eBook Speech Comm Ck Study Guide 752991

■ Study Topics

■ Practice Questions Directly From the Test Makers

■ Test-Taking Strategies

www.ets.org/praxis

The Official

Study Guide

Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test

Test Code: 0221

The Praxis Series™ eBooks

This ebook was issued to Guarini Library, order #11600174000. Unlawful distribution of this ebook is prohibited.

Customer name Guarini Library , Order Id: 11600174000

A PUBLICATION OF ETS

Study Guide for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲



Copyright © 2009 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved.EDUCATIONAL TESTING SERVICE, ETS, the ETS logo, GRE, and LISTENING. LEARNING. LEADING. are registered trademarks of

Educational Testing Service (ETS) in the United States and other countries. SAT is a registered trademark of the College Entrance Examination Board. PRAxIS and THE PRAxIS SERIES are trademarks of ETS.



▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Table of ContentsStudy Guide for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test



TABLE OF CONTENTS

Chapter 1Introduction to the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test

and Suggestions for Using This Study Guide . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1

Chapter 2 Background Information on The Praxis Series™ Assessments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5

Chapter 3Don’t Be Defeated by Multiple-choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .8

Chapter 4Study Topics for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . .15

Chapter 5Practice Questions—Speech Communication: Content Knowledge . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27

Chapter 6Right Answers and Explanations—Speech Communication: Content Knowledge . . . . . . .46

Chapter 7Are You Ready? Last-minute Tips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .57

Appendix AStudy Plan Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .60

Appendix B For More Information . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .62



57971-00321 Praxis E-Book: Library Media (based on 025388-51045) • Fonts: Times, Futura, ZapfDingbats • dr01 9/20/06 jep • dr02 7/11/07 ta • edits dr02 7/16/07 ta • dr03 9/28/07 ljg • preflight 10/7/07 jep •dr01 1/25/08 jep • preflight 2/14/08 jep • preflight 092208 ljg • [NEW 57971-78003] • InDesign CS3 • Dr01 4/7/09 jw • Dr02 5/26/09 jw • [NEW 79103-791030] • Dr01 6/9/09 jw • Dr01Edits 6/15/09 jw • Dr01REV 6/16/09 jw • Dr02 7/13/09 jw • preflight 081109 cj

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 1Introduction to the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test and Suggestions for Using This Study Guide




2 Study Guide for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test

CHAPTER 1

Introduction to the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge TestThe Praxis™ Speech Communication: Content Knowledge test assesses a beginning teacher’s understanding of the essential content of speech communication. Educational Testing Service (ETS) has selected the content of this test using resources such as the national standards for beginning speech communication teachers. ETS also refers to current practices as specified by speech communication educator institutions and national organizations such as the National Communication Association (NCA). In developing assessment material for these tests, ETS works in collaboration with teacher educators, higher education content specialists, and accomplished practicing teachers to keep the test updated and representative of current standards.

The Speech Communication: Content Knowledge test (0221) consists of 120 multiple-choice questions and covers eight major areas, in the following proportions:

Content Category Approximate Number of Questions

Approximate Percentage of Total Score

• CommunicationFundamentals 13 11%

• InterpersonalCommunication 16 13%

• GroupCommunication 16 13%

• PublicSpeaking 21 18%

• MediaandTheirInfluences 16 13%

• OralInterpretation/PerformanceStudies 13 11%

• Forensics:CompetitiveSpeech and Debate

13 11%

• AssessmentandEvaluationIssues 12 10%

Test takers have two hours to complete the test.

The test is not intended to assess teaching skills but rather fundamental knowledge in the major areas of speech communication.




CHAPTER 1

Study Guide for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test 3

Suggestions for Using the “Study Topics” Chapter of This Study GuideThis test is different from a final exam or other tests you may have taken for other courses because it is comprehensive—that is, it covers material you may have learned in several courses during your entire undergraduate program. It requires you to synthesize information you have learned from many sources and to understand the subject as a whole.

Therefore, you should review and prepare for it, rather than merely becoming familiar with the question formats. A thorough review of the material covered on the test will significantly increase your likelihood of success. Moreover, studying for your licensing exam is a great opportunity to reflect on and develop a deeper understanding of speech communication before you begin to teach or to reflect on previous teaching experience. As you prepare to take the test, it may be particularly helpful for you to think about how you would apply the study topics and sample exercises to the experience you obtained during your teacher preparation program. Your student teaching experience will be especially relevant to your thinking about the materials in the study guide.

We recommend the following approach for using the “Study Topics” chapter to prepare for the test.

◾ Become familiar with the test content. Learn what will be assessed in the test, covered in chapter 4.

◾ Assess how well you know the content in each area. After you learn what topics the test contains, you should assess your knowledge in each area. How well do you know the material? In which areas do you need to learn more before you take the test? It is quite likely that you will need to brush up on most or all of the areas.

◾ Develop a study plan. Assess what you need to study and create a realistic plan for studying. You can develop your study plan in any way that works best for you. A “Study Plan” form is included in appendix A at the end of the book as a possible way to structure your planning. Remember that this is a licensure test and covers a great deal of material. Plan to review carefully. You will need to allow time to find the books and other materials, time to read the material and take notes, and time to go over your notes.

◾ Identify study materials. Most of the material covered by the test is contained in standard introductory textbooks. If you do not own introductory texts that cover all the areas, you may want to borrow some from friends or from a library. You may also want to obtain a copy of your state’s standards for speech communication. (One way to find these standards quickly is to go to the Web site for your state’s Department of Education.) The textbooks used in secondary classrooms may also prove useful to you, since they also present the material you need to know. Use standard school and college introductory textbooks and other reliable, professionally prepared materials. Don’t rely heavily on information provided by friends or from searching the World Wide Web. Neither of these sources is as uniformly reliable as textbooks.

◾ Work through your study plan. You may want to work alone, or you may find it more helpful to work with a group or with a mentor. Work through the topics and questions provided in chapter 4. Rather than memorizing definitions from books, be able to define and discuss the topics in your own words and understand the relationships between diverse topics and concepts. If you are working with a group or mentor, you can also try informal quizzes and questioning techniques.

◾ Proceed to the practice questions. Once you have completed your review, you are ready to benefit from the “Practice Test” portion of this guide.





CHAPTER 1

Suggestions for Using the “Practice Questions” and “Right Answers and Explanations” Chapters

◾ Read chapter 3. This chapter will sharpen your skills in reading and answering multiple-choice questions. For you to succeed on multiple-choice questions, you must focus carefully on the question, avoid reading things into the question, pay attention to details, and sift patiently through the answer choices.

◾ Answer the practice questions in chapter 5. Work on the practice questions in a quiet place without distractions. Remember that the practice questions are only examples of the way the topics are covered in the test. The test will have different questions.

◾ Score the practice questions. Go through the detailed answers in chapter 6 (Right Answers and Explanations) and mark the questions you answered correctly and the ones you missed. Look over the explanations of the questions you missed and see if you understand them.

◾ Decide whether you need more review. After you have looked at your results, decide whether there are areas that you need to brush up on before taking the actual test. Go back to your textbooks and reference materials to see if the topics are covered there. You might also want to go over your questions with a friend or teacher who is familiar with the subjects.

◾ Assess your readiness. Do you feel confident about your level of understanding in each of the areas? If not, where do you need more work? If you feel ready, complete the checklist in chapter 7 (“Are You Ready?”) to double-check that you’ve thought through the details. If you need more information about registration or the testing situation itself, use the resources in appendix B: “For More Information.”

Note: Every effort is made to provide the most recent information in this study guide. However, The Praxis Series tests are continually evaluated and updated. You will always find the most recent information about this test, including the topics covered, number of questions, and time allotted, in the Test at a Glance booklet available online at http://www.ets.org/praxis/prxtest.html.



57971-00321 Praxis E-Book: Library Media (based on 025388-51045) • Fonts: Times, Futura, ZapfDingbats • dr01 9/20/06 jep • dr02 7/11/07 ta • edits dr02 7/16/07 ta • dr03 9/26/07 jep • dr03 9/28/07 ljg • preflight 10/7/07 jep • dr01 1/25/08 jep • preflight 2/14/08 jep • preflight 092208 ljg • [NEW 57971-78003] • InDesign CS3 • Dr01 4/7/09 jw • [NEW 79103-791030] • Dr01 6/9/09 jw • Dr01edits 6/15/09 jw • preflight 081109 cj

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 2Background Information on The Praxis Series™ Assessments




CHAPTER 2


What Are The Praxis Series Subject Assessments?The Praxis Series™ Subject Assessments are designed by Educational Testing Service (ETS) to assess your knowledge of specific subject areas. They are a part of the licensing procedure in many states. This study guide covers an assessment that tests your knowledge of the actual content you will be expected to teach once you are licensed. Your state has adopted The Praxis Series tests because it wants to confirm that you have achieved a specified level of mastery in your subject area before it grants you a license to teach in a classroom.

The Praxis Series tests are part of a national testing program, meaning that the test covered in this study guide is required in more than one state for licensure. The advantage of a national program is that if you want to move to another state, you can transfer your scores from one state to another. However, each state has specific test requirements and passing scores. If you are applying for a license in another state, you will want to verify the appropriate test and passing score requirements. This information is available online at www.ets.org/praxis/prxstate.html or by calling ETS at 800-772-9476 or 609-771-7395.

What Is Licensure?Licensure in any area—medicine, law, architecture, accounting, cosmetology—is an assurance to the public that the person holding the license possesses sufficient knowledge and skills to perform important occupational activities safely and effectively. In the case of teacher licensing, a license tells the public that the individual has met predefined competency standards for beginning teaching practice.

Because a license makes such a serious claim about its holder, licensure tests are usually quite demanding. In some fields, licensure tests have more than one part and last for more than one day. Candidates for licensure in all fields plan intensive study as part of their professional preparation: some join study groups, others study alone. But preparing to take a licensure test is, in all cases, a professional activity. Because it assesses the entire body of knowledge for the field you are entering, preparing for a licensure exam takes planning, discipline, and sustained effort.

Why Does My State Require The Praxis Series Assessments?Your state chose The Praxis Series Assessments because the tests assess the breadth and depth of content—called the “domain”—that your state wants its teachers to possess before they begin to teach. The level of content knowledge, reflected in the passing score, is based on recommendations of panels of teachers and teacher educators in each subject area. The state licensing agency and, in some states, the state legislature ratify the passing scores that have been recommended by panels of teachers.




CHAPTER 2


What Do the Tests Measure?The Praxis Series Subject Assessments are tests of content knowledge. They measure your understanding and skills in a particular subject area. Multiple-choice tests measure a broad range of knowledge across your content area. Constructed-response tests measure your ability to provide in-depth explanations of a few essential topics in a given subject area. Content-specific pedagogy tests, most of which are constructed-response, measure your understanding of how to teach certain fundamental concepts in a subject area. The tests do not measure your actual teaching ability, however. They measure your knowledge of a subject and of how to teach it. The teachers in your field who help us design and write these tests, and the states that require them, do so in the belief that knowledge of your subject area is the first requirement for licensing. Teaching combines many complex skills, only some of which can be measured by a single test. While the test covered in this study guide measures content knowledge, your teaching ability is a skill that is typically measured in other ways; for example, through observation, videotaped practice, or portfolios.

How Were These Tests Developed? ETS began the development of The Praxis Series Subject Assessments with a survey. For each subject, teachers around the country in various teaching situations were asked to judge which knowledge and skills a beginning teacher in that subject needs to possess. Professors in schools of education who prepare teachers were asked the same questions. These responses were ranked in order of importance and sent out to hundreds of teachers for review. All of the responses to these surveys (called “job analysis surveys”) were analyzed to summarize the judgments of these professionals. From their consensus, we developed guidelines, or specifications, for the multiple-choice and constructed-response tests. Each subject area had a committee of practicing teachers and teacher educators who wrote the specifications, which were reviewed and eventually approved by teachers. From the test specifications, groups of teachers and professional test developers created test questions that met content requirements and satisfied the ETS Standards for Quality and Fairness.*

When your state adopted The Praxis Series Subject Assessments, local panels of practicing teachers and teacher educators in each subject area met to examine the tests and to evaluate each question for its relevance to beginning teachers in your state. This is called a “validity study” because local practicing teachers validate that the test content is relevant to the job. For the test to be adopted in your state, teachers in your state must judge that it is valid. During the validity study, the panel also provides a passing-score recommendation. This process includes a rigorous review to determine how many of the test questions a beginning teacher in that state would be able to answer correctly. Your state’s licensing agency then reviewed the panel’s recommendations and made a final determination of the passing-score requirement.

Throughout the development process, practitioners in the teaching field—teachers and teacher educators—participated in defining what The Praxis Series Subject Assessments would cover, which test would be used for licensure in your subject area, and what score would be needed to achieve licensure. This practice is consistent with how professional licensure works in most fields: those who are already licensed oversee the licensing of new practitioners. When you pass The Praxis Series Subject Assessments, you and the practitioners in your state will have evidence that you have the knowledge and skills required for beginning teaching practice.

* ETS Standards for Quality and Fairness (2003, Princeton, NJ) are consistent with the “Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing,” industry standards issued jointly by the American Educational Research Association, the American Psychological Association, and the National Council on Measurement in Education (1999, Washington, DC).



57971-00321 Praxis E-Book: Library Media (based on 025388-51045) • Fonts: Times, Futura, ZapfDingbats • dr01 9/20/06 jep • draft02 7/06/07 ta • edits dr02 7/16/07 ta • dr03 9/26/07 jep • dr03 9/28/07 ljg • preflight 10/7/07 jep • dr01 1/25/08 jep • preflight 2/14/08 jep • preflight 092208 ljg • [NEW 57971-78003] • InDesign CS3 • Dr01 4/7/09 jw • [NEW 79103-791030] • Dr01 6/9/09 jw • Dr01edits 6/15/09 jw • Dr01REV 6/16/09 • preflight 081109 cj

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 3Don’t Be Defeated by Multiple-Choice Questions




CHAPTER 3


Understanding Multiple-choice QuestionsWhen you read multiple-choice questions on the Praxis Speech Communication: Content Knowledge test, you will probably notice that the syntax (word order) is different from the word order you’re used to seeing in ordinary material that you read, such as newspapers or textbooks. One of the reasons for this difference is that many test questions contain the phrase “which of the following.”

In order to answer a multiple-choice question successfully, you need to consider carefully the context set up by the question and limit your choice of answers to the list given. The purpose of the phrase “which of the following” is to remind you to do this. For example, look at this question.

Which of the following is a flavor made from beans?

(A) Strawberry

(B) Cherry

(C) Vanilla

(D) Mint

You may know that chocolate and coffee are also flavors made from beans, but they are not listed, and the question asks you to select from the list that follows (“which of the following”). So the answer has to be the only bean-derived flavor in the list: vanilla.

Notice that the answer can be substituted for the phrase “which of the following.” In the question above, you could insert “vanilla” for “which of the following” and have the sentence “Vanilla is a flavor made from beans.” Sometimes it helps to cross out “which of the following” and insert the various choices. You may want to give this technique a try as you answer various multiple-choice questions on the practice test.

Looking carefully at the “which of the following” phrase helps you to focus on what the question is asking you to find and on the answer choices. In the simple example above, all of the answer choices are flavors. Your job is to decide which of the flavors is the one made from beans.

The vanilla bean question is pretty straightforward. But the phrase “which of the following” can also be found in more challenging questions. Look at this question:

Which of the following most clearly illustrates feedback?

(A) While one person is saying something, the other person is worrying about a personal problem.

(B) One person conveys ideas to another person by using verbal and nonverbal signals.

(C) While one person is saying something, an announcement is made over the loudspeaker.

(D) After one person says something, the other person smiles.

(E) A disc jockey offers commentary about music over the radio.

The placement of “which of the following” tells you that the list of choices is a list of examples (in this case, these are things that might be considered feedback). What are you supposed to find as an answer? You are supposed to find the choice that best supports the definition of feedback.




CHAPTER 3


Educational Testing Service (ETS) question-writers and editors work very hard to word each question as clearly as possible. Sometimes, though, it helps to put the question in your own words. Here, you could paraphrase the question as “Which of these examples is the best definition of feedback?” The correct answer is (D). (Feedback is a response to a message. Choices A and C are examples of noise in communication. Choice E is simply commentary and Choice B is a source communicating to a receiver and does not give an example of feedback.)

You may also find that it helps you to circle or underline each of the critical details of the question in your test book so that you don’t miss any of them. It’s only by looking at all parts of the question carefully that you will have all of the information you need to answer it. Circle or underline the critical parts of what is being asked in this question.

Which of the following strategies will best foster multiculturalism in the classroom?

(A) Playing a variety of music from different cultures

(B) Providing foods from various countries in the role-play area

(C) Inviting families to share their customs with the class

(D) Hanging travel posters from various countries in the classroom

(E) Starting a collection of post cards from around the world

Here is one possible way you may have annotated the question:

Which of the following strategies will best foster multiculturalism in the classroom?

(A) Playing a variety of music from different cultures

(B) Providing foods from various countries in the role-play area

(C) Inviting families to share their customs with the class

(D) Hanging travel posters from various countries in the classroom

(E) Starting a collection of post cards from around the world

After thinking about the question, you can probably see that you are being asked to look at a list of classroom techniques and decide which one gives students the greatest awareness of other cultures. The correct answer is (C). The important thing is understanding what the question is asking. With enough practice, you should be able to determine what any question is asking. Knowing the answer is, of course, a different matter, but you have to understand a question before you can answer it correctly.




CHAPTER 3


Understanding Questions Containing “NOT,” “LEAST,” or “EXCEPT”The words “NOT,” “ExCEPT,” and “LEAST” can make comprehension of test questions more difficult. Such questions ask you to select the choice that doesn’t fit, that is different in some specified way from the other answer choices. You must be very careful with this question type because it’s easy to forget that you’re selecting the negative. This question type is used in situations in which there are several good solutions, or ways to approach something, but also a clearly wrong way. These words are always capitalized when they appear in The Praxis Series test questions, but they are easily (and frequently) overlooked.

For the following test question, determine what kind of answer you need and what the details of the question are.

Which of the following terms would NOT be included in a definition of communication?

(A) Sending

(B) Receiving

(C) Cooperating

(D) Encoding

(E) Decoding

You’re looking for the term that would NOT be included in the definition. (C) is the correct answer—all of the other choices are a part of the communication process and could be included in a definition of communication.

TIP It’s easy to get confused while you’re processing the information to answer a question with a NOT, LEAST, or ExCEPT in the question. If you treat the word “NOT,” “LEAST,” or “ExCEPT” as one of the details you must satisfy, you have a better chance of understanding what the question is asking.




CHAPTER 3


Be Familiar with Multiple-choice Question TypesYou will probably see more than one question format on a multiple-choice test. Here are examples of some of the more common question formats.

1. Complete the statement

In this type of question, you are given an incomplete statement. You must select the choice that will make the completed statement correct.

Paralanguage or vocalics includes how a speaker

(A) uses metaphors and similies

(B) cites sources and includes attributions

(C) chooses terminology to meet the needs of the audience

(D) defines concepts and gives examples

(E) adjusts volume and rate

To check your answer, reread the question and add your answer choice at the end. Be sure that your choice best completes the sentence. The correct answer is (E).

2. Which of the following

This question type is discussed in detail in a previous section. The question contains the details that must be satisfied for a correct answer, and it uses “which of the following” to limit the choices to the four choices shown, as this example demonstrates.

On Monday in an 8:00 A.M. class, most of the students were groggy from lack of sleep and worried about an upcoming exam. As a result, they remembered little of what the teacher said. Which of the following elements of the communication process does this example illustrate?

(A) Internal noise

(B) External noise

(C) Channel

(D) Feedback

(E) Source

The correct answer is (A).




CHAPTER 3


3. Roman numeral choices

This format is used when there can be more than one correct answer in the list. Consider the following example.

Which of the following competencies are commonly used for assessing public speaking?

I. Chooses and narrows a topic appropriate to the audience and occasion

II. Uses an organizational pattern appropriate to the topic, audience, occasion, and purpose

III. Uses language appropriate to the audience and occasion

IV. Uses vocal variety in rate, pitch, and intensity to heighten and maintain interest appropriate to the audience and occasion

V. Uses physical behaviors that support the verbal message

(A) I and III only

(B) I, II, and III only

(C) II, III, and IV only

(D) II, III, IV, and V only

(E) I, II, III, IV, and V

One useful strategy for this type of question is to assess each possible answer before looking at the answer choices and then evaluate the answer choices. In the question above, all of the listed choices are evaluated by a speech communication teacher when assessing public speaking. Therefore, the correct answer is (E).

4. Questions containing NOT, LEAST, EXCEPT

This question type is discussed at length on page 11. It asks you to select the choice that doesn’t fit.

5. Other formats

New formats are developed from time to time in order to find new ways of assessing knowledge with multiple-choice questions. If you see a format you are not familiar with, read the directions carefully. Then read and approach the question the way you would any other question, asking yourself what you are supposed to be looking for and what details are given in the question that help you find the answer.

Other Useful Facts About the Test1. You can answer the questions in any order. You can go through the questions from beginning to end, as many test takers do, or you can create your own path. Perhaps you will want to answer questions in your strongest area of knowledge first and then move from your strengths to your weaker areas. There is no right or wrong way. Use the approach that works best for you.

2. There are no trick questions on the test. You don’t have to find any hidden meanings or worry about trick wording. All of the questions on the test ask about subject matter knowledge in a straightforward manner.




CHAPTER 3


3. Don’t worry about answer patterns. There is one myth that says that answers on multiple-choice tests follow patterns. There is another myth that there will never be more than two questions with the same lettered answer following each other. There is no truth to either of these myths. Select the answer you think is correct based on your knowledge of the subject.

4. There is no penalty for guessing. Your test score for multiple-choice questions is based on the number of correct answers you have. When you don’t know the answer to a question, try to eliminate any obviously wrong answers and then guess at the correct one.

5. It’s OK to write in your test booklet. You can work out problems right on the pages of the booklet, make notes to yourself, mark questions you want to review later, or write anything at all. Your test booklet will be destroyed after you are finished with it, so use it in any way that is helpful to you. But make sure to mark your answers on the answer sheet.

Smart Tips for Taking the Test1. Put your answers in the right “bubbles.” It seems obvious, but be sure that you are filling in the answer “bubble” that corresponds to the question you are answering. A significant number of test takers fill in a bubble without checking to see that the number matches the question they are answering.

2. Skip the questions you find extremely difficult. There are sure to be some questions that you think are hard. Rather than trying to answer these on your first pass through the test, leave them blank and mark them in your test booklet so that you can come back to them later. Pay attention to the time as you answer the rest of the questions on the test, and try to finish with 10 or 15 minutes remaining so that you can go back over the questions you left blank. Even if you don’t know the answer the second time you read the questions, see if you can narrow down the possible answers, and then guess.

3. Keep track of the time. Bring a watch to the test, just in case the clock in the test room is difficult for you to see. You will probably have plenty of time to answer all of the questions, but if you find yourself becoming bogged down in one section, you might decide to move on and come back to that section later.

4. Read all of the possible answers before selecting one—and then reread the question to be sure the answer you have selected really answers the question being asked. Remember that a question that contains a phrase such as “Which of the following does NOT ...” is asking for the one answer that is NOT a correct statement or conclusion.

5. Check your answers. If you have extra time left over at the end of the test, look over each question and make sure that you have filled in the “bubble” on the answer sheet as you intended. Many test takers make careless mistakes that they could have corrected if they had checked their answers.

6. Don’t worry about your score when you are taking the test. No one is expected to answer all of the questions correctly. Your score on this test is not analogous to your score on the SAT, the GRE, or other similar-looking (but in fact very different!) tests. It doesn’t matter on this test whether you score very high or barely pass. If you meet the minimum passing scores for your state and you meet the state’s other requirements for obtaining a teaching license, you will receive a license. In other words, your actual score doesn’t matter, as long as it is above the minimum required score. With your score report you will receive a booklet entitled Understanding Your Praxis Scores, which lists the passing scores for your state.



57971-00321 Praxis E-Book: Library Media (based on 025388-51045) • Fonts: Times, Futura, ZapfDingbats • dr01 9/20/06 jep • dr02 7/11/07 ta • edits dr02 7/16/07 ta • dr03 9/28/07 ljg • preflight 10/7/07 jep • dr01 1/25/08 jep • preflight 2/14/08 jep • dr01 4/9/09 jw / mc • RevDr01 4/14/09 jw • [NEW 79103-791030] • Dr01 6/9/09 jw • Dr01edits 6/15/09 jw • Dr02 7/13/09 jw • preflight 081109 cj

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 4Study Topics for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test




CHAPTER 4


Group Communication

Verbal and nonverbal messages Effective listening Basic elements of communication Communication process Communication competence

Interpersonal and intrapersonal elements of communication Relational communication competence Goals, skills, and outcomes Gender and culture Emotional and relational messages Communication in relationships

Communication Fundamentals

Interpersonal Communication

Discussion principles Problem solving and decision making Group roles and functions Conflict management Culture and leadership Elements of group communication Types of groups

Here is an overview of the areas covered on the test, along with their subareas:

Introduction to the TestThe Speech Communication: Content Knowledge test is designed to measure the subject-area knowledge and competencies necessary for a beginning teacher of speech communication in a middle or secondary school. The topics for questions are typically those covered in introductory courses.

This chapter is intended to help you organize your preparation for the test and to give you a clear indication about the depth and breadth of the knowledge required for success on the test.




CHAPTER 4


OralInterpretation/ Performance Studies

Purposes, types, and forms Audience analysis Organizing content Style and use of language Effective delivery Adaptation to audience Choosing supporting materials Delivery Evaluating speeches Culture and public speaking Uses of argument

Critical analysis and evaluation Media influence Communication technologies Environmental influences on media Types of media Race, gender, and class issues in media

Public Speaking

Media and Their Influences

Aesthetic principles Analysis Performance techniques Dramatic theory and criticism Readers’ theater Principles of acting

Forensics: Competitive Speech and Debate

Assessment and Evaluation Issues

Writing for and performing in individual events Identifying individual events Program management Argumentation and debate

Teacher responsibility Curriculum development Assessment techniques Test construction




CHAPTER 4


Using the topic lists that follow

You are not expected to be an expert on all aspects of the topics that follow. You should understand the major characteristics of each topic, recognize the minor topics, and have some familiarity with the subtopics. Virtually all accredited undergraduate speech communication programs address the majority of these topics, subtopics, and even minor topics.

Here, for instance, is one of the topic lists in Types of Media under Media and Their Influences:

■ Types of Media

▶ Television▶ Radio ▶ Internet▶ Newspapers

Referring to textbooks, state standards documents, or other sources as needed, make sure you can describe in your own words what types of media there are. For example, you should be able to think to yourself that television can be obtained through cable and satellite, as can radio. The Internet can be a source of formal or informal information, and newspapers can be printed or they can be obtained on the Internet.

You are likely to find that the topics below are covered by most introductory speech communication textbooks and textbooks for related fields such as media, but a general-survey textbook may not cover all of the subtopics. Consult materials and resources, including lecture and laboratory notes, from all your speech communication course work. You should be able to match up specific topics and subtopics with what you have covered in your courses.

Try not to be overwhelmed by the volume and scope of content knowledge in this guide. An overview such as this that lists speech communication topics does not offer you a great deal of context. Although a specific term may not seem familiar as you see it here, you might find you could understand it when applied to a real-life situation. Many of the items on the actual Praxis test will provide you with a context to apply to these topics or terms, as you will see when you look at the practice questions in Chapter 5.

Special questions marked with stars

Interspersed throughout the list of topics are questions that are outlined in boxes and preceded by stars (★). These questions are intended to help you test your knowledge of fundamental concepts and your ability to apply fundamental concepts to situations in the classroom or the real world. Most of the questions require you to combine several pieces of knowledge in order to formulate an integrated understanding and response. If you spend time on these questions, you will gain increased understanding and facility with the subject matter covered on the test. You might want to discuss these questions and your answers with a teacher or mentor.

Note that the questions marked with stars are not short answer or multiple-choice, and this study guide does not provide the answers. The questions marked with stars are intended as study questions, not practice questions. Thinking about the answers to them should improve your understanding of fundamental concepts and will probably help you answer a broad range of questions on the test. For example, the following box with a star appears in the list of study topics under Communication Process:

★ What factors influence the communication process?




CHAPTER 4


★ How do verbal and nonverbal messages interact to create meaning?

★ What types of messages are conveyed by verbal and by nonverbal cues?

■ Effective listening

▶ Hearing versus listening▶ Steps in the listening process▶ Barriers to effective listening▶ Types of listening

★ How can people be most effective in listening?

■ Basic elements of communication

▶ Components of the communication process

▶ Context and culture

★ What are the elements of a communication transaction?

★ How does each element contribute to or detract from the success of the communication process?

■ Communication process

▶ Perception▶ Self-concept▶ Self-disclosure▶ Transactional nature of communication

★ How do the elements and sequences in the communication process facilitate or inhibit the success of messages getting from one person to another?

★ What factors influence the communication process?

If you think about this question, perhaps jotting down some notes about the factors that influence the communication process, you will probably have prepared yourself to answer multiple-choice questions similar to the one that follows:

Which of the following statements best describes the way in which competent communicators manage conflict?

(A) Competent communicators are competitive.

(B) Competent communicators seek self-advancement—even at another’s expense.

(C) Competent communicators use a consistent conflict-management strategy throughout any given episode.

(D) Competent communicators consider both short- and long-term implications during any given episode.

(E) Competent communicators are able to interact without empathy.

The correct answer is (D). Competent communicators try to achieve mutually advantageous solutions for both the short- and long-term. They realize that to achieve their own goals they must also be sensitive to the goals and needs of others. Therefore, competent communicators are cooperative, not competitive, and they are sensitive to the uniqueness of any given conflict episode and adjust their conflict-management strategy accordingly.

Study Topics

Communication Fundamentals

■ Verbal and nonverbal messages

▶ Types and functions of nonverbal cues▶ Types of vocal cues▶ Language and perception▶ Symbols and signs




CHAPTER 4


■ Communication competence

▶ Functions▶ Development▶ Adapting to audiences and situations▶ Assessment

★ What makes a person a competent communicator?

Interpersonal Communication

■ Interpersonal and intrapersonal elements of communication

▶ Elements and theories of interpersonal communication

★ What are the interpersonal and intrapersonal elements of the communication process?

■ Relational communication competence

▶ Characteristics of relational communication competence

★ What are the characteristics of relational communication competence?

■ Goals, skills, and outcomes

▶ Types of goals, skills, and outcomes▶ The roles of various goals, skills, and

outcomes in the communication process

★ What are the goals of interpersonal communication?

★ What skills are necessary for effective interpersonal communication?

★ What are the outcomes of effective and ineffective interpersonal communication?

■ Gender and culture

▶ Difference between gender and sex▶ Dimensions used to distinguish cultures

from one another

★ How do gender and culture affect communication?

★ Which theories of gender and culture are relevant to interpersonal communication?

■ Emotional and relational messages

▶ Importance of nonverbal communication▶ Dimensional and relational-level

meanings

★ What are the emotional and relational messages that can be conveyed through interpersonal communication?

■ Communication in relationships

▶ Family▶ Romantic▶ Business

★ Which communication elements, processes, and theories are relevant to different types of interpersonal relationships?

Group Communication

■ Discussion principles

▶ Communicating cooperatively▶ Playing group roles flexibly▶ Effective participant-observer skills▶ Contributing appropriate task-related

messages▶ Contributing positive relational

messages

★ What makes for effective group discussion?

■ Problem solving and decision making

▶ Quality of information related to group problem solving and decision making

▶ Group communication climate where members can freely disagree




CHAPTER 4


■ Culture and leadership

▶ Understanding of leading as a communication process

▶ Understanding of the basic elements of models of leading (leaders, followers, and situations) and how these elements are connected

▶ Understanding the role of communication in creating a positive group climate

▶ Possessing high-quality discussion facilitation skills

▶ Possessing organizing skills that include effective agenda setting for meetings

▶ Understanding of group communication processes related to problem solving, decision making, and conflict management

★ What makes for effective leadership communication?

★ How does culture affect communication?

■ Types of groups

▶ Small groups versus large groups▶ Task committees within organizations▶ Hostile and countercultural groups▶ Families▶ Sports teams ▶ Juries

★ In what kinds of groups do individuals communicate?

Public Speaking

■ Purposes, types, and forms

▶ Special occasion ▶ Informative▶ Persuasive

▶ Effectiveness at managing divergent points of view within the group

▶ Making optimal use of available time for group to communicate about a decision or problem

▶ Organization of group discussion▶ Group discussion leadership qualities

★ What kinds of communication factors affect group decision making and problem solving?

■ Group roles and functions

▶ Group task roles—related to input and processing of information relevant to the group’s decisions and problem solutions

▶ Group relational roles—related to creating a positive climate among group members that motivates participation.

▶ Leadership—related to the management of group inputs and processes related to making effective decisions, creating effective solutions, and building positive group climate.

★ What kinds of roles do group members play in functional groups?

■ Conflict management

▶ Approach conflict as mutual problem (win-win)

▶ Search for areas of common ground▶ Focus on positions rather than

participants▶ Create a group communication climate

supportive of respectful disagreement and mutual understanding

▶ Rely on effective argumentation and debate skills

★ What are some of the best practices group members should follow when communicating during episodes of conflict?




CHAPTER 4


★ What are the major purposes for public speaking?

★ What are several types of special-occasion speeches?

■ Audience analysis

▶ Demographic factors▶ Situational factors▶ Gaining audience information

★ What are demographic characteristics of audiences?

★ Why is audience analysis important?

★ What methods are used to gain information about an audience?

■ Organizing content

▶ Introduction▶ Organizing strategies▶ Conclusion

★ Describe the different methods for organizing speeches.

★ Which organizational methods are suitable for informative speeches?

★ Which are best for persuasive speeches?

★ What elements should be contained in an introduction?

■ Style and use of language

▶ Spoken versus written language▶ Language devices▶ Figures of speech

★ How do written and spoken language differ?

How are they similar?

★ What imagery devices are effective for public speeches?

■ Effective delivery

▶ Conversational quality▶ Impromptu▶ Extemporaneous

★ What are the four methods of delivery for public speaking?

★ What style of delivery is best suited for most speeches?

■ Adaptation to audience

▶ Listening▶ Feedback▶ Hostile, neutral, and supportive

audiences

★ Why is feedback important during a speech?

★ How can a speaker adapt to various audiences?

■ Choosing supporting materials

▶ Supporting topics▶ Ethics▶ Visual aids

★ How can a public speaker avoid plagiarism?

★ Why should a speaker include supporting materials in a speech?

★ Why types of supporting materials are commonly used in speeches?

★ How do visual aids enhance a speech?




CHAPTER 4


Media and Their Influences

■ Critical analysis and evaluation

▶ Elections▶ Media ownership▶ Democracy▶ Linkages between entertainment and

information

★ In what ways are citizens and policy makers influenced by the way information is framed?

■ Media influence

▶ Programming▶ Commercials▶ Political process

★ In what ways do mass media impact peoples’ lives politically, socially, economically, and culturally?

■ Communication technologies

▶ Internet▶ Blogging, Twitter, Skype, podcasts▶ Ethics

★ What constitutes a communication technology?

★ In what ways do communication technologies affect the way individuals, volunteer groups, organizations, and governments interact?

■ Environmental influences on media

▶ News▶ Events▶ Technology

■ Delivery

▶ Voice▶ Diction▶ Pronunciation▶ Movement

★ What aspects of a speaker's voice are commonly used in speeches?

★ What aspects of the speaker's body are commonly used to enhance public speaking?

■ Evaluating speeches

▶ Criticism▶ Evaluation▶ Rhetorical criticism▶ Assessment

★ What are the most important elements in assessing the effectiveness of a speech?

★ How are speeches assessed fairly?

■ Culture and public speaking

▶ Ethnocentrism▶ Inclusiveness

★ How should the speaker make sure the speech is inclusive of all audience members?

■ Uses of argument

▶ Types of reasoning▶ Types of appeals▶ Fallacies

★ What are the three types of appeals used in persuasion?

★ What are the major types of argument reasoning?

★ What are fallacies in reasoning?




CHAPTER 4


★ What range of social factors might influence how news is reported, how commercials are produced, what music is programmed on the radio, and how individuals use the Internet?

★ In what ways does the practice of instant voting and polling using technology suggest a new paradigm in understanding public opinion?

■ Types of media

▶ Television▶ Radio▶ Internet▶ Newspapers▶ Copyright, programming, and

commercials

★ How do people use television, radio, newspapers, and the Internet to gratify their needs?

★ How are peoples’ different needs fulfilled through these media?

★ How do some forms of media fill a need differently than another medium?

★ How do these forms of media operate on a basic level?

★ What are the ethical issues involved in copyright law?

■ Race, gender, and class issues in media

▶ Representation▶ Media influence▶ Social justice

★ How are race, gender, and class represented in the media?

Oral Interpretation/Performance Studies

■ Aesthetic principles

▶ Relationship between reader, text, and audience

▶ Universality▶ Individuality

★ What decisions must an oral interpreter make when selecting and preparing a piece of literature for performance for an audience?

■ Analysis

▶ Text and context▶ Thinking involved in the interpretation

process

★ When analyzing literature for oral interpretation, what are the important literary elements to consider for cutting selections for performance and for conveying the author’s intent?

■ Performance techniques

▶ Voice▶ Use and handling of manuscripts▶ Development of character

★ In oral interpretation, how can performers bring text to life for an audience without costumes or props and with only a printed manuscript?

■ Dramatic theory and criticism

▶ Forms▶ Styles▶ Structures




CHAPTER 4


■ Identifying individual events

▶ Public address▶ Interpretation▶ Extemporaneous speaking

★ What are the National Forensic League rules for individual events?

★ How are competitive speech events different at the high school level from the collegiate level?

★ How is interpretation different from acting?

★ What is meant by extemporaneous speaking in competitive speech?

■ Program management

▶ Tournament and team management▶ Coaching philosophy▶ School relations

★ What skills are necessary for effective coaching of debate and competitive speech?

★ How can a coach best prepare for hosting a tournament?

■ Argumentation and debate

▶ Lincoln-Douglas debate▶ Student congress▶ Policy debate▶ Public forum debate

★ What are the stock issues in policy debate?

★ What differentiates policy debate from Lincoln-Douglas debate?

★ What are the major types of debate cases?

★ How do the genre of the literature being performed and the characteristics of the genre affect the performance of the literature and the approach an interpreter takes during preparation?

■ Readers’ theater

▶ Readers’ theater▶ Storytelling▶ Folklore▶ Oral history▶ Creative dramatics

★ How has oral interpretation evolved from early humankind until today, and what are some of the specific forms of oral interpretation that exist today as unique types of performances and records of human culture and history?

■ Principles of acting

▶ Voice▶ Movement▶ Characterization

★ How can performers best use their voices and bodies to create unique personae and characters in oral interpretation and bring literature to life for an audience?

Forensics: Competitive Speech and Debate

■ Writing for and performing in individual events

▶ High school rules for individual events▶ Interpretation versus acting▶ Citing sources in speaking events

★ At the high school level, which events are written by students, and which must be performed from published works?




CHAPTER 4


Assessment and Evaluation Issues

■ Teacher responsibility

▶ Ethics ▶ Promptness of feedback▶ Objective assessment of performance

★ What are guidelines for teaching and modeling ethics to students?

★ What are guidelines for the timing of feedback?

★ What are characteristics of objective assessment of performance?

■ Curriculum development

▶ Curriculum development and implementation

▶ Appropriate assignments▶ Textbook selection

★ What are the purposes and elements of curriculum development and implementation?

★ What are guidelines for developing appropriate assignments?

★ What is the process of textbook selection?

■ Assessment techniques

▶ Classroom behaviors▶ Written and oral critiques▶ Rubrics

★ What are guidelines for managing classroom behavior?

★ What are guidelines for providing written and oral critiques?

★ What are the principles of rubric construction and utilization?

■ Test construction

▶ Tests▶ Alternate forms of assessment

★ What are the principles of test construction and administration?

★ What are types of alternate forms of assessment, and what are the principles for their construction and use?



▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 5Practice Questions for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Test



CHAPTER 5


CHAPTER 5


Now that you have studied the content topics and have worked through strategies related to multiple-choice questions, you should take the following practice test. You will probably find it helpful to simulate actual testing conditions, giving yourself 90 minutes to work on the questions. You can use the answer sheet provided if you wish. Keep in mind that the test you take at an actual administration will have different questions, although the proportion of questions in each area and major subarea will be approximately the same. You should not expect the percentage of questions you answer correctly in these practice questions to be exactly the same as when you take the test at an actual administration, since numerous factors affect a person’s performance in any given testing situation. When you have finished the practice questions, you can score your answers and read the explanations of the best answer choices in chapter 6.



No Folio Page 29

Time—90 minutes 90 Questions

(Note, at the official test administration, there will be 120 questions, and you will be allowed 120 minutes to complete the test.)

TEST NAME:

Speech C o m m u n icatio n : C o n ten t Knowledge



No Folio Page 30

A

A

A

A

A

A

A

B

B

B

B

B

B

B

C

C

C

C

C

C

C

D

D

D

D

D

D

D

E

E

E

E

E

E

E

F

F

F

F

F

F

F

G

G

G

G

G

G

G

H

H

H

H

H

H

H

I

I I

I I

I

I

J

J J

J J

J

J

K

K

K

K

K

K

K

L

L L

L L

L

L

M

M

M

M

M

M

M

N

N

N

N

N

N

N

O

O

O

O

O

O

O

P

P

P

P

P

P

P

Q

Q

Q

Q

Q

Q

Q

R

R

R

R

R

R

R

S

S

S

S

S

S

S

T

T

T

T

T

T

T

U

U

U

U

U

U

U

V

V

V

V

V

V

V

W

W

W

W

W

W

W

X

X

X

X

X

X

X

Y

Y

Y

Y

Y

Y

Y

Z

Z

Z

Z

Z

Z

Z

Las

t N

ame

(fi r

st 6

lett

ers)

F I

DO

NO

T U

SE

INK

Use

onl

y a

penc

il w

ith s

oft b

lack

lead

(N

o. 2

or

HB

) to

com

plet

e th

is

answ

er s

heet

. Be

sure

to fi

ll in

com

plet

ely

the

oval

that

cor

resp

onds

to

the

prop

er le

tter

or n

umbe

r. C

ompl

etel

y er

ase

any

erro

rs o

r st

ray

mar

ks.

An

swer

Sh

eet

B

Copy

right

© 2

008

Educ

atio

nal T

estin

g Se

rvic

e. A

ll rig

hts

rese

rved

. Edu

catio

nal T

estin

g Se

rvic

e, E

TS, a

nd th

e ET

S lo

go a

re re

gist

ered

trad

emar

ks o

f Edu

catio

nal T

estin

g Se

rvic

e.

Prax

is a

nd T

he P

raxi

s Se

ries

are

trade

mar

ks o

f Edu

catio

nal T

estin

g Se

rvic

e.

1 2

3 4

O Q

O Q

4. S

OC

IAL

SE

CU

RIT

Y

NU

MB

ER

0

0 0

0 0

0 0

0 0

1

1 1

1 1

1 1

1 1

2

2 2

2 2

2 2

2 2

3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3 3

4

4 4

4 4

4 4

4 4

5

5 5

5 5

5 5

5 5

6

6 6

6 6

6 6

6 6

7

7 7

7 7

7 7

7 7

8

8 8

8 8

8 8

8 8

9

9 9

9 9

9 9

9 9

3. D

AT

E O

F B

IRT

H

Jan.

Feb

.

Mar

.

Apr

il

May

June

July

Aug

.

Sep

t.

Oct

.

Nov

.

Dec

.

0

0

1

1

2

2

3

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

M

onth

D

ay

0 1

75430-08916 • TF108E260 • Printed in U.S.A. mh08266 Q2572-06

PAG

E 1

7. T

ES

T C

OD

E /

F

OR

M C

OD

E

0

0 0

0 0

0 0

1

1 1

1 1

1 1

2

2 2

2 2

2 2

3

3 3

3 3

3 3

4

4 4

4 4

4 4

5

5 5

5 5

5 5

6

6 6

6 6

6 6

7

7 7

7 7

7 7

8

8 8

8 8

8 8

9

9 9

9 9

9 9

9. T

ES

T F

OR

M

10. T

ES

T N

AM

E

2. YO

UR

NA

ME

:(P

rint)

Last

Nam

e (F

amily

or

Sur

nam

e)

F

irst N

ame

(Giv

en)

M

. I.

MA

ILIN

G A

DD

RE

SS

:(P

rint)

P

.O. B

ox o

r S

tree

t Add

ress

A

pt. #

(if

any)

C

ity

Sta

te o

r P

rovi

nce

C

ount

ry

Z

ip o

r P

osta

l Cod

e

TE

LE

PH

ON

E N

UM

BE

R:

(

)

(

)

Hom

e

Bus

ines

s

SIG

NA

TU

RE

:

TE

ST

DA

TE

:

5. C

AN

DID

AT

E ID

NU

MB

ER

0

0 0

0 0

0 0

0

1

1 1

1 1

1 1

1

2

2 2

2 2

2 2

2

3

3 3

3 3

3 3

3

4

4 4

4 4

4 4

4

5

5 5

5 5

5 5

5

6

6 6

6 6

6 6

6

7

7 7

7 7

7 7

7

8

8 8

8 8

8 8

8

9

9 9

9 9

9 9

9

8. T

ES

T B

OO

K S

ER

IAL

NU

MB

ER

S

7503

88

S123

4567

89T

6. T

ES

T C

EN

TE

R /

RE

PO

RT

ING

LO

CA

TIO

N

C

ente

r N

umbe

r

Roo

m N

umbe

r

Cen

ter

Nam

e

C

ity

Sta

te o

r P

rovi

nce

Cou

ntry

1. N

AM

EEn

ter y

our l

ast n

ame

and

fi rst

initi

al.

Omit

spac

es, h

yphe

ns, a

post

roph

es, e

tc.



No Folio Page 31

PAGE 2

SIGNATURE:

CERTIFICATION STATEMENT: (Please write the following statement below. DO NOT PRINT.)

“I hereby agree to the conditions set forth in the Registration Bulletin and certify that I am the person whose name and address appear on this answer sheet.”

DATE:Month Day Year

BE SURE EACH MARK IS DARK AND COMPLETELY FILLS THE INTENDED SPACE AS ILLUSTRATED HERE:

12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940

41424344454647484950515253545556575859606162636465666768697071727374757677787980

81828384858687888990919293949596979899100101102103104105106107108109110111112113114115116117118119120

121122123124125126127128129130131132133134135136137138139140141142143144145146147148149150151152153154155156157158159160

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

FOR ETS USE ONLY R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8 TR CS

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E



CHAPTER 5


Speech Communication: Content Knowledge 1. Brainstorming is a technique developed

by Alex Osborn that is designed to produce imaginative approaches to a specific problem. Which of the following is a basic rule inherent in the successful use of brainstorming?

(A) Ideas must be presented with supporting evidence.

(B) Evaluation of ideas is encouraged. (C) Criticism of ideas is not allowed. (D) Requests for clarification are not allowed. (E) Discussion time must be limited to five

minutes per person. 2. Which of the following is true of Lincoln-Douglas

debates?

(A) They focus on propositions of policy. (B) They are debates between two individuals. (C) They emphasize plan attacks and

counterplans. (D) They require that new arguments be

introduced in the rebuttal. (E) They do not include cross-examination

as part of their format. 3. Groups that are characterized by frequent

interaction and positive reinforcement are best described as

(A) diffuse (B) independent (C) leaderless (D) coercive (E) cohesive

4. Acculturation refers to the process whereby

individuals

(A) reject the opportunity to interact with persons from other cultures

(B) become socialized into a culture (C) learn only the nonverbal dynamics

of a culture (D) become aware of the process

of intercultural communication (E) learn to repress the negative features

of a culture

5. After a script has been written, plans for a film or television production are usually developed through the use of

(A) graphic logs (B) script graphs (C) pic outlines (D) storyboards (E) blocking scripts

6. The theater person who is referred to as

“the audience of one” is the

(A) playwright (B) critic (C) actor (D) director (E) designer

7. A student who experiences communication

apprehension could be helped by which of the following techniques?

(A) Reading the speech so that eye contact with the listeners is minimized

(B) Delaying preparing and practicing the speech so that there is less time to be nervous

(C) Selecting a topic that will interest the listeners even if the student cares little about the subject

(D) Focusing attention on the audience and away from self to channel nervous energy

(E) Sharing his or her fears with the audience in order to gain sympathy

Speech Communication: Content Knowledge 1. Brainstorming is a technique developed

by Alex Osborn that is designed to produce imaginative approaches to a specific problem. Which of the following is a basic rule inherent in the successful use of brainstorming?

(A) Ideas must be presented with supporting evidence.

(B) Evaluation of ideas is encouraged. (C) Criticism of ideas is not allowed. (D) Requests for clarification are not allowed. (E) Discussion time must be limited to five

minutes per person. 2. Which of the following is true of Lincoln-Douglas

debates?

(A) They focus on propositions of policy. (B) They are debates between two individuals. (C) They emphasize plan attacks and

counterplans. (D) They require that new arguments be

introduced in the rebuttal. (E) They do not include cross-examination

as part of their format. 3. Groups that are characterized by frequent

interaction and positive reinforcement are best described as

(A) diffuse (B) independent (C) leaderless (D) coercive (E) cohesive

4. Acculturation refers to the process whereby

individuals

(A) reject the opportunity to interact with persons from other cultures

(B) become socialized into a culture (C) learn only the nonverbal dynamics

of a culture (D) become aware of the process

of intercultural communication (E) learn to repress the negative features

of a culture

5. After a script has been written, plans for a film or television production are usually developed through the use of

(A) graphic logs (B) script graphs (C) pic outlines (D) storyboards (E) blocking scripts

6. The theater person who is referred to as

“the audience of one” is the

(A) playwright (B) critic (C) actor (D) director (E) designer

7. A student who experiences communication

apprehension could be helped by which of the following techniques?

(A) Reading the speech so that eye contact with the listeners is minimized

(B) Delaying preparing and practicing the speech so that there is less time to be nervous

(C) Selecting a topic that will interest the listeners even if the student cares little about the subject

(D) Focusing attention on the audience and away from self to channel nervous energy

(E) Sharing his or her fears with the audience in order to gain sympathy



CHAPTER 5


8. Informing, expressing, imagining, ritualizing, and

persuading are competencies indicative of which of the following approaches to communication curriculum design?

(A) Receiver based (B) Survey (C) Functional (D) Conflict (E) Context

9. In policy debate, if the negative team argues that

the affirmative team’s plan does not fit within the resolution, the negative team is using which of the following debate arguments?

(A) Advantages (B) Disadvantages (C) Rebuttal (D) Status quo (E) Topicality

10. One positive outcome of disagreement during

small-group problem solving is that

(A) creative tension produces a better decision (B) consensus among the group members arises

faster (C) nonverbal language can be set aside (D) the group is free to disband at any time (E) the ideas of the majority are rubber-stamped

11. During a lecture a teacher notices a student

talking with another student. The teacher pauses, turns toward the students, lowers his reading glasses, narrows his brow, and squints. After holding the expression for a moment, the teacher returns to look at the class and continues the lecture. The teacher’s expression is an example of

(A) repeating (B) conflicting (C) complementing (D) substituting (E) accenting

12. Which of the following uses the advertising technique “bandwagon”?

(A) Eat at Joe’s (B) Joe’s—A family place (C) Two can eat as cheaply as one at Joe’s (D) Everybody eats at Joe’s (E) Enjoy the elegance of yesteryear at Joe’s

13. Imagery that appeals to the motor sense,

specifically to the tensing and relaxing of muscles, is referred to as

(A) auditory (B) gustatory (C) kinesthetic (D) olfactory (E) tactile

14. Which of the following is generally the best

strategy for a speaker to adopt when trying to persuade a neutral audience to take a specific action?

(A) Advancing both strong and weak arguments in support of the action

(B) Undermining both strong and weak arguments against the action

(C) Beginning with weaker arguments, since strong arguments tend to alienate audiences

(D) Advancing strong arguments for the action and ignoring counterarguments

(E) Advancing strong arguments for the action and refuting strong counterarguments

8. Informing, expressing, imagining, ritualizing, and

persuading are competencies indicative of which of the following approaches to communication curriculum design?

(A) Receiver based (B) Survey (C) Functional (D) Conflict (E) Context

9. In policy debate, if the negative team argues that

the affirmative team’s plan does not fit within the resolution, the negative team is using which of the following debate arguments?

(A) Advantages (B) Disadvantages (C) Rebuttal (D) Status quo (E) Topicality

10. One positive outcome of disagreement during

small-group problem solving is that

(A) creative tension produces a better decision (B) consensus among the group members arises

faster (C) nonverbal language can be set aside (D) the group is free to disband at any time (E) the ideas of the majority are rubber-stamped

11. During a lecture a teacher notices a student

talking with another student. The teacher pauses, turns toward the students, lowers his reading glasses, narrows his brow, and squints. After holding the expression for a moment, the teacher returns to look at the class and continues the lecture. The teacher’s expression is an example of

(A) repeating (B) conflicting (C) complementing (D) substituting (E) accenting

12. Which of the following uses the advertising technique “bandwagon”?

(A) Eat at Joe’s (B) Joe’s—A family place (C) Two can eat as cheaply as one at Joe’s (D) Everybody eats at Joe’s (E) Enjoy the elegance of yesteryear at Joe’s

13. Imagery that appeals to the motor sense,

specifically to the tensing and relaxing of muscles, is referred to as

(A) auditory (B) gustatory (C) kinesthetic (D) olfactory (E) tactile

14. Which of the following is generally the best

strategy for a speaker to adopt when trying to persuade a neutral audience to take a specific action?

(A) Advancing both strong and weak arguments in support of the action

(B) Undermining both strong and weak arguments against the action

(C) Beginning with weaker arguments, since strong arguments tend to alienate audiences

(D) Advancing strong arguments for the action and ignoring counterarguments

(E) Advancing strong arguments for the action and refuting strong counterarguments



CHAPTER 5


15. Which of the following best describes the purpose

of the National Communication Association’s K-12 Speaking, Listening, and Media Literacy Standards and Competency Statements?

(A) To dictate specific content for communication teacher-education training programs

(B) To emphasize the priority of teaching media literacy to students in grades K through 12

(C) To provide direction for curriculum development for those teaching communication in grades K through 12

(D) To provide criteria for evaluating the quality of communication teacher-education training programs

(E) To provide specific assessment techniques for measuring the progress of students in grades K through 12 in communication studies

16. Which of the following management strategies

is designed to give a win-win solution?

(A) Collaborating (B) Avoiding (C) Accommodating (D) Competing (E) Compromising

17. Conflicts that arise from relationships, roles,

or personal goals are categorized as

(A) substantive conflict (B) procedural conflict (C) affective conflict (D) intergroup conflict (E) confrontational conflict

18. When a speaker is addressing a hostile audience,

which of the following is most likely to be persuasive?

(A) Hypothetical example (B) Emulation (C) Statistics (D) Rhetorical question (E) Narrative

19. A speech reviewing the history of nuclear energy production in the United States is most likely to be given for which of the following purposes?

(A) To motivate (B) To inform (C) To confirm (D) To persuade (E) To dissociate

20. President John F. Kennedy’s famous quotation

“Ask not what your country can do for you; ask what you can do for your country” is an example of which of the following language devices?

(A) Irony (B) Personification (C) Antithesis (D) Metaphor (E) Hyperbole

21. Which of the following lists the three major

elements of a problem?

(A) A goal, barriers to that goal, and approaches to the barriers

(B) An agenda, causes, and consequences (C) Limits, topics, and standards (D) Task dimension, social dimension, and

maintenance dimension (E) Norms, cohesion, and primary tension

22. To develop a strong voice production, it is first

necessary to control

(A) pitch (B) volume (C) quality (D) rate (E) breathing

15. Which of the following best describes the purpose

of the National Communication Association’s K-12 Speaking, Listening, and Media Literacy Standards and Competency Statements?

(A) To dictate specific content for communication teacher-education training programs

(B) To emphasize the priority of teaching media literacy to students in grades K through 12

(C) To provide direction for curriculum development for those teaching communication in grades K through 12

(D) To provide criteria for evaluating the quality of communication teacher-education training programs

(E) To provide specific assessment techniques for measuring the progress of students in grades K through 12 in communication studies

16. Which of the following management strategies

is designed to give a win-win solution?

(A) Collaborating (B) Avoiding (C) Accommodating (D) Competing (E) Compromising

17. Conflicts that arise from relationships, roles,

or personal goals are categorized as

(A) substantive conflict (B) procedural conflict (C) affective conflict (D) intergroup conflict (E) confrontational conflict

18. When a speaker is addressing a hostile audience,

which of the following is most likely to be persuasive?

(A) Hypothetical example (B) Emulation (C) Statistics (D) Rhetorical question (E) Narrative

19. A speech reviewing the history of nuclear energy production in the United States is most likely to be given for which of the following purposes?

(A) To motivate (B) To inform (C) To confirm (D) To persuade (E) To dissociate

20. President John F. Kennedy’s famous quotation

“Ask not what your country can do for you; ask what you can do for your country” is an example of which of the following language devices?

(A) Irony (B) Personification (C) Antithesis (D) Metaphor (E) Hyperbole

21. Which of the following lists the three major

elements of a problem?

(A) A goal, barriers to that goal, and approaches to the barriers

(B) An agenda, causes, and consequences (C) Limits, topics, and standards (D) Task dimension, social dimension, and

maintenance dimension (E) Norms, cohesion, and primary tension

22. To develop a strong voice production, it is first

necessary to control

(A) pitch (B) volume (C) quality (D) rate (E) breathing



CHAPTER 5


23. Which of the following defines a “share” in radio?

(A) The ratio of sales figures to the proportion of the radio advertisements in a given 24-hour period

(B) The ratio of listeners to a particular station to all people in the market

(C) The ratio of listeners in a market to the total number of radio and television stations in the market

(D) The ratio of listeners to a particular station to the total number of radio listeners in the market

(E) The cost per minute of a radio advertisement divided by the cost per minute of programming in which the radio advertisement is placed

24. At a forensics tournament, the term “double

entry” means

(A) competing in duo interpretation (B) participating in two events (C) using the same selection in two events (D) competing in two tournaments on the

same day (E) allowing two students from one school

to use the same selection 25. Experts on conflict believe that conflict is

best resolved when people create a supportive environment. Which of the following behaviors is most likely to create a supportive environment?

(A) Evaluation (B) Control (C) Spontaneity (D) Neutrality (E) Certainty

26. Which of the following statements is true of most elite press?

(A) Readership of elite press is increasing. (B) Elite press has the reputation of being far

more conservative than the general public opinion.

(C) Politicians do not often read elite press. (D) Elite press influences public policy by

drawing attention to certain issues. (E) Elite press gets most of its news from

other newspapers. 27. When should audience-centered speakers consider

the audience?

(A) While selecting and narrowing the speech topic

(B) While gathering supporting material (C) While delivering the speech (D) Throughout the entire process of speech

preparation and delivery (E) When soliciting feedback about the speech

after it has been presented 28. For a speech about rock music, a speaker has

decided to organize content by using two main points. The first main point is about hard rock, and the second main point is about soft rock. What organizational strategy has the speaker chosen?

(A) Chronological (B) Topical (C) Spatial (D) Cause-effect (E) Problem-solution

23. Which of the following defines a “share” in radio?

(A) The ratio of sales figures to the proportion of the radio advertisements in a given 24-hour period

(B) The ratio of listeners to a particular station to all people in the market

(C) The ratio of listeners in a market to the total number of radio and television stations in the market

(D) The ratio of listeners to a particular station to the total number of radio listeners in the market

(E) The cost per minute of a radio advertisement divided by the cost per minute of programming in which the radio advertisement is placed

24. At a forensics tournament, the term “double

entry” means

(A) competing in duo interpretation (B) participating in two events (C) using the same selection in two events (D) competing in two tournaments on the

same day (E) allowing two students from one school

to use the same selection 25. Experts on conflict believe that conflict is

best resolved when people create a supportive environment. Which of the following behaviors is most likely to create a supportive environment?

(A) Evaluation (B) Control (C) Spontaneity (D) Neutrality (E) Certainty

26. Which of the following statements is true of most elite press?

(A) Readership of elite press is increasing. (B) Elite press has the reputation of being far

more conservative than the general public opinion.

(C) Politicians do not often read elite press. (D) Elite press influences public policy by

drawing attention to certain issues. (E) Elite press gets most of its news from

other newspapers. 27. When should audience-centered speakers consider

the audience?

(A) While selecting and narrowing the speech topic

(B) While gathering supporting material (C) While delivering the speech (D) Throughout the entire process of speech

preparation and delivery (E) When soliciting feedback about the speech

after it has been presented 28. For a speech about rock music, a speaker has

decided to organize content by using two main points. The first main point is about hard rock, and the second main point is about soft rock. What organizational strategy has the speaker chosen?

(A) Chronological (B) Topical (C) Spatial (D) Cause-effect (E) Problem-solution



CHAPTER 5


29. Which of the following is an important point that

teachers should convey to their students about the ethics surrounding blogging?

(A) Bloggers are rarely held to the same editorial scrutiny as journalists.

(B) Bloggers are usually more credible because of their anonymity.

(C) The Supreme Court has held that First Amendment rights do not protect bloggers.

(D) Most Internet users know that bloggers are unethical.

(E) Ethics is not an important consideration when using the Internet.

30. Many researchers have studied the role of mass

media in the development of social capital, or the relative richness of social relationships in a community. Generally speaking, this research argues which of the following about television viewing among citizens?

(A) It detracts from social capital by encouraging violent behavior.

(B) It detracts from social capital by reducing face-to-face interaction.

(C) It has little effect on social capital. (D) It adds to social capital through airing

of multiple, global perspectives. (E) It adds to social capital by encouraging

families to gather together to watch television

31. Which of the following terms best describes

statements between partners in a relationship such as “When I’m with you, I feel relaxed and happy” and “I’m the person who makes decisions in this relationship”?

(A) Foundational assertions (B) Instrumental statements (C) Exchange parameters (D) Relational messages (E) Commitment acts

32. Which of the following actions does the gatekeeper perform in a small group?

(A) Controlling channels of communication and the flow of information

(B) Taking minutes of group meetings (C) Keeping the group on track and guiding

discussion (D) Requesting clarification and asking

for suggestions from group members (E) Using humor to release tension among

group members 33. Which of the following is the best practice for

administering an exam?

(A) If there is no clock in the room, the teacher should not distract students by keeping track of time on the chalkboard.

(B) During the exam, the teacher should remain at the front of the room.

(C) After the exam, the teacher should allow students to take home the exam questions.

(D) The teacher should ensure that the physical setting is quiet, well lit, and not crowded.

(E) Students should be encouraged to have snacks during the exam.

34. In communications to a large audience, how do

written style and oral style of language differ?

(A) Oral style is more personal than written style. (B) Oral style is more formal than written style. (C) Oral style is less repetitive than written style. (D) Oral style is more planned than written style. (E) Oral style uses fewer channels than written

style.

29. Which of the following is an important point that

teachers should convey to their students about the ethics surrounding blogging?

(A) Bloggers are rarely held to the same editorial scrutiny as journalists.

(B) Bloggers are usually more credible because of their anonymity.

(C) The Supreme Court has held that First Amendment rights do not protect bloggers.

(D) Most Internet users know that bloggers are unethical.

(E) Ethics is not an important consideration when using the Internet.

30. Many researchers have studied the role of mass

media in the development of social capital, or the relative richness of social relationships in a community. Generally speaking, this research argues which of the following about television viewing among citizens?

(A) It detracts from social capital by encouraging violent behavior.

(B) It detracts from social capital by reducing face-to-face interaction.

(C) It has little effect on social capital. (D) It adds to social capital through airing

of multiple, global perspectives. (E) It adds to social capital by encouraging

families to gather together to watch television

31. Which of the following terms best describes

statements between partners in a relationship such as “When I’m with you, I feel relaxed and happy” and “I’m the person who makes decisions in this relationship”?

(A) Foundational assertions (B) Instrumental statements (C) Exchange parameters (D) Relational messages (E) Commitment acts

32. Which of the following actions does the gatekeeper perform in a small group?

(A) Controlling channels of communication and the flow of information

(B) Taking minutes of group meetings (C) Keeping the group on track and guiding

discussion (D) Requesting clarification and asking

for suggestions from group members (E) Using humor to release tension among

group members 33. Which of the following is the best practice for

administering an exam?

(A) If there is no clock in the room, the teacher should not distract students by keeping track of time on the chalkboard.

(B) During the exam, the teacher should remain at the front of the room.

(C) After the exam, the teacher should allow students to take home the exam questions.

(D) The teacher should ensure that the physical setting is quiet, well lit, and not crowded.

(E) Students should be encouraged to have snacks during the exam.

34. In communications to a large audience, how do

written style and oral style of language differ?

(A) Oral style is more personal than written style. (B) Oral style is more formal than written style. (C) Oral style is less repetitive than written style. (D) Oral style is more planned than written style. (E) Oral style uses fewer channels than written

style.



CHAPTER 5


35. Which of the following is an example of mindful

listening?

(A) Trying to understand fully what another person is expressing, without imposing one’s own thoughts and feelings

(B) Listening to the content of another person’s message but ignoring the message’s relational meanings

(C) Mentally preparing one’s own response while another person is talking

(D) Pretending to listen while one’s mind is elsewhere

(E) Being afraid of misunderstanding or misinterpreting the spoken messages of others

36. When a nonverbal cue contradicts an

accompanying verbal message, people normally believe

(A) the verbal message (B) the nonverbal cue (C) neither the verbal message nor

the nonverbal cue (D) previous verbal messages (E) subsequent verbal messages

37. To present a film character as larger-than-life,

which of the following techniques for filming the actor would be most appropriate?

(A) Locating the camera above the actor (B) Locating the camera below the actor (C) Filming the actor in profile (D) Backlighting the actor (E) Lighting the actor from below

38. According to Aristotle, tragedy is supposed

to produce an emotional cleansing called

(A) mimesis (B) catachresis (C) tragic relief (D) empathy (E) catharsis

39. In policy debate, the belief that the status quo is adequate unless the affirmative team proves that a change is necessary is called

(A) fiat power (B) presumption (C) counterplan (D) minor repair (E) burden of rejoinder

40. Group discussions can often be dominated by one

participant who speaks excessively. To facilitate discussion in such a situation, the most effective strategy would be for the leader to

(A) assign the same amount of speaking time to each member

(B) wait patiently for other members to express their discontentment

(C) ask a quiet member of the group to rebut some of the points the speaker is making

(D) acknowledge the speaker’s point of view and ask for other opinions from the group

(E) ask the speaker to elaborate with specific examples

41. The purpose of a eulogy is to

(A) pay tribute to someone who has died (B) celebrate a past event (C) set the theme or tone for a meeting

or conference (D) officially recommend someone as

a candidate for an office or position (E) present an award to a person being

honored

35. Which of the following is an example of mindful

listening?

(A) Trying to understand fully what another person is expressing, without imposing one’s own thoughts and feelings

(B) Listening to the content of another person’s message but ignoring the message’s relational meanings

(C) Mentally preparing one’s own response while another person is talking

(D) Pretending to listen while one’s mind is elsewhere

(E) Being afraid of misunderstanding or misinterpreting the spoken messages of others

36. When a nonverbal cue contradicts an

accompanying verbal message, people normally believe

(A) the verbal message (B) the nonverbal cue (C) neither the verbal message nor

the nonverbal cue (D) previous verbal messages (E) subsequent verbal messages

37. To present a film character as larger-than-life,

which of the following techniques for filming the actor would be most appropriate?

(A) Locating the camera above the actor (B) Locating the camera below the actor (C) Filming the actor in profile (D) Backlighting the actor (E) Lighting the actor from below

38. According to Aristotle, tragedy is supposed

to produce an emotional cleansing called

(A) mimesis (B) catachresis (C) tragic relief (D) empathy (E) catharsis

39. In policy debate, the belief that the status quo is adequate unless the affirmative team proves that a change is necessary is called

(A) fiat power (B) presumption (C) counterplan (D) minor repair (E) burden of rejoinder

40. Group discussions can often be dominated by one

participant who speaks excessively. To facilitate discussion in such a situation, the most effective strategy would be for the leader to

(A) assign the same amount of speaking time to each member

(B) wait patiently for other members to express their discontentment

(C) ask a quiet member of the group to rebut some of the points the speaker is making

(D) acknowledge the speaker’s point of view and ask for other opinions from the group

(E) ask the speaker to elaborate with specific examples

41. The purpose of a eulogy is to

(A) pay tribute to someone who has died (B) celebrate a past event (C) set the theme or tone for a meeting

or conference (D) officially recommend someone as

a candidate for an office or position (E) present an award to a person being

honored



CHAPTER 5


CHAPTER 5


42. Which of the following is the best guideline

for using gestures effectively?

(A) Gestures should be formal, and even tense, to emphasize a point.

(B) Gestures should draw attention to themselves. (C) Gestures should be timed so as not to

coincide with the verbal message. (D) Gestures should be appropriate to the verbal

content of a speech. (E) Gestures should appear scripted to

demonstrate preparation to the audience. 43. Which of the following best explains the

relationship between hearing and listening?

(A) “Hearing” and “listening” are two words for the same process; therefore there is no substantive difference.

(B) Hearing is the physical process of receiving sound stimuli; listening is the mental process of receiving and assigning meaning to sound stimuli.

(C) Hearing is the mental process of assigning meaning to sound stimuli; listening is the physical process of receiving sound stimuli.

(D) Hearing involves both the speaker and the listener; listening involves only the listener.

(E) Hearing involves attending to sound stimuli only; listening involves receiving sound stimuli only.

44. A group using the program evaluation and review

technique (PERT) will

(A) systematically implement a decision by determining steps and establishing a time for each step

(B) hold a special meeting after the group’s task has been completed to assess the quality of the work and determine ways to improve their performance on future assignments

(C) rank order the group’s goals according to importance so members can focus attention on the issues

(D) prepare an agenda for each meeting and post it where all members can see it for continuous reference during the meeting

(E) review a different group’s work to assess that group’s product quality and check for errors or bias in their decision making

45. Which of the following is more likely to be emphasized in readers’ theater than in traditional drama?

(A) Characterization (B) Costume (C) Narration (D) Rate of speech (E) Volume

46. If a director asks an actor to “open up,” which

of the following does the director want the actor to do?

(A) Be more aware of visual and audio stimuli in rehearsals

(B) Listen to the other actors more carefully in rehearsals

(C) Listen to the director more carefully in rehearsals

(D) Make changes to characterization by adjusting to other actors

(E) Turn his or her body to face the audience more directly

47. Original oratory is generally considered to

be which of the following types of speeches?

(A) Informative (B) Impromptu (C) Manuscript (D) Persuasive (E) Acceptance

48. Which of the following best describes

androgynous individuals?

(A) They pay careful attention to how others are acting and adjust their behavior to match.

(B) They exhibit qualities associated with both masculinity and femininity.

(C) They do not display much emotion. (D) They have a detailed and complex

understanding of personal relationships. (E) They adapt their listening effectively to

their communication goals.



CHAPTER 5


CHAPTER 5


53. In small-group decision making, which of the following would be unique to the nominal group technique?

(A) Group members must identify each possible solution with a name for that option.

(B) Group members do not talk and sometimes do not even meet.

(C) At least half of the group must agree that an idea is worth discussing before it can be talked about.

(D) Decisions can be made only by secret ballot. (E) If a group does not come to a consensus, it

must wait until the next meeting to make a final decision.

54. Which of the following would be considered

folklore or folklife?

I. Traditional songs II. Fairy tales and ghost stories

III. Personal histories IV. Riddles, proverbs, and figures of speech

(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) III and IV only (D) II, III, and IV only (E) I, II, III, and IV

55. George Gerbner is known for developing

cultivation analysis theory, which seeks to explain

(A) how media audiences respond to dissonant or conflicting messages

(B) how individuals use and are gratified by media

(C) imbalances of power between media owners and audiences

(D) the decline of verbal communication in society with the introduction of television

(E) the effects of long-term media consumption on individuals’ beliefs about the world

49. Describing relationships as “stormy,”

“battlegrounds,” or “prisons” refers to relational

(A) trajectories (B) metaphors (C) uncertainties (D) closeness (E) histories

50. A civic group wants to convert a vacant lot

into something useful for the community and begins the process by asking who owns the land. Verifying the ownership of the land involves which of the following types of question?

(A) Policy (B) Value (C) Fact (D) Conjecture (E) Action

51. In theater, a Fresnel is

(A) an arch that frames the stage (B) scenery that is raised from or lowered

to the stage from above (C) a lighting instrument that uses a particular

type of lens (D) a trapdoor set in the stage floor (E) a filter that gives color to a spotlight

52. According to Edward T. Hall’s theory of

proxemics, which of the following accurately describes the appropriate distance to position oneself during conversations with friends?

(A) Social distance (B) Intimate distance (C) Public distance (D) Personal distance (E) Conversational distance



CHAPTER 5


56. According to “mean world syndrome,” which

of the following is true?

(A) Frequent viewers tend to be less educated and thus more vulnerable to influence by targeted media messages.

(B) Frequent viewers focus more on the negative aspects of television programs than do light or moderate viewers.

(C) Frequent viewers turn to specific media forms, such as television, in order to fulfill a number of different needs.

(D) The overrepresentation of violent behavior and crime on television shapes a heavy viewer’s perception of the world.

(E) Media owners have the power to shape the representation of people and events on television programs.

57. When listening to a speech, a student tries to

determine whether information is true, reliable, and useful. Which listening goal is best illustrated by the student?

(A) Listening for pleasure (B) Listening to empathize (C) Listening to evaluate (D) Listening for information (E) Listening for meditation

58. In educational theater, directors often

ignore general casting guidelines used in professional and amateur theaters. This gives students opportunities to play roles available in productions, ignoring factors such as age, race, or body type. Which of the following most accurately describes this practice?

(A) Blinded casting (B) Educational casting (C) Free casting (D) Liberal casting (E) Nontraditional casting

59. Which of the following are true of connectives as elements of a speech?

I. They strengthen speech organization. II. They include transitions and signposts.

III. They are necessary only for persuasive speeches.

IV. They help the audience understand the speech.

(A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) I, II, and IV only (D) II, III, and IV only (E) I, II, III, and IV

60. Which of the following is the most compelling

advantage of Dewey’s approach to reflective thinking?

(A) The method takes into consideration both the internal and external factors causing a problem.

(B) The method can be used to solve problems related to mass media consumption.

(C) Using the method, one can approach complex problems more systematically than simple problems.

(D) Using the method, one can test potential solutions and show them to work in practice.

(E) The method does not rely on potentially misleading communication with other people.

56. According to “mean world syndrome,” which

of the following is true?

(A) Frequent viewers tend to be less educated and thus more vulnerable to influence by targeted media messages.

(B) Frequent viewers focus more on the negative aspects of television programs than do light or moderate viewers.

(C) Frequent viewers turn to specific media forms, such as television, in order to fulfill a number of different needs.

(D) The overrepresentation of violent behavior and crime on television shapes a heavy viewer’s perception of the world.

(E) Media owners have the power to shape the representation of people and events on television programs.

57. When listening to a speech, a student tries to

determine whether information is true, reliable, and useful. Which listening goal is best illustrated by the student?

(A) Listening for pleasure (B) Listening to empathize (C) Listening to evaluate (D) Listening for information (E) Listening for meditation

58. In educational theater, directors often

ignore general casting guidelines used in professional and amateur theaters. This gives students opportunities to play roles available in productions, ignoring factors such as age, race, or body type. Which of the following most accurately describes this practice?

(A) Blinded casting (B) Educational casting (C) Free casting (D) Liberal casting (E) Nontraditional casting

59. Which of the following are true of connectives as elements of a speech?

I. They strengthen speech organization. II. They include transitions and signposts.

III. They are necessary only for persuasive speeches.

IV. They help the audience understand the speech.

(A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) I, II, and IV only (D) II, III, and IV only (E) I, II, III, and IV

60. Which of the following is the most compelling

advantage of Dewey’s approach to reflective thinking?

(A) The method takes into consideration both the internal and external factors causing a problem.

(B) The method can be used to solve problems related to mass media consumption.

(C) Using the method, one can approach complex problems more systematically than simple problems.

(D) Using the method, one can test potential solutions and show them to work in practice.

(E) The method does not rely on potentially misleading communication with other people.



CHAPTER 5


61. Elisabeth Noelle-Newman developed the spiral

of silence theory to explain the reactions of various groups to communication about social issues. The theory holds that

(A) people who have majority viewpoints on a public issue remain in the background, where their communication is constrained

(B) mass media exert little genuine influence on an individual’s public opinions

(C) society threatens minority view holders with isolation, motivating them to avoid sharing their opinions

(D) supporters of a majority opinion are afraid to reveal their views for fear of not being unique

(E) individuals do not want to find out what public opinion on social issues might be because they fear being isolated

62. Which of the following is predicted by

uncertainty reduction theory?

(A) As uncertainty decreases, information seeking increases.

(B) As uncertainty decreases, liking increases. (C) As uncertainty decreases, perceptions

of dissimilarity increase. (D) As uncertainty increases, nonverbal

expressiveness increases. (E) As uncertainty increases, perceptions

of similarity increase. 63. To create cadence, a student speaker said, “We

must care. We must act. We must help our fellow brothers and sisters.” The student best illustrated which of the following structures of language?

(A) Parallelism (B) Antithesis (C) Alliteration (D) Personification (E) Onomatopoeia

64. Which of the following activities can enhance listening skills?

(A) Jumping to conclusions (B) Listening too hard (C) Prejudging a speaker (D) Taking notes (E) Focusing on delivery

65. If group members are arguing about a point

that has been discussed previously, the most effective way for a leader to handle the situation would be to

(A) remind the group of the previous discussion and review the facts and reasons already mentioned

(B) ask the various sides to again personally defend each opposing position

(C) offer support for the side of the conflict that best reflects the leader’s personal experience

(D) point out that questions regarding the cause of the current conflict are irrelevant

(E) suggest that the group disband since it cannot resolve the conflict

66. Which of the following mass media theories

explains why a person who watches a lot of reality television programs featuring the police and other law-enforcement agents in the line of duty believes that crime rates are higher than they actually are?

(A) Uses and gratifications (B) Agenda setting (C) Media convergence (D) Cultivation analysis (E) Two-step flow

61. Elisabeth Noelle-Newman developed the spiral

of silence theory to explain the reactions of various groups to communication about social issues. The theory holds that

(A) people who have majority viewpoints on a public issue remain in the background, where their communication is constrained

(B) mass media exert little genuine influence on an individual’s public opinions

(C) society threatens minority view holders with isolation, motivating them to avoid sharing their opinions

(D) supporters of a majority opinion are afraid to reveal their views for fear of not being unique

(E) individuals do not want to find out what public opinion on social issues might be because they fear being isolated

62. Which of the following is predicted by

uncertainty reduction theory?

(A) As uncertainty decreases, information seeking increases.

(B) As uncertainty decreases, liking increases. (C) As uncertainty decreases, perceptions

of dissimilarity increase. (D) As uncertainty increases, nonverbal

expressiveness increases. (E) As uncertainty increases, perceptions

of similarity increase. 63. To create cadence, a student speaker said, “We

must care. We must act. We must help our fellow brothers and sisters.” The student best illustrated which of the following structures of language?

(A) Parallelism (B) Antithesis (C) Alliteration (D) Personification (E) Onomatopoeia

64. Which of the following activities can enhance listening skills?

(A) Jumping to conclusions (B) Listening too hard (C) Prejudging a speaker (D) Taking notes (E) Focusing on delivery

65. If group members are arguing about a point

that has been discussed previously, the most effective way for a leader to handle the situation would be to

(A) remind the group of the previous discussion and review the facts and reasons already mentioned

(B) ask the various sides to again personally defend each opposing position

(C) offer support for the side of the conflict that best reflects the leader’s personal experience

(D) point out that questions regarding the cause of the current conflict are irrelevant

(E) suggest that the group disband since it cannot resolve the conflict

66. Which of the following mass media theories

explains why a person who watches a lot of reality television programs featuring the police and other law-enforcement agents in the line of duty believes that crime rates are higher than they actually are?

(A) Uses and gratifications (B) Agenda setting (C) Media convergence (D) Cultivation analysis (E) Two-step flow



CHAPTER 5


67. In social exchange theory, “comparison level

of alternatives” ( )altCL refers to assessment of

(A) internal rewards minus costs (B) costs minus past costs (C) rewards minus past rewards (D) current relationships as compared with

realistic chances for other relationships (E) present costs and past costs

68. A student speaker who says, “The soun dint

wake him up in the morning” instead of “The sound didn’t wake him up in the morning” needs to improve which of the following aspects of delivery?

(A) Pitch (B) Rate (C) Articulation (D) Volume (E) Use of pauses

69. Which of the following ways of speaking

is disrespectful to diverse audiences?

(A) Focusing on issues rather than personalities (B) Addressing issues only from one’s own point

of view (C) Avoiding in-group and out-group distinctions (D) Allowing the audience the power of rational

choice (E) Adapting the message so that it is clear

and achieves the speech’s objective 70. Which of the following statements is an accurate

description of the process of communication?

(A) Communication is primarily based on sending verbal messages.

(B) Communication requires feedback from multiple audiences.

(C) Communication involves transactions between perceiving and remembering.

(D) Communication is a way of transmitting channels of thought.

(E) Communication involves encoding and decoding messages.

71. Which of the following terms refers to a public speaker’s use of bodily action?

(A) Proxemics (B) Semiotics (C) Chronemics (D) Kinesics (E) Haptics

72. Which of the following most accurately describes

the research on self-monitoring in interpersonal communication?

(A) High self-monitors behave in ways compatible with their true selves.

(B) High self-monitors are more motivated than low self-monitors to manage conversation.

(C) Low self-monitors typically select specific friends for particular activities.

(D) Low self-monitors typically prefer high self-monitors as friends.

(E) The differences between high and low self-monitors are insignificant.

73. Research on the implications of

argumentativeness for interpersonal relationships is most accurately characterized as indicating that people who are high in argumentativeness

(A) are more likely to attack the self-concept of their partners verbally with the intention of causing hurt

(B) are perceived as more competent and likable (C) are more motivated to argue when their

partners are low in argumentativeness (D) are more likely to use physical violence

in their interpersonal relationships (E) have difficulty in sustaining close

interpersonal relationships

67. In social exchange theory, “comparison level

of alternatives” ( )altCL refers to assessment of

(A) internal rewards minus costs (B) costs minus past costs (C) rewards minus past rewards (D) current relationships as compared with

realistic chances for other relationships (E) present costs and past costs

68. A student speaker who says, “The soun dint

wake him up in the morning” instead of “The sound didn’t wake him up in the morning” needs to improve which of the following aspects of delivery?

(A) Pitch (B) Rate (C) Articulation (D) Volume (E) Use of pauses

69. Which of the following ways of speaking

is disrespectful to diverse audiences?

(A) Focusing on issues rather than personalities (B) Addressing issues only from one’s own point

of view (C) Avoiding in-group and out-group distinctions (D) Allowing the audience the power of rational

choice (E) Adapting the message so that it is clear

and achieves the speech’s objective 70. Which of the following statements is an accurate

description of the process of communication?

(A) Communication is primarily based on sending verbal messages.

(B) Communication requires feedback from multiple audiences.

(C) Communication involves transactions between perceiving and remembering.

(D) Communication is a way of transmitting channels of thought.

(E) Communication involves encoding and decoding messages.

71. Which of the following terms refers to a public speaker’s use of bodily action?

(A) Proxemics (B) Semiotics (C) Chronemics (D) Kinesics (E) Haptics

72. Which of the following most accurately describes

the research on self-monitoring in interpersonal communication?

(A) High self-monitors behave in ways compatible with their true selves.

(B) High self-monitors are more motivated than low self-monitors to manage conversation.

(C) Low self-monitors typically select specific friends for particular activities.

(D) Low self-monitors typically prefer high self-monitors as friends.

(E) The differences between high and low self-monitors are insignificant.

73. Research on the implications of

argumentativeness for interpersonal relationships is most accurately characterized as indicating that people who are high in argumentativeness

(A) are more likely to attack the self-concept of their partners verbally with the intention of causing hurt

(B) are perceived as more competent and likable (C) are more motivated to argue when their

partners are low in argumentativeness (D) are more likely to use physical violence

in their interpersonal relationships (E) have difficulty in sustaining close

interpersonal relationships



CHAPTER 5


74. James avoids joining groups because he is afraid

that he will misinterpret what others want of him, he will not be able to fully understand what others expect of him, and he will not be able to adjust psychologically to what group members may tell him. Which of the following communication traits best describes James?

(A) Personality conflict (B) Conversational sensitivity (C) Receiver apprehension (D) Communicative adaptability (E) Extroversion

75. A three-part argument consisting of a major

premise, a minor premise, and a conclusion is called

(A) an enthymeme (B) a syllogism (C) an elaboration (D) a red herring (E) a refutation

76. In the introduction to his persuasive speech on

the advantages of becoming an avid gardener, John tells his audience that he is a strict vegetarian. Which of the following functions does the statement serve?

(A) Stating the purpose (B) Previewing the main point (C) Startling the audience to gain attention (D) Establishing credibility (E) Creating goodwill

77. Which of the following theories argues that

individuals learn to be masculine or feminine (among other things) through communication and observation?

(A) Psychodynamic theory (B) Social learning theory (C) Biological theory (D) Standpoint theory (E) Cultivation theory

78. Which of the following is most applicable to the communicative management of conflict in a business setting?

(A) Cascade model of dissolution by Gottman (B) Chilling effect by Roloff and Cloven (C) Stage model of coming together and coming

apart by Knapp and Vangelisti (D) Conflict style theory by Putnam and Wilson (E) Relationship maintenance typology by

Canary and Stafford 79. The validity of a test means that the test’s

questions

(A) measure student-learning concepts in the test

(B) accurately measure the concepts tested over time

(C) occur in a randomized pattern (D) are equivalent on all forms of the test (E) assess all levels of learning

80. In 1994 scholar Jean Baudrillard observed,

“In a world where there is more and more information, there is less and less meaning.” Baudrillard’s critical view of advertising is most reflective of which of the following?

(A) Commodification of communication (B) Accommodation of communication (C) Hegemonic frames of communication (D) Monotheistic frames of communication (E) Reductionist communication

74. James avoids joining groups because he is afraid

that he will misinterpret what others want of him, he will not be able to fully understand what others expect of him, and he will not be able to adjust psychologically to what group members may tell him. Which of the following communication traits best describes James?

(A) Personality conflict (B) Conversational sensitivity (C) Receiver apprehension (D) Communicative adaptability (E) Extroversion

75. A three-part argument consisting of a major

premise, a minor premise, and a conclusion is called

(A) an enthymeme (B) a syllogism (C) an elaboration (D) a red herring (E) a refutation

76. In the introduction to his persuasive speech on

the advantages of becoming an avid gardener, John tells his audience that he is a strict vegetarian. Which of the following functions does the statement serve?

(A) Stating the purpose (B) Previewing the main point (C) Startling the audience to gain attention (D) Establishing credibility (E) Creating goodwill

77. Which of the following theories argues that

individuals learn to be masculine or feminine (among other things) through communication and observation?

(A) Psychodynamic theory (B) Social learning theory (C) Biological theory (D) Standpoint theory (E) Cultivation theory

78. Which of the following is most applicable to the communicative management of conflict in a business setting?

(A) Cascade model of dissolution by Gottman (B) Chilling effect by Roloff and Cloven (C) Stage model of coming together and coming

apart by Knapp and Vangelisti (D) Conflict style theory by Putnam and Wilson (E) Relationship maintenance typology by

Canary and Stafford 79. The validity of a test means that the test’s

questions

(A) measure student-learning concepts in the test

(B) accurately measure the concepts tested over time

(C) occur in a randomized pattern (D) are equivalent on all forms of the test (E) assess all levels of learning

80. In 1994 scholar Jean Baudrillard observed,

“In a world where there is more and more information, there is less and less meaning.” Baudrillard’s critical view of advertising is most reflective of which of the following?

(A) Commodification of communication (B) Accommodation of communication (C) Hegemonic frames of communication (D) Monotheistic frames of communication (E) Reductionist communication



CHAPTER 5


81. Compared to norm-referenced evaluation,

criterion-referenced evaluation is preferred because the latter

(A) compares one student’s progress with that of his or her peers

(B) involves rank ordering of student performance with grade cutoffs influenced by high- or low-achieving students

(C) focuses students on outperforming their peers (D) gives all students the opportunity of earning

a high grade (or failing to do so) (E) may encourage students to underperform

collaboratively, knowing that a low-performing group will be rewarded with upward grading adjustments or “curving”

82. Which of the following guidelines best maximizes

the constructiveness of peer feedback after student speeches?

(A) Peers should avoid giving any negative feedback to the student speaker.

(B) A peer should be assigned to critique the speaker who speaks immediately before the peer’s turn to speak.

(C) A peer should be assigned to critique the speaker who speaks immediately after the peer’s turn to speak.

(D) Peers should be required to give detailed oral feedback immediately after the student speech they critique.

(E) Peers should give feedback aligned with course goals and standards.

83. In a debate tournament a judge should do all of the following EXCEPT

(A) make at least one written suggestion for improvement

(B) make at least one positive comment (C) intervene and provide arguments in

the debate (D) focus the critique on exploration of

alternatives rather than absolutes (E) rank, rate, and sign the ballot

84. Which of the following is NOT an option that

can be used by a person arguing the negative side in a policy debate?

(A) Counterplan (B) Defense of the present system (C) Defense of the resolution (D) Repair of the status quo (E) Denial of affirmative solution

85. All of the following interpersonal communication

tactics are intended to avoid face-threatening situations EXCEPT

(A) not mentioning topics that might embarrass (B) changing a humiliating topic (C) pretending not to notice when a degrading

statement is made (D) challenging an undignified remark (E) conveying compliments

81. Compared to norm-referenced evaluation,

criterion-referenced evaluation is preferred because the latter

(A) compares one student’s progress with that of his or her peers

(B) involves rank ordering of student performance with grade cutoffs influenced by high- or low-achieving students

(C) focuses students on outperforming their peers (D) gives all students the opportunity of earning

a high grade (or failing to do so) (E) may encourage students to underperform

collaboratively, knowing that a low-performing group will be rewarded with upward grading adjustments or “curving”

82. Which of the following guidelines best maximizes

the constructiveness of peer feedback after student speeches?

(A) Peers should avoid giving any negative feedback to the student speaker.

(B) A peer should be assigned to critique the speaker who speaks immediately before the peer’s turn to speak.

(C) A peer should be assigned to critique the speaker who speaks immediately after the peer’s turn to speak.

(D) Peers should be required to give detailed oral feedback immediately after the student speech they critique.

(E) Peers should give feedback aligned with course goals and standards.

83. In a debate tournament a judge should do all of the following EXCEPT

(A) make at least one written suggestion for improvement

(B) make at least one positive comment (C) intervene and provide arguments in

the debate (D) focus the critique on exploration of

alternatives rather than absolutes (E) rank, rate, and sign the ballot

84. Which of the following is NOT an option that

can be used by a person arguing the negative side in a policy debate?

(A) Counterplan (B) Defense of the present system (C) Defense of the resolution (D) Repair of the status quo (E) Denial of affirmative solution

85. All of the following interpersonal communication

tactics are intended to avoid face-threatening situations EXCEPT

(A) not mentioning topics that might embarrass (B) changing a humiliating topic (C) pretending not to notice when a degrading

statement is made (D) challenging an undignified remark (E) conveying compliments



CHAPTER 5


86. According to the standard parliamentary

procedure as written in Robert’s Rules of Order, which of the following does NOT require a second?

(A) Main motion (B) Amendment (C) Nomination (D) Subsidiary motion (E) Reconsider

87. Which of the following principles is NOT

recommended for giving feedback on student speeches?

(A) Be idealistic. (B) Be specific. (C) Be sensitive (D) Be descriptive. (E) Be timely.

88. Which of the following practices would NOT

be considered important in preparing a manuscript for oral interpretation?

(A) Typing up a performance version of the manuscript instead of reading from the source material

(B) Holding the script at a height that allows for eye contact and reading

(C) Breaking pages in unique places to emphasize meaning and script sections

(D) Using a brightly colored binder to contain the manuscript for the reading

(E) Practicing enough that the reader can look away from the manuscript often

89. All of the following are factors in demographic audience analysis EXCEPT the

(A) age of the audience (B) gender of the audience (C) ethnicity of the audience (D) disposition of the audience toward

the speaker (E) education of the audience

90. Which of the following is NOT a function

of a course syllabus?

(A) To inform students of the scope of the work (B) To identify the sequence the work will follow (C) To inform students about the teacher’s

background (D) To describe the tasks by which success will

be determined (E) To identify the goals and objectives of the

course

86. According to the standard parliamentary

procedure as written in Robert’s Rules of Order, which of the following does NOT require a second?

(A) Main motion (B) Amendment (C) Nomination (D) Subsidiary motion (E) Reconsider

87. Which of the following principles is NOT

recommended for giving feedback on student speeches?

(A) Be idealistic. (B) Be specific. (C) Be sensitive (D) Be descriptive. (E) Be timely.

88. Which of the following practices would NOT

be considered important in preparing a manuscript for oral interpretation?

(A) Typing up a performance version of the manuscript instead of reading from the source material

(B) Holding the script at a height that allows for eye contact and reading

(C) Breaking pages in unique places to emphasize meaning and script sections

(D) Using a brightly colored binder to contain the manuscript for the reading

(E) Practicing enough that the reader can look away from the manuscript often

89. All of the following are factors in demographic audience analysis EXCEPT the

(A) age of the audience (B) gender of the audience (C) ethnicity of the audience (D) disposition of the audience toward

the speaker (E) education of the audience

90. Which of the following is NOT a function

of a course syllabus?

(A) To inform students of the scope of the work (B) To identify the sequence the work will follow (C) To inform students about the teacher’s

background (D) To describe the tasks by which success will

be determined (E) To identify the goals and objectives of the

course



57971-00321 Praxis E-Book: Library Media (based on 025388-51045) • Fonts: Times, Futura, ZapfDingbats • dr01 9/20/06 jep • dr02 7/11/07 ta • edits dr02 7/16/07 ta • dr03 9/26/07 jep • dr03 9/28/07 ljg • preflight 10/7/07 jep • dr01 1/25/08 jep • preflight 2/14/08 jep • Dr02 9/9/08 ta • [NEW 57971-78003] • InDesign CS3 • Dr01 4/7/09 jw • dr01 4/9/09 mc • RevDr01 4/14/09 jw • Dr02 5/26/09 jw • Dr02REV (TPS Edits) 6/1/09 jw • REVDr02 (TPS Edits) 6/2/09 jw • [NEW 79103-791030] • Dr01 6/10/09 jw • Dr01edits 6/15/09 jw • Dr02 7/13/09 jw • preflight 081109 cj

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 6Right Answers and Explanations for the Speech Communication: Content Knowledge Practice Questions




CHAPTER 6


1 C Communication Fundamentals 2 B Forensics 3 E Group Communication 4 B Interpersonal Communication 5 D Media and Its Influences 6 D Oral Interpretation 7 D Public Speaking 8 C Assessment and Evaluation Issues 9 E Forensics 10 A Group Communication 11 D Interpersonal Communication 12 D Media and Its Influences 13 C Oral Interpretation 14 E Public Speaking 15 C Assessment and Evaluation Issues 16 A Group Communication 17 C Group Communication 18 C Public Speaking 19 B Public Speaking 20 C Public Speaking 21 A Communication Fundamentals 22 E Oral Interpretation 23 D Media and Its Influences 24 B Forensics 25 C Interpersonal Communication 26 D Media and Its Influences 27 D Public Speaking 28 B Public Speaking 29 A Media and Its Influences 30 B Media and Its Influences 31 D Interpersonal Communication 32 A Group Communication 33 D Assessment and Evaluation Issues 34 A Public Speaking 35 A Interpersonal Communication 36 B Communication Fundamentals 37 B Media and Its Influences 38 E Oral Interpretation 39 B Forensics 40 D Group Communication 41 A Public Speaking 42 D Public Speaking 43 B Communication Fundamentals 44 A Group Communication 45 C Oral Interpretation

46 E Oral Interpretation 47 D Forensics 48 B Interpersonal Communication 49 B Interpersonal Communication 50 C Group Communication 51 C Oral Interpretation 52 D Communication Fundamentals 53 B Group Communication 54 E Oral Interpretation 55 E Media and Its Influences 56 D Media and Its Influences 57 C Public Speaking 58 E Oral Interpretation 59 C Communication Fundamentals 60 D Group Communication 61 C Media and Its Influences 62 B Interpersonal Communication 63 A Public Speaking 64 D Communication Fundamentals 65 A Group Communication 66 D Media and Its Influences 67 D Interpersonal Communication 68 C Public Speaking 69 B Public Speaking 70 E Communication Fundamentals 71 D Communication Fundamentals 72 B Interpersonal Communication 73 B Interpersonal Communication 74 C Group Communication 75 B Public Speaking 76 D Communication Fundamentals 77 B Interpersonal Communication 78 D Group Communication 79 A Assessment and Evaluation Issues 80 A Media and Its Influences 81 D Assessment and Evaluation Issues 82 E Assessment and Evaluation Issues 83 C Forensics 84 C Forensics 85 D Interpersonal Communication 86 C Forensics 87 A Public Speaking 88 D Oral Interpretation 89 D Public Speaking 90 C Assessment and Evaluation Issues

Right Answers and Explanations

Now that you have answered all of the practice questions, you can check your work. Compare your answers to the multiple-choice questions with the correct answers in the table below.

Question Correct Content Category Number Answer Question Correct Content Category Number Answer




CHAPTER 6


Explanations of Right Answers 1. This question asks about basic rules of

brainstorming. One of the key rules is that the ideas presented during a brainstorming session should not be critiqued during the session, because criticism of any ideas has a tendency to inhibit the people involved in the session, thus limiting the number of ideas generated. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

2. This question requires knowledge of the format and content of Lincoln-Douglas debates. Lincoln-Douglas debates involve two speakers discussing and debating a proposition of value, not policy. Thus, the correct answer is (B).

3. This question asks you to apply your knowledge of group dynamics. Cohesive groups are those whose members tend to be actively involved in the sharing of information and recognition of the contributions of all group members. This openness and sharing of information and feedback allows group members to feel good about being a part of the group. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

4. In this question, you are asked to demonstrate your understanding of the idea of acculturation, or the process by which an individual from one culture becomes fully integrated into another, new culture. Acculturation occurs when individuals from different cultures come into first-hand contact with one another, causing subsequent changes in the cultural attitudes of one or both groups. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

5. For this question, you need to know the basicsoffilm/televisionproduction.Whenafilm or television script is being prepared for development, the director generally prepares storyboards, or a series of illustrations that visually represent how the story in the script will be presented on film. The correct answer for this question is (D).

6. This question asks you about the responsibilities of various people involved in a theatrical production. One of the responsibilities a director has is to serve, during rehearsals, as the representation of the audience members. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

7. To answer this question, you need to understand the concept of communication apprehension and the basic techniques teachers use to help students overcome this obstacle. One of the basic techniques used to help students who experience communication apprehension involves asking them to focus on the audience instead of on themselves. Doing so helps prevent the speaker from thinking too much about him or herself and to channel any nervous energy. Thus, the correct answer is (D).

8. This question deals with different approaches to curriculum design for communication courses. A communication curriculum that focuses on competencies like informing, expressing, imagining, ritualizing, and persuading would be considered a functional communication curriculum. This type of curriculum focuses on the functionality of various acts of communication (e.g., informing or persuading an audience). The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

9. This question asks you to apply your understanding of policy debate process. During a policy debate, the affirmative team assumes the burden of proof and must argue the agreed-upon topic. All of the other choices are debate terms; however, they are incorrect in this instance. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

10. This question tests your understanding of problem solving in a small-group situation. Frequently, when a small group is asked to work out the solution to a problem, there are disagreements among group members. Such disagreements often generate creative tension and lead to a better decision. Thus, the correct answer is (A).




CHAPTER 6


11. This question asks you to apply your understanding of nonverbal behavior in the communication process. The teacher, in this case, is using nonverbal behavior as a way to communicate to the talking students. He is substituting his nonverbal expression for verbal communication to get the students to stop talking. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

12. This question asks you to apply your understanding of different advertising techniques. The bandwagon technique involves an appeal to the fact that many other people are doing something, thus suggesting that the target of the advertisement should do the same. The claim is that a product or service must be good if a large number of people are using it. Thus, the correct answer is (D).

13. This question asks about different types of imagery. Kinesthetic imagery refers to movement; often the term is used in particular to refer to bodily movements caused by tensing and relaxing the muscles (as in kinesiology, or the study of human movement). The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

14. To answer this question, you need to have an understanding of persuasive speaking. If an audience is neither for nor against the action at the outset of the speech, the best way to persuade them to take a specific action is by advancing strong arguments for the action and refuting any strong counterarguments against it. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

15. This question deals with the National Communication Association’s official document entitled K-12 Speaking, Listening, and Media Literacy Standards and Competency Statements. This document is intended as a resource for teachers, one that can be used to enhance and support curriculum development. It does not dictate specific content or provide criteria or assessment techniques, but it does offer direction. Thus, the correct answer is (C).

16. This question asks you to apply your understanding of different management strategies. In order to work toward a “win-win solution,” a manager needs to collaborate, or work closely, with all sides involved in any problem or dispute. Other strategies might lead to solutions that satisfy only some of the affected parties. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

17. This question asks you to apply your understanding of conflict within groups. The three main sources of group conflict are because of relationships, roles, and personal goals. These conflicts are characterized by affect, or emotions, which are an essential part of all human relating. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

18. This question tests your understanding of the strategies of persuasive speaking. If a speaker is trying to persuade an audience that already sides with a different point of view, many common strategies may not be effective. However, statistics and other verifiable information can be persuasive because they provide hard evidence to support the speaker’s position. Thus, the correct answer is (C).

19. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the types of public speaking. This example asks you to associate the topic with a type of public speaking and the reason for the speech. In this case the topic would be used to inform the audience because it would simply recount events. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

20. This question asks you to apply your understanding of language and its uses. In this example an antithesis is used, which is the juxtaposition of contrasting ideas. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).




CHAPTER 6


21. For this question, you need to demonstrate an understanding of issues related to problem solving. In particular, you need to identify major elements of a problem. Any problem can be seen as an obstacle or a barrier that stands between a person or group and a particular goal. Every problem also has different approaches, or potential solutions, that can be used to address the barriers. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

22. This question asks you to apply your understanding of vocal production techniques. The key to strong vocal production lies in providing appropriate support through the breath. Breathing is an essential element that supports all vocal production, including pitch, volume, quality, and rate. Thus, the correct answer is (E).

23. This question requires knowledge of audience rating systems for radio. A radio station’s “share” of the audience is determined by the ratio of its listeners to the total number of radio listeners in the market. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

24. This question asks you to apply your understanding of a forensics program and the associated events. The example asks for a definition of the term “double entry,” which means that one person will compete in two events in the same tournament. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

25. This question asks you to apply your understanding of skills used during interpersonal communication. The question asks for the behavior most likely to create a supportive environment. All of the choices except spontaneity cause a defensive environment. Spontaneity creates a supportive environment for communication. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

26. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the influence newspapers have in the media. The question focuses on the elite press and how it is used to shape public opinion. The elite press can influence public policy by focusing on certain issues and bringing those issues to the forefront. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

27. This question asks you to apply your understanding of a speaker’s relationship to his or her audience. The question narrows the topic down to an audience-centered speaker and when the speaker should relate to the audience. If the speaker is audience-centered, he or she should consider the audience throughout the entire process of the speech preparation and delivery. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

28. This question asks you to apply your understanding of organizing ideas in a speech. In the question, the speaker has decided to organize the content by using two different main points: hard rock and soft rock. The main points are presented in a topical fashion and not in any other way. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

29. This question focuses on ethical considerations related to blogging, or documenting one’s opinions and ideas on an Internet-based blog (Weblog). Because blogs are often self-published and unregulated, bloggers generally do not receive the same level of editorial scrutiny given to editorial writers at a newspaper, for example. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

30. To answer this question, you need to demonstrate your understanding of current research into the effects of mass media in society. Many theorists have argued that mass media, and television in particular, detract from social interaction because they encourage solitary consumption. Thus, the correct answer is (B).

31. This question asks you to apply your understanding of relational messages. Relational messages, whether conveyed verbally or nonverbally, tell the listener how the speaker sees the relationship. The other choices are terms used in interpersonal communication, but only relational messages can be the answer because the statements given in the question do indicate how the speaker sees the relationship. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).




CHAPTER 6


32. This question asks you to apply your understanding of what a gatekeeper does within a group. A gatekeeper controls the channels of communication within the group so that others within the group must seek the gatekeeper’s approval for their ideas to be heard by the appropriate audience. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

33. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the proper procedures for administering an exam and creating the proper environment for the test taker. Of the available choices, best practice for administering an exam is to make sure the room is quiet, well lit, and not crowded. Teachers should help students budget time and should move through the classroom to answer questions and discourage cheating. Students should not have snacks during the exam because they can be distracting to other students and messy. Teachers should also retain test questions to ensure that future classes study from notes and the textbook and not from old tests. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

34. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the differences between an oral and a written style of language. Oral style is more personal than written style. Speakers try to make personalized contact with their audience since connection with the audience helps speakers achieve their goals. Written style is more formal overall. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

35. This question asks you to apply your understanding of mindful listening. Mindful listening occurs when a person listens fully and completely to another without commenting or interrupting. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

36. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the difference between verbal and nonverbal messages. Communications research suggests that people tend to believe nonverbal cues when they contradict the accompanying verbal message, in part because nonverbal cues often reflect the emotions of the speaker. Thus, the correct answer is (B).

37. This question asks you to apply your understanding of basic filming techniques. If an actor is filmed from below, the low angle of the camera makes the actor appear larger, thus giving the character the illusion of being larger-than-life. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

38. This question tests your knowledge of Aristotelian terminology. In his work Poetics, Aristotle discusses the proper effect of a tragedy, which is to purge the audience of the emotions of pity and fear, an emotional cleansing referred to as a catharsis. Thus, the correct answer is (E).

39. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the parts in a policy debate. Presumption is the belief that the status quo is adequate unless the affirmative team meets its burden of proof. Because the affirmative team is advocating a new policy, it must prove during the debate that the status quo is inadequate. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

40. This question asks you to apply your understanding of facilitating a group meeting. The key to being an effective leader in a small group is to make sure that everyone in the group participates actively in the discussion. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

41. This question asks you to apply your understanding of a eulogy. A eulogy is a speech that is given in order pay tribute to someone who had died. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

42. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the use of gestures while delivering a speech. Gestures should be consistent with the verbal content of the speech and should be natural. Gestures should be unobtrusive in that they should emphasize and not distract from the message and should be timed so as to coincide with the verbal message. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).




CHAPTER 6


43. To answer this question, you must understand the difference between the two processes hearing and listening. Hearing is the physical process by which sound stimuli are received, whereas listening is a mental process that describes the assignation of meaning to those sound stimuli. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

44. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the program evaluation and review technique (PERT). PERT is a systematic method for implementing decisions. It involves determining what steps must be taken to complete implementation and then working backward from the final deadline to determine which steps need to be completed by a given time. This method gives groups a clear sequence of steps and a timeline for completing their work. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

45. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the difference between characteristics in a readers’ theater production and those in the production of a traditional drama. Readers’ theater, by definition, focuses on a narrated story with some other dramatic elements included. Rate, volume, and characterization should be no more or less emphasized in either type of production, and costumes should be emphasized less in readers’ theater, where the focus is on narration. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

46. This question asks you to apply your understanding of basic acting terminology. The term “open up” means that the actor should stop showing his or her profile or back to the audience and face more toward the audience. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

47. This question asks you to apply your understanding of original oratory. The question is a basic definition, and, by definition, original oratory is a persuasive speech. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

48. This question asks you to apply your understanding of how gender issues affect communication. An androgynous individual is someone who exhibits the qualities of both male and female personalities. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

49. This question asks you to apply your understanding of relational metaphors in interpersonal communications. A metaphor describes two seemingly unrelated subjects and implies that the first thing is equal to the second thing in the description. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

50. This question asks you to apply your understanding of discussion principles. The question involves a verification of who owns the land, which upon verification is a fact. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

51. This question deals with basic terminology related to theater technology. A Fresnel is a type of lighting instrument that produces a beam of light with a soft edge, often used as a general wash to cover the stage. Fresnel lighting instruments get their name from the Fresnel lenses they use. Thus, the correct answer is (C).

52. This question asks you to apply your knowledge of Edward T. Hall’s theory of proxemics. According to Hall, the distance between people when they are interacting is influenced by the type of relationship those people have. “Personal distance” (between 18 inches and 4 feet) is the term Hall used to describe the distance between friends in a conversation. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

53. This question asks you to apply your understanding of nominal group technique. This technique involves individuals thinking of ideas and presenting them. The group members do not interact while coming up with ideas, but all of the ideas generated by the individuals are considered. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).




CHAPTER 6


54. This question asks you to apply your understanding of folklore. As it pertains to oral interpretation, folklore consists of traditional songs, fairy tales and ghost stories, personal histories, and riddles, proverbs, and figures of speech. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

55. This question asks you to apply your understanding of cultivation analysis theory. George Gerbner’s cultivation analysis theory seeks to explain the effects of high levels of media use on the beliefs of individuals. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

56. This question asks you to apply your understanding of “mean world syndrome.” The definition of mean world syndrome is that someone who watches a lot of television will have his or her views of the world shaped by the overrepresentation of crime and violence as seen in television shows and movies. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

57. This question asks you to apply your understanding of ways of making informed decisions based on listening to a public speaker. Listening to evaluate involves listening to make a judgment about the content of a speech and being able to determine whether the information is reliable, true, and useful. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

58. This question asks you to apply your understanding of basic theater terminology. The term “nontraditional casting” means that when a director is casting a production, actors are cast in roles in such a way that the age, sex, body type, or other characteristics are ignored. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

59. This question asks you to apply your understanding of connectives in a speech. Connectives connect ideas and points within a speech, and are essential in both informative and persuasive speeches. They also help the audience understand the organization of the speech. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

60. This question asks you to apply your understanding of Dewey’s approach to reflective thinking. Dewey’s approach is most effective in resolving questions of policy, decisions about which will result in action. Three of the other choices are questions of fact, and one is a question of value. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

61. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the spiral of silence theory. Elisabeth Noelle-Newman developed the theory to explain that people who hold minority viewpoints remain in the background and experience constrained communication. The theory also says that the media exerts a major influence on public opinion and that those who hold majority opinions are unafraid of communicating their viewpoints. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

62. This question asks you to apply your understanding of uncertainty reduction theory. This theory is used to describe the development of relationships and communication between two people meeting for the first time, when there is a high level of uncertainty. High levels of uncertainty cause information seeking; similarities decrease uncertainty, and nonverbal expressiveness decreases uncertainty. As uncertainty decreases, then, liking increases. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

63. This question asks you to apply your understanding of how language and style are used in public speaking. Parallelism in public speaking is used to get a point across by using the same language to introduce new ideas. The speaker in the question uses “we must” at the beginning of each sentence to accomplish this goal. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

64. This question asks you to apply your understanding of listening skills. Taking notes is a way to overcome listening barriers. All of the other choices are barriers to good listening. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).




CHAPTER 6


65. This question asks you to apply your understanding of group communication processes. In group discussion it is important to keep the discussion on a task level rather than a personal level in order to minimize or avoid conflict. All of the other choices encourage personal responses that will escalate rather than diffuse the conflict. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

66. This question asks you to apply your understanding of cultivation analysis theory. This theory seeks to explain the effects of high levels of media use on the beliefs of individuals. Thus, individuals who watch a lot of television programs depicting police work might be influenced to believe that crime rates are higher than they truly are. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

67. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the comparison level of alternatives in social exchange theory. By definition, the comparison level of alternatives refers to comparing the current relationship to chances for better ones outside the current one. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

68. This question asks you to apply your understanding of articulation. Articulation is the production of clear and distinct speech sounds. The student in the question has a problem with articulation. Pitch, rate, volume, and pauses are not addressed in the question. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

69. This question asks you to apply your understanding of audience analysis. Speakers who refuse to acknowledge and address other points of view are often considered disrespectful to their audiences. When speakers focus on substantive issues, avoid group distinctions, and allow the audience the power of making their own rational choices, they are usually viewed as credible. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

70. This question focuses on the basic definition of communication. At its heart, communication involves a process of encoding and then decoding messages. These messages can be communicated verbally or in many other ways, and feedback may or may not come from one or more people. Remembering does not have to be a part of the communication process, and channels of thought are not necessarily part of the communication process. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

71. This question asks you to apply your understanding of kinesics. By definition, kinesics refers to the interpretation of movements of the body, whereas the other choices do not relate to bodily action. Proxemics refers to the relationships and distances between bodies; semiotics is the study of signs and symbols; chronemics refers to the use of time in nonverbal communication; and haptics refers to communication based on the sense of touch. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

72. This question asks you to apply your understanding of self-monitoring in interpersonal communication. High self-monitors are highly motivated to ensure that conversation flows smoothly and that others take turns talking. They use immediacy behaviors to convey closeness, and humor and other skills to enhance conversation. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

73. This question asks you to apply your understanding of argumentativeness. Argumentativeness is an important skill that is sometimes confused with verbal aggressiveness. While an argumentative person attacks the idea, a verbally aggressive person attacks the other person’s self-concept. Argumentativeness has been shown to be a developmental and constructive attribute linked to outcomes such as competence and likability. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).




CHAPTER 6


74. This question asks you to apply your understanding of group communication processes. The qualities displayed in the question (fear of misinterpreting, fear of misunderstanding, and fear of not being able to adjust) define receiver apprehension. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

75. This question asks you to apply your understanding of argumentation in public speaking. By definition, a syllogism is a three-part argument consisting of a major premise, a minor premise, and a conclusion. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

76. This question tests your understanding of the terminology related to persuasive speaking. One way that a speaker may attempt to persuade an audience is by establishing credibility. In this case, the speaker’s ability to convince audiences of the advantage of being a gardener is enhanced by the credibility derived from the fact that he is a vegetarian. Thus, the correct answer is (D).

77. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the effect of gender on communication. Social learning theory highlights the role of communication and observation in individual learning and cognitive development in regard to gender identity. The correct answer, therefore, is (B).

78. This question asks you to apply your understanding of conflict management. Conflict style theory has been frequently applied to romantic, family, and business settings. The cascade model of dissolution is relevant only to marital relationships. The chilling effect, the stage model of coming together and coming apart, and the relationship maintenance typology are relevant only to romantic relationships. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

79. This question asks you to apply your understanding of basic assessment terminology. Test validity refers to the degree to which the test questions actually measure the concepts they are designed to measure. Test reliability refers to how well the questions hold up over time or across different forms. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

80. This question asks you to apply your understanding of Baudrillard’s theories of advertising and communication. For Baudrillard, the development of technology has led to a proliferation of information. There is now so much information that we no longer have sight of what is “real” behind the signs and symbols that make up the information we receive. Because this information is mediated through technologies such as television and the Internet, it becomes part of the economic realm, a commodity that can be bought, sold, or traded in various ways. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

81. This question asks you to apply your understanding of norm- and criterion-referenced assessments. Criterion-referenced evaluation judges each student on whether he or she has met a specific criterion (e.g., demonstration of specific knowledge, demonstration of a particular ability). In a criterion-referenced evaluation, then, all students have the opportunity to receive a high grade. The other choices all refer to norm-referenced evaluations. Thus, the correct answer is (D).

82. This question asks you to apply your knowledge of appropriate uses of peer feedback in a speech class. It is important that teachers ensure that the feedback given by peers stays focused on the goals and standards of the course, as all course feedback should be. The correct answer, therefore, is (E).

83. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the role of a judge in a debate tournament. It would be unethical and far beyond the bounds of a judge’s role to provide arguments for the competitors in the debate. The other choices are responsibilities of a judge in a debate tournament. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).




CHAPTER 6


84. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the roles of the affirmative and negative sides in a policy debate. Because the affirmative side argues that the policy resolution should be implemented, the negative side would never speak in defense of the resolution. The other choices all present viable ways that the negative side can argue against the resolution. Thus, the correct answer is (C).

85. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the communication process. Challenging an undignified remark is a direct tactic which would make it more face-threatening, while the other choices are all avoidance tactics. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

86. To answer this question, you must be familiar with Robert’s Rules of Order. Of the choices presented, the only one that does not require a second is a nomination. A group that follows parliamentary procedure would require a second before considering a main motion, an amendment, a subsidiary motion, or a reconsider. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).

87. This question asks you to apply your understanding of the criticism and evaluation of speeches. When giving feedback on student speeches, teachers should not be idealistic. Instead, they should try to be realistic and provide information that the student speaker can use and over which the speaker has control. The correct answer, therefore, is (A).

88. This question asks you to apply your understanding of preparing manuscripts for oral interpretation. In this case you are asked to identify the incorrect answer. Using a brightly colored binder to house the manuscript would be irrelevant to preparing a manuscript for an oral interpretation. All of the other choices are important factors to consider when preparing a manuscript. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

89. This question asks you to apply your understanding of audience analysis. Disposition of the audience toward the speaker is a situational audience analysis factor, while all of the other choices are demographic factors. The correct answer, therefore, is (D).

90. This question asks you to apply your understanding of a syllabus. The syllabus is considered a contract between teachers and students. It specifies details about the course, and although specific content varies, virtually all syllabi describe the scope of the work and the sequence the work will follow. A syllabus does not give information about the teacher’s background. The correct answer, therefore, is (C).



57971-00321 Praxis E-Book: Library Media (based on 025388-51045) • Fonts: Times, Futura, ZapfDingbats • dr01 9/20/06 jep • dr02 7/11/07 ta • edits dr02 7/16/07 ta • dr03 9/26/07 jep • dr03 9/28/07 ljg • preflight 10/7/07 jep • dr01 1/25/08 jep • preflight 2/14/08 jep • Dr02 9/9/08 ta • preflight 092208 ljg • [NEW 57971-78003] • InDesign CS3 • Dr01 4/7/09 jw • dr01 4/9/09 mc • REVDr01 4/14/09 jw • [NEW 79103-791030] • Dr01 6/10/09 jw • Dr01edits 6/15/09 jw • D2 rev/PDF 7/17/09 mh • preflight 081109 cj

▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Chapter 7Are You Ready? Last-Minute Tips




CHAPTER 7


❏ Do you know the testing requirements for your teaching field in the state(s) where you plan to teach?

❏ Have you followed all of the test registration procedures?

❏ Do you know the topics that will be covered in each test you plan to take?

❏ Have you reviewed any textbooks, class notes, and course readings that relate to the topics covered?

❏ Do you know how long the test will take and the number of questions it contains? Have you considered how you will pace your work?

❏ Are you familiar with the test directions and the types of questions for the test?

❏ Are you familiar with the recommended test-taking strategies and tips?

❏ Have you practiced by working through the practice test questions at a pace similar to that of an actual test?

❏ If you are repeating a Praxis Series™ Assessment, have you analyzed your previous score report to determine areas where additional study and test preparation could be useful?

Complete this checklist to determine whether you’re ready to take the test .

Checklist




CHAPTER 7


The day of the testYou should have ended your review a day or two before the actual test date. And many clichés you may have heard about the day of the test are true. You should

■ Be well rested;

■ Take photo identification with you;

■ Take a supply of well-sharpened #2 pencils (at least three);

■ Eat before you take the test to keep your energy level up;

■ Be prepared to stand in line to check in or to wait while other test takers are being checked in.

You can’t control the testing situation, but you can control yourself. Stay calm. The supervisors are well trained and make every effort to provide uniform testing conditions, but don’t let it bother you if the test doesn’t start exactly on time. You will have the necessary amount of time once it does start.

You can think of preparing for this test as training for an athletic event. Once you’ve trained, and prepared, and rested, give it everything you’ve got. Good luck.




▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Appendix AStudy Plan Sheet




APPENDIX A


Content covered on test

How well do I know the content?

What material do I have for studying

this content?

What material do I need for studying

this content?

Where could I find the materials

I need?

Dates completed

Dates planned for study

of content

StuDy PlAN

Study Plan SheetSee chapter 1 for suggestions on using this Study Plan Sheet.




▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲▲

Appendix BFor More Information




APPENDIX B


For More InformationEducational Testing Service offers additional information to assist you in preparing for the Praxis Series™ Assessments. Tests at a Glance booklets and the Registration Bulletin are both available without charge. You can also obtain more information from our website: http://www.ets.org/praxis/index.html.

General InquiresPhone: 800-772-9476 or 609-771-7395 (Monday–Friday, 8:00 A.M. to 7:45 P.M., Eastern time)

Fax: 609-771-7906

Extended TimeIf you have a learning disability or if English is not your primary language, you can apply to be given more time to take your test. The Registration Bulletin tells you how you can qualify for extended time.

Disability ServicesPhone: 866-387-8602 or 609-771-7780

Fax: 609-771-7906

TTY (for deaf or hard-of-hearing callers): 609-771-7714

Mailing AddressETS—The Praxis Series P.O. Box 6051 Princeton, NJ 08541-6051

Overnight Delivery AddressETS—The Praxis Series Distribution Center 225 Phillips Blvd. P.O. Box 77435 Ewing, NJ 08628-7435

7910

3-79

103

• W

EB

PD

F99



ets.org/praxisStudy Guide

$22.95 USA

Copyright © 2009 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved. ETS, the ETS logo, LISTENING. LEARNING. LEADING., PPST and PRAXIS III are registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service (ETS) in the United States and oher countries. THE PRAXIS SERIES is a trademark of ETS. 10212

752991

eBook Speech Comm Ck Study Guide 752991

Documents

Transcript of eBook Speech Comm Ck Study Guide 752991