DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO ...€¦ · Despatch of 1854. 2. MacDonnell...

21
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TEST BOOKLET Days 37 to 40 (100 Questions SET) Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode clearly the test book series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the OMR Answer sheet. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to ll in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator Only the Answer Sheet, You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for Wrong answers THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION UPSC PRELIMS 2019 REVISION TESTS INSIGHTSIAS

Transcript of DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO ...€¦ · Despatch of 1854. 2. MacDonnell...

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

Days 37 to 40 (100 Questions SET)

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR

ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode clearly the test book series A, B, C

or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the

OMR Answer sheet.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the

Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.

DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four

responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you

feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any

case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator Only the Answer Sheet, You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for Wrong answers

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong

answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be

deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that

question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION

UPSC PRELIMS 2019 REVISION TESTS

INSIGHTSIAS

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INSIGHTS IAS REVISION QUESTIONS FOR UPSC PRELIMS – 2019

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part

of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC Civil Services

Examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair

by lakhs of IAS aspirants across the country). These questions are

carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough challenge to test their

knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as intelligent

guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed

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These questions are based on this Revision Timetable which is

posted on our website (www.insightsonindia.com). Every year thousands

of candidates follow our revision timetable – which is made for SERIOUS

aspirants who would like to intensively revise everything that’s important

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Those who would like to take up more tests for even better

preparation, can enroll to InsightsIAS Prelims Mock Test Series – 2019.

Every year toppers solve our tests and sail through UPSC civil services

exam. Your support through purchase of our tests will help us provide

FREE content on our website seamlessly.

Wish you all the best!

Team InsightsIAS

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Questions – (Day 37)

1. Consider the following statements.

1. In Lucknow session, Congress

accepted Muslim league’s demand of

separate electorate for muslims.

2. In Karachi session, Congress

adopted a resolution on economic

Policy

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. The aim of Public Safety Bill, 1928 was to

(a) Regulate the manufacture, sale,

possession, and carrying of firearms.

(b) Allow British subjects to be tried by

Indian judges.

(c) Deport the foreigners suspected of

propagating socialist and communist

ideas.

(d) Abolish oppressive social practices

among various religious groups.

3. Consider the following statements with

regard to the Benaras session of Congress

1905

1. It was presided by Gopal Krishna

Gokhale

2. Congress decided to initiate

Swadeshi and Boycott movement.

3. It was decided to extend the

Swadeshi and Boycott movement to

the entire India.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

4. With reference to Warren Hastings,

consider the following statements.

1. He was the first Governor General of

India.

2. He abolished the Dual Government

in Bengal.

3. He signed treaty of Amritsar with

Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Which of the following pairs is not

correctly matched ?

(a) Lord Wellesley– Fort William College

(b) William Bentinck – Kol Rebellion

(c) Dalhousie – Wood’s Despatch

(d) Metcalfe - Vellore Mutiny

6. Which among the following events are

associated with the tenure of Lord Ripon ?

1. Appointment of Hunter Commission

for education

2. Third Anglo-Burmese War

3. First Factory Act, 1881

4. Government resolution on local self-

government

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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7. Consider the following statements

regarding Madam Bhikaji Cama

1. She co-founded the Paris Indian

Society.

2. She unfurled the National Flag at the

International Socialist Conference in

Stuttgart in 1907

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Consider the following pairs

Journals/Newspaper Founder

1. Bengal Gazette : James Augustus Hicky

2. Mirat-ul-Akbar : Raja Ram Mohan Roy

3. Amrita Bazar Patrika

: Devendra Nath Tagore

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

9. East India Company’s monopoly of India

trade was abolished by the

(a) Regulating Act of 1773

(b) Charter Act of 1813

(c) Charter Act of 1853

(d) Pitt’s India Act

10. Consider the following statements

1. The Munro System introduced in the

South India was not successful

2. Under the Munro System, farms

were surveyed and assessed before

fixing revenue and revenue was to be

collected directly from the farmer by

the British

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

11. Which among the following foreigners

served as the presidents of Congress

sessions ?

1. A O Hume

2. Henry Cotton

3. Annie Besant

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

12. Consider the following statements

1. Hunter Commission was setup in

1882 to review the progress of

education in the country since the

Despatch of 1854.

2. MacDonnell Commission reviewed

the entire field from school

education to university education.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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13. Consider the following statements

regarding Wood’s Despatch

1. It made English compulsory as the

medium of instruction at all levels

2. It laid stress on female and

vocational education

3. It laid down that the education

imparted in government institutions

must be secular.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

14. In Modern India, Yugantar Ashram was

(a) The headquarters of the Gadar party

(b) An Ashram adopted by the Indian

National Congress in the memory of

Mahatma Gandhi

(c) A seditious publication of the India

House, London

(d) A war memorial established by the

British government for Indian

freedom fighters in 1948

15. The title “Socrates of South Asia” is often

attributed to

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Gopalkrishna Gokhale

(c) Pandit Nehru

(d) Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy

16. Consider the following statements

1. Strategic disinvestment is the sale of

substantial portion of the

government shareholding of a

central public sector enterprise

(CPSE) to private party along with

transfer of management control.

2. NITI Aayog will identify CPSEs for

strategic disinvestment and suggest

methods for valuation of the CPSE

3. Department of Investment and

Public Asset Management comes

under Ministry of Heavy Industries

and Public Enterprises

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

17. Consider the following statements

1. An initial public offering, or IPO, is

the very first sale of stock issued by a

company to the public.

2. A follow-on public offer (FPO) is the

issuance of shares to investors by a

public company that is currently

listed on a stock market exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

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18. Consider the following statements

1. The United Nations Commission on

International Trade Law is a UN

body established by the United

Nations General Assembly to

promote the progressive

harmonization and unification of

international trade law.

2. The marginal cost of funds based

lending rate (MCLR) refers to the

minimum interest rate of a bank

below which it cannot lend, except in

some cases allowed by the RBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Consider the following statements

1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were

established by Central Government,

State government and Sponsor bank

with equal shares.

2. Each Regional Rural Bank is

sponsored by a Public Sector Bank.

3. They were established based on the

recommendations of Narsimhan

Committee working group.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements

regarding National Payments Corporation

of India (NPCI)

1. It is an umbrella organisation for

operating retail payments and

settlement systems in India, is an

initiative of Reserve Bank of India

(RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association

(IBA).

2. It has been incorporated as a “Not

for Profit” Company under the

provisions of Section 25 of

Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8

of Companies Act 2013).

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. Consider the following statements

1. Central Statistics Office releases

Wholesale Price Index.

2. Manufactured Products has highest

weightage in Whole Sale Price Index

3. In India, headline inflation is

measured through Consumer Price

Index.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

22. BASEL III norms, recently seen in the

news, is

(a) A global, voluntary regulatory

framework on bank capital

adequacy, market liquidity risk etc.

(b) Climate mitigation norms to be

adopted by the developed nations by

2020.

(c) Regulations related to export of

agricultural commodities.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and

(c) are correct.

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23. Consider the following statements

1. Global Solar Bank is a new proposal

by World Bank to finance solar

projects.

2. National Institute of Solar Energy,

an autonomous institution of

Ministry of New and Renewable

(MNRE), is the apex National R&D

institution in the field Solar Energy.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither nor 2

24. Consider the following statements

1. Minor ports are handled by State

governments.

2. East coast of India is largely suitable

for building port than western coast.

3. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) as

generally extending 200 nautical

miles from shore, within which the

coastal state has the right to explore

and exploit, and the responsibility to

conserve and manage, both living

and non-living resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

25. With reference to Sea weeds, consider

the following statements

1. Marine microalgae, or seaweeds, are

plant like organisms that generally

live attached to rock or other hard

substrata in coastal areas.

2. All seaweeds are edible, though

some are more nutritional and

palatable than others, and some can

cause stomach upset.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Day 38)

26. Consider the following statements

1. Wood’s despatch rejected downward

filtration theory and recommended

the establishment of schools to

promote mass education.

2. Macaulay’s minutes largely believed

in educating a lower class and

economically impoverished students

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Which of the following factors are

responsible for the reform movements took

place in 19th century in India ?

1. Spread of education

2. Rising wave of nationalism.

3. Presence of colonial government

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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28. Consider the following pairs

Newspaper/Journal Author/Editor

1. Voice of India : Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Hindustan : G. Subramaniya Aiyar

3. Kesari : Balgangadhar Tilak

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

29. Which of the following Acts provided for

the right to ask questions and discuss the

budget.

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892

(b) Charter Act, 1833

(c) Charter Act, 1813

(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861

30. With reference to the Gandhi-Irwin

Pact, which of the following statement is

not correct ?

(a) The government granted right to make

salt in coastal villages for personal

consumption and sale in local

markets.

(b) The government agreed to return all

lands which were not sold to thirds

parties.

(c) All political prisoners not convicted of

violence were released immediately.

(d) Gandhi agreed to participate in the

second-round table conference.

31. Consider the following provisions of the

Desai- Liaqat Pact for the formation of an

interim government at the Centre

1. It will consist of equal number of

persons nominated by the Congress

and the League in the central

legislature.

2. There will be 30% reserved seats for

minorities.

Select the correct statement/s using the

codes given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which of the following pairs is correctly

matched ?

(a) Lee Commission – Education

(b) Aitchison commission - Public services

(c) Sargent plan - Army reforms

(d) Macdonnel commission – Press

33. Consider the following statements

1. In the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War,

the combined forces of the British

East India Company and the Nizam

of Hyderabad defeated Tipu

2. After Tipu Sultan was killed in the

Battle of Seringapatam, Mysore was

placed under Wodeyars – the former

ruling dynasty.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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34. Which of the following personalities are

the staunch critics of Economic colonialism

of India.

1. R. C. Dutt

2. Mahadev Govind Ranade

3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

35. Consider the following statements

1. Congress Ministries resigned from

the provinces in 1939 because the

government did not allot them seats

in the Executive Council.

2. Government of India Act, 1935

abolished dyarchy in the provinces

and introduced provincial autonomy

in its place.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. Consider the following statements

1. Jinnah and Ambedkar attended all

the three Round table conferences.

2. Jawaharlal Nehru was the first

satyagrahi identified by Gandhi for

the individual satyagraha

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements

1. Lord Hardinge was the viceroy of

India when the INC was formed in

1885

2. August offer was an effort to win

over the support of the Indian

political leadership for the war

cause.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

38. The proposal of the Cripps mission was

that

1. India would be a dominion

associated with the United Kingdom.

2. After the end of the WW - 2, a

constituent assembly would be

convened to frame a new

constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. The Radcliffe Line was

(a) the boundary demarcation line

between India and Pakistan

(b) the agreed line on the partition of

Bengal

(c) the frontier between East Pakistan and

West-Pakistan

(d) the line between Indo-China border as

historically demarcated by the British

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40. Consider the following statements

1. Clement Atlee declared on February

20, 1947 in the House of Commons

that the British would quit India

after transferring power into the

responsible hand not later than June

30, 1948.

2. Individual Satyagraha aimed to give

another opportunity to the

government to accept congress

demands peacefully.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Who among the following suggested the

winding up of the Indian National Congress

after India attained independence ?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Achrya Kripalani

(c) Mahatma Gandhi

(d) Jayaprakash Narain

42. Consider the following events during

India’s freedom struggle

1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct

chronological order of the events above?

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(c) 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

43. Which of the following State

government has launched ‘solar Briefcase’

to provide electricity in remote areas ?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Uttarakhand

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Rajasthan

44. Consider the following statements

1. UN Security Council resolution 2428

aims to impose arms Embargo on

South Sudan.

2. UNSC resolution 2427 is aimed at

providing a legal framework for

mainstreaming protection, rights,

well-being and empowerment of

children throughout the conflict

cycle

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. World Investment Report, recently in

news, is released by

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) United Nations Conference on Trade

and Development

(c) World Bank

(d) OECD

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46. Consider the following statements

regarding BRICS

1. BRICS is coined by British

Economist Jim O’Neill

2. BRICS nation’s accounts for 40% of

the world population and all the five

counties are G20 members.

3. Theme of last year summit was

‘Collaboration for inclusive growth

and shared prosperity in the 4th

industrial revolution’.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Consider the following statements

1. Leprosy is an incurable disease

mainly caused by the bacteria

Mycobacterium leprae.

2. Leprosy is known to occur at all ages

ranging from early infancy to very

old age.

3. India is non-signatory to United

Nations Convention on the Rights of

Persons with Disabilities

(UNCRPD).

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

48. Consider the following statements

1. IRNSS is a regional navigation

satellite system being developed by

India for the benefit of SAARC

countries.

2. IRNSS will provide two types of

services namely Standard

Positioning Service and Restricted

Service.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements

regarding LIDAR (Light Detection and

Ranging)

1. LIDAR is a remote sensing method

used to examine the surface of the

Earth.

2. It uses light in the form of a pulsed

laser to measure distance

3. LIDAR has application in various

field like precision forestry, forest

fire management and agriculture

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

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50. Consider the following statements

1. Compressed Natural Gas mainly

composed of propane emits less

pollutants than petrol.

2. H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and

CNG with ideal hydrogen

concentration of 18%.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(Day 39)

51. Consider the following statements

1. Satellites placed in polar orbits have

an inclination of about 90 degrees to

the equator and travels north-south

over the poles at lower altitudes.

2. Sun Synchronous orbit is a special

case of polar orbit moving from pole

to pole allowing satellite to pass over

any given point of the planet’s

surface at roughly the same local

mean solar time.

3. Most of the communication

satellites are placed at sun

synchronous orbit.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

52. Consider the following statements

1. Reusable Launch Vehicle uses air-

breathing propulsion system which

can utilise the atmospheric oxygen

during their flight and reduce the

total propellant required to place a

satellite in orbit.

2. GSLV Mk2 is the 4th generation

launch vehicle, a three-stage vehicle

with four liquid strap-on boosters.

3. GSLV Mk2 can take up to 5000 kg of

pay load to Low Earth Orbits, 2500

kg of payload to Geosynchronous

Transfer Orbit (GTO)

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

53. Consider the following statements

1. HysIS is an earth observation

satellite, weighing about 3800 kg

and configured around ISRO’s Mini

Satellite-2.

2. A hyperspectral imaging camera in

satellite can provide well-defined

images that can help to identify

objects on Earth far more clearly

than regular remote sensing

cameras.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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54. Consider the following statements

1. Mission Venus is a proposed orbiter

to Venus by NASA

2. Aditya-L1 Mission is the first Indian

mission to study Sun.

3. AstroSat is India’s first dedicated

multi wavelength space observatory.

Which of the statements given above is/are

incorrect ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None

55. Consider the following statements

regarding James Webb Telescope

1. It is an international collaboration

between NASA, European Space

Agency (ESA) and the Canadian

Space Agency (CSA).

2. It is a successor instrument to the

Hubble Space Telescope.

3. After its launch, it will be in orbit

around the Earth positioned at 800

km above earth’s surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

56. Which of the following statements is

incorrect regarding gravitational waves ?

(a) Gravitational waves (G-Waves) are

‘ripples’ in the fabric of space-time

caused by some of the most violent

and energetic processes.

(b) Gravitational waves are

electromagnetic radiation.

(c) Any object with mass that

accelerates produces gravitational

waves, including humans and cars.

(d) G-Waves carry information about

their origin that is free of distortion.

57. Consider the following statements

1. Antrix Corporation Limited is the

commercial arm of ISRO wholly

owned by Government of India

2. The business activities of Antrix

includes marketing of data from

Indian and foreign remote sensing

satellites.

3. Space commission of India is headed

by chairman of ISRO

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

58. Consider the following statements

1. Sagittarius A* is believed to be a

super massive black hole in the

Milky Way Galaxy.

2. The Kuiper belt a circumstellar disc

in the outer Solar System, extending

from the orbit of Neptune to

approximately 50 AU from the Sun.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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59. Consider the following statements

1. Hope Mission is a Space mission by

China which planned to send an

unmanned probe to orbit Mars by

2021.

2. RemoveDEBRIS mission is being led

by the Surrey Space Centre (SSC) at

the University of Surrey, UK.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following statements

1. BepiColombo is a joint mission

between ESA and the Japan

Aerospace Exploration Agency

(JAXA) to explore Asteroid belt.

2. ExoMars is a joint space venture

between European Space Agency

and Russian space agency

Roscosmos to Mars.

3. Rosetta was launched by NASA in

2004 to land a probe on a comet.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

61. Consider the following statements

1. Stem cells are special human cells

that have the ability to develop into

many different cell types, from

muscle cells to brain cells.

2. Induced pluripotent stem cells

(iPSCs) are adult cells that have been

genetically reprogrammed to an

embryonic stem cell like state.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following statements

1. Human Genome Project-Write

(HGP-Write) aims to create a genetic

blueprint or synthetic human

genome from the scratch.

2. The potential benefits of HGP-write

could provide new solutions to

diseases like malaria, dengue and

Chikungunya

3. India substantially funded Human

Genome Project-Write (HGP-Write)

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 only

63. Consider the following statements

1. Chlorophyll – F is a type of

chlorophyll that uses near-infrared

light from the sun for

photosynthesis.

2. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is the

process of fertilization by extracting

eggs, retrieving a sperm sample, and

then manually combining an egg and

sperm in a laboratory dish

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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64. Consider the following statements

regarding Artificial Leaf

1. Artificial leaf absorbs sunlight to

generate hydrogen fuel from water.

2. CSIR has developed artificial leaf.

3. Artificial leaf is produced through

ultra-thin wireless device which

mimics plant leaves to produce

energy using water and sunlight.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

65. With reference to the ‘OSIRIS REX’,

consider the following statements:

1. It is a mission launched by the

European Space Agency (ESA).

2. The goal of the mission is to obtain a

small sample from asteroid Bennu,

and return the sample to Earth for

detailed analysis.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Consider the following statements

1. World Heritage Sites are the places

which have been recognized by

UNESCO based on their natural,

cultural, historical, and scientific

importance.

2. Matheran Hill Railway has been

designated as a UNESCO World

Heritage Site.

3. Country partied to UNESCO’s World

Heritage convention must amend

the domestic laws for the better

protection of heritage sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

67. Consider the following statements

1. Asiatic Society of Bengal, scholarly

society founded by Sir William Jones

to encourage Oriental studies.

2. Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)

is the premier organization for the

archaeological researches and

protection of the cultural heritage

comes under the Ministry of Culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. Consider the following statements

1. Commission for Agricultural Cost

and Prices (CACP) fixes the

Minimum Support Prices (MSP) of

various agricultural commodities.

2. It is announced in the beginning of

the harvesting season.

3. Arecanut and Tea are included

under Minimum support price.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

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69. Consider the following statements

1. Special Safeguard Duty is a

provision under the WTO agreement

allowing the member countries to

impose tariff against injurious

imports.

2. Directorate General of Trade

Remedies recommends imposition

of Special safeguard Duty after wide

consultation with stakeholders.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. Which of the following

members/entities can become Banking

Correspondents

1. Micro Finance Institutes

2. Retired bank employees and

teachers

3. Self Help Groups

4. Common Service Centres

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

71. Consider the following statements

regarding GST Council

1. It is a joint forum of the Centre and

States, with Union Finance Minister

as chairperson.

2. Responsibility of the GST Council is

to ensure to have one uniform tax

rate for goods and services across the

nation.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Consider the following statements

1. Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk

Reduction is a 15-year voluntary and

binding agreement which recognizes

that the State has the primary role to

reduce disaster risk.

2. India is non signatory of Sendai

Framework

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

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73. Which of the following is the best habitat/site to re-introduce cheetah in India. (a) Nauradehi

(b) Bandipur

(c) Nandadevi

(d) Dachigam

74. Consider the following statements

1. Paudhagiri campaign aims to plant sapling each during three months of monsoon – July, August and September.

2. Cochin International Airport Limited (CIAL) has been selected for the Champion of Earth Prize-2018.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 75. Red Line campaign often seen in news is aimed at creating awareness related to

(a) Anti-Microbial Resistance

(b) Health hazards related to junk foods

(c) Effect of processed meat on health

(d) Women’s safety

(Day 40) 76. Consider the following statements regarding ‘S-400 Truimf’ missile system

1. It is a long-range air defence missile system developed by USA.

2. It can simultaneously track all kinds of incoming objects like aircraft, missiles and UAVs.

3. It has capability to destroy incoming all airborne targets at ranges of up to 4000 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) None 77. Consider the following statements

1. INS Vikrant is the first aircraft carrier to be built in India by Cochin Shipyard

2. It is powered by nuclear energy based propulsion system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None 78. Consider the following statements regarding Agni V

1. It is three-stage solid propellant nuclear-capable missile.

2. It can attend the maximum speed of 24 Mach

3. It can carry multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles (MIRV) payloads

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

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79. Consider the following statements

1. Integrated Guided Missile

Development Plan (IGDMP) was

envisioned in 1983 by Dr. A P J

Abdul Kalam.

2. All missile systems in India have

been developed by India under

IGDMP programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

80. Consider the following pairs

Defence Exercise Countries involved

1. HAND IN HAND

: India – Bhutan

2. PRABAL DOSTYK

: India – Kazakhstan

3. NOMADIC ELEPHANT

: India – Japan

Which of the pairs given above is/are

matched correctly ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

81. Which of the following are the Un-

manned Aerial Vehicles UAV’s developed by

DRDO ?

1. Nishant

2. Lakshya

3. Rustom-2

4. Panchi

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

82. Consider the following statements

1. LCA Tejas is single-seat multi-role

jet fighter, powered by single engine.

2. Indian Air Force (IAF) recently

inducted the Chinook heavy-lift

helicopters made in USA.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Consider the following statements

regarding PMDISHA programme

1. It was launched in 2017 to make 6

crore rural households digitally

literate by March 2019.

2. The scheme is implemented by

Ministry of Electronics and

Information Technology

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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84. In which of the following sectors

artificial intelligence has application ?

1. Education

2. Financial Intelligence

3. Healthcare

4. Transportation

5. Agriculture

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 , 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

85. The Universal Service Obligation Fund,

often seen in news, is related to

(a) Education services

(b) Services related to common service

centre

(c) Pension payments

(d) Telecommunication sector

86. Consider the following statements

regarding FASTag

1. It is a reloadable tag that

automatically deducts toll charges

and allows a vehicle to pass through

a toll gate without stopping for the

payment.

2. It uses near field communication

technology to make cashless

payments through a prepaid account

linked to it.

Which of the statement given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Which of the following diseases are

neglected tropical diseases ?

1. Snakebite Envenoming

2. Polio

3. Rabies

4. Trachoma

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

88. Which of the following are the

difference between LI-FI and WI-FI ?

1. Li-fi transmits data using light with

the help of led bulbs whereas Wi-Fi

transmits data using radio waves.

2. Li-fi has less interference issues than

Wi-Fi.

3. Frequency of operation of Li-fi is

thousand times lesser than Wi-Fi.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

89. Which of the following diseases is/are

eradicated from India ?

1. Trachoma

2. Small Pox

3. Guinea Worm disease

Select the correct answer using the code

given below

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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90. Consider the following statements

regarding Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD)

1. Hard ticks are the reservoir of the

KFD virus

2. Transmission to humans possible

through tick bites.

3. Vaccine does not exist for KFD

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Consider the following statements

regarding ‘Sangham Radio’

1. It is India’s first rural community

radio station and first all-woman

community radio station in Asia.

2. It was established in 2008 and run

by Deccan Development Society

(DDS).

3. The programming content is

generated entirely by women, most

of them semi-literate.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following statements

1. Project ‘Mausam’ aims to

comprehensively analyze the

reasons for the failure of monsoon.

2. It is an initiative of Ministry of Earth

Science.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. Edisinge – Savara tribal art, recently

seen in news, can be found in

(a) Odisha

(b) Maharastra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Assam

94. ‘Limboo’ and ‘Tamang’ communities,

often seen in news, prominently found in

(a) Sikkim

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand

95. Consider the following statements

1. Indian Ocean Dipole is an

atmosphere-ocean coupled

phenomenon in the tropical Indian

Ocean characterized by a difference

in sea-surface temperatures.

2. Long Period Average is the average

rainfall received by the country as a

whole during the south-west

monsoon, for a 50-year period.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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96. Consider the following statements

1. 8888 uprising was a people’s

movement that challenged the then

ruling Burma Socialist Programme

Party.

2. Uyghurs are a Turkic ethnic group

who live in East and Central Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Consider the following pairs

Militia sometimes in the news

Country they belong to

1. People’s Protection Units

: Turkey

2. Revolutionary Guard

: Iraq

3. Salwa Judum : India

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

98. Unlike decisions taken by other Cabinet

Committees that are made public, those

taken by this committee generally remain

unannounced. That committee is

(a) Cabinet Committee on Security

(b) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs

(c) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary

Affairs

(d) Cabinet Committee on Economic

Affairs

99. Which state recently became the first to

pass a bill providing for death penalty to

those convicted of raping girls of 12 years

and below ?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Haryana

100. Consider the following statements

regarding World Hindi Conference

1. It was started in 2000 to make the

Hindi language a medium of service

and knowledge and enable it to move

forward with the time.

2. World Hindi Secretariat is located in

New Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2