Delta Module 1 Report

Delta Module One

Understanding language, methodology and resources for teaching

Examination Report

June 2012

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Contents 1 Comments on Overall Performance ............................................................................................... 4

2 Delta Module One Markscheme ..................................................................................................... 6

2.1 Distribution of marks .............................................................................................................. 6

2.2 Markscheme for each task ..................................................................................................... 6

2.3 Grading................................................................................................................................... 7

3 Paper 1 Task 1................................................................................................................................ 9

4 Paper 1 Task 2.............................................................................................................................. 10

5 Paper 1 Task 3.............................................................................................................................. 11

5.1 Guideline Answer ................................................................................................................. 11

Candidate performance ....................................................................................................... 11

5.2 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 12

6 Paper 1 Task 4.............................................................................................................................. 15


6.2 Candidate performance........................................................................................................ 19

6.3 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 22

7 Paper 1 Task 5.............................................................................................................................. 30



7.3 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 34

8 Paper 2 Task 1.............................................................................................................................. 38



8.3 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 41

9 Paper 2 Task 2.............................................................................................................................. 45



9.3 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 49

10 Paper 2 Task 3.............................................................................................................................. 54



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10.3 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 55

11 Paper 2 Task 4.............................................................................................................................. 58



11.3 Sample Answers .................................................................................................................. 60

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1 Comments on Overall Performance The Delta Module One examination was taken by over 550 candidates from 64 centres in a wide range of countries. As in previous sessions mean scores were above half the marks available for the exam for the candidature as a whole. Percentages of candidates achieving both Merit and Distinction were up on June 2011. More than 67% of candidates achieved a Pass. Key reasons why candidates may not achieve pass standard are as follows:

The most common reason is that they do not possess sufficient knowledge and experience to be able to address the different tasks and are therefore unable to perform at Delta standard.

A large majority of candidates have a very poor knowledge of phonology which can result in a significant loss of marks in, for example, Paper One, Task 4. Candidates and centres alike need to increase / improve their level of phonological input.

Some candidates who enter the examination without having taken a preparation course may have insufficient awareness of task requirements. Candidates should refer to the previous Module One examination reports. These give clear guidance as to what candidates have to do in order to increase their chances of success in the examination.

Some candidates who follow a preparation course may have received inadequate or inaccurate centre guidance. From Examiner comments this year, this seems to have been less of a problem than in previous sessions although some lack of accurate guidance is still evident.

Some candidates do not manage their time effectively. As stated in the June 2011 report, Task 4 in both Papers One and Two and Task 5 in Paper One carry a large number of marks and candidates are strongly advised to allow adequate time for these tasks. Candidates are free to attempt the tasks in the order of their choosing and of course should not spend so much time on the tasks indicated above to the detriment of the other ones. This session there were fewer unattempted and incomplete tasks than in previous sessions.

The mean score for Paper One was higher than for Paper Two although the overall mean score was entirely in line with previous sessions. In Paper One, Task 1 candidate performance was very strong, with almost 60% of candidates achieving 5 or 6 marks (see page 6 below for marks allocation by task). Performance in Task Two also showed improvement over the past two sessions with the average number of marks achieved being 6. Task 3 performance was well in line with previous sessions with an average of 9 marks achieved. The mean score for Task 4 was the second highest since the introduction of the new scheme at almost 25. Candidates also performed well in Task 5 with an average score of almost 12 marks. Overall, performance on Paper One was the highest since June 2010. In Paper Two, Task 1 generated the highest marks ever with more than half the candidates achieving at least 12 marks. Examiners noted that candidates appeared to be more confident in terms of how to approach the task. The mean score for Task 2 was 16. However, some candidates struggled to identify a sufficient number of purposes in part (a) and accompanying assumptions in part (b); candidates may need more training in how to approach this task and also need to explore in greater depth the principles behind the design of teaching material. Candidate performance in Task 3, however, was the highest since June 2009. Task 4 continued to challenge candidates and the mean score was lower than half the marks available for the task. Examiners noted that many candidates struggled with the topic of approaches to teaching lexical and functional language and interpreted the rubric in a variety of different ways. Overall, Paper Two scored slightly lower than in previous sessions but this was balanced by the higher scores achieved in Paper One. Task-level performance was considered in the application of grade boundaries and, overall, candidate achievement for the June 2012 cohort was entirely in line with previous sessions. Layout of answers shows improvement although weaker candidates continue to lay their answers out in a disorderly fashion and provide information not required in the rubrics. Please see each task for examiner comments on individual task performance.

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General advice Candidates are strongly advised to do the following in order to maximise their performance in the examination:

read the previous Examination Reports in detail to ensure that they understand how to approach each task and how the marks are allocated

make use of the suggested times given on the question papers to complete each task - the times relate to the number of marks available for the questions. Candidates are not penalised if they outline more features than asked for in Paper One, Tasks 3 and 5, and in Paper Two, Tasks 1 and 2b but they should note that this is a dangerous strategy as providing more features than asked for takes away time from other tasks. Adding one more feature in these tasks may be a useful safety net but doing more than this can jeopardise other tasks

read question rubrics very carefully, underlining or highlighting key points they contain. It is essential that candidates provide the information asked for and do not provide unrequested information. While no marks are deducted for wrong or irrelevant information, candidate time is wasted and no marks are gained by providing unrequested information

plan the order in which they are going to answer the tasks and complete at least two full mock examinations in timed conditions to get used to the exam format and time requirements

do not waste time making rough notes there is no time available for this. Instead candidates should do what is suggested in the above bullet point and do more tasks under timed conditions to get used to the requirements and formats of the different tasks

follow the layout as suggested in each task. Use bullet points to organise their answers and save time

start each task on a new page and clearly label their answers, showing what task or part of a task they are answering

lay their answers out with plenty of space candidates might find it easier to write their answers on every other line in the answer booklet. Many answers were very cramped and written in the margins, making it very difficult for Examiners to mark the tasks. One candidate completed all five tasks on four sides of paper with the result that the answers were so cramped that they were almost impossible to read. Candidates need to consider their audience and by leaving extra space, they can include more points later in the exam if they realise that they have something more to add

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2 Delta Module One Markscheme

2.1 Distribution of marks In Delta Module One, candidates accumulate marks across questions and it is the total number of marks obtained across the two papers that determine which grade a candidate is awarded. Candidates do not therefore gain a grade for each task. Answers are marked against a detailed markscheme containing guideline answers, with candidates being awarded marks for each correct answer given. The number of marks available for each task is as follows: Paper 1

Task 1 6

Task 2 12

Task 3 15

Task 4 40

Task 5 27

Total 100

Paper 2

Task 1 20

Task 2 30

Task 3 10

Task 4 40

Total 100

Grand Total

200

Points made twice within an answer are not credited twice and no marks are deducted for wrong answers. Please note that relevant alternative wordings and examples are accepted.

2.2 Markscheme for each task

Paper 1 Task 1 One mark is awarded for each correct answer.

Paper 1 Task 2 A total of three marks are available per answer: one mark for the basic definition one mark for a further point made one mark for a correct example

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Note: The further point is only awarded if the basic definition is correct; only one further point is allowed per question; the example can be awarded a point, even if the definition is not correct.

Paper 1 Task 3 One mark is awarded for each language feature correctly identified. A further two marks are awarded for each correct example / illustration. An example cannot be

awarded marks if the feature is not identified.

Paper 1 Task 4 One mark is awarded for each point correctly made up to a maximum of 40. Note: in a, there is a maximum of five marks available and a mark is only awarded if a correct example is given.

Paper 1 Task 5 a One mark is awarded for each strength correctly identified up to a maximum of three marks. One mark is awarded for each example from the text illustrating the strength identified, up to a

maximum of three marks. Note: no mark can be given for an example if its accompanying strength has not been correctly identified

One mark is awarded for each weakness correctly identified up to a maximum of three marks. One mark is awarded for each example from the text illustrating the weakness identified, up to a

maximum of three marks. Note: no mark can be given for an example if its accompanying weakness has not been correctly identified

Additional marks may be awarded for knowledge and insight into why and how the strengths and weaknesses aid or negate the effectiveness of the text. b One mark is awarded for each justification given for the weakness prioritised, up to three marks.

One additional mark is awarded for each justification that is fully developed.

Paper 2 Task 1 One mark is awarded for each positive / negative feature identified. An additional mark is awarded

for each positive / negative feature identified if its application to the learner is also identified. Up to two additional marks are awarded for accurate use of four testing terms throughout the

answer. However these additional marks cannot be awarded if more than two terms are used inaccurately and the use of the terms must occur in valid points.

Paper 2 Task 2 Two marks are awarded for each purpose correctly identified. One mark is awarded for each assumption listed. Two additional marks are awarded for two reasons given for an assumption. Paper 2 Task 3 One mark is awarded for each correct point made, up to a maximum of 10. Paper 2 Task 4 Two marks are awarded for each correct point made, up to a maximum of 40. 2.3 Grading Results are recorded as three passing grades (Pass with Distinction, Pass with Merit, Pass) and one failing grade (Fail). At the end of the marking process, there is a grading meeting to determine precisely how many marks are required to obtain each of the passing grades. The grade boundaries are set in a way that ensures that the level of knowledge required to obtain the three passing grades: is consistent with the band descriptors on page 7 of the Delta Modules Handbook is the same from one session to the next does not vary as a result of slight variations in the difficulty of the papers The following information is used in the grading process:

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statistics on the candidature comparison with statistics from previous years examination performance and candidature recommendations of examiners, based on the performance of candidates The marks required to obtain each grade are: Pass approximately 50% Pass with Merit approximately 65% Pass with Distinction approximately 75%

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3 Paper 1 Task 1 For examples of Task 1 questions, and comments on sample answers, see previous Examination Reports. As in previous sessions, candidates are recommended to: only write the required term, not giving an example or any extra information not provide alternative answers spell terms correctly; a very limited number of alternative spellings are accepted lay out their answers clearly using the sub-headings of Point, Further Point, Example see previous examination reports on the Cambridge ESOL website for detailed feedback on how

to approach this task

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4 Paper 1 Task 2 For examples of Task 2 questions, and comments on sample answers, see previous Examination Reports. As in previous sessions, candidates are recommended to: only write about four terms give a basic definition, an example and one item of further information for each term lay out their answers clearly using the sub-headings of Point, Further Point, Example see previous examination reports on the Cambridge ESOL website for detailed feedback on how

to approach this task

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5 Paper 1 Task 3 The extract for this task is a writing activity for intermediate (CEFR level B1) learners. Identify a total of five key language features learners at this level would need in order to complete the activity successfully. Provide an example specific to this activity to support each choice. Phrases for beginning and ending a story are provided in the extract. Do not write about phrases for beginning and ending a story in your answer.

5.1 Guideline Answer

Organisation of content / paragraphing Example 1 background and description of main character/setting, 2 (bad) event, 3 (overcoming bad) event, 4 resolution OR equilibrium disequilibrium re-equilibrium (NB: candidates had to mention a minimum of two) Narrative tenses AND/OR past simple, past continuous, past perfect (NB: candidates had to mention a minimum of two of these) Example The old lady lived alone in a cottage. She had never met a dwarf before. Direct/indirect speech Example The little girl said, What big teeth you have. The little girl told her granny what big teeth she had. Sequencers / time related linkers Example then she ran all the way home, after that the witch made new plans to kill her, before long the news of their marriage spread through the kingdom Relative clauses / participle clauses Example the princess who lived in ..., The forest which he passed through ..., Passing through the forest, he saw , Adjectives / adjective + noun collocations / adverbs / adverbial phrases Example the cruel old man, handsome prince, wicked witch, lucky charm, She tried again and again, to her surprise, the frog turned into a prince. Lexis relevant to genre of folk tales/fairy stories Example witch, broomstick, forest, magic, make a wish Substitution / use of synonyms (to avoid repetition / to create interest) Example the dark wood the frightening forest, the prince the kindly young man

Candidate performance The genre of a fairy/folk tale generated interest and most candidates could identify 2 or 3 features with appropriate exemplification. Some candidates included too many examples which Examiners noted was not a productive use of time. The most common features identified were the use of narrative tenses, lexis related to fairy tales, adjectives & adverbs, and the organisational structure of the text. Weaker candidates were unable to identify the grammatical features of direct/indirect speech and participle/relative clauses. The least common feature identified was the use of synonyms to avoid repetition. Instead, candidates cited the use of pronouns to substitute for nouns which is not specific to this text type. Few candidates specified the type of linking devices required: they listed a range of cohesive devices (e.g. however, so etc) rather than highlighting the importance of ones for sequencing/time. Two other features which were frequently cited were an informal style suitable for children which was not appropriate as the style of a folk take can range from the very informal/simple, as if read to a child, to a quite formal and complex style. The other feature which was not accepted on its own was the use of the past simple, which at this level and for this genre, was too limited.

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Candidates needed to choose at least two past verb forms or refer to narrative tenses to be awarded this feature. As was written in the June 2011 report, accurate and full exemplification is key to this task because candidates are awarded 1 point for the feature and 2 points for the example. Many candidates had clearly taken this suggestion on board and provided full examples rather than just single items at an appropriate level. They generally did this well for all the language features apart from adjectives which they listed without giving them the noun (and therefore context) that they would accompany and for time discourse markers which they did not put into a sentence. Exemplification for the feature of organisation of content/paragraphing was not done well with weaker candidates simply giving pre-learnt labels such as introduce the background, main events, conclusion. Candidates must remember that they need to give an example appropriate to the genre as indicated in the Guideline Answers. Others simply wrote the paragraphs for a specific fairy story, e.g. Cinderella, rather than extrapolating the basic framework of the genre. Some candidates continue to lose marks because they do not include an example this is very poor exam technique as there are a potential 10 marks available for exemplification. Other candidates wasted time providing too many examples or other extra/unasked for information on why the feature was included. Candidates should note that it is only necessary to include one full example for each feature, apart from organisational features and that including more is not a good idea in terms of time efficiency. Candidates are recommended to: read the rubric carefully only discuss what the rubric requires outline no more than six features (five as the task requires and a maximum of one extra one for

insurance) make sure their answers cover a range of relevant subskills and discourse features make sure their answers, including examples, are specific to the activity described in the task always give examples and avoid repeating any one example provide one example for each feature provide full language examples, not just sentence stems avoid repeating any of the wording of the extract in their answers list the points they wish to make, avoiding any introduction, summary or conclusion use a bullet point or similar format when answering the task lay their answer out using the headings of Feature and Example to ensure that they include both

requirements

5.2 Sample Answers

5.2.1 The following sample answer gained full marks 3. 1. Use of past tenses such as past continuous and past simple for narration : e.g. While the man was walking through the forest, he saw a bear. 2. Am a pha Referencing for text cohesion, most likely anaphoring: e.g. The bear was big. It growled. 3. Organisation : the text should be divided into clear paragraphs which are logically ordered: introduction : introduces the theme, catches readers attention main body : 2 3 paragraphs which develop the story conclusion : summarises the story, delivers the resolution 4. Time expressions for linking: e.g. After that, the bear charged at the man. 5. A range of adjectives to describe the characters and the setting: e.g. The tall and young man was walking through a dark and scary forest. Accurate use of regular and 6. Adjective to describe irregular past endings The man entered the forest and saw a bear.

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7. Relative clauses to des to describe places and characters : The main, who was tall, saw a bear which was enormous. Examiners comments on sample answer This is a good example of an answer which is succinct and very clearly laid out. Out of the seven features that the candidate lists, five are accurate and are accompanied by very clear exemplification. There is one example at an appropriate level for each feature which is a full exponent with the key feature underlined. She includes grammatical, lexical, discoursal and organisational features which provides a good range to her answer. She has included two features which were not credited, i.e. the use of pronouns for anaphoric reference and the use of the past simple: the former is not a feature specific to this particular genre and the latter is already included under her first point about narrative tenses. However, she was not penalised for this.

5.2.2 The following sample answer gained just over half the marks available for this task

1) organisation Student must be able to use write paragraphs with a topic sentence

Student must be able to write paragraphs which follow each other in a chr fairly

chronological sequence. 2) Tenses Grammar: the use of narrative tenses like:

tenses: Students must be in control of the form regular t irregular simple past s verbs; he/she must be familiar with the use and meaning of many simple past verbs and he/she must

for example: The princess lost her ball in the fountain but he/she must also be in control of the past continuous: she had been looking for her ball when She saw a frog.

She/he must know how to use direct and reported speech to make the text more

immediate: For example: give Please get my ball, the princess said. and later that day

reported speech the princess had forgotten that the frog had told her he would come to the castle.

3) lexis: descriptive vocabulary describing the scene: the princess was s playing with her ball in the beautiful gardens behind the castle 4) Cohesion con he/she must use cohesive devices to make the text flow and to avoid repetition s substitution to avoid repetition the princess ran after the ball and then she elision leaving words out because the meaning is clear The 5) Structure of narrative The story needs

a beginning (setting the scene) Wha a series a events leading to a climax (the ball falls in the fountain)

A resel resolution to the climax and a happy ending ie, the frog turns the Frog turns into a prince (happy ending).

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Examiners comments on sample answer This answer lists five features but the first one (organisation) is a repetition of the fifth one (structure of narrative) and so overall for this feature the candidate only gains three marks: one for the feature and two for the exemplification which was credited under structure of narrative. The other two features which were credited are the use of narrative tenses and direct/reported speech. The lexical feature could not be credited because it is not specific enough: rather than write descriptive vocabulary the candidate needed to identify the feature as being adjectives or adjective + noun collocations or adverbs. The other features which could not be awarded any marks were those under the heading of cohesion. The first one of substitution was not accepted as it relates to pronoun referencing rather than the use of synonyms to avoid repetition and the second one of ellipsis (which the candidate misidentified as the phonological feature of elision) is a general feature of most texts and not specific to the genre of fairy tales. The candidates answer could be expressed more concisely by giving the feature and one example and whilst the layout of the answer is reasonably clear, the candidate cramped some of her answer into the margins which made it difficult for the Examiners to mark it.

5.2.3 The following sample answer obtained under half the marks available 3.

Feature 1. The use of Narative tenses Example: Past Perfect (Simple & continuos)

Past Simple, past continuos - to talk about what happened in the Story

Feature 2. use of genre specific lexis Example to do with fairy stories i.e. elf/goblin

Feature 3. The use of lexical chunks, Pre fabricated pieces of lexis that can be Used when telling Stories

e.g. There have been many stories like this Which is unheard of in many cultures Feature 4. The use of the Passive for giving other

Peoples opinion, common in folk tales: Example: i.e. It has been heard that People have been known to

Feature 5: The use of superlatives to exagerate in fairy stories, for impact on reader: Example: Extremly ugly very handsome fabulously rich Terribly evil Examiners comments on sample answer This answer also contains five features but only two of them could be credited: the use of narrative tenses and the use of lexis related to the genre of fairy tales. Of these two features, only the second one gained three marks (one for the feature and two for the example) because there was no example given of a sentence containing any of the three narrative tenses. This candidate, like many others, appears to believe that the name of the tense is the example but this is the feature and the example requires a full sentence as illustrated in the Guideline Answers. None of the other three features listed could be credited. The use of lexical chunks relates to the oration of the story rather than the lexis which would feature in the genre; the use of the passive is not a feature of fairy tales; and it is not the use of superlatives which is the feature but rather the use of adverbs which is what her examples illustrate. However, without an accurate naming of the feature, the examples cannot be awarded any marks. Again, the layout of the task is reasonable although it would be helpful for the Examiner if each feature could be separated by one or two lines as this answer is rather cramped.

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6 Paper 1 Task 4 a The text is a celebrity interview in a popular magazine. Identify five features of the text that are

characteristic of its genre. Give one example of each feature you identify.

Do not include more than one feature of layout. b Look at the extracts from the text.

i. Comment on the question forms in bold. ii. Comment on the features of connected speech in the phrases in bold.

Do you enjoy cooking? (line 5) its all showbiz isnt it? (line 8) What food reminds you of your childhood? (lines 59-60)

c Comment on the form and use of the phrases in bold as they are used in the text.

Its a bit artistic (line 6) Im a pretty good dessert guy (line 25) Its really kinda weird (lines 28-29)

d Look at the three relative clauses in bold in the following sentences from the text. Comment on

the use of the relative pronoun and the relative clause in each case.

There are desserts that my mum used to make that take me back, like tapioca pudding, which is yummy. (lines 61-64)

The first thing I think when I have guests is What can I fix them? (lines 74-76)

6.1 Guideline Answer a features of a celebrity interview in a popular magazine Layout (NB: only one of these was allowed)

Picture Title/heading Different fonts / bolding for questions/non-bold for answers

Organisation

Organisation structure i.e. Brief introduction (who Jimmy Osmond is) followed by rest of article, with promotion at end (for Jimmys show)

Question and answer format e.g. Do you enjoy cooking? I do Content

Preferences / experiences e.g. What food reminds you of your childhood? [...] desserts that my mum used to make [...]

Humorous anecdote e.g. eating white mouse Lack of controversial content / positive content (to promote Jimmy Osmond) e.g. food / family /

family man Tidied up (spoken) language e.g. no hesitations devices / no repetition / no rephrasing

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Style Informal/semi-formal/spoken style / colloquial lexis e.g. Yummy, its fun, crunched up, so sick!

/ would take a year to explain Lexical/grammatical

Direct speech e.g. Whats your favourite recipe? Pun in the title i.e. CelebrityBites (what the celebrity eats vs. sound-bites) Expressions/adverbs/adjectives to express attitude/feelings/opinions e.g. its fun,

unfortunately, its so yummy, its amazing Person reference e.g. you in questions and I in answers Short answers / question tags e.g. I do, isnt it?

Discourse

Contractions / ungrammatical sentences / vague language / fillers e.g. it's like a big art project, that's totally my mum, stuff, and boy

Short sentences / simple linking devices / parataxis e.g. and Graphological

Punctuation e.g. exclamation marks / dashes

b Question forms and features of connected speech in phrases in bold Do you enjoy cooking? (line 5) Question Form

Auxiliary / dummy auxiliary / operator / do Second person singular Subject pronoun (you) Base form / bare infinitive / infinitive without to of main verb (enjoy) Regular Transitive Present simple Yes/no question / closed question + gerund To ask about permanent states / something which is always true / stative verb

Features of connected speech

Weak form of you /jW/or /j / or do/dW/ Coalescence/assimilation of do you /dW/ or /d / or /d :/ Intrusive /w/ between you and enjoy /dju:wnd/ Stress is likely to be on enjoy

its all showbiz isnt it? (line 8) Question Form

Third person singular Present simple Subject pronoun Question tag / tag question Main verb be inverted with the subject/pronoun Negative because main clause is affirmative Contracted Anaphoric reference to Presentation / cooking To involve the listener / ask for confirmation

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Features of connected speech Consonant + vowel linking/liaison/catenation isnt it Elision of first /t/ in /zWnt/ Glottalisation/elision of second /t/ in /zWn/ insertion of a schwa /W/ between /z/ and /n/ Stress is likely to be on isnt

What food reminds you of your childhood? (lines 59-60) Question Form

Interrogative determiner / question word What Uncountable Noun Subject Third person singular Regular Transitive Main verb Present simple No auxiliary Object pronoun you Wh /open question Subject question To ask about permanent states / something which is always true/stative verb

Features of connected speech Glottalisation/elision of /t/ in what /w/ Glottalisation/elision /d/ in food /fud/ Assimilation between reminds you /rmanjW/ Weak form of you /jW/OR /j/ Stress likely to be on food, reminds (One example of stress is sufficient)

C Form and use of phrases in bold Its a bit artistic (line 6) Form

Adverbial phrase / adverb Indefinite article a + (countable) noun bit Quantifier

Use Informal/colloquial/spoken Qualifying/modifying adjective artistic Weakens the adjective / hedges / non-boastful / non-proud

Im a pretty good dessert guy (line 25) Form

Adverb

Use Informal/colloquial/spoken Qualifying/modifying adjective good Intensifier not as strong as very

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Makes Jimmy sound modest OR boastful

Its really kinda weird (lines 28-29) Form

Reduced/contracted/abbreviated/clipped/shortened kind of Noun kind Preposition of Acts as an adverb

Use Informal/colloquial/spoken Common in American English Filler / vague language Qualifying/modifying adjective weird Weakens the adjective / hedges / implies not weird in a bad way

d Use of relative pronoun and relative clauses in bold that my mum used to make(lines 61-64) Relative pronoun

That is used for things Anaphoric reference to the desserts That can be replaced by which but that is more common in spoken English That can be omitted because it is the object of the verb

Relative clause Defining Gives essential information about / specifies/identifies which desserts No comma is used

which is yummy (lines 61-64) Relative pronoun

which is used to refer to things Anaphoric reference to the pudding which cannot be omitted because it is the subject of the clause that cannot be used instead of which

Relative clause

Non-defining Gives extra/non-essential/additional information about the pudding Comma precedes the clause

I think (lines 74-76) Relative pronoun

Ellipsis / omission of that /which because it is the objet of the verb Anaphoric reference to the first thing

Relative clause

Defining Gives essential information about / specifies The first thing No comma is used

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6.2 Candidate performance As in previous sessions, the quality of answers to this task varied widely with some candidates scoring fewer than 10 marks over the four sections and others scoring the maximum of 40 marks which are available for this task, thus reflecting the fact that this task discriminates well between those candidates who have real insight into language and those who are not close to Delta standard. Adequate training was evident on the whole although some candidates still seem unsure as to how to proceed and do not put enough down on paper to accumulate marks. It was very encouraging to see some very high scores and that more than 30% of the cohort obtained more than 50% of the total marks. Those candidates who gained fewer than half the marks did so because of inaccurate or incomplete answers. Answers were inaccurate particularly in the area of connected speech in part (b) and in analysing the form and use of the adverbials in part (c). Many candidates lost marks because they did not describe grammatical form accurately, or with a correct use or spelling of terminology, or with enough precision, or in enough detail. Some also wasted time by not reading the rubric carefully enough and including information which was not required: for example, in part (a) where they explained why the features were part of the genre; in part (b) where they discussed intonation features which are not part of connected speech; in part (c) where they discussed the meaning rather than the use of the adverbials; and in parts (c) and (d) where they included phonological analysis of the items. A significant number analysed the unbolded items which was not required in the rubric candidates should read the rubrics carefully before answering the questions. Others automatically lost marks when they omitted sections or abandoned the task. They should note that this is a dangerous strategy to adopt because this task carries a maximum of 40% of the total number of marks for Paper 1. Candidates are advised to make as many points as possible (within the time available) as succinctly as possible. Most answers were presented in note form, using bullet points, which made for a good use of time although candidates frequently squashed their answers into an inadequate amount of space. In relation to specific points on content: a features of the text characteristic of a celebrity interview in a popular magazine

Most candidates identified an average of three features with stronger candidates citing four or five. The most common features which were identified were the informal style of the interview in terms of lexis and discourse (generally contractions) and a feature of layout, usually the photo

However, a significant number of candidates gave more than one example for each feature and gave reasons for the features, which is not a requirement. Candidates should note that a maximum of 5 marks is available for this section and that they are only required to list the feature and give an appropriate example from the text provided

Appropriate exemplification continued to be a problem. Quite a few candidates lost marks because they did not give an example for the feature, especially for the question / answer format they only gave an example of a question without its answer and so could not be awarded a mark. Others gave numerous examples when only one is needed

As was noted in last years report, candidates highlighted features which are specific to this particular example of the genre. For example, they cited lexis related to the topic of food/cooking because this was largely the topic of the interview. However, this is not a feature of the genre as it would not appear in all celebrity interviews in a popular magazine. Again, when analysing the organisation or content of the genre, candidates frequently identified the ending with contact details and booking information as being a feature; again, this is a feature of this particular celebrity interview and not celebrity interviews in general. Candidates could have included the promotional part of the interview as part of the overall organisation of the interview but not as a separate feature of its own

Few candidates identified the more sophisticated points relating to the pun in the title, the inclusion of positive content, or the use of punctuation

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b Do you enjoy / isnt it? / What food reminds you There were a high number of marks available for this part of Task 4 and most candidates were

able to amass a reasonable count. Well-trained candidates analysed the form in detail which shows good improvement on last Junes session and there were no features of form that remained unidentified across the whole cohort

In some cases, candidates covered the form very minimally, making only a single point and it seemed they had not studied the previous examination reports or had training in the level of detail required

Others made several points for each item but lost marks because they wrote partial descriptions. This was most common in the following examples: they wrote second person rather than second person singular; subject rather than subject pronoun (many appear to think that subject and pronoun are synonyms which is not the case); infinitive rather than bare infinitive / base form / infinitive without to; present instead of present simple

In other cases, the analysis was incorrect, for example, candidates stated that is in isnt it was an auxiliary verb when it is the main verb; they identified you in reminds you as a subject when it is an object

In a few cases, candidates did not address the form at all and went straight to the phonological analysis or vice versa. It was unclear whether this was lack of training, a misreading of the question, or in the case of phonology, a lack of knowledge. Whatever the reason, it resulted in a loss of marks

In terms of describing the use of the question forms, most candidates identified the use of the question tag but not the use of the present simple to talk about permanent states. Where they did refer to the use of the present simple, they often stated incorrectly that it was to do with routines and habits

Performance in the pronunciation part of the task was generally disappointing. As noted in the June 2011 report, a large number of candidates do not seem to be trained to describe features of connected speech. This needs urgent attention on the part of centres and candidates as many marks for phonology may be lost in this part

The most common phonological features to be identified and exemplified were the weak forms in you and do and the intrusive /w/ in do you enjoy

Many candidates did not use the phonemic script or if they did, did not use a symbol to highlight the features, e.g. / through the omitted sound to indicate elision, H to show a link or a box / circle above the stressed syllable to indicate sentence stress. They also lost marks because they simply said that the stress would fall on enjoy without indicating which syllable

A significant number of candidates did not use terminology correctly. They either gave a lay description, e.g. words glide together rather than elision, linking or assimilation; or they used the wrong term, e.g. ellipsis for elision; or they mis-spelt the term, e.g. *ellison, *glotalisation, *liason

Other candidates did not give an example to illustrate the term used, or gave a wrongly transcribed example, e.g. they referred to the elision of /t/ in isnt but either did not use a symbol to show that the /t/ was not pronounced or did not transcribe how isnt would be said with an elided /t/. The same problem applies to candidates analysis of glottalisation when they did not use the phonemic symbol for this sound. Without the use of phonemic transcription, Examiners cannot assess whether the candidates understand the term they have used or not

Some candidates discussed intonation patterns which was not required in the rubric. If candidates are expected to discuss intonation, this will be stated explicitly in the rubric for the task. Others referred to features within a word, e.g. the elision of /d/ or the assimilation of s to /z/ in reminds rather than referring to features of connected speech.

There was some inaccuracy of analysis, e.g. referring to an intrusive /j/ rather than /w/ between you and enjoy in Do you enjoy.

To summarise, as has been stated in all the previous examination reports, candidates must use phonological terms to describe features and be able to use the phonemic script accurately to illustrate them.

c a bit / pretty / kinda

Candidates performed least confidently in this part of the task and many candidates failed to recognise that the three forms were all adverbial in nature instead they mis-identified them as being adjectives. As has been noted in previous reports, adverbials is a useful area for candidates to research in more depth as they are wide-ranging in their use

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Candidates were also frequently unable to analyse the individual parts of a bit and kinda. They did not recognise that the grammatical form of a bit was the indefinite article + noun and also wrote that bit was a quantifier rather than a bit. They also did not identify kind of as being a noun + preposition and weaker candidates frequently wrote that kind and pretty were adjectives. This lack of analytical precision and accuracy suggests that centres still need to train candidates in identifying the form as well as the use of language items

Under use, marks were frequently lost because candidates were vague in their description of the use of the adverb with the adjective and wrote things such as a bit describes artistic rather than a bit modifies the adjective artistic

Only stronger candidates recognised how the items were used in terms of weakening the adjective and/or making Jimmy Osmond sound modest. This reflects the weakness mentioned under Part (a) where candidates could not identify the subtleties of use

A proportion of weaker candidates identified the meaning of the phrases rather than their use, e.g. kinda weird means a little bit strange or discussed the phonological features of the items or analysed the unbolded items. These three examples reflect the fact that some candidates are not reading the rubric carefully enough before starting the task and therefore are wasting time providing information which is not required and does not carry any marks

d use of relative pronoun / relative clause

Part (d) was a good discriminator between those candidates who had a good knowledge of relative clauses and those who did not. Those who did have the knowledge, were able to identify whether the clauses were defining or non-defining, whether the pronoun could be omitted or replaced by which or that, and whether a comma was required or not. Those who did not have the knowledge were unable to state very much that was accurate about the pronouns or the clauses.

Again as in Parts (b) and (c), candidates lost marks because of a lack of precision in their analysis, e.g. they wrote that the relative clause gave essential or non-essential information but did not say in terms of what, i.e. which desserts, the pudding and the first thing so lost marks. They also did not recognise the anaphoric reference (or did not use the term) to the same items so again lost marks

Some candidates also analysed the unbolded items, e.g. the meaning of yummy and used to make which are neither relative pronouns nor clauses. Again, this indicates that candidates should read the rubric for the task very carefully

Candidates are recommended to: in Part (a), only state five features and give one example for each as only a maximum of 5 marks

are available in this section not to spend time saying why the features have been included as no marks are allocated for this

beyond what is stated in the Guideline Answers in Parts (b)(d), make their answers as detailed as is required, making as many points as

possible, as indicated in the Guideline Answer read the rubric carefully to see exactly what they are required to discuss pay attention to words given in bold and only comment on them in the way required, not on

accompanying or surrounding words make sure they consistently provide the full information required, including giving examples when

asked for make use of precise linguistic / technical terms rather than the more simplified terms they might

use with students spell these terms correctly: marks will not be awarded if terms are incorrectly spelt use the phonemic script / phonological symbols where appropriate: candidates will not be awarded

marks if this is not used where required or used accurately only comment on pronunciation/phonology in sections where it is specifically mentioned lay out their answers in list form, and make it clear what part of the answer they are writing about use plenty of space/paper to write out their answers, writing on every other line if possible to

ensure that they do not write in the margins or make it difficult for the Examiners to locate their answers

make as many points as possible in Task 4 (within the time available) as it carries almost half the marks available in Paper One

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6.3 Sample Answers

6.3.1 The following sample answer gained a high number of the points available 4a)

1. Photo of celebrity - in top right. 2. Informal le style lexis e.g. L10 we do stuff together, L25 pretty good 3. Question and answer form organisation. e.g. L5 6 Q L6 13 A 4. Information relating to associated current production / release given at end of piece including

booking details + website. After L77 Jimmy is

5. Contractions (e.g. Whats L24 Im L53 4b) i) F Do you enjoy - do auxiliary verb you 2nd person subject pronoun. enjoy bare infinitive of verb - present simple verb transitive isnt it? negative tag question. goes with positive statement its all showbiz. is not contracted to isnt present simple it 3rd person singular / impersonal pronoun. What food reminds you What question word pronoun What subject informal form formal which food reminds 3rd person form of present simple Food uncountable noun reminds regular verb. ii) Do you enjoy. weak forms /dj/ possible elision - /duw/ of o and coalescence of /d/ and /j/ to give /d/ /d/ Do you you enjoy intrusive /w/ /w/ prominence of on enjoy isnt it - elision of /t/ - Final consonant initial vowel linking isnt it

- prominence on it tonic syllable

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/What/ food /reminds you - elision of /t/ - tonic syllable food /fu/ - prominence on what and reminds take - elision of d in reminds you r'manzju - consonant cluster n&j nzj 4c) a bit F a indefinite article quan bit quantifier premodify artistic adjective. U - informal - means somewhat - gives relaxed, friendly tone. pretty F - adverb comes after indefinite article usually adverb is before. - premodifies adjective good which modifies compound noun dessert guy U - means quite - informal word - informal position after article. - used to be modest here. Kinda F - short form of kind of - reflects pronunciation in connected speech - kind = ad noun Fi chunk - of = preposition U - means somewhat literally - informal - Functions as a Filler - gives impression of friendly speech. 4d) Use that my mum used to make that - defe relative pronoun - used with objects - here post modifies refers anaphorically to deserts. - defining relative clause - post-modifies desserts to identify which ones we are talking about. - no comma. - Emphasis is on desserts - past simple used to + verb refers to habitual past action now no longer carried out. - desserts are object of verb make. Which is yummy. which - relative pronoun

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- refers anaphorically to tapioca pudding. - non-defining relative clause - with a comma - acts as a comment on the preceding noun. - yummy means delicious - informal. I think

- no ellipted relative pronoun - that or which

- full form - that I think when I have guests is full relative clause

- relative clause is defining relative clause - that refers anaphorically back to the first thing - post-modifies the first thing - relative clause is complex - subordinating conjunction when - Noun phrase including relative clause is subject of is main verb. - that is ellipted for brevity.

Examiners comments on sample answer Part a This part of the answer is clear and accurate, with each feature backed up by one relevant example, which shows a good use of time. The candidate describes a range of features which relate to layout, content, lexis and spoken discourse. However, she only gains four marks here because the feature relating to content associated to the current production and booking details is not specific to the genre of a celebrity interview in a popular magazine this feature needed to be included as a part of the organisation structure, not as a separate point. The layout of this part of the task is clear. Part b The candidate is very detailed and accurate in her answer and she gains over twenty marks in this section which reflects the fact that she provides an excellent amount of detail in terms of form and phonology. In terms of the latter, her answer has the benefit of clear exemplification with an accurate use of the phonemic script and also symbols to indicate where linking and elision occur. There are a couple of instances when she identifies features which are not related to connected speech, namely the elision of d and consonant cluster in reminds but otherwise her answer is focussed on what is asked for in the rubric. Her style is succinct, the layout is neat and the answer does not contain any repetition. Part c Here the candidate gains eleven out of a possible twenty marks, an indication that this part of the task is more difficult than part (b). She does not state that bit is a noun or that it is a bit which acts as a quantifier rather than bit and does not recognise that it weakens the adjective artistic. In terms of pretty, she does not recognise that it is used as an intensifier. However, here she does recognise that it is being used to make Jimmy Osmond sound modest. Regarding her analysis of kinda, she does not recognise that it acts as an adverb, that it is common in American English, that it modifies the adjective weird, or that it weakens the adjective. For each item, she states their meaning which is not required. The task is clearly laid out and labelled and as in the other sections, she does not waste time using a discursive style to make her points but makes good use of bullet points. However, whilst it is clear that she is a strong candidate, her performance in this part of the task supports the point made above that the area of adverbials and their use is one that needs to be given more attention during examination preparation.

Part d The candidates response to this part of the task is generally strong and she gains more than half the marks available. However, she also provides some unnecessary detail, e.g. she states the meaning of yummy, the use of used to make, and moves beyond the analysis of I think in the third example. Her analysis is accurate in terms of form and pronunciation and she uses the phonemic script accurately to illustrate her points. She is more confident in her analysis of the relative clauses rather than the relative pronouns and does not state basic points such as that that can be replaced by which in the first example or that which cannot be omitted in the second example or that I think gives essential

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information about The first thing and that no comma is needed in this example. Overall, a little more precision would have been beneficial in this part of the task but by this stage, the candidate may have been pressed for time as her answer to Task 4 is unusually full.

6.3.2 The following sample answer gained just over half the marks available for this task 4) A) LAYOUT visual stimuli (two) pictures and title banner to catch readers attention. It engages reader, enhances meaning Example picture of the interviewee ORGANISATION interview format; question in bold writing followed by answer in a short paragraph. Do you enjoy cooking? I do STYLE informal, use of contractions its whats shed theres LEXIS lexical field a on popular topic which readers can relate to: cooking recipe, good food, sauce, dessert GRAMMAR present simple for general description and information I have four kids - Simple past for factual information about past I was in Japan it made me sick - present perfect to talk about life experience with no specific time Has it been important Whats the strangest food B) Question Forms i) Do you enjoy

closed question (yes/no answer) question without question word formed by auxiliary do + subject pronoun you + information auxiliary do simple present general information enjoy + verb(ing) to follow auxiliary do for 2nd person singular

Isnt it?

question tag goes at the end of the question its the opposite (negative -) of main verb in question it is used to ask for confirmation of opinion: presentations everything

What food reminds you

question with question word what open question, Jimmy needs to think about the answer formed by question word (what) + object + verb + subj. pronoun

ii) Connected speech Do you enjoy ellission + assimilation Du ju /d/ isnt it first t dissapears /snt/ (ellission) What Foods remind s you intrusion /rmansu/ glottal stop d dissapears

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C)

FORM USE A BIT indefinite article + singular countable

noun quantifier

quantifies the adjective artistic referring to cooking

PRETTY quantifier a + pretty + adjective indefinite article

Refers to liking desserts a lot and making them well

Kinda transcripted connected speech because of colloquial speech kind + OF quantifier qu kind + of + adjective

To quantify adjective weird refering to dish called opulent chicken

D)

USE OF RELATIVE PRONOUN USE OF RELATIVE CLAUSE that my mum used to make refers to desserts, adds information

which is yummy refers to tapioca pudding anaphoric reference

describes the pudding adds more information

I think (that) optional left out refers to the thought What can I cataphoric reference

Examiners comments on sample answer Part a The candidate identifies three features with an example for each one: the use of a picture, the question and answer organisation and the use of contractions. However, the remaining two features (lexis related to food/cooking and the present simple/present perfect) could not be credited because neither of these features is specific to the genre of a celebrity interview in a popular magazine; rather they are specific to this particular interview. The organisation and layout of the answer is clear and it is succinctly expressed. Part b The candidates analysis is accurate but does not contain enough points about the form, and use of pronunciation. The point about the intonation pattern of the question tag is not relevant as intonation is not part of connected speech and the point about the elision of /t/ in isnt it could not be credited because elision is mis-spelt. The candidate gains less than half the marks available for this section, reflecting the fact that he needs to include more detail about the question forms. Part c Again, the answer to this part needs more detail both in terms of form and use to maximise the number of marks available. For example, he needs to state the form of the items (adverbial), specify the part of speech of kind and of, and discuss the use of all of the items in more depth in terms of how they are used in this particular text. Future candidates should also note that this candidate loses two marks because he writes quantifies rather than qualifies the adjectives artistic and weird. An accurate use of terminology is therefore very important. Part d This part of the task is also weak because it is too short and therefore only provides very limited detail on the relative pronouns and clauses. For example, there is no mention of what type of clauses they are, what the pronouns are generally used for, and no information on punctuation. The analysis here is at a very basic level although again what is written is not inaccurate, just insufficient.

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6.3.3 The following sample answer gained fewer than half the marks available for this task 4a)

a) layout visuals a photograph (visual) of the celebrity + a photograph of bold the cast b) Col register: informal a lot of colloquial language and rhetorical question at the beginning to make text immediate contractions Do you enjoy cooking Contractions: its a bit artistic draws the reader in c) Grammar A lot written in the present tense for in on to make interview format gives the text immediate appeal: Its all show biz, isnt it? I have four kids and . d) lexis: lexical fields used here having to do with cooking: good food, a cooking is a big process, an art to it, feed, healthy recipe e) organisation: interviewer asks a question + the interviewee answers: Do you enjoy cooking? Question Yes, I do . Answer 4b) Do you enjoy cooking (line 5) Form aux Do auxiliary you per 2nd person singular personal pronoun enjoy verb in the f infinitive cooking verb infinitive + pa present participle ending ing Connected speech: Do you enjoy cooking du The here I The do you are elided to /dzu/ enjoy becomes a schwa /nd/ to cooking: kukn - the final g is assimilated kukon its all show biz isnt it? isnt it is a question tag said to show interest isnt it in connected speech becomes /iz in/ /it/ elided assimilated

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/izin/ the 4c) a bit lne 6 a: indefinite article used before an uncountable noun bit: adjective meaning somewhat actually elision occurring here a little has been left out me prett form pretty in this case a a graded qua qualifier meaning meaning: mean qualifying good and meaning fairly Kinda elided Form of Kind of used as a quantifier meaning sort of 4d) that my Mum used to make Use: no comma used to define what k refers back to desserts that could be substituted by which Which is yummy

Non defining, so separated by comma says how the subject of the relative clause is

Examiners comments on sample answer Part a The candidate gains three marks in this part of the task: one for the inclusion of a photograph under layout, one for the use of contractions, and one for the question/answer format under organisation. Unfortunately, whilst she recognises the feature of colloquial language, she does not provide an accurate example and so cannot be credited a mark. She also cannot receive any marks for the use of the present simple or lexis related to food and cooking as these are not features related to the genre of a celebrity interview but rather specific to the content/interviewee in this particular context. The length and layout of the task are appropriate. Part b The candidates response to this part of the task is very short and she only gains four marks. In addition, some of her analysis of form is incorrect or imprecise: in terms of enjoy she needed to be precise in terms of the type of infinitive it is, i.e. the bare infinitive, and cooking is a gerund, not a present participle. There is no discussion of use. Her phonological analysis is generally inaccurate: do you are not elided but assimilated to /dzu/ , there is no schwa in enjoy, there is no /g/ sound at the end of cooking and it therefore cannot be assimilated and the same level of confusion is evident in her discussion of isnt it. Part c The candidates answer to this part is also very brief and is mostly inaccurate: bit is a countable (not uncountable) noun and it is not an adjective; elision is a phonological term presumably the candidate means that a little has been elipted but there is no evidence to assume that this is the case. It is unclear what the candidate means by pretty being a graded qualifier presumably she means an adjective which is not the case. Kinda is not an example of elision and the meaning of this item as well as bit and pretty is not asked for in the rubric. Overall, the candidate scores one mark in this section for identifying that bit is a noun.

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Part d The candidates response to this part of the task is minimal and she only gains three marks, one for the fact that that can be substituted by which in the first example, and that which is yummy is a non-defining clause which contains a comma. Overall, the candidates performance in Parts (b) to (d) indicate that her language awareness is not at Delta standard as it contains a high level of inaccuracy. She also appears to mis-manage her time as she does not complete any of the three tasks.

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7 Paper 1 Task 5 The text (245 words) for this task is reproduced on the opposite page. It was written by a learner in an upper-intermediate (CEFR level B2) class in response to the following task:

Write an essay for the class magazine describing a person you particularly admire. Say why you particularly admire them.

a Identify three key strengths and three key weaknesses of the text. Provide an example of each

strength and each weakness. Your answer should focus on some or all of the areas listed below:

Organisation Accuracy of grammar Accuracy and range of lexis Punctuation Task achievement

b Which one of the weaknesses identified above would you choose to prioritise to help this learner?

Give three reasons for your choice.

7.1 Guideline Answer Key strengths and weaknesses Key strengths Task achievement

The learner achieves the task fully by describing a person he admires (his mother) and saying why he admires her Example description he says where she was born / what her background was / describes how she managed to get to university / what she did once she had graduated (NB: candidates must mention a minimum of one of these) AND reasons he admires her because she has reached all her goals / she has strong principles / a good sense of humour / a positive attitude/is hardworking / she has fought against troubles (NB: candidates had to mention a minimum of one of these)

Organisation The information is in a logical order Example he describes his mother's background, her life from past to now and then he gives his reasons for admiring her (NB: candidates had to mention a minimum of two topics)

Accuracy and range of lexis

Some accurate and sophisticated phrases / collocations are used Example very successful woman, reached all her goals, very strong principles, good sense of humour, a positive attitude

Accuracy of grammar Some accurate use of complex sentences Example After she spent some time teaching ... she had a great offer, The person that I particularly admire, is my mother.

Accuracy of grammar

Accurate use of present perfect OR present perfect and past simple Example When my mother finished ..., he wanted to study ... but her parent didnt have..., when she found the job she started her degree. ... she had one of the best marks..., she got Economics

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degree ..., After she spent time teaching in the University she had a great offer, ... she has reached all her goals, ... and she has always followed

Key weaknesses

Organisation

Poor paragraphing / one-sentence paragraphs Example paragraphs could be between lines 1-5 (background); lines 6-9 or 6-18 (how she got to university & her subsequent career); lines 9-18 (her subsequent career); lines 19-25 (reasons why he admires her) NB: candidates had to mention a minimum of one possible paragraph which was wrong or a corrected version)

Accuracy of grammar

Use of articles Example finished the High School, the University, when she found the job, She never defaulted in the life, She got Economics degree, great offer of one bank, she is a Manager of one Office Bank, she is very successful woman, she has a very strong principles

Accuracy of grammar

Use of prepositions Example Study a degree, to pay the University, searching a job, of her university, a great offer of one bank

Range of lexis Overuse/repetition of after / after that Example lines 10, 11, 13, 15

Accuracy of grammar Use of past continuous Example Then, we was searching a job, She was studying and working at the same time, She was teaching in a High School

Punctuation

Capitalisation of ordinary nouns and pronouns Example in the North-West of Spain, When my mother finished the High School He wanted to Study a Degree but. After that She was studying, Now She ... Office Bank, For me She is

Punctuation Inaccurate use/omission of commas OR use of full stops instead of commas Example The person that I particularly admire, is my mother; In this place, the most part of the people; Then. We was searching; Now. She is; incredible person. no because

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Which weakness to prioritise Candidates may choose any of the key weaknesses listed in part a. They should provide three reasons for their choice from the list below: the learners level the learners exams and future study needs the learners job needs fossilization of error transfer to other genres transfer to other skills specific to the learners context the learner will get his essay published in the class magazine the effect on the reader easy to rectify, therefore motivating

7.2 Candidate performance Performance in this task showed an improvement on the last three sessions with the average mark achieved being 12 which is the highest score since June 2010. There were also fewer candidates who did not attempt this task or failed to complete it and this suggests that they have taken on board feedback from last years report and allocated a good amount of time to complete the task. A large number of candidates attempted the task first or second in the examination which may have helped to ensure that they had time to to gain as many marks as possible, as long as their language awareness was accurate. However, some candidates continued to attempt it last and after they had run short of time which meant that they lost marks. Overall, the task acted as a good discriminator between strong and weak candidates a

Most candidates were able to identify at least one strength and two weaknesses accurately. The strengths which were most commonly identified were task achievement and organisation of content (but see below) and poor paragraphing, misuse of articles and the inaccurate use of commas were the most frequent weaknesses cited

A lot of candidates struggled with task achievement in that whilst they recognised it was a strength, they were not specific in how the task was achieved, i.e. to get a mark they had to say that the task was achieved because the student had described the person he admired AND given reasons as to why he admired her. Saying this gained the candidates one mark. In order to get the second point available for the example, they then had to give a direct example taken from the text one of a description and one of a reason. Often candidates only addressed and exemplified one part of the rubric and therefore did not get any marks for identifying this strength

Candidates frequently recognised that range of lexis was a strength but did not get a mark because the strength lay in the learners use of collocations and phrases rather than their range of lexis in general. Again, candidates need to be more specific in their analysis

Exemplification was problematic at times. In order to get a mark for the example of the information being in a logical order, they needed to mention two topics candidates often only restricted their example to one topic but two were needed in order to show the logic of the order of the texts context. When giving an example for the overuse of after/after that, candidates frequently lost a mark for the example because they did not cite the line number where the example occurred or did not write the co-text in which it occurred

Very few candidates identified the accurate use of complex sentences or present perfect as strengths or the misuse of prepositions or the past continuous as weaknesses. This suggests that candidates need to be more thorough when analysing the learners writing in terms of the use of grammatical items. This inadequacy in language analysis was also frequently evident when candidates selected minor areas such as pronoun displacement or use of passives as weaknesses, when these were not major problems in the learners writing. Weaker candidates also listed tenses as an area of weakness under Accuracy of Grammar without specifying which ones

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Some weaker candidates hedged their bets by citing the learners use of paragraphing or the past continuous as a strength and a weaknesses. Candidates should note that this is not a productive use of time

As noted in the last examination report, a large number of candidates lost marks because they did not include any comments regarding the effect of the strengths or weaknesses on the overall effectiveness of the text in terms of the reader. There are marks available for two comments over the whole answer. Some candidates included comments but unfortunately, marks for these comments could not be given because they had not identified a minimum of five strengths/weaknesses

There were fewer instances of candidates including more than one example for each strength or weakness cited which was positive and there were almost no candidates who evaluated the text in terms of criteria which were not listed in the rubric.

Layout of answers was also generally clear with the majority of candidates using the headings of strengths and weaknesses to organise their answer and then the sub-headings of the criteria listed in the rubric, e.g. Task Achievement, with another sub-heading of example to provide clear signposting for the reader.

b

The improvement in the analysis in part (a) meant that more candidates identified an appropriate area to work on in part (b) and were therefore able to gain marks for their justification of the area. Candidates had also clearly taken on board comments made in the previous examination report and were specific in the area that they chose to work on, e.g. prepositions as opposed to accuracy of grammar which would have been too vague. However, there were still some candidates who outlined an inappropriate area of weakness or who were vague in terms of what they had chosen which meant that they lost a potential 6 marks because in part (a), they had included prepositions and then inaccurate analysis under accuracy of grammar so it was unclear to Examiners which area of grammar the candidate intended to work on. Candidates should note that they must mention the specific weakness rather than the criterion as listed in the rubric

Justifications were adequate but perhaps pre-learnt from previous examination reports. Most candidates gained three marks for part (b) but very few expanded their rationale in order to get the full six marks available for this part of the task

Some candidates reproduced a long list of justifications from previous examination reports which was not a productive use of time as only the first three justifications could be credited.

Candidates are recommended to: only give one example for each strength and each weakness only discuss in part (a) the areas given in the rubric give both strengths and weaknesses as required only discuss three key strengths and three key weaknesses; marks are not given for more than

three of either. However, if candidates outline more than three strengths or weaknesses, they will not be penalised but they should be aware that this will impact on timing over the whole paper

bear in mind the learners level when commenting in part a on the texts strengths and weaknesses

include two comments in part a on the effect the particular strengths and weaknesses have on the effectiveness of the text

use a bullet point layout for the strengths and weaknesses organise their answer under the headings of strengths and weaknesses and then use sub-

headings of criterion and example to ensure that they address both parts of rubric. They can also add an extra sub-heading of comment for two of their criteria to ensure that they provide information on the effect that the strength or weakness has on the text

only discuss in b a weakness mentioned in a only discuss one area of weakness in part b be specific in b on the exact weakness to be worked on limit answers in b to reasons for prioritising an area make sure they allow themselves enough time to complete this task; 25 minutes is recommended

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7.3 Sample Answers

7.3.1 The following sample answer gained most of the marks available for this task 5 a + Task achievement: Task has been achieved because learner has described the person and said why they admire them. e.g ls 1-9: background info ls 10-14: university ls 15-18: career ls 19-25: why they admires her - Organization: Despite logical sequencing of ideas, learner has not organized them effectively into paragraphs. e.g l 13-14 After that she was teaching in a high school and later in the university. This could form part of the previous paragraph. This Lack of paragraph could have a negative effect on the reader as it makes It more difficult to read. - Range of lexis: Learner doesnt use a wide range of discourse markers / time markers. Repel e.g. repetition of after / after that in ls 10, 13, 15. This as a negative effect on the reader as it doesnt and doesnt allow the learner to show their level or abilities. - Accuracy of grammar: Learner makes frequent errors with articles / determiners and singular / plural nouns. e.g. l. 21 She has a very strong principles. 1. 6 she fa when my mother finished the the High School. and collocations, and fixed expressions + Range of lexis for describing people. e.g. l 21-22 strong principles. good sense of humour, positive attitude, hard-working This has a positive effect on the reader as it shows good knowledge of natural expressions. + Accuracy of grammar: Learner uses past tenses eg. past simple, past continuous, and present perfect accurately. eg. l 10 she was studying and working at the same time. l. 7 her parents didnt have enough money l. 20 She has reached all her goals.

b. I would prioritise accuracy of grammar: articles, for these reasons:

Learners linguistic knowledge otherwise is of a good level but this problem may hold he them back from progressing to higher levels.

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Learner may have learnt rules in the past but not studied recently or at this level -

should be a reminder so easily rectifiable.

If learner wants to study formal qualifications in the future eg. FCE/CAE, they will need better grammatical accuracy so this will be useful for them.

Examiners comments on sample answer The answer is focussed on the criteria outlined in the rubric. It clearly cites three key strengths and three key weaknesses of the text and gives clear examples, although there could be fewer given for articles, collocations/fixed expressions, and repetition of after that. It also includes three comments as to how the features impact on the effectiveness of the text, e.g. regarding the lack of paragraphs, this could have a negative effect on the reader as it makes it more difficult to read. However, it is only useful to include two reasons because the four extra marks will only be awarded for two comments and no more. The answer could also be improved by being organised more clearly, i.e. with the three strengths listed in a group and then the three weaknesses in another group. However, it is helpful that she uses the sub-heading e.g. to indicate where the examples are, and separates each strength/weakness into three parts so that it is also clear where the comments are. In terms of part b, she correctly identifies an area of weakness to work on which she clearly stated in part a. She provides three justifications, the first two of which are fully developed and therefore gain two marks each. In order for the third justification to be fully developed, the candidate needed to specify which part of the FCE or CAE, an accurate use of articles is particularly important for, e.g. in the writing paper in order to fulfil the criterion of grammatical accuracy.

7.3.2 The following sample answer gained over half the marks available for this task 5 Organisation + us paragraphs are well formed. This makes it easier for the reader to follow Each paragraph contains one idea. Accuracy of grammar + - lots of inaccuracies. e.g when we was searching for paying her degree She never defeated in the life These may have a negative effect on the reader. + Some Phrases Accuracy and range of lexis + Good range e.g. particularly with collocations eg Searching for a Job Spent some time reached all the goals - Not enough range of linking devices. After that is used too often making the text feel repitive, the reader may bec become bored Punctuation - misplaces commas eg _ that particularly adjective In this place, the most part and full stops

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eg. . Then. We was searching. Overuses capital letters because they They are farves The reader could be quite confused. Task achievement + Completes the task successfully. reader The reader would be well informed about the person and why the writer admires them b I would focus on Punctuation because: its transferable to all writing genres it will be useful if the learner wishes to study for an exam eg FCE or IELTS. its easy to fix. A small punctuation slot can be add punctuation slot can be added to each lesson it will have a positive effect on the reader as the text would be easier to understand. Examiners comments on sample answer The candidate identifies five strengths and weaknesses but the strength relating to task achievement could not be awarded a mark for an example because the candidate does not include a specific example which describes the person or outlines a reason for admiring them. There was also no mark given for the repetition of after that because the candidate does not cite a line number or provide any co-text. The other three points regarding the learners use of collocations and two weaknesses concerning punctuation were awarded marks for examples because the candidate includes these. The candidate makes two other points, neither of which could be credited because the first one is inaccurate (the paragraphs are well formed) and the second one is too vague. The candidate writes lots of inaccuracies and although the example contains a misuse of the past continuous, she needs to explicitly state that the weakness is with this particular verb form in order to be awarded a mark. The Examiner noted that it is positive that the candidate has included comments on the effect that the weaknesses could have on the reader, i.e. they could become bored (lack of range of collocations) or confused (overuse of capitals and misuse of commas) but no marks could be awarded for these comments because the candidate has not identified a minimum of five strengths / weaknesses with an example for each one. It is therefore important that candidates remember that they must provide an accurate example for each strength and weakness they identify. In terms of part (b), the area of pronunciation was accepted because both weaknesses cited in part (a) were accurate. The candidate gains three marks in this section for the first three basic justifications that she gives. The fourth one of a positive effect on the reader was not credited as only three justifications are required in this part of the task.

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7.3.3 The following sample answer gained fewer than half the marks available for this task 5)

StrengthS + Weakness - Organisation

Good conclusion and introduction

Task achievement; describes mother and explains why s admires her

Chronolical and biographical information childhood / studies / university / working as a teacher / current job in bank - WEAKNESS grammar accuracy in biographical info was borned after she was teaching in a High School - WEAKNESS limited ability to express own opinion For me (twice) For the students level I can certainly say, I am convinced

good Organisation: lack of paragraphing

grammar accuracy - masculine / femenine when he - singular / plural we was people havent - limited connectors after

B) I would focus on the organisation of the writing, because it has a negative effect on the reader it is not cohesive and flowing and it can impede communication. Correct use of paragraphing will help organise ideas clearly which will enhance writing abilities in future texts which the student needs to produce. it is also an easy to fix weak area which can be adressed in class with model texts and focusing on structure, having an organised piece of writing can transfer to having organised ideas, cohesive and mu easier to understand also for speaking.

Examiners comments on sample answer In terms of strengths, the candidate identifies two strengths (task achievement and logical organisation of information) but does not provide clear exemplification for either of them. For tas

Delta Module 1 Report

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