E/12/2018 Test Booklet Code - focus SAUDI

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3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

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E/12/2018

Test Booklet Code:

Name of the candidate (in Capital letters):

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: in words

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PAPER-1: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

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E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 1

PART A –PHYSICS

ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE

SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

1. A fish in water sees an object 24 cm

above the surface of water. The height of

object above the surface of water that

will appear to fish is : ( = 4/3)

1) 32 cm

2) 8 cm

3) 24 cm

4) 18 cm

2. The current in the given circuit is

1) 8.31 A

2) 6.82 A

3) 4.92 A

4) 2 A

3. What is the value of L for which the

current is maximum in a series LCR

circuit with C = 10 F and = 100 s-1

1) 1 mH

2) 10 mH

3) 100 mH

4) cannot be calculated

4. A transformer reduces 220 V to 11 V.

the primary draws 5A of current and

secondary 90 A. the efficiency of the

transformer is

1) 20%

2) 40%

3) 70%

4) 90%

5. A transmitting antenna of height h and

the receiving antenna of height 45 m are

separated by a distance of 40 km for

satisfactory communication in LOS

mode. Then the value of h is, (radius of

earth is 6400 km)

1) 15 m

2) 20 m

3) 30 m

4) 25 m

6. A physical parameter ‘a’ can be determined

by measuring the parameters b,c,d and e

using the relation a=

. If the maximum

errors in the measurement of b,c,d and e are

b1%, c1%, d1% and e1%, then the maximum

error in the value determined by the

experiment is

1) (b1 c1 d1 e1) %

2) (b1 c1 d1 e1)%

3) ( b1 c1 d1 e1)%

4) ( b1 c1 d1 e1)%

4.8V

RA =3 RB =6

RC =6


7. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time

t = 0 such that its velocity v changes with

time t according to the equation v = t2 t

where t is in seconds and v is in m/s. find the

time interval for which the particle retards.

1)

t 1

2)

t 1

3)

t 1

4)

t

8. A particle starts from rest and travel a

distance x with uniform acceleration, then

moves uniformly a distance 2x and finally

comes to rest after moving further 5x with

uniform retardation. The ratio of maximum

speed to average speed is

1)

2)

3)

4)

9. A gun is aimed at a target in a line of its

barrel. The target is released and allowed to

fall under gravity at the same instant the gun

is fired. The bullet will

1) Pass above the target

2) Pass below the target

3) Hit the target

4) Certainly miss the target

10. If 4 3 and 6 8 then

magnitude and direction of will be

1) 5,

2) 5 ,

3) 10,

4) 25,

11. When a force of 0.1 N is applied, the

spring is stretched by 1.5 cm. the spring

is cut into three parts and one part is

stretched by 3 cm. find the force

required for doing so

1) 0.2 N

2) 0.3 N

3) 0.4 N

4) 0.6N

12. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere

after rolling down an inclined plane of

vertical height h from rest without sliding is

1)

2)

3)

4)

13. Two metal rods A and B having their

initial length in the ratio 2 : 3 and the

coefficients of linear expansion in the

ratio 3 : 4. When they are heated through

the same temperature difference, the

ratio of their linear expansion is

1) 3 : 4

2) 1 : 2

3) 2 : 3

4) 4 : 3


14. Two wires of the same length and radius

are joined end to end and loaded. If the

Young’s modulus of the material of the

wires are Y1 and Y2, the combination

behaves as a single wire of Young’s

modulus

1) Y1 + Y2

2) 21YY

3) 2

)YY( 21

4) )YY(

YY2

21

21

.

15. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed

vertically in a liquid such that liquid

rises to height h( less than the length of

tube). Mass of the liquid in the capillary

tube is m. if radius of the tube is

increased by 50%, then mass of liquid

that will rise in the tube is

1)

2) m

3)

4)

16. A uniform metre scale of mass, hinged at

one end is held horizontally. If it is

released, what would be its initial

acceleration?

1) g rad/s2

2)

g rad/s

2

3) 2g rad/s2

4)

g rad/s

2

17. A pipe closed at one end produces a

fundamental note of 412Hz. It is cut into

two pieces of equal length. The

fundamental frequencies produced in the

two pieces are

1) 206 Hz, 41 Hz

2) 824 Hz, 1648 Hz

3) 412 Hz, 824 Hz

4) 206 Hz, 824 Hz

18. A total charge Q is broken in two parts

Q1 and Q2 and they are placed at a

distance R from each other. The

maximum force of repulsion between

them will occur, if

1) Q2 Q/R, Q1 Q – Q/R

2) Q2 Q/4 , Q1 Q – 2Q/3

3) Q2 Q/4 , Q1 3Q/3

4) Q1 Q/2, Q2 Q/2.


19. Charges are placed at the corners of a square

of side ‘a’ as shown in figure. If the charge

at A is in equilibrium, the ratio q1/q2 is:

1) 1

2) √2

3) 1/ √2

4) 2√2

20. The resultant capacitance between A and

B in the following figure is :

1) 1 F

2) 6 F

3) 2 F

4) 4 F

21. A boat is sent across a river with a

velocity of 8 kmph. If the resultant

velocity of the boat is 10 kmph, the river

is flowing with a velocity of

1) 12.8 kmph

2) 6 kmph

3) 8 kmph

4) 18 kmph

22. The distance travelled by a freely falling

body during 50th

second and 100th

second are in the ratio

1) 1:2

2) 49:99

3) 99:199

4) 101:201

23. A wire has a mass 0.3 0.003g, radius

0.5 0.005mm and length 6 0.06 cm.

the maximum percentage error in the

measurement of its density is

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

A +q1

B -q2

-q2 D

+q1 C

A

B

4 μF 4 μF 6 μF

6 μF 6 μF 6 μF

6 μF 6 μF 6 μF


24. A wire breaks when subjected to a stress

S. If is the density of the material of

the wire, then the length of the wire so

that it breaks by its own weight is

1) gS

2)

3)

4)

25. An air bubble is released from the

bottom of a pond and is found to expand

to thrice its original volume as it reached

the surface. If the atmospheric pressure

is 100 kPa, the absolute pressure at the

bottom of lake in kPa is (assume no

temperature variation).

1) 33.3

2) 50.0

3) 100.0

4) 300.0

26. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B

of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B

running in a direction perpendicular to AB

with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running

simultaneously with velocity v and catches

the other boy in a time t, where t is

1) a/

2) a/ ( v )

3) a/( v )

4)

27. A ball of mass m is projected with a velocity

v at an angle 450. If the air resistance is

negligible, then total change in momentum

when it strikes the ground is

1) 2mv

2) mv

3) mv

4) mv/

28. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall

with velocity V and bounces back with same

velocity. The impulse experienced by the

body is

1) MV

2) 1.5 MV

3) 2MV

4) zero

29. A 2 kg mass starts from rest on an

inclined smooth surface with inclination

300 and length 2 m. How much will it

travel before coming to rest on a

frictional surface with frictional

coefficient 0.25?

1) 4m

2) 6m

3) 8 m

4) 2m

30. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal

in a truck. The coefficient of static


friction between the block and the

surface is 0.6 if the acceleration of the

truck is 5 ms-2

. The frictional force

acting on the block is

1) 5N

2) 6N

3) 10N

4) 15 N

PART- B CHEMISTRY

31. Molecules whose mirror image is non-

super imposable over them are known as

chiral. Which one of the following is

chiral in nature?

1) 2-bromo butane

2) 1- bromo butane

3) 2-bromopropane

4) 2-bromopropan-2-ol

32. AgNO3 does not give precipitate with

CHCl3 because?

1) CHCl3 does not ionize water

2) CHCl3 does not react with AgNO3

3) CHCl3 is chemically inert

4) none

33. Mark the correct order of decreasing

acid strength of the following

compounds.

1) e > d > b > a > c

2) b > d > a > c > e

3) d > e > c > b > a

4) e > d > c > b > a

34. Iodoform test is not given by?

1) 2- pentanone

2) Ethanol

3) Ethanal

4) 3-pentanone

35. Which one of the following compound is

not a protonic acid?

1) SO2(OH)2

2) B(OH)3

3) PO(OH)3

4) SO(OH)2


36. Which of the products is formed when

acetone is reacted with barium hydroxide

solution?

1) .

2)

3)

4)

37. If ‘s’ and ‘S’ are respectively solubility

and solubility product of a sparingly

soluble binary electrolyte, then

1) S = s

2) s = S2

3) s =

4) s =

S

38. If uncertainly in position and momentum

are equal, then uncertainly in velocity is:

1)

2)

3)

4)

39. Which of the following pair is not in

order for boiling point for 14, 15, 16 and

17 group?

1) H2O > H2S

2) HF > HCl

3) CH4 > SiH4

4) NH3 > PH3

40. Which one of the following arrangement

represents increasing oxidation number

of central atom?

1) CrO2- ,ClO3

-, CrO4

2- , MnO4

-

2) ClO3- ,CrO4

2-, MnO4

- , CrO2

-

3) CrO2- ,ClO3

-, MnO4

- , CrO4

2-

4) CrO42-

,MnO4-, CrO2

- , ClO3

-

41. Which one of the following has most

acidic hydrogen?

1) Ethane

2) Ethene

3) Ethyne

4) Benzene


42. Impure sample of ZnS contains 42.34%

Zn. What is the percentage of pure ZnS

in sample?

1) 67%

2) 63%

3) 58%

4) 37%

43. If de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of

mass m is 100 times of its velocity, then

its value in terms of its mass (m) and

planks constant (h) is

1)

2) 10

3)

4) 10

44. In OF2, number of bond pairs and lone

pairs of electrons are respectively

1) 2, 8

2) 2, 6

3) 2, 9

4) 2, 10

45. Which of the following does not exhibit

zero entropy at absolute zero

1) Benzene

2) Glass

3) Pyridine

4) CCl4

46. The ionic conductance of and

are 127 and 76 ohm- cm2

respectively at

infinite dilution. The equivalent

conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution

will be?

1) 139.5

2) 203

3) 279

4) 101.5

47. Which one of the following is less than

zero during adsorption?

1) ΔG.

2) ΔS

3) ΔH.

4) All the above.

48. Which one of the following metals is

purified by Van arkel method?

1) Ga and In

2) Zr and Ti

3) Ag and Au

4) Ni and Fe


49. A compound A→ C5 H10 Cl2 on

hydrolysis gives C5H10O which reacts

with NH2OH, forms iodoform, but does

not give Fehling test. A is

1)

2) .

3)

4)

50. Which one of the following complex is

diamagnetic in nature?

1) [NiCl4]2-

2) [Ni(CN)4]2-

3) [CuCl4]2-

4) [CoF6]3-

51. Two oxides of metal M contain 27.6%

and 30% oxygen respectively. If the

formula of the first oxide is M3O4, find

that of the second?

1) M2O3.

2) M2O

3) MO2.

4) M3O2.

52. Of the following which one is classified

as polyester polymer?

1) Terylene

2) Bakelite

3) Melamine

4) Nylon-66

53. If three atoms X, Y and Z crystallized in

cubic solid lattice with X atoms at

corners, Y atom at the body centre, and

Z atoms at the edges. What is the

formula of the compound?

1) XYZ

2) XY3Z

3) XYZ3

4) X3YZ


54. A solution containing two components A

and B shows negative deviation from

Rault’s law. Which of the following is

most appropriate for that solution?

1) ΔVmix ˃ 0

2) ΔHmix ˂ 0

3) A – B interaction is weaker than A –

A and B – B interaction

4) A – B interaction is stronger than A

– A and B – B interaction

55. The rate of a reaction doubles when

temperature changes from 300K to

310K. Activation energy for such

reaction will be?

(Given R= 8.314Jk-1

mol-1

, log 2 = 0.301)

1) 53.6 KJmol-1

2) 48.6 KJmol-1

3) 58.5 KJmol-1

4) 60.5 KJmol-1

56. Elements of which of the following

group of periodic table do not form

hydrides?

1) Group 7,8,9

2) Group 13

3) Group 15,16,17

4) Group 14

57. The radius of hydrated ions of alkali

metals ……….. down the group

1) Decreases

2) increases

3) First increases then decreases

4) none of these

58. Among the fluride of alkali metals the

lowest solubility of LiF in water is due

to?

1) Ionic nature of LiF

2) High lattice enthalpy

3) High hydration enthalpy of Li ion

4) Low ionization enthalpy of Li atom

59. Electrophilic addition reactions proceed

in two steps. The first step involves the

addition of an electrophile. Name the

type of intermediate formed in the first

step of the following addition reaction.

H3C—HC = CH2 + H+→?

1) 2° Carbanion

2) 1° Carbocation

3) 2° Carbocation

4) 1° Carbanion


60. Empirical formula of a compound is

CH2O and its vapour density is 30. What

is the molecular formula of compound ?

1) C3H6O3

2) C2H4O2

3) C2H4O

4) CH2O

PART – C: MATHEMATICS

61. Area common to the curves y = and x =

is

1) 1

2)

3)

4) none of these

62. The solution of the differential equation

2x

– y = 3 represents

1) straight lines

2) circles

3) parabolas

4) ellipses

63. If = 2 +2 +3 , = - +2 + and

= 3 + , then +t is perpendicular to c

, if t is equal to

1) 8

2) 4

3) 6

4) 2

64. The line of intersection of the planes . (3 -

+ ) = 5 and .( +4 -2 ) = 12 is parallel to

the vector

1) -2 +7 +13

2) 2 +7 -13

3) -2 -7 +13

4) 2 +7 +13

65. The mean and variance of a random variable

x having binomial distribution are 4 and 2

respectively. Then P(x =1) is

1)

2)

3)

4)

66. Given f(x) = log

and g(x) =

,

then (fog)(x)=

1) –f

2) 3f

3)

4) none of these


67. In the argand plane , all the complex

numbers satisfying = 10

lie on

1) straight line

2) a circle

3) an ellipse

4) a parabola

68. If a1,a2,a3,…………..are in A.P. such that

a1+a5+a10+a15+a20+a24= 225, then

a1+a2+a3+a4………+a23+a24 is equal to

1) 900

2) 75

3) 750

4) 900

69. The solution of the inequation

, x R is

1) (-2, )

2) (2,

3) (2,

)

4) none of these

70. If the coefficient of in

and

the coefficient of in

are

equal, then ab is equal to

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

71. If sin A+sin B = a and cos A+cos B= b ,

then cos (A+B) is equal to

1)

2)

3)

4)

72. If the foot of the perpendicular from the

origin to a straight line is at the point (3,-4) ,

then the equation of the line is

1) 3x-4y= 25

2) 3x-4y+25=0

3) 4x+3y-25 =0

4) 4x-3y+25 = 0

73. A man running a race course notes that

the sum of the distances of two flag posts

from him is always 10 metres and the

distance between the flag posts is 8

metres. The area of the path he encloses in

square metres is

1)

2) 12

3) 18

4) 8


74. The angle between the pair of the lines

2x2

+ 5xy + 2y2

+ 3x + 3y +1= 0 is

1) cos-1

2) tan-1

3) 0

4)

75. If

, then 32

is equal

to

1) 7

2) 8

3) 11

4) none of these

76. If = c , then

is

1)

2)

3)

4) none of these

77. A point on the parabola y2= 18x at which the

ordinate increases at twice the rate of the

abscissa is

1) (2,4)

2) (2,-4)

3)

4)

78. The point on the curve y = (x-3)2 , where the

tangents is parallel to the chord joining (3,0)

and (4,1) is

1)

2)

3)

4)

79.

dx =

1) 3sin( ) + c

2) sin( +c

3)

sin (

+c

4)

sin (

+c

80.

1) 1

2) 2

3) 0

4)

81. If a, b,c are in A.P , then the value of

is

1) 3

2) -3

3) 0

4) none of these


82. If f(x) =

, then for what

value of f(f(x)) = x ?

1)

2)

3) 1

4) 1

83. For a 3X 3 matrix A, if = 4 , then

equals

1) -4

2) 4

3) 16

4) 64

84. If

= k , then k is

1)

2)

3)

4) 0

85. if cos-1

= log a , then

1)

2)

3)

4)

86. If a = 16, b =24, c= 20 , then

is equal to

1)

2)

3) ½

4)

87. Period of sin2 is

1)

2)

3) 2

4)

88. The number of solutions of x

is

1) zero

2) one

3) two

4) none of these

89. How many different words can be

formed by jumbling the letters in the word

‘MISSISSIPPI’ in which no two S are

adjacent ?

1) 8.6C4.

7C4

2) 6.7.8C4

3) 6.8.7C4

4) 7.6C4.

8C4

90. Two finite sets have m and n elements.

The total number of subsets of the first set is

56 more than the total number of subsets of

the second set. The value of m and n are:

1) 7,6

2) 6,3

3) 5,1

4) 8,7

Important Instructions:

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Black Ball Point Pen.

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space) on the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet.

4. Out of the four option given for each questions, only one option is correct answer.

5. For each incorrect response (one fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e, 1

mark will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be

made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for

discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be printed.

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circulations / writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test

Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work. This space is given at the bottom of each page and

in four pages at the end of Booklet.

8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on

duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet

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E/12/2018 Test Booklet Code - focus SAUDI

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