome is a cause of pulmonary artery dilatation as well.
126. Answer: D.All conditions except mitral stenosis have weakened media predisposing to dis-
section. Hypertension can also increase the risk for dissection. There is aortopathy
inMarfan syndrome and bicuspid aortic valve. Progesterone in pregnancy loosens
connective tissue and may result in aortic as well as coronary dissection.
127. Answer: A.Normal IVRT is 70–100ms, and pressure half-time is 65–80ms for a pros-
thetic mitral valve. With a normal cardiac output, the mean gradient would be
3–4mmHg at a heart rate of 60/min. Shortened IVRT, short pressure half-time,
and high E/A ratio indicate high LA pressure. A stenotic prosthetic valve would
have caused increase in pressure half-time and an increase in mean gradient far
more than 6mmHg at a heart rate of 60/min. A mildly increased gradient despite
a shortened pressure half-time indicates increased transvalvular flow suggestive
of mitral regurgitation, which may be difficult to visualize from a transthoracic
echo. Hence, a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) would be warranted. High
LA pressure without an increase in flow would result in shortened IVRT and
pressure half-time without an increase in the gradient. A good example of this is
superadded restrictive cardiomyopathy.
128. Answer: A.Shadowing in the left atrium is least with a parasternal long axis view; however,
TEE is the best technique to evaluate for paravalvular mitral leaks.
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129. Answer: C.An unchanged V1/V2 ratio compared to prior echo confirms the absence of
prosthetic valve stenosis. An elevated V1 indicates elevated cardiac output and
the transvalvular gradient is flow dependent. Anemia is a common problem
secondary to blood loss due to anticoagulation and less commonly due to
mechanical hemolysis. Patient prosthesis mismatch occurs when the valve is too
small for the cardiac output needs of the patient. The effective aortic orifice area in
this patient is about 1.3 cm2. There is no change in the intrinsic valvular function
in this patient.
130. Answer: A.The measurements are normal. Pressure half-time of 65ms indicates normal valve
function. Mean gradient is appropriately increased due to tachycardia (which
shortens the diastolic filling period), anemia, and possibly high cardiac output.
Prosthetic valves are intrinsically mildly stenotic.
131. Answer: A.Effective regurgitant orifice area is given by the formula 2𝜋r2 ×Nyquist limit/MR
velocity, that is, 2 × 3.14 × 1 × 1 × 50/500 cm/s = 0.628 cm2. Regurgitant volume is
effective regurgitant orifice area (in cm2) × TVI (in cm). In this patient, it is 0.628 ×100 = 62.8 cc. This is per beat and not per second.
132. Answer: A.
133. Answer: B.Calcification extends from the annulus, that is, in a centripetal fashion compared
to rheumatic, which is centrifugal.
134. Answer: A.Restriction, tethering, and tenting refer to the phenomenon of incomplete systolic
closure due to apical traction on themitral leaflets due to outward displacement of
the papillary muscles. This causes tenting of the leaflets, and the coaptation point
is displaced apically. This is not due to contractile failure of the papillary mus-
cles (papillary muscle dysfunction). Papillary muscle rupture causes acute MR,
leading to pulmonary edema and hemodynamic compromise. Tenting is far more
common than papillary muscle rupture.
135. Answer: A.Owing to displacement of the posteromedial papillary muscle, there is tethering
of medial portions of both leaflet (P3 and A3) segments causing a medial commis-
sural jet. When the left ventricle (LV) is uniformly dilated, the jet could be central
in origin.
136. Answer: B.As there is greater tenting of P3 than A3, the jet is directed posteriorly. There may
also be some tenting of P2.
137. Answer: A.In an anterior MI, there is generally remodeling of the noninfarcted segments as
well, causing dilatation of the whole LV cavity. This is reflected by a low ejection
fraction. This causes displacement of both papillarymuscles and tenting of all seg-
ments of both leaflets, giving rise to central MR, although exceptions may occur.
MR in dilated cardiomyopathy occurs because of a similar mechanism.
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138. Answer: C.The mechanism of MR is functional and is related to LV dilation and leaflet tether-
ing. Aortic leaflet calcification, mitral annular calcification, and severity of aortic
stenosis contribute very little in the genesis of MR. A higher driving pressure in
more severe degrees of aortic stenosismay increase the regurgitant volume and the
jet area but will not cause MR in the absence of a defect in the mitral coaptation
mechanism.
139. Answer: C.Myxomas are vascular; blood vessels may be seen on color flow imaging and
enhanced mildly with transpulmonary contrast agent. Although left atrial throm-
bus is most commonly seen in the appendage, it may be attached to the atrial
septum or may traverse through a patent foramen ovale from the right side (para-
doxical embolism). The presence of a mass in the LV in the face of normal LV
function makes a thrombus unlikely and points to a familial myxoma syndrome
(Carney’s syndrome).
140. Answer: A.This generally occurs in the presence of atrial fibrillation or flutter. The probability
is increased by the presence of mitral stenosis, heart failure, low ejection fraction,
large left atrium, and left atrial spontaneous echo contrast.