Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

51
Academic Session: 2017-18 A AI I I IM MS S P PA AT TT TE ER RN N T TE ES ST T- - 2 2 ( (A AP PT T- -2 2) ) (AIIMS PATTERN) Target: AIIMS-2018 Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions. (Ñi;k funsZ'kk sa ds fy;s bl iqfLrdk ds vxys i` "B dks i<+sA) Resonance Eduventures Ltd. Pre Medical Division:- CG Tower-2, A-51(A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, KOTA - 324005 (Rajasthan) CORPORATE OFFICE : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005 Ph.No. : +91-744-3012222, 6635555 | Toll Free : 1800 258 5555 Reg. Office : J-2, Jawahar Nagar, Main Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005 | Ph. No.: +91-744-3192222 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222 website : www.medical.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 D D a a t t e e : : 2 2 0 0 M Ma a y y , , 2 20 0 1 1 8 8 | | D D u u r r a a t t i i o o n n : : 3 3½ ½ H H o o u u r r s s | | M Ma a x x . . M Ma a r r k k s s : : 2 2 0 0 0 0 C CO OD DE E - - 4 DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR tc rd ifjos"kd funsZ'k ugha nsa rc rd iz'u i=k dh lhy dks ugha [kks a ys A C CO OU UR RS SE E : : A AL LL L I IN ND DI IA A T TE ES ST T S SE ER RI IE ES S ( ( V VI IK KA AL LP P) ) : : C CL LA AS SS S X XI II I/ / X XI II II I

Transcript of Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Page 1: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Academic Session: 2017-18

AAIIIIMMSS PPAATTTTEERRNN TTEESSTT--22 ((AAPPTT--22)) ((AAIIIIMMSS PPAATTTTEERRNN))

TTaarrggeett:: AAIIIIMMSS--22001188

Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions. (Ñi;k funsZ'kksa ds fy;s bl iqfLrdk ds vxys i"B dks i<+sA)

RReessoonnaannccee EEdduuvveennttuurreess LLttdd.. Pre Medical Division:- CG Tower-2, A-51(A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, KOTA - 324005 (Rajasthan)

CORPORATE OFFICE : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005 Ph.No. : +91-744-3012222, 6635555 | Toll Free : 1800 258 5555

Reg. Office : J-2, Jawahar Nagar, Main Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005 | Ph. No.: +91-744-3192222 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222 website : www.medical.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected] | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029

DDaattee:: 2200 MMaayy,, 22001188 || DDuurraattiioonn:: 33½½ HHoouurrss || MMaaxx.. MMaarrkkss:: 220000

CCOODDEE -- 4

DO

NO

T B

REA

K T

HE

SEA

L W

ITH

OU

T B

EIN

G I

NST

RU

CTED

TO

DO

SO

BY

THE

INVI

GIL

ATO

R

tc r

d i

fjos"kd funsZ'k ugha nsa r

c r

d i

z'u i

=k d

h lhy

dks ugha [kksaysA

CCOOUURRSSEE :: AALLLL IINNDDIIAA TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ((VVIIKKAALLPP)) :: CCLLAASSSS –– XXIIII//XXIIIIII

Page 2: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. Ñi;k bu funsZ'kksa dks /;ku ls i<+saA vkidks 5 feuV fo'ks"k :i ls bl dke ds fy, fn;s x;s gSaA

1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test

Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

1.ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds bl i"B ij vko';d fooj.k uhys@dkys ckWy

IokbaV isu ls rRdky HkjsaA isfUly dk iz;ksx fcYdqy oftZr gSA

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

2. mÙkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks ijh{kk

iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk, rks mÙkj i=k fudky dj

lko/kkuhiwoZd fooj.k HkjsaA

3. The test is of 3½ hours duration. 3. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3½ ?kaVs gSA 4. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum

marks are 200. 4. bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 200 iz'u gSA vf/kdre vad 200 gSA

5. This Question Paper contains 200 (60 Physics, 60 Chemistry, 60 Biology & 20 General Knowledge) questions according to new pattern of AIIMS.

5. ;g iqfLrdk vkidk iz'u i=k gSA ftlesa AIIMS ds iSVuZ ds

vuqlkj 200 (60 Physics, 60 Chemistry, 60 Biology & 20

General Knowledge) iz'u gSaA 6. For each question, you will be awarded 1 marks if you

darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one third (–1/3) mark will be awarded.

6. [k.M–I ds izR;sd iz'u ds fy,] ;fn vkius flQZ mfpr mRrjokys

cqYys dks gh dkyk fd;k gS rks vkidks 1 vad fn;s tk,axsA ;fn

fdlh Hkh cqYys dks dkyk ugha fd;k gS rks 'kwU; vad fn;k tk,xkA

xyr mRrj ds cqYys dks dkyk djus ij _.kkRed ,d frgkbZ

(–1/3) vad fn;k tk,xkA

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.

7. çR;sd iz'u dk dsoy ,d gh lgh mÙkj gSA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj

nsus ij mls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk;sxk vkSj mijksDr funsZ'k 6 ds

vuqlkj vad dkV fy;s tk;saxsA

Filling the Top-half of the ORS : Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS.

Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.

vksvkj,l (ORS) ds Åijh&vk/ks fgLls dk Hkjko : ORS dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy dkys ck¡y iSu dk mi;ksx dhft,A

8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).

8. ORS ds lcls Åij cka;s dksus esa fn, x, ck¡Dl esa viuk jksy

uEcj dkys ck¡y ikbUV ls fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksys Hkh dsoy dkys

isu ls Hkfj;sA ORS ds ihNs dh rjQ Hkh viuk jksy uEcj fyf[k,

(;fn ORS nksuksa rjQ Nih gqbZ gSA).

9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen.

9. ORS ij viuk isij dksM fyf[k, rFkk laxr xksyksa dks dkys ck¡y

isu ls dkys dhft,A

10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed.

10 ;fn fo|kFkhZ viuk jksy uEcj rFkk isij dksM lgh vkSj mfpr

rjhds ugha Hkjrk gS rc mldk ifj.kke jksd fy;k tkosxkA

11.Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.

11. pawfd isu ls Hkjs x, xksys feVkuk vkSj lq/kkjuk laHko ugha gS

blfy, vki lko/kkuh iwoZd vius mÙkj ds xksyksa dks HkjsaA

12.Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.

12. fodYi dks u feVk,a@u Ldzsp djsa vkSj u gh xyr (X) fpUg dks

HkjsaA ORS dks dkVs u gh QkMs u gh xUnk ugha djsa rFkk dksbZ Hkh

fu'kku ;k lQsnh ORS ij ugha yxk,aA

13.If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as final.

13. ;fn ORS esa fdlh izdkj dh fy[ks x, vkadMksa rFkk xksys fd, vkadMksa

esa fojks/kkHkkl gS rks xksys fd, vkadMksa dks gh lgh ekuk tkosxkA

AAIIIIMMSS PPAATTTTEERRNN TTEESSTT--22 ((AAPPTT--22)) ((AAIIIIMMSS PPAATTTTEERRNN))

CCOOUURRSSEE:: AALLLL IINNDDIIAA TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ((VVIIKKAALLPP)) :: CCLLAASSSS –– XXIIII//XXIIIIII

CCOODDEE -- 4 DDAATTEE :: 2200--0055--22001188

Name of the Candidate (ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke) :

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them eSaus lHkh funsZ'kksa dk i<+ fy;k gS vkSj eSa mudk

vo'; ikyu d:¡xk@d:¡xhA

...................................... Signature of the Candidate

ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj

Roll Number (jksy uEcj) :

I have verified all the information filled by the candidate. ijh{kkFkhZ }kjk Hkjh xbZ lkjh tkudkjh dks eSusa

tk¡p fy;k gSA

...................................... Signature of the Invigilator

ijh{kd ds gLrk{kj

Page 3: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Pre Medical Division: CG Tower-2, A-51 (A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free: |1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRAPT2200518C4-1

PART�A

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 40 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One

is correct.

1. A man can swim in still water with a speed of

3 m/s. x and y axis are drawn along and normal

to the bank of river flowing to right with a speed

of 1 m/s. The man starts swimming from origin O

at t = 0 second. Assume size of man to be

negligible. Find the equation of locus of all the

possible points where man can reach at

t = 1 sec.

(1) (x � 1)2 + y2 = 3 (2) (x � 1)2 + y2 = 9

(3) x2 + (y � 1)2 = 3 (4) x2 + (y � 1)2 = 9

2. Two boats are moving along perpendicular paths

on a still lake at night. One boat moves with a

speed of 3ms-1 and the other boat moves with a

speed of 4ms-1 in the directions such that they

collide after some time. At t = 0, the boats are

300m apart. Two boats will collide after

time_________.

(1) 30 sec (2) 45 sec

(3) 60 sec (4) 90 sec

[k.M- I

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 40 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

1. ,d vkneh 'kkUr ikuh esa 3 m/s pky ls rSj ldrk gSA

x rFkk y v{k Øe'k% unh izokg ds vuqfn'k o blds

yEcor~ crkbZ xbZ gSA unh 1 m/s dh pky ls py jgh

gSA vkneh t = 0 ij ewy fcUnq O ls rSjuk pkyw izkjEHk

djrk gSA ;g ekfu;s fd vkneh dk vkdkj ux.; gSA

t = 1 lsd.M ij mu lHkh lEHko fcUnqvksa ds fcUnqiFk

D;k gksxk tgk¡ vkneh igq¡p ldrk gSA

(1) (x � 1)2 + y2 = 3 (2) (x � 1)2 + y2 = 9

(3) x2 + (y � 1)2 = 3 (4) x2 + (y � 1)2 = 9

2. nks uko ,d nwljs ds yEcor~ iFk esa 'kkUr rykc esa xfr

dj jgh gSA ,d uko dh pky 3ms-1 rFkk nwljs dh

4ms-1 bl rjg gS fd og dqN le; ckn Vdjkrh gSA

t = 0 ij og ,d nwljs ls 300m nwjh ij gS rks uko

fdrus le; ckn Vdjk;sxhA

(1) 30 sec (2) 45 sec

(3) 60 sec (4) 90 sec

Page 4: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Pre Medical Division: CG Tower-2, A-51 (A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free: |1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRAPT2200518C4-2

3. A particle moves along the parabolic path

y = ax2 in such a way that the y-component of

the velocity remains constant, say c. The x and

y coordinates are in meters. Then acceleration

of the particle at x = 1 m is

(1) ac �k (2) 2ac2 �j

(3) 2

2

c �i4a

(4) c �i2a

4. A particle is projected from the ground level. It

just passes through upper ends of vertical poles

A, B, C of height 20 m, 30 m & 20 m

respectively. The time taken by the particle to

travel from B to C is double of the time taken

from A to B. Find the maximum height attained

by the particle from the ground level.

(1) 75

m4

(2) 125

m2

(3) 105

m2

(4) 125

m4

5. A 15 kg block B is suspended from an

inextensible cord attached to a 20 kg cart A.

Neglect friction.

Determine the acceleration of the cart

immediately after the system is released from

rest.

(1) 75g

b127

(2) 100g

b125

(3) 105g

b127

(4) 100g

b175

3. ,d d.k ijoyf;d iFk y = ax2 ds vuqfn'k bl rjg

xfr djrk gS fd blds osx dk y-?kVd fu;r (ekuk c)

jgrk gSA x rFkk y ehVj esa gSA d.k dk x = 1 eh- ij

Roj.k gS &

(1) ac �k (2) 2ac2 �j

(3) 2

2

c �i4a

(4) c �i2a

4. ,d d.k dks tehu ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ;g Å/oZ

[kEcs A, B, C ftudh Å¡pkbZ Øe'k% 20 m, 30 m rFkk

20 m gS] ds Åijh fljksa dks Bhd Nwrk gqvk fudyrk gSA

B ls C rd tkus esa fy;k x;k le;]A ls B rd tkus esa

fy, x, le; dk nqxuk gSA d.k }kjk tehu ls çkIr

vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dk eku gSA

(1) 75

m4

(2) 125

m2

(3) 105

m2

(4) 125

m4

5. ,d 20 kg xkM+h A ls ,d 15 kg dk CykWd B, ,d

vfoLrj.kh; jLlh ls yVdk gqvk gSA ?k"kZ.k ux.; gSA

fojkekoLFkk esa NksM+us ds rqjUr ckn xkM+h dk Roj.k Kkr

djksA

(1) 75g

b127

(2) 100g

b125

(3) 105g

b127

(4) 100g

b175

Page 5: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Pre Medical Division: CG Tower-2, A-51 (A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free: |1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRAPT2200518C4-3

6. Block A of mass m is placed on a plank B. A light

support S is fixed on plank B and is attached

with the block A with a spring of spring constant

K. Consider that initially spring is in its natural

length. Find the maximum compression in the

spring, if the plank B is given an acceleration a.

All the surfaces are smooth :

(1) ma2k

(2) 2ma

k

(3) mak

(4) 4ma

k

7. Two smooth spheres each of radius 5 cm and

weight W rest one on the other inside a fixed

smooth cylinder of radius 8 cm. The reactions

between the spheres and the vertical side of the

cylinder are:

(1) W/4 & 3W/4 (2) W/4 & W/4

(3) 3W/4 & 3W/4 (4) W & W

8. The system is released from rest from the

position shown in the diagram. If A and B have

mass m and M respectively and all surfaces are

smooth, then the normal reaction between A and

B is (string and pulley are massless)

(1) 2Mm

(M m) (2)

Mmg2(M m)

(3) Mmg

(M m) (4) zero

6. m nzO;eku dk ,d CykWd A, Iykad B ij fLFkr gSA ,d

gYdk n`<+ vk/kkj S, Iykad B ij fLFkr gS rFkk bl n`<+

vk/kkj ls] fLçax fu;rkad K okyh fLçax ds }kjk CykWd A,

tqM+k gqvk gSA ekuk fLçax çkjEHk esa çkdfrd yEckbZ esa

gSA ;fn Iykad B dks Roj.k a fn;k tkrk gS rks fLçax esa

vf/kdre ladqpu gksxk (lHkh lrg fpduh gS) :

(1) ma2k

(2) 2ma

k

(3) mak

(4) 4ma

k

7. 8 lseh0 f=kT;k ds fpdus fLFkj csyu ds vUnj nks fpdus

xksys çR;sd f=kT;k 5 lseh0 rFkk W Hkkj okys fLFkj j[ks

gSA Å/oZ nhokj ds lkFk xksyksa dh çfrfØ;k gksxh &

(1) W/4 & 3W/4 (2) W/4 & W/4

(3) 3W/4 & 3W/4 (4) W & W

8. fp=k esa n'kkZ;h fLFkr esa fojkekoLFkk ls ra=k dks NksM+k

tkrk gSA ;fn A o B ds nzO;eku Øe'k% m rFkk M gS vkSj

lHkh lrg fpduh gS, rks A o B ds e/; vfHkyEc

çfrfØ;k gksxh& ¼jLlh rFkk f?kjuh nzO;eku jfgr gSA½

(1) 2Mm

(M m) (2)

Mmg2(M m)

(3) Mmg

(M m) (4) 'kwU;

Page 6: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Pre Medical Division: CG Tower-2, A-51 (A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free: |1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRAPT2200518C4-4

9. A body of mass 'm' sliding down a movable

inclined plane of mass 2 m, assuming friction is

absent everywhere the kinetic energy of 2 m as a

function of time is: (m remains on 2m)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

10. If pulley is ideal and string is massless then

reading of weighing machine is 5x3

kg then

calculate x. : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 15

9. 'm' nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq 2 m nzO;eku ds xfr djus

;ksX; urry ij uhps fQlyrh gS] ekfu;s fd lHkh txg

?k"kZ.k vuqifLFkr gSA 2 m dh xfrt ÅtkZ le; ds

Qyu :i esa gksxkA (m nzO;eku 2m ij gh jgrk gS)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh

10. ;fn iwyh rFkk Mksjh vkn'kZ rFkk nzO;ekughu gS rFkk Hkkj

e'khu dk ikB~;kad 5x3

kg gS rks x Kkr djks :

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 15

Page 7: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Pre Medical Division: CG Tower-2, A-51 (A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free: |1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRAPT2200518C4-5

11. MA = 3 kg, MB = 4 kg and MC = 8 kg. between

any two surface is 0.25. Pulley is frictionless and

string is massless. A is connected to the wall

through a massless rigid rod.(g=10m/s2)

(1) the value of F to keep C moving with

constant speed is 80 N

(2) the value of F to keep C moving with

constant speed is 120 N

(3) to slide C towards left, F should be atleast

50 N.

(4) None of these

12. An open water tanker moving on a horizontal

straight road has a cubical block of cork floating

over its surface. If the tanker has an

accelecration of a as shown, the acceleration of

the cork w.r.t. container is (ignore viscosity) -

a

(1) Zero (2) 2a

g

(3) ay

2 2g a (4) a

11. MA = 3 kg, MB = 4 kg o MC = 8 kg gSA fdUgh Hkh nks

ryksa ds chp = 0.25 gSA f?kjuh ?k"kZ.k jfgr o Mksjh

nzO;eku jfgr gSA A, ,d gYdh n`<+ NM+ }kjk nhokj ls

tqM+k gqvk gSA (g=10m/s2)

(1) C dks fu;r pky ls pyk;s j[kus ds fy;s F dk

eku 80 N gSA

(2) C dks fu;r pky ls pyk;s j[kus ds fy;s F dk

eku 120 N gSA

(3) C dks cka;h vksj fQlyus ds fy;s F de ls de

50 N gksuk pkfg;sA

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

12. ,d [kqyh ikuh dh Vadh lh/kh {kSfrt lM+d ij xfr'khy

gS ftlesa ,d ?kukdkj dkdZ dk CykWd ikuh dh lrg

ij rSj jgk gSA ;fn Vadh dk Roj.k a fp=kkuqlkj

iznf'kZr gks rks dkdZ dk Roj.k Vadh ds lkis{k gksxk

¼';kurk dks ux.; ekusa½

a

(1) 'kwU; (2) 2a

g

(3) ay

2 2g a (4) a

Page 8: Date: 20 May, 2018 | Duration: 3½ Hours | Max. Marks: 200

Pre Medical Division: CG Tower-2, A-51 (A), IPIA, Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)-324005

Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : [email protected]

Toll Free: |1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029 MRAPT2200518C4-6

13. A light cylindrical tube �T� of length and radius

�r� containing air is inverted in water (density d1).

One end of the tube is open and the other is

closed. A block �B� of density d2 (> d1) is kept on

the tube as shown in the figure. The tube stays

in equilibrium in the position shown. Find the

volume of �B�. The density of the air is negligible

as compared with the density of water. What is

the pressure of the air in the tube assuming that

the atmospheric pressure is P0.

(1) Pa = P0 + d2g 2h3

(2) Pa = P0 � d1g h2

(3) Pa = P0 + d2g h �3

(4) Pa = P0 + d1g h3

14. In the figure shown water is filled in a

symmetrical container. Four pistons of equal

area A are used at the four opening to keep the

water in equilibrium. Now an additional force F is

applied at each piston. The increase in the

pressure at the centre of the container due to

this addition is

(1) FA

(2) 2FA

(3) 4FA

(4) 0

13. ,d gYdh csyukdkj V~;wc �T� ftldh yEckbZ rFkk

f=kT;k �r� gSA blesa gok gS rFkk bldks ikuh ¼?kuRo d1½

esa mYVk fd;k gqvk gSA V~;wc dk ,d fljk [kqyk gS rFkk

nwljk cUn gSA CykWd B ¼?kuRo d2½ tgk¡ d2 > d1 dks

V~;wc ds Åij fp=kkuqlkj j[kk tkrk gSA V~;wc fp=k esa

n'kkZbZ xbZ O;oLFkk ds vuqlkj lkE;koLFkk esa gSA �B� dk

vk;ru Kkr djksA gok dk ?kuRo ikuh ds ?kuRo dh

rqyuk esa ux.; gSA V~;wc esa gok dk nkc D;k gksxkA

;fn okrkoj.k dk nkc P0 gSA

(1) Pa = P0 + d2g 2h3

(2) Pa = P0 � d1g h2

(3) Pa = P0 + d2g h �3

(4) Pa = P0 + d1g h3

14. n'kkZ;s x;s fp=k esa ,d lefer ik=k esa ty Hkjk gSA

leku {ks=kQy A ds pkj fiLVu pkj [kqys LFkkuks ij

ty dks lkE;koLFkk esa j[krs gS vc izR;sd fiLVu ij

vfrfjDr cy F vkjksfir fd;k tkrk gSA blds dkj.k

ik=k ds dsUnz ij nkc esa o`f) gSA

(1) FA

(2) 2FA

(3) 4FA

(4) 0

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15. A particle executes SHM in a straight line. In the

first second starting from rest it travels 'a'

distance a and in the next second a distance 'b'

in the same direction. The amplitude of S.H.M

will be

(1) 22a

3a b (2) a b

(3) 2a b (4) a / b

16. The displacement time graph of a particle

executing S.H.M. (in straight line) is shown.

Which of the following statements is/are false?

(1) the velocity is maximum at t = T/2

(2) the acceleration is maximum at t = T

(3) the force is zero at t = 3T/4

(4) the potential energy equals the total

oscillation energy at t = T/2

17. For given CE biasing circuit, if voltage across

collector-emitter is 12V and current gain is

100 and base current is 0.04 mA then determine

the value collector resistance RC.

(1) 1200 (2) 200

(3) 400 (4) 2000

15. ,d d.k ljy js[kk es l-vk-x- djrk gSA fojkekoLFkk ls

çkjEHk dj igys lSd.M es ;g a nwjh r; djrk gS rFkk

vxys lSd.M es mlh fn'kk esa b nwjh r; djrk gSA l-

vk-x dk vk;ke gksxk&

(1) 22a

3a b (2) a b

(3) 2a b (4) a / b

16. ljy vkorZ xfr ¼ljy js[kk esa½ djrs d.k dk foLFkkiu

le; oØ fn[kk;k x;k gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulk@ls dFku

vlR; gS@gSaA

(1) t = T/2 ij osx vf/kdre gksxk

(2) t = T ij Roj.k vf/kdre gksxk

(3) t = 3T/4 ij cy 'kwU; gksxk

(4) t = T/2 ij fLFkfrt ÅtkZ dk eku dqy nksyu

ÅtkZ ds eku ds cjkcj gksxkA

17. fn;s x;s mHk;fu"B mRltZd (CE) vfHkur ifjiFk esa

;fn laxzkgd&mRltZd ds fljks ij foHko 12V rFkk

/kkjkykHk 100 ,oa vk/kkj /kkjk 0.04 mA gks rks laxzkgd

izfrjks/k RC dk eku Kkr djksA

(1) 1200 (2) 200

(3) 400 (4) 2000

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18. In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the

diode is 0.5V, the current in the circuit will be

(approximately) �

0.5 V

2.2 k 8V

(1) 3.4 mA (2) 2 mA

(3) 2.5mA (4) 3 mA

19. n1 = n3 = 3/2 and n2 = 4/3. The lenses are thin and

the whole arrangement is placed in air. The focal

length of the system is __________.

(1) � 45 cm (2) + 72 cm

(3) � 72 cm (4) + 45 cm

20. In the figure shown a converging lens and a

diverging lens of focal lengths 20 cm and �5 cm

respectively are separated by a distance such

that a parallel beam of light of intensity

100 watt/m2 incident on the converging lens

comes out as parallel beam from the diverging

lens. Find the intensity of the outgoing beam in

watt/m2.

(1) 100 (2) 200

(3) 400 (4) 1600

21. The angular momentum of an electron in first

orbit of Li++ ion is :

(1) 3h2

(2) 9h

2

(3) h2

(4) h6

18. ifjiFk esa] ;fn Mk;ksM ds fy, vxz foHko iru 0.5V gS,

rc ifjiFk esa /kkjk yxHkx gksxhA

0.5 V

2.2 k 8V

(1) 3.4 mA (2) 2 mA

(3) 2.5mA (4) 3 mA

19. n1 = n3 = 3/2 rFkk n2 = 4/3, ySal irys gS rFkk iwjk ra=k

gok esa fLFkr gS ra=k dh Qksdl nwjh ------------ gksxh\

(1) � 45 cm (2) + 72 cm

(3) � 72 cm (4) + 45 cm

20. n'kkZ;s x;s fp=k esa Øe'k% 20 cm o �5 cm Qksdl nwjh

ds ,d vfHklkjh ySUl o ,d vilkjh ySUl dqN nwjh

ij bl çdkj j[ks gS fd 100 watt/m2 rhozrk dk

lekUrj çdk'k iqat vfHklkjh ySUl ij vkifrr gksrk gS

vkSj vilkjh ySUl ls lekUrj çdk'k iqUt ds :i esa

ckgj fudyrk gSA fuxZr iqUt dh rhozrk watt/m2 esa

Kkr djksA

(1) 100 (2) 200

(3) 400 (4) 1600

21. Li+ + vk;u ds igys d{k esa bysDVªkWu dk dks.kh; laosx

gksrk gS

(1) 3h2

(2) 9h

2

(3) h2

(4) h6

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22. An electron of mass ' m ', when accelerated

through a potential V has deBroglie wavelength

. The deBroglie wavelength associated with a

proton of mass M accelerated through the same

potential difference will be:

(1) Mm

(2) mM

(3) Mm

(4) mM

23. If the frequency of k x-ray emitted from the

element with atomic number 31is f, then the

frequency of k x-ray emitted from the element

with atomic number 51 would be: (assume that

screening constant for K is 1)

(1) 53

f (2) 5131

f

(3) 925

f (4) 259

f

24. Figure is the plot of the stopping potential versus

the frequency of the light used in an experiment

on photoelectric effect. Find the work function.

(1) 0.3 eV (2) 0.5 eV

(3) 0.8 eV (4) 14 eV

25. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at rest.

The first ball is brought to rest by the impact. If

half the kinetic energy is lost by impact, what is

the value of the coefficient of restitution?

(1) 1

2 2 (2)

1

3

(3) 1

2 (4)

32

22. ,d bysDVªkWu ftldk nzO;eku ' m ' gS dks V foHko ls

Rofjr fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn bysDVªkWu dk Mh czksxyh

rjaxnS/;Z gS rks çksVkWu ls lEc} Mh czksxyh rjaxnS/;Z

fdruk gksxkA ;fn çksVkWu dk nzO;eku M rFkk çksVkWu dh

leku foHko V ls Rofjr djs:

(1) Mm

(2) mM

(3) Mm

(4) mM

23. ;fn 31 ijek.kq Øekad okys rRo ls mRlftZr k

x-fdj.k dh vko`fr f gS rks 51 ijek.kq Øekad okys rRo

ls mRlftZr k x-fdj.k dh vko`fr gksxh& (K Js.kh ds

fy, ifjj{k.k fu;rkad 1 gS)

(1) 53

f (2) 5131

f

(3) 925

f (4) 259

f

24. fojks/kh foHko o çdk'k fo|qr çHkko esa mi;ksx çdk'k

rjax dh vko`fÙk ds chp xzkQ fp=kkuqlkj gSA Kkr djks

& dk;Z Qyu

(1) 0.3 eV (2) 0.5 eV

(3) 0.8 eV (4) 14 eV

25. ,d xsan fojkekoLFkk esa fLFkr vU; ,dleku xsan ls

Vdjkrh gSA VDdj ds i'pkr~ igyh xsan fojkekoLFkk ij

vk tkrh gSA ;fn VDdj ds nkSjku xfrt ÅtkZ ds vk/ks

Hkkx dh gkfu gksrh gS rks izR;koLFkku xq.kkad dk eku

D;k gksxk ?

(1) 1

2 2 (2)

1

3

(3) 1

2 (4)

32

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26. During the head on collision of two masses

1 kg and 2 kg the maximum energy of

deformation is 100

3J. If before collision the

masses are moving in the same direction, then

their velocity of approach before the collision is :

(1) 10 m/sec. (2) 5 m/sec.

(3) 20 m/sec. (4) 10 2 m/sec.

27. Two objects of same mass and with same initial

speed, moving in a smooth horizontal plane,

collide and move away together at half their

initial speed after the collision. The angle

between the initial velocities of the objects is

(1) 120° (2) 90°

(3) 60° (4) 30°

28. A plate of mass M is moved with constant

velocity v against dust particles moving with

velocity u in opposite direction as shown. The

density of the dust is and plate area is A. Find

the force F required to keep the plate moving

uniformly. Assuming dust particles stick to the

plate. ( in kg /m3)

(1) A(u + 2v)2 (2) A(u � v)

(3) A(2u + v) (4) A(u + v)2

29. The temperature co-efficient of resistance is

positive for:

(1) carbon (2) copper

(3) Si (4) Ge

26. nks nzO;ekuksa 1kg. rFkk 2kg dh ‘'kh"kkZfHkeq[k VDdj ds

nkSjku laihMu dh egRre ÅtkZ 100

3twy gSA ;fn

VDdj ds igys nzO;eku leku fn'kk esa xfreku gSa] rc

mudk VDdj ls igys lkehI; osx gS &

(1) 10 m/sec. (2) 5 m/sec.

(3) 20 m/sec. (4) 10 2 m/sec.

27. leku nzO;eku o leku izkjfEHkd pky dh nks oLrq

{kSfrt ry ls xfr'khy gS] Vdjkrh gS ,oa VDdj ds ckn

mudh izkjfEHkd pky dh vk/kh pky ls pyrh gSA

oLrqvksa ds izkjfEHkd osxksa ds e/; dks.k gS -

(1) 120° (2) 90°

(3) 60° (4) 30°

28. ,d M nzO;eku dh IysV /kwy ds d.kksa (tks fd u osx ls

foijhr fn'kk esa xfr dj jgs gS) ds fo:) fu;r osx v

ls xfr djrh gSA /kwy dk ?kuRo rFkk IysV dk

{ks=kQy A gSA IysV dk ,dleku xfr esa j[kus ds fy,

vko';d chy F dk eku gksxkA ;g ekurs gq;s fd /kwy

d.k IysV ls fpid tkrs gSA ( in kg /m3)A

(1) A(u + 2v)2 (2) A(u � v)

(3) A(2u + v) (4) A(u + v)2

29. fdlds izfrjks/k ds fy;s rkih; xq.kkad /kukRed gS&

(1) dkcZu (2) rkcka

(3) Si (4) Ge

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30. Find equivalent resistance between terminals

A and B.

(1) 2.5 (2) 5

(3) 10 (4) 15

31. An ammeter and a voltmeter are initially

connected in series to a battery of zero internal

resistance. When switch S1 is closed the reading

of the voltmeter becomes half of the initial,

whereas the reading of the ammeter becomes

double. If now switch S2 is also closed, then

reading of ammeter becomes:

(1) 3/2 times the initial value

(2) 3/2 times the value after closing S1

(3) 3/4 times the value after closing S1

(4) 3/4 times the initial value

32. In the circuit shown, cells are of equal emf E but

of different internal resistances r1 = 6 and

r2 = 4 . Reading of the ideal voltmeter

connected across cell 1 is zero. Value of the

external resistance R in ohm is equal to -

Cell1

E E

Cell2

r1

R

r2

V

(1) 2 (2) 2.4

(3) 10 (4) 24

30. VfeZuy A rFkk B ds chp rqY; izfrjks/k Kkr dhft;s &

(1) 2.5 (2) 5

(3) 10 (4) 15

31. ,d vehVj rFkk ,d oksYV ehVj izkjEHk esa ,d 'kwU;

vkUrfjd izfrjks/k dh CkSVjh ls tksM+s tkrs gSA tc daqth

S1 dks can fd;k tkrk gS] rks oksYVehVj dk ikB~;kad

izkjfEaHkd eku dk vk/kk gks tkrk gS ] tcfd vehVj dk

ikB~;kad nqxquk gks tkrk gSA vxj vc daqth S2 dks Hkh

can dj fn;k tk, rks vehVj dk ikB~;kad gksxk &

(1) izkjfEHkd eku dk 3 / 2 xquk gks tk;sxk A

(2) S1 dks can djus ds ckn ds eku ls 3 / 2 xquk gks

tk,xk A

(3) S1 dksa can djus ds ckn ds eku ls 3 / 4 xquk gks

tk,xk A

(4) izkjfEHkd eku dk 3 / 4 xquk gks tk,xk A

32. iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa lsyksa dk leku fo|qr okgd cy

E ijUrq fHkUu&fHkUu vkUrfjd izfrjks/k Øe'k% r1 = 6

rFkk r2 = 4 gSA lsy 1 ls tqM+s gq, vkn'kZ oksYVehVj

dk ikB~;kad 'kwU; gSA cká izfrjks/k R dk eku vkse esa

gksxk -

Cell1

E E

Cell2

r1

R

r2

V

(1) 2 (2) 2.4

(3) 10 (4) 24

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33. In the circuit shown the speed of the rod is v,

magnitude of magnetic field is B and rate of

increase of B with respect to time is K at the

moment. At this moment magnitude of the

induced emf in the circuit is :

(1) |Kx � Bv| (2) |Bv|

(3) |Kx| (4) |Kx + Bv|

34. Consider a long cylindrical solenoid having n

turns per unit length. Current in the solenoid is .

Magnetic field at a point lying on axis of

solenoid. Just inside the solenoid will be :

(1) 0n

4

(2) 0n

3

(3) 0n

2

(4) 0n

35. An infinite straight wire of radius 'R' is carrying a

constant current �i� flowing uniformly in it's cross-

section along it's length then magnetic energy

stored per unit length of this wire is [inside the

wire].

(1) 2

0i

2

(2)

20i

16

(3) 2

0i

8

(4)

20

2

i

2

36. A coil has an inductance of 0.03 H. Rate at

which energy is being stored in the coil when

current is 10A and rate of change of current is

100 A/s is :

(1) 10 W (2) 300 W

(3) 3 W (4) 30 W

33. n'kkZ, ifjiFk eas NM+ dh pky v gS] pqEcdh; {ks=k dk

ifjek.k B o le; ds lkis{k B dh rkR{kf.kd o`f} nj K

gSA ifjiFk dk rkR{kf.kd izsfjr fc/kqr okgd cy dk

ifjek.k gksxk

(1) |Kx � Bv| (2) |Bv|

(3) |Kx| (4) |Kx + Bv|

34. ,d yEch ifjukfydk tks çfr ,dkad yEckbZ esa n ?ksjs

j[krh gSA ifjukfydk esa /kkjk gSA ifjukfydk ds Bhd

vUnj bldh v{k ij fLFkr ,d fcUnq ij pqEcdh; {ks=k

gksxkA

(1) 0n

4

(2) 0n

3

(3) 0n

2

(4) 0n

35. 'R' f=kT;k ds ,d vuUr yEckbZ ds lh/ks rkj esa �i� /kkjk

blds vuqizLFk dkV {ks=kQy esa bldh yEckbZ ds vuqfn'k

,d leku :i ls izokfgr gS] rc bl rkj dh izfr

,dkad yEckbZ esa lafpr pqEcdh; ÅtkZ gksxh [rkj ds

vUnj].

(1) 2

0i

2

(2)

20i

16

(3) 2

0i

8

(4)

20

2

i

2

36. ,d dq.Myh dk çsjdRo 0.03 H gSA dq.Myh esa ÅtkZ

lap; fdl nj ls gksxh tc dq.Myh esa /kkjk 10A rFkk

/kkjk esa ifjorZu dh nj 100 A/s gS :

(1) 10 W (2) 300 W

(3) 3 W (4) 30 W

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37. Consider a L-R circuit shown in the figure. It was

found that current through the inductor became

constant after a long time. Then the power

supplied by battery to R after long time will be

(1) 9 W (2) 10 W

(3) 11.1 W (4) 15 W

38. An isolated triple star system consists of two

identical stars, each of mass m and a fixed star

of mass M. They revolve around the central star

in the same circular orbit of radius r. The two

orbiting stars are always at opposite ends of a

diameter of the orbit. The time period of

revolution of each star around the fixed star is

equal to :

r M m

m

(1) 3 / 24 r

G(4M m)

(2)

3 / 22 r

GM

(3) 3 / 22 r

G(M m)

(4)

3 / 24 r

G(M m)

39. Altitude at which acceleration due to gravity

decreases by 0.1% approximately: (Radius of

earth = 6400 km)

(1) 3.2 km (2) 6.4 km

(3) 2.4 km (4) 1.6 km

40. The value of current in two series L C R circuits

at resonance is same when connected across a

sinusoidal voltage source. Then:

(1) both circuits must be having same value of

capacitance and inductor

(2) in both circuits ratio of L and C will be same

(3) for both the circuits XL/XC must be same at

that frequency

(4) both circuits must have same impedance at

all frequencies.

37. fp=k esa n'kkZ, L-R ifjiFk ds fy, ik;k x;k fd dkQh

yEcs le; i'pkr~ izsj.k dq.Myh ls izokfgr /kkjk fu;r

gks x;h gSA rks dkQh T;knk le; i'pkr~ csVªh }kjk

R dks nh xbZ 'kfDr gksxhA

(1) 9 W (2) 10 W

(3) 11.1 W (4) 15 W

38. ,d foyfxr f=krkjd (triple star) fudk; nks ,d leku

rkjs] izR;sd dk nzO;eku m rFkk ,d fLFkj M nzO;eku ds

rkjs ls cuh gSA ;s dsUnz ij fLFkr rkjs (M) ds lkis{k

r f=kT;k ds o`Ùkh; d{k esa o`Ùkh; xfr dj jgs gSA nksuksa

d{kh; rkjs o`Ùk ds O;kl ds vfUre fljksa ij gSA fLFkj

rkjs ds lkis{k izR;sd rkjs dk le;kUrjky Kkr djksA

r M m

m

(1) 3 / 24 r

G(4M m)

(2)

3 / 22 r

GM

(3) 3 / 22 r

G(M m)

(4)

3 / 24 r

G(M m)

39. Å¡pkbZ tgka xq:Roh; Roj.k yxHkx 0.1% ?kV tk,xk]

gksxk (i`Foh dh f=kT;k = 6400 km)

(1) 3.2 km (2) 6.4 km

(3) 2.4 km (4) 1.6 km

40. nks L � C � R Js.kh ifjiFk tks fd vuqukn ij gaS] tc os

,d T;k oØh; foHko L=kksr ls tqM+s gSaA rFkk muesa /kkjk

dk eku leku gS] rks &

(1) nksuksa ifjiFkksa esa /kkfjrk rFkk izsjdRo dk eku

leku gksxkA

(2) nksuksa ifjiFkksa esa L rFkk C dk vuqikr leku gksxk

(3) vuqukn vkofÙk ij nksuksa ifjiFkksa esa XL/XC dk eku

leku gksxkA

(4) nksuksa ifjiFkksa dh izfrok/kk lHkh vko`fÙk;ksa ij leku

gksxhA

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SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 20 reasoning type

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

The following questions consist of two

statements one labelled ASSERTION (A) and

the another labelled REASON (R). Select the

correct answers to these questions from the

codes given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct

explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A and R are false

41. Assertion : Imagine holding two identical bricks

under water. Brick A is completely submerged

just below the surface of water, while Brick B is

at a greater depth. The magnitude of force

exerted by the person (on the brick) to hold brick

B in place is the same as magnitude of force

exerted by the person (on the brick) to hold brick

A in place.

Reason : The magnitude of buoyant force on a

brick completely submerged in water is equal to

magnitude of weight of water it displaces and

does not depend on depth of brick in water .

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

[k.M- II

dkj.k çdkj

bl [k.M esa 20 dkj.k çdkj ds ç'u gSA çR;sd ç'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gS, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

fuEu iz'uksa esa ls izR;sd esa nks okD; gS] ,d dFku (A)

rFkk nwljk dkj.k (R) uhps fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vk/kkj

ij lgh mÙkj dks igpkfu;sA

(1) A o R nksuksa lR; gS rFkk R A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(2) A o R nksuksa lR; gsa fdarq R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSaA

(3) A lR; gS fdarq R vlR; gSaA

(4) A o R nksuksa vlR; gSA

41. dFku : ;g ekuk fd nks ,dleku bZaVs ikuh ds vUnj

bl rjg ls idM+h gS fd bZaV A ikuh dh lrg ds Bhd

uhps iwjh rjg ls Mwch gS tcfd bZaV B vf/kd xgjkbZ ij

gSA rks bu fn;s x;s lEcfU/kr LFkkuksa ij bZaV B dks idM+s

j[kus ds fy, O;fDr }kjk bZaV B ij vkjksfir cy mruk

gh ifjek.k dk cy pkfg;s fd ftruk bZaV A dks idM+s

j[kus ds fy, O;fä }kjk bZaV A ij vkjksfir cy

pkfg;sA

dkj.k : ikuh esa iwjh rjg Mwch gqbZ izR;sd bZaV ij

mRIykou cy dk ifjek.k blds }kjk gVk;s x;s ikuh ds

Hkkj ds cjkcj gS rFkk ;g bZaV dh xgjkbZ ij fuHkZj ugha

djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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42. Assertion : The time period of the SHM of a

system consisting of a mass attached to a spring

does not depend on whether it is hanging

vertically from a fixed support or lying on a

horizontal table with other end of spring fixed.

Reason : In spring block system gravity affects

only the mean position. The time period depends

only on mass & spring constant.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

43. Assertion : A beam of white light enters the

curved surface of a semicircular piece of glass

along the normal. The incoming beam is moved

clockwise (so that the angle q increases), such

that the beam always enters along the normal to

the curved side. Just before the refracted beam

disappears, it becomes predominantly red.

Reason : The index of refraction for light at the

red end of the visible spectrum is more than at

the violet end.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

44. Assertion : A white parallel beam of light is

incident on a plane glass- vacuum interface as

shown. The beam may not undergo dispersion

after suffering deviation at the interface (The

beam is not incident normally on the interface.)

Reason : Vaccum has same refractive index for

all colours of white light.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

42. dFku : nzO;eku fLçax fudk; ds SHM dk vkorZdky

bl ckr ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS fd ;g n`<+ vkyEcu ls

Å/oZ :i ls yVd jgh gS vFkok {kSfrt est ij ,d

fljs ls n`<+or~ ;qfZXer gSA

dkj.k % fLçax CykWd fudk; esa xq:Ro dsoy lkE; fLFkfr

dks çHkkfor djrh gSA vkorZdky dsoy nzO;eku o fLçax

fu;rkad ij fuHkZj djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

43. dFku : 'osr izdk'k dk iqat v)Zo`Ùkkdkj dkap ds VqdM+s

dh oØ lrg ds vfHkyEc ds vuqfn'k vkifrr gksrk gSA

vkifrr iqat nf{k.kkorZ bl izdkj ?kwerk gS fd (bl

izdkj dks.k q c<+rk gS) iqat ges'kk oØ lrg ds vfHkyEc

ds vuqfn'k izos'k djrh gSA viofrZr iqat ds vn`'; gksus

ds rqjar igys ;g eq[;r% yky jax dh izrhr gksrh gSA

dkj.k % n`'; LisDVªe esa izdk'k ds fy, yky fljs dk

viorZukad cSaxuh fljs ls vf/kd gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

44. dFku : izdk'k dk ,d lekUrj 'osr iqat fp=kkuqlkj ,d

lery dk¡p&fuokZr ds vUrjki`"B (interface) ij

vkifrr gksrk gSA izdk'k iq¡t dk vUrjki`"B ij fopyu

(deviation) gksus ds ckn fo{ksi.k (disperson) ugh gks

Hkh ldrk gSA (izdk'k iqat vUrjki`"V ij vfHkyEc

vkifrr ugh gksrk gS)

dkj.k % 'osr izdk'k ds lHkh jaxksa ds fy, fuokZr dk

viorZukad leku gksrk gSA

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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45. Assertion : AZ X undergoes 2 decays, 2

decays (negative ) and 2 decays. As a result

the daughter product is A 8Z 2 Y

.

Reason : In decay the mass number

decreases by 4 unit and atomic number

decreases by 2 unit. In decay (negative ) the

mass number remains unchanged and atomic

number increases by 1 unit. In decay, mass

number and atomic number remains unchanged.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

46. Assertion : No external force acts on system of

two spheres which undergo a perfectly elastic

head on collision. The minimum kinetic energy of

this system is zero if the net momentum of this

system is zero.

Reason : In any two body system undergoing

perfectly elastic head on collision, at the instant

of maximum deformation, the complete kinetic

energy of the system is converted to deformation

potential energy of the system.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

47. Assertion : In a perfectly inelastic collision

between two spheres, velocity of both spheres

just after the collision are not always equal.

Reason : For two spheres undergoing collision,

component of velocities of both spheres along

line of impact just after the collision will be equal

if the collision is perfectly inelastic. The

component of velocity of each sphere

perpendicular to line of impact remains

unchanged due to the impact.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

45. dFku : AZ X , 2 , 2 (_.kkRed ) o 2 {k; djrk

gSA ftlls ifj.kkeh iq=kh mRikn A 8

Z 2 Y

gSA

dkj.k % {k; esa nzO;eku la[;k 4 bdkbZ ls rFkk

ijek.kq la[;k 2 bdkbZ ls de gksrh gSA {k; esa

( _.kkRed) nzO;eku la[;k vifjofrZr jgrh gS o

ijek.kq la[;k 1 bdkbZ ls c<+rh gSA {k; esa nzO;eku

la[;k rFkk ijek.kq la[;k vifjofrZr jgrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

46. dFku : nks xksys tks ,d iw.kZ izR;kLFk lh/kh VDdj djrs

gS] muds fudk; ij dksbZ ckº; cy dk;Z ugh djrk gSA

bl fudk; dh U;wure xfrt ÅtkZ 'kwU; gksxh ;fn bl

fudk; dk usV laosx 'kwU; gSA

dkj.k % fdlh nks fi.M fudk; esa ftlesa iw.kZ izR;kLFk

lh/kh VDdj gksrh gS] vf/kdre fodfr ds {k.k ij

fudk; dh iw.kZ xfrt ÅtkZ fudk; dh fod`fr fLFkfrt

ÅtkZ esa ifjofrZr gks tkrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

47. dFku : nks xksykasa ds chp ,d iw.kZ vizR;kLFk VDdj ds

fy,] VDdj ds rqjUr ckn nksuksa xksysa ds osx ges'kk

cjkcj ugh gksaxsA

dkj.k % VDdj djrs gq;s nks xksysa ds fy,] VDdj ds

rqjUr ckn VDdj dh js[kk ds vuqfn'k nksuksa xksyksa ds

osxksa ds ?kVd cjkcj gksaxs ;fn VDdj iw.kZr;k vizR;kLFk

gSA VDdj dh js[kk ds yEcor~ izR;sd xksys ds osx dk

?kVd VDdj ds dkj.k vifjofrZr jgrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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48. Assertion : In the circuit shown both cells are

ideal and of fixed emf, the resistor of resistance

R1 has fixed resistance and the resistance of

resistor R2 can be varied (but the value of R2 is

not zero). Then the electric power delivered to

resistor of resistance R1 is independent of value

of resistance R2.

Reason : If potential difference across a fixed

resistance is unchanged, the power delivered to

the resistor remains constant.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

49. Assertion : When an external resistor of

resistance R (connected across a cell of internal

resistance r) is varied, power consumed by

resistance R is maximum when R = r.

Reason : Power consumed by a resistor of

constant resistance R is maximum when current

through it is maximum.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. Assertion : A current carrying closed loop

remains in equilibrium in a uniform and constant

magnetic field parallel to its axis.Consider forces

only due to this magnetic field .

Reason : Torque on a current carrying closed

loop due to a magnetic field is maximum when

the plane of the coil is parallel to the direction of

the magnetic field.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

48. dFku : fn[kk;s x;s ifjiFk esa nksuksa lsy vkn'kZ gS rFkk

mudk fo-ok-cy (emf) fu;r (fixed) gSA R1 dk izfrjks/k

fu;r gSA izfrjks/k R2 ds eku dks ifjofrZr fd;k tk

ldrk gS (but the value of R2 is not zero)A izfrjks/k

R1 dks iznku dh xbZ fo|qr 'kfä] izfrjks/k R2 ds eku ls

LorU=k gSA

dkj.k % ;fn fu;r (fixed) izfrjks/k ds fljksa ij

foHkokUrj vifjofrZr jgrk gS rks izfrjks/k dks iznku dh

xbZ 'kfä fu;r jgrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

49. dFku : ,d ckº; izfrjks/k ftldk izfrjks/k R gS bldks

,d lsy ftldk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k r gS ds fljks ij

yxk;k tkrk gS tc ckº; izfrjks/k R dks ifjofrZr fd;k

tkrk gS rks izfrjks/k R }kjk yh ¼O;f;r dh½ xbZ 'kfä

vf/kdre rc gksxh tc R = r gksxkA

dkj.k % ,d fu;r izfrjks/k R }kjk yh xbZ 'kfä

vf/kdre gksrh gS tc blesa ls izokfgr /kkjk vf/kdre

gksxhA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. dFku : ,d /kkjkokgh cUn ywi] ,d leku fu;r

pqEcdh; {ks=k esa lkE;oLFkk esa jgrk gSA ;gk¡ pqEcdh;

{ks=k ywi ds v{k ds lekUrj gSA dsoy pqEcdh; {ks=k ds

dkj.k cyksa dks gh fyft,A

dkj.k % ,d /kkjkokgh cUn ywi ¼dq.Myh½ ij pqEcdh;

{ks=k ds dkj.k cyk?kw.kZ vf/kdre gksxk ;fn ywi dk ry

pqEcdh; {ks=k dh fn'kk ds lekUrj gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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51. Assertion : Two uniform proton beams going in

the same direction repel each other.

Reason : Magnitude of electric force between

two protons is always higher than magnetic force

between them.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52. Assertion : Two coaxial conducting rings of

different radii are placed in space. The mutual

inductance of both the rings is maximum if the

rings are also coplanar.

Reason : For two coaxial conducting rings of

different radii, the magnitude of magnetic flux in

one ring due to current in other ring is maximum

when both rings are coplanar.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

53. Assertion : A neutral conducting wire carrying

no current, when placed in uniform magnetic

field, experiences zero net force.

Reason : An electron in a conducting wire,

carrying no current, doesn�t experience any

magnetic force, when placed in uniform

magnetic field.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

54. Assertion : Areal velocity of earth about centre

of sun remains constant (areal velocity is defined

as area swept per unit time by line joining the

centre of earth and centre of sun).

Reason : Torque on earth due to gravitational

force of sun about centre of sun remains

constant.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

51. dFku : nks le izksVkWu fdj.k iqat leku fn'kk esa pyrs

gq, ,d nwljs ls izfrdf"kZr gksrs gSA

dkj.k % nks izksVkWuksa ds e/; fo|qr cy dk ifjek.k buds

e/; pqEcdh; cy ds ifjek.k ls lnSo vf/kd gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52. dFku : fHkUu&fHkUu f=kT;kvksa dh nks lek{kh; pkyd

oy; ,d LFkku esa fLFkr gSaA nksuksa oy;ksa dk vU;ksU;

izsjdRo vf/kdre gksxk ;fn oy; leryh; Hkh gSaA

dkj.k % fHkUu f=kT;kvksa dh nks lek{kh; pkyd oy;ksa ds

fy,] ,d oy; esa] nwljh oy; dh /kkjk ds dkj.k

pqEcdh; ¶yDl dk ifjek.k vf/kdre gksrk gS tc nksuksa

oy; leryh; gksaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

53. dFku : ,d mnklhu pkyd rkj ftlesa dksbZ /kkjk

çokfgr ugha gS] tc le:i pqEcdh; {ks=k esa j[kk tkrk

gS] 'kwU; ifj.kkeh cy vuqHko djrk gSA

dkj.k % ,d pkyd rkj ftlesa dksbZ /kkjk çokfgr ugha

gS] blesa ,d bysDVªkWu dksbZ pqEcdh; cy vuqHko ugha

djrk gS tc ;g rkj le:i pqEcdh; {ks=k esa j[kk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

54. dFku : lw;Z ds dsUnz ds ifjr% i`Foh dk {ks=kQyh; osx

fu;r jgrk gSA ¼lw;Z vkSj i`Foh ds dsUnz dks feykus

okyh js[kk }kjk ,dkad le; esa r; fd;k x;k {ks=kQy]

{ks=kQyh; osx dgykrk gS½

dkj.k % lw;Z ds dsUnz ds ifjr% lw;Z ds xq:Rokd"kZ.k cy

ds dkj.k iFoh ij dk;Zjr cyk?kw.kZ fu;r jgrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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55. Assertion : Acceleration due to gravity (g) at 64

km above surface of earth is less then 64 km

below the surface of earth.

Reason : The magnitude of rate of change of

gravitational field (acceleration due to gravity g)

is more at 64 km above the surface of earth then

64 km below the surface of earth.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

56. Assertion : Three projectiles are moving in

different paths in the air. Vertical component of

relative velocity between any of the pair does not

change with time as long as they are in air.

Neglect the effect of air friction.

Reason : Relative acceleration between any of

the pair of projectiles is zero.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

57. Assertion : If acceleration of a particle is

decreasing then it is possible that velocity is

increasing with time.

Reason : Acceleration is rate of change of

velocity.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

58. Assertion : A man projects a stone with speed u

at some angle. He again projects a stone with

same speed such that time of flight now is

different. The horizontal ranges in both the cases

may be same.

Reason : The horizontal range is same for two

projectiles if one is projected at an angle with

the horizontal and other is projected at an angle

90o � with the horizontal.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

55. dFku : iFoh lrg ls 64 km Åij xq:Roh; Roj.k dk

eku] i`Foh lrg ls 64 km xgjkbZ ij xq:Roh; Roj.k ds

eku ls de gksrk gSA

dkj.k % iFoh lrg ls 64 km Åij xq:Roh; {kS=k ds

ifjorZu dh nj dk ifjek.k] i`FOkh lrg ls 64 km

xgjkbZ dh rqyuk esa T;knk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

56. dFku : rhu iz{ksI; gok esa vyx&vyx iFkks esa xfr dj

jgs gSaA fdUgh nks iz{ksI;ksa ds chp lkisf{kd osx dk

Å/okZèkj ?kVd le; ds lkFk ugh cnyrk gS] tc rd os

gok esa gSA gok ds ?k"kZ.k ds izHkko dks ux.; ekfu;sA

dkj.k % fdUgh nks iz{ksI;ksa ds chp lkisf{kd Roj.k 'kwU;

gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

57. dFku % ;fn fdlh d.k dk Roj.k ?kV jgk gS rks ;g

lEHko gS fd osx c<+ jgk gksA

dkj.k % Roj.k ] osx esa ifjorZu dh nj gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

58. dFku % ,d vkneh ,d iRFkj dks u pky ls fdlh dks.k

ij iz{ksfir djrk gSA og iqu% ,d iRFkj dks mlh pky

ls bl izdkj iz{ksfir djrk gS fd vc mM~M;u dky

fHkUu gSA nksuksa fLFkfr;ksa esa {kSfrt ijkls leku gks ldrh

gSaA

dkj.k % nks iz{ksI;ksa ds fy, {kSfrt ijkl leku gksrh gS

;fn ,d dks {kSfrt ls dks.k ij iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gS

rFkk nwljs dks {kSfrt ls 90o � ds dks.k ij iz{ksfir

fd;k tkrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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59. Assertion : At both ends of massless spring

force will be same in magnitude always.

Reason : On every massless object force at

every point is same.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

60. Assertion : In the given situation, tension in the

string increases if m is replaced by a heavier

block.

Reason : When m is replaced by a heavier block

acceleration of system reduces.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

59. dFku % nzO;ekughu fLizax ds nksuksa fljks ij fLizax cy

lnSo ifjek.k esa leku gksxkA

dkj.k % izR;sd nzO;ekughu oLrq ds fy, izR;sd fcUnq ij

cy leku gksxkA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

60. dFku % nh xbZ fLFkfr esa ;fn nzO;eku m dks Hkkjh CykWd

ls izfrLFkkfir dj fn;k tk;s rks Mksjh esa ruko c<+rk

gSA

dkj.k % tc nzO;eku m dks Hkkjh CykWd ls izfrLFkkfir

fd;k tkrk gS rks fudk; dk Roj.k ?kVrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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PART�B Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,

P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As=75, Br=80,

Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 40 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. The observed molar mass of mixture is 50.

A3(g) 3A(g)

If the molar mass of A is 25,

Find the % dissociation of A3.

(1) 50% (2) 25%

(3) 33.33% (4) 66.66 %

62. Which of the following graphs represent relation

between initial concentration of reactants and

half-life for third order reaction ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

63. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed

in an empty container at 25oC . What is the

fraction of the total pressure exerted by oxygen :

(1) 23

(2) 1 2733 298

(3) 13

(4) 12

[k.M- I

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 40 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSA izR;sd iz'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa, ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

61. feJ.k dk izsf{kr eksyj nzO;eku 50 gS

A3(g) 3A(g)

;fn A dk eksyj nzO;eku 25 gS rc A3 dk izfr'kr

fo;kstu Kkr dhft,

(1) 50% (2) 25%

(3) 33.33% (4) 66.66 %

62. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vkjs[k vfHkdkjd dh izkjfEHkd

lkUnzrk o r`rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;k ds fy, v)Zvk;q ds

e/; lEcU/k n'kkZrk gS \

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

63. 25oC ij ,d fjDr ik=k esa esFksu vkSj vkWDlhtu ds

leku Hkkj feyk;s x;sA vkWDlhtu }kjk yxk;k x;k nkc

dqy nkc dk fdruk izHkkt gS %&

(1) 23

(2) 1 2733 298

(3) 13

(4) 12

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64. If electronic configuration of B is written as 1s3

2s2. Which principles are violated during filling

electrons?

(1) Aufbau principle

(2) Hund's maximum multiplicity rule

(3) Pauli's exclusion principle

(4) Hund's maximum multiplicity rule and

Pauli's exclusion principle

65. Wax is an example of -

(1) lonic crystal

(2) Covalent crystal

(3) Molecular crystal

(4) Metallic crystal

66. Calculate the molar solubility of zinc

tetrathiocyanato�N�mercurate () if its

KSP = 2.2 × 10�7.

(1) 0.00380 (2) 0.000469

(3) 0.0095 (4) 0.0183

67. A metal having negative reduction potential

when dipped in the solution of its own ions, has

a tendency:

(1) to pass into the solution

(2) to be deposited from the solution

(3) to become electrically positive

(4) to remain neutral

68. Among the following, the coloured compound is :

(1) CuCl

(2) K3 [Cu(CN)4]

(3) CuF2

(4) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4

69. In a simple cubic lattice of anions, the side

length of the unit cell is 2.88 Å. The diameter of

the cation in the body centre is :

(1) 1.934 Å (2) 0.461 Å

(3) 2.108 Å (4) 4.988 Å

64. ;fn B dk bySDVªkWfud foU;kl 1s3 2s2 fy[kk tk;s rks

fuEu esa ls dkSuls fl)kUr dk mYya?ku gqvk gS ?

(1) vkWQckÅ fl)kUr

(2) gq.M dh vf/kdre cgqydrk dk fu;e

(3) ikÅyh dk viorZu fu;e

(4) gq.M dh vf/kdre cgqydrk dk fu;e vkSj

ikÅyh dk viorZu fu;e

65. ekse fuEu dk ,d mnkgj.k gS -

(1) vk;fud fØLVy

(2) lgla;ksth fØLVy

(3) vkf.od fØLVy

(4) /kkfRod fØLVy

66. ftad VªsVkFkk;kslk;usVks�N�eD;wZjsV () dh eksyj

foys;rk dh x.kuk djks ;fn KSP = 2.2 × 10�7 gS \

(1) 0.00380 (2) 0.000469

(3) 0.0095 (4) 0.0183

67. _.kkRed vip;u foHko okys ,d /kkrq dks tc blds

Lo;a ds vk;uksa ds foy;u eas Mqcksrs gS rks bldh

(1) foy;u esa tkus dh izo`fÙk gksrh gSA

(2) foy;u ls fu{ksfir gksus dh izo`fÙk gksrh gSA

(3) oS|qrh; :i ls /kukRed gksus dh izofÙk gksrh gSA

(4) mnklhu gksus dh izo`fÙk gksrh gSA

68. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxdksa esa jaxhu ;kSfxd gS %

(1) CuCl

(2) K3 [Cu(CN)4]

(3) CuF2

(4) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4

69. _.kk;u ds ljy?kuh; tkyd esa ,dd dksf"Bdk dh

vksj yEckbZ 2.88 Å gSA ,dd dksf"Bdk ds dsUnz ij

mifLFkr /kuk;u dk O;kl crkb;s &

(1) 1.934 Å (2) 0.461 Å (3) 2.108 Å (4) 4.988 Å

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70. The correct order of 2M / M

E values with negative

sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe

and Co is

(1) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

(2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

(3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

(4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

71. Nitrogen is obtained by the thermal

decomposition of :

(1) NH4Cl (2) NH4NO3

(3) AgNO3 (4) NH4NO2

72. Heavy water is used in nuclear reactors as :

(1) source of a particles.

(2) slowing down the speed of high energy

neutrons.

(3) transporting heat of the reactor.

(4) heating purposes.

73. The electrons identified by qunatum numbers n

and :

(a) n = 4, = 1

(b) n = 4, = 0

(c) n = 3, = 2

(d) n = 3, = 1

can be placed in the order of increasing energy

as :

(1) c > d < b < a

(2) d < b < c < a

(3) b < d < a c

(4) a < c b < d

74. Which among the following has the maximum

value of dipole moment ?

(1) SO3 (2) NF3

(3) NH3 (4) N(SiH3)3

70. pkj mÙkjksÙkj rRoksa Cr, Mn, Fe vkSj Co ds fy,

2M / ME

eku _.kkRed fpUgksa ds lkFk fdl lgh Øe esa

gksrs gSa \

(1) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co

(2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co

(3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co

(4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co

71. fdlds rkih; fo;kstu ls ukbVªkstu izkIr gksrh gSA

(1) NH4Cl (2) NH4NO3

(3) AgNO3 (4) NH4NO2

72. ukfHkfd; la;a=k esa Hkkjh ty iz;qDr gksrk gS :

(1) d.kksa ds L=kksr ds :i esa

(2) mPp ÅtkZ okys U;wVªkWuksa dh xfr eUn djus ds fy,

(3) la;a=k esa Å"ek ifjogu dkjd ds :i esa

(4) xeZ djus ds m)s'; ds fy,

73. DokaVe la[;kvksa n rFkk ds }kjk bysDVªksuksa dh igpku

dh xbZ gS &

(a) n = 4, = 1

(b) n = 4, = 0

(c) n = 3, = 2

(d) n = 3, = 1

ÅtkZ ds c<+rs gq, Øe esa O;ofLFkr djks\

(1) c > d < b < a

(2) d < b < c < a

(3) b < d < a c

(4) a < c b < d

74. fuEu esa ls fdlds f}èkzqo vk?kw.kZ dk eku mPpre gS \

(1) SO3 (2) NF3

(3) NH3 (4) N(SiH3)3

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75. Calculate the enthalpy change when 50 mL of

0.01 M Ca(OH)2 reacts with 25 mL of 0.01 M

HCl. Given that

neutH of a strong acid and

strong base is 14 kcal/equivalent:

(1) 14.0 cal (2) 35 cal

(3) 10.0 cal (4) 7.5 cal

76. To which of the following gaseous mixtures is

Dalton�s law not applicable?

(1) Ne + He + SO2

(2) NH3 + HCl + HBr

(3) O2 + N2 + CI2

(4) N2 + H2 + O2

77. What is the potential of the cell containing two

hydrogen electrodes as represented below

Pt : H2(g) / H+(10�8) M | | H+ (0.001 M) / 12

H2(g). Pt ;

(1) � 0.295 V (2) � 0.0591 V

(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V

78. Ionisation energy of Xe is comparable to the

ionisation energy of ?

(1) F2 (2) O2

(3) O (4) F

79. Which of the following species does not have -

bonds in its structure ?

(1) (SO3)3 (2) (HPO3)3

(3) SiO2 (4) C3O2

75. tc 0.01 M Ca(OH)2 ds 50 mL dh vfHkfØ;k 0.01 M

HCl ds 25 mL ds lkFk djkbZ tkrh gS rks ,sFksYih

ifjorZu dh x.kuk dhft,A izcy vEy rFkk izcy {kkj

dk H mnklhu 14 kcal/rqY;kad fn;k x;k gS &

(1) 14.0 cal (2) 35 cal

(3) 10.0 cal (4) 7.5 cal

76. fuEu esa ls dkSuls xSlh; feJ.kksa ij MkWYVu fu;e ykxw

ugha gksrk gS \

(1) Ne + He + SO2

(2) NH3 + HCl + HBr

(3) O2 + N2 + CI2

(4) N2 + H2 + O2

77. uhps iznf'kZr fd;s x;s nks gkbMªkstu bySDVªkWM ;qDr lsy

dk foHko D;k gSA

Pt : H2(g) / H+(10�8) M | | H+ (0.001 M) / 12

H2(g). Pt ;

(1) � 0.295 V (2) � 0.0591 V

(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V

78. Xe dh vk;uu ÅtkZ fuEu dh vk;uu ÅtkZ ds lerqY;

gS

(1) F2 (2) O2

(3) O (4) F

79. fuEu esa ls dkSulh iztkfr dh lajpuk esa -ca/k mifLFkr

ugha gS \

(1) (SO3)3 (2) (HPO3)3

(3) SiO2 (4) C3O2

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80. Find out standard enthalpy of formation of

CH3OH(l) from following data.

CH3OH() + 32

O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O().

Hº = � 726 kJ/mole

C(Graphite) + O2 CO2(g) Hº = � 393 kJ/mole

H2(g) + 12

+ O2(g)H2O() Hº = � 286 kJ/mole

(1) � 239 kJ/mole (2) 239 kJ/mole

(3) 47 kJ/mole (4) � 47 kJ/mole

81. X + H2O � Y + CH4

In the above reaction a unknown component X

on hydrolysis gives Y and methane(g) identify X

and Y.

(1) CaC2 , Al)OH)3

(2) Al4C3, Al(OH)3

(3) MgC2, Mg(OH)3

(4) None of the above

82. A quantity of hydrogen gas occupies a volume of

30.0 mL at a certain temperature and pressure.

What volume would half this absolute

temperature if the pressure were one ninth that

of the original gas ?

(1) 270 mL (2) 90 mL

(3) 405 mL (4) 135 mL

83. Choose the incorrect statement among the

following �

(1) The chemistry of different lanthanoids is

very similar

(2) 4 f and 5 f-orbitals are equally shielded so

have similar size

(3) d-block element show irregular and erratic

chemical properties among themselves

(4) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and

no other partially filled orbitals

80. fuEu vk¡dM+ksa ls CH3OH(l) ds lEHkou dh ekud

,UFksYih Kkr dhft;s

CH3OH() + 32

O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O().

Hº = � 726 kJ/mole

C(xszQkbV) + O2 CO2(g) Hº = � 393 kJ/mole

H2(g)+12

+O2(g)H2O () Hº = � 286 kJ/mole

(1) � 239 kJ/mole (2) 239 kJ/mole

(3) 47 kJ/mole (4) � 47 kJ/mole

81. X + H2O � Y + CH4

mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa vKkr va'k X dk tyvi?kVu ij

Y rFkk feFksu (g) nsrk gSA X rFkk Y dks igpkfu, &

(1) CaC2 , Al)OH)3

(2) Al4C3, Al(OH)3

(3) MgC2, Mg(OH)3

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

82. ,d fuf'pr rki rFkk nkc ij 30.0 mL ds vk;ru dks

gkbMªkstu xSl dh ek=kk }kjk ?ksjk tkrk gSA ;fn nkc

izkjafHkd xSl dk 1/9 rFkk blds ije rki dks izkjEHk dk

vk/kk dj fn;k tk, rks vk;ru gksxk &

(1) 270 mL (2) 90 mL

(3) 405 mL (4) 135 mL

83. fuEu esa ls xyr dFku dks NkafV, &

(1) fofHkUu ySUFksukbM dh jlk;u cgqr dqN leku gSA

(2) 4 f rFkk 5 f- d{kdksa dk ifjj{k.k leku gksrk gSA

vr% leku vkdkj gksrk gSA

(3) d-CykWd rRo vius vki ds jklk;fud xq.kksa esa

vlk/kkj.kr;k rFkk vfu;ferrk fn[kkrs gSaA

(4) La rFkk Lu vkaf'kd Hkjk d-d{kd j[krs gSa rFkk

nwljs vkaf'kd Hkjs d{kd ugha j[krs gSaA

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84. The zone refining process of metals is based on

the principle of

(1) excess noble character of the liquid metal

than that of impurity.

(2) lower melting point of the impurity than that

of pure metal

(3) greater solubility of impure metal than that

of impurity

(4) greater solubility of the impurities in the

molten state than in the solid.

85. Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and

0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 was prepared in

2L of solution

1 L of mixture X + excess AgNO3 Y

1 L of mixture X + excess BaCl2 Z

Number of moles Y and Z are

(1) 0.03, 0.02 (2) 0.01, 0.02

(3) 0.02, 0.01 (4) 0.02, 0.02

86. For nth order reaction

dxdt

= Rate = n0k[A]

Graph between log (rate) against log [A0] is of

the type

log [A0]

log [rate]0

P

Q

R

S

Lines P, Q, R, S are for the order

P Q R S

(1) 0 1 2 3

(2) 3 2 1 0

(3) 1 2 3 0

(4) 0 3 2 1

84. /kkrqvksa dk tksu ifjj{k.k izØe fdl fl)kUr ij

vk/kkfjr gS &

(1) nzo /kkrqvksa ds vfØ; y{k.k v'kq)rk dh rqyuk esa

vf/kd gksrs gSaA

(2) v'kq)rk dk xyukad 'kq) /kkrq dh rqyuk esa de

gksrk gSA

(3) v'kq) /kkrq dh foys;rk v'kq)rk dh rqyuk esa

vf/kd gksrh gSA

(4) v'kq)rkvksa dh foys;rk Bksl dh rqyuk esa fi?kyh

voLFkk esa T;knk gksrk gSA

85. feJ.k X = [Co(NH3)5SO4] Br ds 0.02 eksy rFkk

[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 ds 0.02 eksy 2L ds foy;u esa

rS;kj fd;k x;k Fkk

feJ.k X dk 1 L + AgNO3 dk vkf/kD; Y

feJ.k X dk 1 L + BaCl2 dk vkf/kD; Z

Y rFkk Z ds eksyksa dh la[;k gS &

(1) 0.03, 0.02 (2) 0.01, 0.02 (3) 0.02, 0.01 (4) 0.02, 0.02

86. nth dksfV vfHkfØ;k ds fy,

dxdt

= Rate = n0k[A]

log (nj) rFkk log [A0] ds e/; xzkQ fn;k x;k gS

log [A0]

log [rate]0

P

Q

R

S

js[kk P, Q, R, S fdl dksfV ds fy, gS

P Q R S

(1) 0 1 2 3

(2) 3 2 1 0

(3) 1 2 3 0

(4) 0 3 2 1

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87. When two ice cubes are pressed over each

other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the

following forces is responsible to hold them

together ?

(1) vander Waal's forces

(2) Hydrogen bond formation

(3) Covalent attraction

(4) ionic interaction

88. Which of the following compounds has the

highest boiling point ?

(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl

(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl

(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl

(4) (CH3)3CCl

89. Total No. of isomeric structure for aromatic

compound C7H6O2 ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 5

90. Streptomycin is an :

(1) antiseptic

(2) Antifertility drug

(3) tranquilizer

(4) Antibiotic

91. Which of the following will give a yellow

precipitate with iodine and alkali ?

(1) Methyl propanoate

(2) Formamide

(3) Butan-2-ol

(4) Benzophenone

92. Terylene is a condensation polymer of

(1) Ethylene glycol & Benzoic acid

(2) Benzoic acid & Terephthalic acid

(3) Ethylene glycol & Terephthalic acid

(4) Ethylene glycol & salicylic acid

87. tc nks cQZ ds ?ku ,d nwljs ds Åij j[krs gSa rks ;s

la;qDr gksdj ,d ?ku cukrs gSaA fuEu esa ls dkSulk cy

budks vkil esa lkFk tksM+us ds fy, mRrjnk;h gS &

(1) ok.Mjoky cy

(2) gkbMªkstu cU/k fuekZ.k

(3) lgla;kstu vkd"kZ.k

(4) vk;fud vkd"kZ.k

88. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd dk DoFkukad vf/kdre gS \

(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl

(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl

(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl

(4) (CH3)3CCl

89. ,jksesfVd ;kSfxd] C7H6O2 ds fy, leko;oh lajpukvksa

dh dqy la[;k gS ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 5

90. LVªsIVksekblhu gS %

(1) iwfrjks/kh

(2) izfrtuu {kerk vks"k/k

(3) iz'kkUrd

(4) izfrtSfod

91. fuEu esa ls dkSu vk;ksMhu rFkk {kkj ds lkFk ihyk

vo{ksi nsxk ?

(1) esfFky izksisuks,V

(2) QkWesZekbM

(3) C;wVsu-2-vkWy

(4) csUtksfQuksu

92. Vsfjyhu fdldk la?kuu cgqyd gS %

(1) ,fFkyhu XykbZdkWy rFkk csUtksbd vEy

(2) csUtkWbd vEy rFkk VjFkSfyd vEy

(3) ,fFkyhu XykbZdkWy rFkk VjFkSfyd vEy

(4) ,fFkyhu XykbZdkWy rFkk lsfyflfyd vEy

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93. Which polysaccharide has -glycoside linkage ?

(1) Amylose (2) Amylopectin

(3) Cellulose (4) All of these

94. 2 4

4

(i) KCN / H SO

(ii) LiAlH Product is

(1)

OH|

NHCHCHCHCH 2223

(2) CH3 � CH2 � � CH2 � NH � CH3

(3)

OH|

CNCHCHCH 23

(4)

OH|

NH�CHCHCHCH 2223

95. The correct IUPAC name of (C2H5)4C is :

(1) Tetraethyl methane

(2) 2-Ethylpentane

(3) 3,3-Diethylpentane

(4) None of these

96. Which one of the following will not contain

nitrogen when heated with NaNO2 & HCl ?

(1) NH2

(2)

N

CH3

(3)

NH2

(4)

N

H

97. C=O

group is reduced to �CH2 group by

using %

(1) Zn-Hg/HCl (2) H2N�NH2/KOH

(3) HI/P/ (4) All of these

93. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ikWfylsdsjkbM - XykbdkslkbM

fyadst j[krk gS \ (1) ,ekbyksl (2) ,ekbyksisfDVu

(3) lsyqyksl (4) mijksDr lHkh

94. 2 4

4

(i) KCN / H SO

(ii) LiAlH mRikn gS :

(1)

OH|

NHCHCHCHCH 2223

(2) CH3 � CH2 � � CH2 � NH � CH3

(3)

OH|

CNCHCHCH 23

(4)

OH|

NH�CHCHCHCH 2223

95. (C2H5)4C dk lgh IUPAC uke gS %

(1) VsVªk,fFky esFksu

(2) 2-,fFkyisUVsu

(3) 3,3-MkbZ,fFkyisUVsu

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

96. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd NaNO2 o HCl ds lkFk xeZ

djus ij ukbVªkstu ;qDr ugha gksxk ?

(1) NH2

(2)

N

CH3

(3)

NH2

(4)

N

H

97. fuEu esa ls fdlds iz;ksx ij C=O

lewg] �CH2

lewg esa vipf;r gks tkrk gS %

(1) Zn-Hg/HCl (2) H2N�NH2/KOH

(3) HI/P/ (4) mijksDr lHkh

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98. Glucose on oxidation with nitric acid gives

(1) Gluconic acid

(2) Glucaric acid

(3) trihydroxy glutaric acid

(4) glycolic acid and tartaric acid

99. Total cyclic structures of C4H6 will be ?

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 2 (4) 6

100. The absolute configuration of the following

compounds is

(1) 2S, 3R (2) 2S, 3S

(3) 2R, 3S (4) 2R, 3R

SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 20 reasoning type

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

The following questions consist of two

statements one labelled ASSERTION (A) and

the another labelled REASON (R). Select the

correct answers to these questions from the

codes given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct

explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A and R are false

101. Assersion : H2 gas is liberated at anode in

electrolysis of molten NaH

Reason: Sodium hydride contains H� ion.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

98. Xywdksl] ukbfVªd vEy ds lkFk vkWDlhdj.k ij nsrk gS

(1) Xywdksfud vEy

(2) Xywdsfjd vEy

(3) VªkbgkbMªkWfDlXywVsfjd vEy

(4) XykbdkWfyd vEy rFkk VkVZfjd vEy

99. C4H6 dh dqy pfØ; lajpuk,a gksaxh ?

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 2 (4) 6

100. fuEu ;kSfxd dk lgh foU;kl gS %

(1) 2S, 3R (2) 2S, 3S

(3) 2R, 3S (4) 2R, 3R

[k.M- II

dkj.k çdkj

bl [k.M esa 20 dkj.k çdkj ds ç'u gSA çR;sd ç'u

ds 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gS, ftuesa ls flQZ

,d lgh gSA

fuEu iz'uksa esa ls izR;sd esa nks okD; gS] ,d dFku (A)

rFkk nwljk dkj.k (R) uhps fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vk/kkj

ij lgh mÙkj dks igpkfu;sA

(1) A o R nksuksa lR; gS rFkk R A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(2) A o R nksuksa lR; gsa fdarq R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSaA

(3) A lR; gS fdarq R vlR; gSaA

(4) A o R nksuksa vlR; gSA

101. dFku : xfyr NaH dk fo+|qr vi?kVu djus ij H2

xSl ,uksM ij eqDr gksrh gS

dkj.k : lksfM;e gkbMªkbM] H� vk;u j[krk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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102. Assersion : The enthalpy of formation of

gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and under

any pressure is zero.

Reason: The entropy of formation of gaseous

oxygen atom under the standard conditions is

zero.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

103. Asserion : The products of hydrolysis of XeF6

are XeOF4 and XeO3 where the oxidation states

of all the elements remain the same as it was in

the reacting state.

Reason : Hydrolysis of XeF4 represents a redox

reaction.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

104. Assertion : The elementary reaction is single

step reaction and does not possess mechanism.

Reason : For elementary reaction, order of

reaction and molecularity are same.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

105. Assertion : Pure phosphine is non inflammable .

Reason : Impure phosphine is inflammable

owing to the presence of P2H4 or P4 vapours.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

106. Assersion : The free gaseous chromium atom

has six unpaired electrons

Reason: Half filled orbital has greater stability

than fully filled

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102. dFku : fdlh Hkh nkc rFkk 298 K ij xSlh; vkWDlhtu

v.kqvksa ds lEHkou dh ,UFkSYih 'kwU; gksrh gSA

dkj.k : ekud ifjfLFkfr;ksa ds vUrxZr xSlh; vkWDlhtu

ijek.kq ds lEHkou dh ,UVªkWih 'kwU; gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

103. dFku : XeF6 ds ty vi?kVu ij mRikn XeOF4 rFkk

XeO3 curs gS] ;gk¡ lHkh rRoksa dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk

leku gS vkSj lHkh fØ;kdkjh voLFkk esa gSA

dkj.k : XeF4 dk ty vi?kVu jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;k

n'kkZrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

104. dFku : izk:fid vfHkfØ;k,a ,dy pj.k dh vfHkfØ;k gS

rFkk fØ;kfof/k ugha crkrh gSA

dkj.k : izk:fid vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV o vkf.odrk

leku j[krh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

105. dFku : 'kq) QkWLQhu vToyu'khy gksrh gSA

dkj.k : v'kq) QkWLQhu P2H4 ;k P4 ok"i dh mifLFkfr

ds dkj.k Toyu'khy gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

106. dFku : eqDr xSlh; Øksfe;e ijek.kq esa 6 v;qfXer

bysDVªkWu gksrs gSA

dkj.k : v)Z Hkjs d{kd dk LFkkf;Ro] iw.kZ Hkjs d{kd dh

rqyuk esa vf/kd gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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107. Assertion : For the reaction,

A(s) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)

at the given temperature, there will be no effect

of addition of inert gas at constant pressure or at

constant volume.

Reason : For the reaction where n = 0, there is

no effect of inert gas either at constant volume or

at constant pressure.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108. Assertion : One faraday of electric charge

deposits weight equal to the electrochemical

equivalents.

Reason : One faraday deposits one equivalent

of the substance.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

109. Assertion : CFSE of K3[Fe(CN)6] is more than

K4[Fe(CN)6].

Reason : CFSE also depends upon the

oxidation state of metal.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

110. Assertion : [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while

[Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.

Reason : d�d transition is not possible in

[Sc(H2O)6]3+ because no d-electron is present

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

107. dFku % vfHkfØ;k] A(s) + B(g) C(g) + D(g) ds

fy, fn;s x;s rki ij] vfØ; xSl dk fu;r nkc ;k

fu;r vk;ru ij dksbZ izHkko ugha gksrk gSA

dkj.k % tc vfHkfØ;k ds fy, n = 0 gS rks] vfØ; xSl

dk fu;r nkc ;k fu;r vk;ru ij dksbZ izHkko ugha

gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108. dFku % ,d QSjkMs fo|qr vkos'k izokg djus ij fu{ksfir

Hkkj fo|qr jklk;fud rqY;kad ds cjkcj gksxkA

dkj.k % ,d QSjkMs vkos'k ,d rqY;kad inkFkZ dks

fu{ksfir dj ldrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

109. dFku % K3[Fe(CN)6] dk CFSE K4[Fe(CN)6] ls

vf/kd gSA

dkj.k % CFSE /kkrq dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk ij Hkh

fuHkZj djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

110. dFku % [Ti(H2O)6]3+ jaxhu gksrk gS tcfd

[Sc(H2O)6]3+

jaxghu gksrk gSA

dkj.k % [Sc(H2O)6]3+ esa d�d laØe.k laHko ugha gksrk

D;ksafd d-bysDVªkWu gh vuqifLFkr gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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111. Assertion : Benzaldehyde is more reactive than

ethanol towards nuclephilic attack.

Reason : The overall effect of �I and + R effect

of phenyl group decreases the electron density

on the carbon atom of C=O group .

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

112. Assertion : Critical temperature of CO2 is 304 K,

it cannot be liquiefied above 304 K.

Reason : At a certain temperature for a fix

amount of idea gas, volume 1

pressure

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

113. Assertion : At the end of electrolysis using

platinum electrodes, an aqueous solution of

CuSO4 turns colourless.

Reason : During the electrolysis CuSO4

changes to Cu(OH)2 .

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

114. Assertion : Salicylic acid may be prepared from

sodium phenoxide by Kolbe-Schmidt reaction

using carbon dioxide.

Reason : Kolbe-Schmidt reaction is a

nucleophilic substitution reaction.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. Assertion : Generally ketones do not give

Tollen's test but fructose gives positive Tollen's

test.

Reason : Fructose is an aldohexose and has

aldehydic group.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

111. dFku % csUtsfYMgkbM] ,FksukWy dh rqyuk esa ukfHkdLusgh

vkØe.k ds fy, vf/kd fØ;k'khy gksrk gSA

dkj.k % csUtsfYMgkbM esa

C=O lewg ds dkcZu

ijek.kq ij bysDVªkWu ?kuRo Qsfuy lewg ds �I rFkk + R

izHkko ds dkj.k de gks tkrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

112. dFku % CO2 dk Økafrd rki 304 K gS] ;s 304 K ls

Åij nzohd`r ugha gks ldrh gSA

dkj.k % ,d fuf'pr rki ij fu;r ek=kk dh vkn'kZ xSl

dk vk;ru 1

nkc

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

113. dFku % CuSO4 dk tyh; foy;u IysfVue bysDVªksM

dk mi;ksx djds fo|qr vi?kVu djus ij vUr esa

jaxghu gks tkrk gSA

dkj.k % fo|qr vi?kVu ds nkSjku CuSO4 , Cu(OH)2

esa cny tkrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

114. dFku : lsfyflfyd vEy dks dksYcsfLeV vfHkfØ;k }kjk

dkcZuMkbvkWDlkbM ds mi;ksx ls lksfM;e fQukWDlkbM

}kjk cuk;k tk ldrk gSA

dkj.k : dksYcsfLeV vfHkfØ;k ,d ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu

vfHkfØ;k gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. dFku : lkekU;r% dhVksu VkWysu ijh{k.k ugha nsrs ysfdu

ÝDVksl VkWyu ds lkFk /kukRed ijh{k.k nsrk gSA

dkj.k : ÝDVksl ,d ,YMksgsDlksl gS ,oa ,fYMgkbM

lewg mifLFkr gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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116. Assertion : Halogens are deactivating but o/p-

directing in electrophilic aromatic substitution.

Reason : �I effect of halogens deactivate the

benzene ring while +M effect decides the

orientation of incoming electrophile.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

117. Assertion : Artificial sweeteners are added to

the food to control the intake of calories.

Reason : Most of the artificial sweeteners are

inert and do not metabolise in the body.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

118. Assertion : Aldehydes readily forms acetal

when treated with glycol in presence of dry HCl.

Reason : Acetals are stable towards

Nucleophiles and base hence used to protect �

CHO group.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. Assertion : Chlorobenzene does not reacts with

dil. NaOH even on heating.

Reason : C�Cl bond in chlorobenzene is

stronger because of partial double bond

character and hybridisation of carbon atom is

sp2.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. Assertion : 2-butenal lacks enolisable H-atom,

to carbonyl group, still it has sufficient acidic

character.

Reason : The conjugate base of 2-butenal is

stabilised by resonance.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

116. dFku : gsykstu folfØ;dkjh gksrs gq, Hkh ,sjksesfVd

bysDVªkWuLusgh izfrLFkkiu esa o/p-funsZ'kh gksrs gSa

dkj.k : gSykstu dk �I izHkko csUthu oy; dh lfØ;rk

de djrk gS tcfd +M izHkko vkus okys bysDVªkWuLusgh

dh fLFkfr lqfuf'pr djrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

117. dFku : dSyksjh ds fu;a=k.k ds fy, [kk| inkFkks± esa

Ñf=ke e/kqjd feyk, tkrs gSaA

dkj.k : vf/kdrj e/kqjd ‘kjhj esa mikipf;r ugha gksrsA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

118. dFku : 'kq"d HCI dh mifLFkfr esa ,fYMgkbM] Xykbdksy

ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k dj 'kh?kzrk ls ,lhVsy cukrs gSA

dkj.k : ,lhVsy ukfHkdLusgh rFkk {kkj ds izfr LFkk;h gksrs gSaa

vr% �CHO lewg ds laj{k.k ds fy, iz;qDr gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. dFku : Dyksjkscsathu] xeZ djus ij Hkh ruq NaOH ds

lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha djrk gSA

dkj.k : Dyksjkscsathu esa C�Cl ca/k izcy ca/k gksrk gS

D;ksafd blesa vkaf'kd f}ca/k ds xq.k gksrs gS] rFkk dkcZu

ijek.kq sp2 ladfjr gksrk gSaA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

120. dFku % 2-C;wVhusy esa bZukWyhdj.k ;ksX; H-ijek.kq ugha

gksrk tks dkcksZfuy lewg ls fLFkfr ij gS] fQj Hkh ;g

i;kZIr vEyh; y{k.k j[krk gSA

dkj.k % 2-C;wVhusy dk la;qXeh {kkj vuqukn }kjk LFkk;h

gksrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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SECTION-I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 40 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY

ONE is correct.

121. With respect to following taxonomic aids, how

many are associated with preservation of plants

[A] and animals [B]?

(i) Zoological parks, (ii) Museum, (iii) Botanical

gardens, (iv) Manuals, (v) Herbaria, (vi) Flora

(1) A - (ii), (iii), (v); B - (i), (ii)

(2) A - (ii); (v); B - (ii), (iv)

(3) A - (ii), (v); B - (ii)

(4) A - (v); B - (i), (ii)

122. "Slime Moulds A

[Bl C

Fruiting

bodies".

In the above mentioned incomplete statement,

labelling represents

(1) A- Aggregation, B-Plasmodium,

C- Suitable conditions

(2) A- Suitable conditions, B-Plasmodium,

C- Aggregation

(3) A- Aggregation, B- Plasmodium,

C- Differentiation

(4) A- Suitable conditions,

B- Pseudoplasmodium, C-Aggregation

123. The unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms

with loose tissue level organisation shows

(i) Diversity in habitat

(ii) Diversity in morphology of mycelium

(ii) NAG polymer in cell wall

(iv) Degeneration of sex organs from lower to

higher group

(v) Optimum growth in cool and humid places.

(1) All are correct

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) & (v) are correct

(3) (iii) & (v) are incorrect

(4) Only (v) is incorrect

[k.M-I

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 40 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

121. fuEufyf[kr ofxZdh; lkefxz;kas esa ls ikniksa [A] vkSj

tarqvks [B] ds ifjj{k.k ls lEcaf/kr fdruh gS?

(i) tarq miou, (ii) laxzgky;, (iii) okuLifrd m|ku,

(iv) esuqvYl, (v) ikniky;, (vi) iknitkr

(1) A - (ii), (iii), (v); B - (i), (ii)

(2) A - (ii); (v); B - (ii), (iv)

(3) A - (ii), (v); B - (ii)

(4) A - (v); B - (i), (ii)

122. "voiad dod A

[Bl C

Qyu dk;".

Åij fn;s x;s viw.kZ dFku esa ukekadu iznf'kZr djrs

gSA

(1) A-lewgu, B-IykTeksfM;e,

C-mi;qDr ifjfLFkfr;k¡

(2) A-mi;qDr ifjfLFkfr;k¡, B-IykTeksfM;e,

C-lewgu

(3) A-lewgu, B-L;wM+ksykTeksfM;e, C-foHksnu

(4) A-mi;qDr ifjfLFkfr;k¡, B-L;wMksIykTeksfM;e,

C-lewgu

123. f'kfFky Ård Lrjh; laxBu ;qDr fo"keiks"kh thoksa dk

fof'k"V txr n'kkZrk gSA

(i) vkokl esa fofo/krk

(ii) dod tky dh vkdkfjdh esa fofo/krk

(ii) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk esa NAG cgqyd

(iv) fuEurj ls mPprj lewg rd ySafxd vaxks dk

viâkl

(v) B.Ms vkSj ue LFkkuksa ij b"Vre o`f)

(1) lHkh lgh gSA

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) & (v) lgh gSA

(3) (iii) & (v) xyr gSA

(4) dsoy (v) xyr gSA

PART- C

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124. Find out the correct sequence (w.r.t. size of

male gametophyte in decreasing manner)

(1) Zea mays, Eucalyptus, Pteris

(2) Selaginella; Pinus, Mangifera

(3) Marchantia, Triticum, Spirogyra

(4) Dryopteris, Sphagnum, Ulothrix

125. In which of the following set of plants

development of 7 celled and 8 nucleated

gametophyte is preceded

by reduction division as well as mitosis?

(1) Pteris, Adiantum

(2) Pisum, Eucalyptus

(3) Chlamydomonas, Dryopteris

(4) Azolla, Ficus

126. Branch of taxonomy in which DNA sequences,

alkaloids, crystals may help in knowing

relationships among organisms, is

(1) Karyotaxonomy

(2) Chemotaxonomy

(3) Cytotaxonomy

(4) Morphotaxonomy

127. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. ploidy level in Zea

mays seed)

(1) Radicle, Tigellum

(2) Scutellum, Coleorhiza

(3) Coleoptile, Plumule

(4) Aleurone layer, Endosperm

128. The correct floral formula of Brassica

campestris is

(1) +O K2+2 CX4 A2+4 G(2)

(2) +O KX4 C2+2 A2+4 G(2)

(3) +O K2+2 CX4 A2+2 G(2)

(4) +O K2+2 CX4 A2+4 2�G

124. lgh Øe dk p;u dhft;s (uj ;qXedksn~fHkn ds vkdkj

ds ?kVrs gq, Øe ds lanHkZ esa)

(1) ftvk est, ;wdsfyIVl, Vsfjl

(2) flySftusyk; ikbul, eSathQsjk

(3) ekdsZfU'k;k, fVªfVde, Likbjksxkbjk

(4) Mªk;ksIVsfjl, LQsXul, ;wyksfFkzDl

125. ikniksa ds fuEu eas ls dkSuls leqPp; esa 7 dksf'kdh;

rFkk 8 dsUædh; ;qXedksn~fHkn ds ifjo/kZu dk izkjEHk

U;wudkjh foHkktu ds lkFk�lkFk lelw=kh foHkktu ls

gksrk gS?

(1) Vsfjl, ,fM,UVe

(2) ikble, ;wdsfyIVl

(3) DysekbMkseksukl, Mªk;ksIVsfjl

(4) ,tksyk, Qkbdl

126. ofxZdh dh og 'kk[kk ftlesa DNA vuqØe, ,YdsyksbM~l

o fØLVy thoksa ds chp laca/kksa dks tkuus esa lgk;d

gks ldrs gSa] dkSulh gSA

(1) dsUædofxZdh

(2) jlk;u-ofxZdh

(3) dksf'kdkofxZdh

(4) vkdkj-ofxZdh

127. fo"ke fodYi dk p;u dhft;s (ftvk estk ds cht esa

lw=kxqf.krk Lrj ds lanHkZ esa)

(1) ewykadqj, y?kqLraHk

(2) LdqVsye, ewykaadqjpksy

(3) izkadqjpksy, izkadqj

(4) ,Y;wjksu ijr, Hkzw.kiks"k

128. czsfldk dEisfLVªl dk lgh iq"i lw=k gSA

(1) +O K2+2 CX4 A2+4 G(2)

(2) +O KX4 C2+2 A2+4 G(2)

(3) +O K2+2 CX4 A2+2 G(2)

(4) +O K2+2 CX4 A2+4 2�G

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129. How many of the following plants have

adhesion and cohesion of stamens

respectively?

Pisum sativum, Mustard, China rose, Brinjal,

Citrus, Sunflower

(1) Four, Three

(2) Four, Two

(3) Two, Three

(4) Three, Four

130. The correct sequence of events in cell cycle is.

(a) DNA replication

(b) Tubulin protein synthesis

(c) Duplication of most of the cell organelles

(d) Division of chromosome

(e) Division of cytoplasm

(1) (b) (a) (c) (e) (d)

(2) (c) (b) (a) (d) (e)

(3) (a) (c) (b) (d) (e)

(4) (c) (a) (b) (d) (e)

131. Non-membranous smallest cell organelle

(1) Can be observed by light microscope under

low magnification

(2) Made up of more than three subunits

(3) Double stranded circular DNA

(4) Single stranded RNA and proteins

132. Identify the correct match w.r,t. wood characters

Wood Feature

(1) Heart wood Peripheral non-

functional wood

(2) Sap wood Light coloured wood

involved in conduction of

water and minerals

(3) Early wood Small sized vessels

in xlyem elements

(4) Auturmn

wood

Cambium is more active

129. fuEu eas ls fdrus ikni iqadsljksa Øe'k% vklatu o

lalatu ;qDr gksrs gS?

ikble lVkboe, ljlksau, xqMgy, cSaxu, flVªl, lw;Zeq[kh

(1) pkj, rhu

(2) pkj, nks

(3) nks, rhu

(4) rhu, pkj

130. dksf'kdk pØ esa gksus okyh ?kVukvksa dk lgh Øe gSA

(a) DNA izfrÑfrdj.k

(b) V~;wcqfyu izksVhu la'ys"k.k

(c) vf/kdka'k dksf'kdkaxksa dk f}xq.ku

(d) xq.klw=k dk foHkktu

(e) dksf'kdkæO; dk foHkktu

(1) (b) (a) (c) (e) (d)

(2) (c) (b) (a) (d) (e)

(3) (a) (c) (b) (d) (e)

(4) (c) (a) (b) (d) (e)

131. f>Yyh foghu lw{ere dksf'kdkax

(1) fuEu vko/kZu ds varxZr izdk'k lw{en'khZ ds }kjk

voyksfdr fd;k tk ldrk gSA

(2) rhu ls vf/kd mibdkbZ;ksa ls feydj cuk gksrk gSA

(3) f}jTtqdh o`Ùkkdkj DNA ;qDr gksrk gSA

(4) ,djTtqdh RNA izksVhuksa ;qDr gksrk gS

132. dk"B ds y{k.kksa ds lanHkZ eas lgh feyku dk p;u

dhft;sa

dk"B fo'ks"krk

(1) vUr% dk"B ifj/kh; vfØ;kRed dk"B

(2) jl dk"B ty o [kfutksa ds laogu esa

Hkkx ysus okyh gYds jax dh

dk"B

(3) vxz dk"B tkbye rRoksa es NksVs

vkdkj dh okfgdk,¡

(4) 'kjn dk"B ,/kk vf/kd lfØ; gksrh gSA

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133. Which of the following statements w.r.t.

photosynthesis is are correct?

(a) RUBP is primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants

(b) Three carbons are present in the primary

CO2 acceptor in C3 plants

(e) Temperature optimum for C3 plants is 20 -

25°C

(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)

(3) Only (c) (4) Only (b)

134. During fermentation

(1) The oxidation of NADH to NAD+ is faster

(2) Glucose is completely degraded to CO2

and H2O

(3) Pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and

ethanol by yeast

(4) The net gain of eight molecules of ATP for

each molecule of fructose

135. Choose the Incorrect match w.r.t. activator

element.

(1) Fe - Catalase

(2) MO - Nitrogenase

(3) Zn2+ - Pyruvate decarboxylase

(4) Mg2+ - RUBP carboxylase

136. The outbreeding device which prevents both

autogamy and geitonogamy is

(1) Dioecy (2) Monoecy

(3) Herkogamy (4) Heterostyly

137. In flowering plants, after fertilistion

(1) The ovarywall develops into pericarp and

the ovules turn into seeds

(2) The spals remain attached to the fruit in

only few genera of solanaceae

(3) Only petals and stamens wither and fall

(4) The pistil does not remain attached to the

plant

133. izdk'kla'ys"k.k ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk / dkSuls

dFku lgh gS / gSaA

(a) C4 ikniksa esa RUBP izkFkfed CO2 xzkgh gksrk gSA

(b) C3 ikniksa eas izkFkfed CO2 xzkgh esa rhu dkcZu

mifLFkr gksrs gSA

(e) C3 ikniksa ds fy, vuqdwyre rkieku 20 - 25°C

gksrk gS

(1) (a) o (b) (2) (b) o (c)

(3) dsoy (c) (4) dsoy (b)

134. fd.Oku ds nkSjku

(1) NADH dk NAD+ esa vkWDlhdj.k rhozrk ls gksrk gS

(2) Xywdkst iw.kZ :i ls CO2 o H2O esa vi?kfVr gks

tkrk gS

(3) ik;:fod vEy ;hLV ds }kjk CO2 o ,Fksyksu es

:ikarfjr gks tkrk gSA

(4) ÝDVkst ds izR;sd v.kq ds fy, ATP ds vkB

v.kqvksa dh 'kq) izkfIr gksrh gSA

135. lfØ;d rRo d lanHkZ eas xyr feyku dk p;u

dhft;s

(1) Fe - dsVkyst

(2) MO - ukbVªksftust

(3) Zn2+ - ik:osV MhdkcksZfDlyst

(4) Mg2+ - RUBP dkcksZfDlyst

136. og ckg~;iztuu ;qfDr tks Lofu"kspu rFkk ltkriq"ih

ijkx.k nksuksa dks jksdrh gS] dkSulh gSA

(1) i`Fkdfyafxrk (2) mHk;fyafxrk

(3) Lovkfu"ksP; mHk;fyafxrk (4) fo"ke ofrZdkRo

137. iq"ih; ikniksa esa fu"kspu ds i'pkr~

(1) v.Mk'k; fHkfÙk QyfHkfÙk esa ifjof/kZr gks tkrh gS

rFkk chtk.M chtksa esa ifjofrZr gks tkrs gSA

(2) ckg~;ny dsoy lksysuslh ds dqN oa'kksa esa gh Qy

ls layXu cus jgrs gSA

(3) dsoy ny rFkk iaqdslj eq>kZrs gSa rFkk fxj tkrs gS

(4) L=khdslj ikni ls layXu cuk ugha jgrk gSA

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138. Water hyacinth is called terror of Bengal

because

(1) It drains oxygen flrom water and causes

death of fishes

(2) It grows at a phenomenal rate in running

water reservoirs

(3) It is an exotic weed

(4) Introduced in Bengal for its beautiful

flowers and shape of leaves

139. Wobble hypothesis explains

(1) Degeneracy of genetic code

(2) Transcription

(3) Gene regulation in eukaryotes

(4) Reverse transcription

140. Match the columns

Column-l Column-ll

a. Bioinformatics (i) DNA polymorphism

b. BAC (ii) Coding and non

coding DNA

c. Satellite DNA (iii) Data storage,

retrieval and analysis

d. Sequence Annotation (iv) Vectors of HGP

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

141. Which of the following is respiratory organ of

scorpion?

(1) Gills (2) Lungs

(3) Ctenidia (4) Book lungs

142. Camouflage of Chameleon is associated with

(1) Chromoplast

(2) Chromosome

(3) Chromatophore

(4) Chromomere

138. ty gk;flUFk caxky dh foHkhf"kdk dgykrk gS] D;ksafd

(1) ;g ty ls vkWDlhtu dks vo'kksf"kr dj ysrk gS]

ftlls eNfy;k¡ ej tkrh gSA

(2) ;g cgrs gq, tyk'k;kas eas ,d vlk/kkj.k nj ls

o`f) djrk gS

(3) ;g ,d fo'ks"kr [kjirokj gSA

(4) bls blds lqUnj iq"iksa rFkk ifÙk;ksa rFkk ifÙk;ksa ds

vkdkj ds fy, caxky esa yk;k x;k Fkk

139. okWcy vo/kkj.kk O;k[;k djrh gSA

(1) vkuqoaf'kd dwV dh viâkflrk dh

(2) vuqys[ku dh

(3) ;wdsfj;ksV~l essa thu fu;eu dh

(4) O;qRØe vuqys[ku dh

140. dkWyeksa dk feyku dhft;s

dkWye-l dkWye-ll

a. tSolwpukfoKku (i) DNA cgq:irk

b. BAC (ii) dkWfMax rFkk ukWu-

dkWfMax DNA

c. vuq"kaxh DNA (iii) vk¡dM+ksa dk laxzg.k,

lq/kkj rFkk fo'ys"k.k

d. vuqØe vadu (iv) HGP ds okgd

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

141. fuEufyf[kr es ls dkSu lk fcPNw dk 'oLku vax gS?

(1) Dykse (2) QqQq¶l (QsQM+k)

(3) VhfufM;k (4) iqLrd QqQqil

142. dSfefyvkWu dk Nn~ekoj.k lEko) gSA

(1) ØkseksIykLV ls

(2) Øksekstkse (xq.klw=k) ls

(3) ØkseSVksQksj ls

(4) Økseksfe;lZ ls

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143. Hydra recognises its prey by

(1) Chemical stimulus of prey

(2) Nematocyst

(3) Mechanical stimulus of prey

(4) Some special organs

144. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of

cells and their secretion is correctly matched?

(1) Oxyntic cells, a secretion with pH between

2.0 and 3.0

(2) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans,

secretion that decreases blood sugar level

(3) Kupffer cells; a digestive enzyme that

hydrolyses nucleic acids

(4) Sebaceous glands; a secretion that

evaporates for cooling

145. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter,

red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to

(1) Vitamin toxicity

(2) Kidney stones

(3) Hypercholesterolemia

(4) Urine laden with ketone bodies

146. Which one of the following is a matching pair?

(1) Lubb-sharp closure of AV valves at the

beginning of ventricular systole

(2) Dup-sudden opening of semilunar valves at

the beginning of ventricular diastole

(3) Pulsation of the radial artery - valves in the

blood vessels

(4) Initiation of the heart beat - Purkinje fibres

147. During muscular contraction which of the

following events occur?

i. H-zone eliminated

ii. A band widens

iii. I band reduces in width

iv. Width of A band is unaffected

v. M-line & Z-line come closer

(1) i, iii, iv and v (2) Only i, ii and v

(3) Only ii, iv and v (4) Only i, ii and iii

143. gkbMªk vius Hkkstu (f'kdkj) dh igpku djrk gSA

(1) f'kdkj ds jlk;fud m|hiu }kjk

(2) fuesVksflLV }kjk

(3) f'kdkj ds ;kaf=kd m|hiu }kjk

(4) dqN fof'k"V vaxks }kjk

144. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dksf'kdkvksa dh izdkj ,oa muds lzko

dk dkSu lk lqesfyr tksM+k lgh gS?

(1) vkWfDlfUVd dksf'kdk,a 2.0 ls 3.0 pH ds chp dk

lzko gksrk gSA

(2) ySaxjgSal }hi dh vYQk dksf'kdk,a ,d inkFkZ dk lzko

djrh gS ftlls :f/kj 'kdZjk dk Lrj de gksrk gSA

(3) dqIQj dksf'kdk,a ,d ikpd ,Utkbe dk lzko djrh

gS ftlls U;wfDyd vEy dk ty vi?kVu gksrk gSA

(4) flosfl;l xzfUFk ,d inkFkZ dk lzko djrh gS tks

'khryu ds fy, ok"ihÑr gksrh gSA

145. vkgkj esa eD[ku dh izpwjrk, yky xksLr ,oa v.Ms dk

fujUrj miHkksx yEcs le; rd djus ls fdldh

lEHkkouk,a c<+ tkrh gSA

(1) foVkfeu fo"kkDrrk

(2) o`Dd iFkjh

(3) gkbij dksysLVªksfyfe;k

(4) ew=k es dhVksudk; dh mifLFkfr

146. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSulk tksM+k lgh lqesfyr gS?

(1) yc�fuy;h izdqapu ds izkjEHk gksus ij AV dikV

dk rsth ls cUn gksuk

(2) Mc�fuy;h Mk;LVksy ds izkjEHk gksus ij

v/kZpUækdkj dikV dk vpkud [kqyuk

(3) vjh; /keuh ds iYlslu-:f/kj okfgfu;ksa esa dikV gksuk

(4) ân Lianu dk vkjEHk�iqjfdats js'ks

147. is'kh; ladqpu ds nkSjku fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh

?kVuk,a ik;h tkrh gS

i. H-{ks=k dk vn`'; gks tkuk

ii. A cS.M dh pkSM+kbZ esa o`f) gksuk

iii. I cS.M dh pkSM+kbZ esa deh gksuk

iv. A cS.M dh pkSM+kbZ vizHkkfor jguk

v. M- js[kk rFkk Z- js[kk dk lfUudV gksuk

(1) i, iii, iv rFkk v (2) dsoy i, ii rFkk v

(3) dsoy ii, iv rFkk v (4) dsoy i, ii rFkk iii

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148. Identify the correct statement

(1) In amniotes last nerve is spinal accessory

(2) In non-amniotes last nerve is vagus

(3) Optic is shortest nerve

(4) Olfactory nerves has mixed fibres

149. Treatment with 'Alloxan' destroys

(1) STH cells

(2) -cells of islets of Langerhans

(3) Cells of Sertoli

(4) Cells of Leydig

150. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are

(1) Found in human ovaries

(2) A source of hormones

(3) Characterized by a yellow colour

(4) Contributory in maintaining pregnancy

151. Mark the sexually transmitted diseases caused

by virus

(1) Genital warts (2) Genital herpes

(3) Syphillis (4) Both (1) and (2)

152. Genetic drift operates most effectively in

(1) Island population (2) Smaller population

(3) Larger population (4) Mendelian population

153. The early stage human embryo distinctly

posesses

(1) Gills

(2) Gill slits

(3) External ear (pinna)

(4) Eye brows

154. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

(1) Is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus I

pneumoniae

(2) Is caused by a variant of the common cold

virus (corona virus)

(3) Is an acute form of asthma

(4) Affects non-vegetarians much faster than

the vegetarins

148. lgh dFku dks igpkfu,

(1) ,fEu;ksV esa ik;h tkus okyh vfUre raf=kdk

es:n.M dh lgk;d raf=kdk gksrh gSA

(2) xSj -,fEu;ksV esa ik;h tkus okyh vafre raf=kdk

csxl gksrh gSA

(3) n`d raf=kdk lcls NksVh raf=kdk gksrh gSA

(4) ?kzk.k raf=kdkvksa es fefJr js'ks gkssrs gS

149. ',ykstSu' 'Alloxan' ls mipkj djus ij Uk"V gksrh gS

(1) STH dksf'kdk

(2) ySxaj gSl }hi dh -chVk dksf'kdk,a

(3) lVksZyh dh dksf'kdk,a

(4) fyfMx dksf'kdk

150. nksuksa ihr-fi.M rFkk eSD;wyk yqfV;k gksrs gS

(1) ekuo v.Mk'k; esa ik;s tkrs gSA

(2) gkeksZu ds L=kksr gSA

(3) ihr-jax ls fo'ksf"kr gS

(4) lxHkZrk dks cuk;s j[kus esa lagk;d gksrs gSA

151. fo"kk.kq }kjk gksus okys ;kSu-lapkfjr jksx dks fpfUgr

djs

(1) ySafxd eLls (2) tufud ifjliZ

(3) flQkfyl (4) nksuksa (1) o (2)

152. vuqokaf'kd fopyu lcls vf/kd izHkkoh :Ik ls ykxw

gksrk gS dsoy

(1) }hi dh lef"V esa (2) NksVh lef"V esa

(3) cM+h lef"V esa (4) es.My dh lef"V esa

153. ekuo-Hkzw.k dh izkjfEHkd voLFkk esa Li"V ls :i

fn[kyk;h iM+us okyk izØe gSA

(1) Dykse

(2) Dykse njkj

(3) ckâ; d.kZ (fiUuk)

(4) HkkSag

154. lsfo;j ,D;wV fjfLisjVjh flMªkse

(1) ,d U;qeksdksdl U;qeksuh ds ,d foHksn ds dkj.k

gksrk gSA

(2) ,d oSdfYid lkekU; tqdke fo"kk.kq (dksjksuk

okbjl) ds }kjk gksrk gSA

(3) nek dk ,d Hk;adj :i gksrk gSA

(4) ;g 'kkdkgkfj;ksa dh vis{kk eka'kkgkfj;ksa es acgqr

rst xfr ls izHkko Mkyrk gSA

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155. Each restriction endonuclease functions by

inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. It

cleaves

(1) Only the master strand to produce sticky

end

(2) Sense strand of DNA to produce sticky

ends

(3) Each of the two strands of the double helix

at specific points in their sugar phosphate

backbones

(4) Messenger RNA to remove exons

156. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the

news. The prefix Bt means

(1) "Barium-treated" cotton seeds

(2) "Biggerthread" variety of cotton with better

tensile strength

(3) Produced by "biotechnology" using

restriction enzymes and ligases

(4) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus

thuringiensis

157. Given below is a table comparing the effects of

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous

system for four feature (1-4). Which one feature

is correctly described?

Feature Sympathetic

nervous

system

Parasympathatic

nervous system

(1) Salivary

gland

Stimulates

secretoin

Inhibits

secretion

(2) Pupil

of the eye

Dilate Constricts

(3) Heart rate Decreases Increases

(4) Intestinal

peristalsis

Stimulates Inhibits

155. izR;sd izfrca/ku ,sMksU;wfDy,st DNA vuqØe dh yEckbZ

ds fujh{k.k ds ckn dk;Z djrk gSA

(1) dsoy fpifpik flajk mRiUu djus okys ekLVj

yfM+;ksa dks dkVrk gSA

(2) fpifpik fljk mRiUu djus okyh DNA dh izR;sd

yM+h dks dkVrk gSA

(3) f}dqMfyuh dh nksuksa yfM+;ksa dks 'kdZjk ÝkWLQsV

vk/kkj LRkEHkksa es fof'k"V dsUækas ij dkVrk gSA

(4) ,DlkWu dks vyx djus okys nwr RNA dks dkVrk gS

156. Bt dikl dh [ksrh cgqr pfpZr gks x;h gSA Bt dk

izeq[k lk/ku gSA

(1) "csfj;e ls mipkfjr " dikl dk cht

(2) "vPNh rU;rk okyh etcwr cMs /kkxs iznku djus

okyh dikl dh fdLesa

(3) izfrca/ku ,Utkbe rFkk ykbsxt dk iz;ksx djds

tSo izkS|ksfxdh }kjk mRiUu lk/ku

(4) cSlhyl Fkqjhuft,afll esa ,MksVkWfDlu thu feyuk

157. vuqdaEih rFkk ijkuqdaEih raf=kdk ds rqyukRed izHkko

dh fo'ks"krk (1-4) rd fuEufyf[kr lkj.kh esa nh x;h

gSA dkSu lh fo'ks"krk lgh :i ls of.kZr gS\

vkÑfr vuqdaEihraf=kdk

ra=k

ijkuqdaEih

raf=kdk ra=k

(1) ykj xzfUFk

lzko dks

m|hfir

djuk

lzko dks

fujksf/kr

(lanfer)

djuk

(2) us=k dh

iqryh

QSykuk

fldqM+uk

(3) ân nj ?kVuk c<+uk

(4) vka=kh;

Øekuqdapu

m|hfir djuk fujksf/kr

djuk

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158. Conn's disease is caused by the over-secretion of

(1) Aldosterone (2) ADH

(3) ACTH (4) None of these

159. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is a

case exhibiting

(1) Retrogressive evolution

(2) Mutation

(3) Atavism

(4) Metamorphosis

160. At a particular locus, frequency of allele is 0.6

and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the

frequency of heterozygotes in a randomly

mating population of equilibrium?

(1) 0.16 (2) 0.36

(3) 0.48 (4) 0.24

SECTION-II

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY

ONE is correct.

The following questions consist of two

statements one labelled ASSERTION (A) and

the another labelled REASON (R). Select the

correct answers to these questions from the

codes given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the

correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not

correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A and R are false

161. Assertion : Double fertilization is unique event

occurs in angiosperms.

Reason : Zygote in them develops into embryo

and PEN develops into endosperm which

provides nourishment to the developing embryo.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

158. fdlds vfrlzko gksus ls dksal jksx gksrk gSA

(1) ,YMksLVhjksu (2) ADH

(3) ACTH (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

159. ,d cPpk ,d NksVh iw¡N ds lkFk iSnk gqvk gSA ;g ,d

?kVuk dk izn'kZu gSA

(1) fjVªksxzsflo fodkl

(2) mRifjoZru

(3) iwoZtkuq:irk

(4) dk;kUrj.k

160. ,d fo'ks"k LFky tgk¡ A dh vko`fRo 0.6 vkSj 'a' dh

vkofRr 0.4. gSA lkE;rk dh ;kn~fPNd :i ls laxe

djus okyh ,d lef"V esa fo"ke ;qXeutu dh vkofRr

D;k gksxh

(1) 0.16 (2) 0.36 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.24

[k.M-II

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

fuEu iz'uksa esa ls izR;sd esa nks okD; gS] ,d dFku (A)

rFkk nwljk dkj.k (R) uhps fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vk/kkj

ij lgh mÙkj dks igpkfu;sA

(1) A o R nksuksa lR; gS rFkk R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(2) A o R nksuksa lR; gsa fdarq R, A dk lgh

Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSaA

(3) A lR; gS fdarq R vlR; gSaA

(4) A o R nksuksa vlR; gSA

161. dFku : f}fu"kspu ,aft;ksLieZ eas ik;k tkus okyk

vf}rh; y{k.k gSA

dkj.k : buesa tkbxksV Hkwz.k esa fodflr gks tkrk gS

rFkk PEN ¼izk-Hkwz-ds-½ Hkzw.kiks"k esa fodflr gks tkrk gS

tks fodkl'khy Hkwz.k dks iks"k.k iznku djrk gSA

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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162. Assertion : Mass or bulk flow system is differ

from diffusion.

Reason : In mass or bulk flow, different

substances move independently depending on

their concentration gradients.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

163. Assertion : Biodiversity conservation may be

insitu as well as exsitu.

Reason : In insitu and exsitu conservation, the

endangered species are protected in their

natural habitat.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

164. Assertion : Eutrophication is the natural aging

of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.

Reason : During eutrophication nutrients such

as nitrogen and phosphorus increased in lake.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

165. Assertion : Dominance is not an autonomous

feature of a gene or its product.

Reason : It depends on gene product or on the

particular phenotype that we choose to examine

when more than one phenotype is influenced by

the same gene.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

166. Assertion : In photosynthesis there is a

difference in number of ATP and NADPH used

in dark reaction.

Reason : Cyclic photophosphorylation may take

place in photosynthesis.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

162. dFku : lagfr ;k Fkksd izokg ra=k] folj.k ls fHkUu gSA

dkj.k : lagfr ;k Fkksd izokg esa fofHkUu inkFkZ mudh

lkUnzrk izo.krk ds vuqlkj Lora=k :i ls xfr djrs

gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

163. dFku : tSo fofo/krk laj{k.k LoLFkkus rFkk cfg%LFkkus

nksuksa gks ldrs gS

dkj.k : LoLFkkus rFkk cfg% LFkkus laj{k.k esa ladVxzLr

tkfr;ksa dks muds izkÑfrd vkokl esa lqjf{kr j[kk

tkrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

164. dFku : lqiks"k.khdj.k] >hy dk izkÑfrd dky Hkou gS]

tks blds ty dh iks"kd le`f) ds dkj.k gksrk gSA

dkj.k : lqiks"k.khdj.k ds nkSjku >hy esa iks"kd tSls fd

ukbVªkstu rFkk QksLQksjl c< tkrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

165. dFku : izHkkfork fdlh thu vFkok mlds mRikn dk

Lok;Ùk y{k.k ugha gSA

dkj.k : ;g thu mRikn vFkok ml fof'k"V y{k.k

izk:i ij fuHkZj djrk gS] ftls ge v/;;u ds fy,

p;u djrs gS] tc ,d thu }kjk ,d ls vf/kd y{k.k

izk:i fufeZr fd;s tkrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

166. dFku : izdk'k la'ys"k.k esa vizdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k esa

mi;ksx gksus okys ATP ,oa NADPH dh la[;k esa

vUrj gksrk gSA

dkj.k : izdk'k la'ys"k.k esa pØh; izdk'k

QkWLQksfjyhdj.k gks ldrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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167. Assertion : Growth of plants is considered as

open form of growth.

Reason : In plants, cells/tissues arising out the

same meristem have different structures at

maturity

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

168. Assertion : The complete disintegration of the

nuclear envelope mark the start of metaphase.

Reason : Chromosomes are distinct with two

chromatids at this stage

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

169. Assertion : Lysosqmes help in digestion of

foreign particles in the animal cells

Reason : They have respiratory enzymes.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

170. Assertion : The untranslated regions (UTRs) of

mRNA is located before the start codon and

after the stop codon.

Reason : UTRs are not translated but are

required for efficient translation

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171. Assertion : Medulla is considered as a

respiratory centre in animals.

Reason : Rate of breathing is regulated by

medulla because of the changes in O2 content

of blood.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172. Assertion: Nutrients like glucose and amino

acids are absorbed actively from the intestine

Reason : Glucose and amino acid are

absorbed in blood

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

167. dFku : ikniksa dh o`f) dks of) dk [kqyk Lo:i ekuk

tkrk gSA

dkj.k : ikniksa esa leku foHkT;ksÙkd ls mRiUu gksus okyh

dksf'kdk,a@Ård ifjiDo gksus ij fHkUu lajpuk,sa j[krs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

168. dFku : dsUæd vkoj.k dk iw.kZ fo?kVu, e/;koLFkk ds

izkjEHk gksus dks n'kkZrk gS

dkj.k : bl voLFkk esa xq.klw=k] nks ØksesfVM~l lfgr

Li"V gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

169. dFku : tarq dksf'kdkvksa esa ykblkslkse ckgjh d.kksa ds

ikpu esa lgk;rk djrs gSA

dkj.k : bueas 'oluh; ,atkbe gksrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

170. dFku : mRNA ds vvuqokfnr {ks=k (UTRs) vkjEHku izdwV

ds igys rFkk lekiu izdwV ds ckn esa fLFkr gksrs gSA

dkj.k : UTRs vuqokfnr ugh gksrs gS ijarq n{krkiw.kZ

vuqoknu ds fy, vko';d gkssrs gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171. dFku : tUrqvksa eas esMwyk dks 'olu dsUæ ds :i es

tkuk tkrk gSA

dFku : :f/kj eas vkWDlhtu dh ek=kk esa ifjorZu gksus

ds dkj.k esMwyk }kjk 'olu�nj fu;af=kr gksrh gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172. dFku : Xywdkstu rFkk vehuks vEy tSls iks"kd rRo

lksfM;e ;qXe Na+ ds }kjk vkWRk ls lfØ; :i ls

vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSA dkj.k : Xywdkst rFkk vehuksa vEy jDr esa vo'ksf"kr

gksrs gSA (1) (2) (3) (4)

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173. Assertion : Amphibian heart consist of two

auricles and one ventricle.

Reason : The deoxygenated blood is returned

to heart through sinus venosus.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

174. Assertion : Darwin's finches show a variety of

beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying

insects and cactus seeds

Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of

darvin's finches radiated out from south

american main land to dffierent geographical

areas of the Galapagos Island, where they

found competitor-free new habitats.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

175. Assertion : The eartliest organisms that

appaeared on the earth were non-green and

presumably anaerobes.

Reason : The autotrophic organisms were the

chemoautorophs that never released oxygen

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

176. Assertion : Generally, a woman does not

conceive during the lactation period.

Reason : The hormone 'prolactin' initiates and

maintains lactation in a postparturition woman.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

177. Assertion : 'Saheli' the new oral contraceptive

pill for females contains a non-hormonal and

nonsteroidal preparation.

Reason : The pill contains a synthetic

compound centchroman which suppresses

functioning of corpus luteum.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

173. dFku : mHk;pj ds ân; dh jpuk nks vkfyUn rFkk

,d fuy; ls gqbZ gSA

dkj.k : f'kjk dksVj ls gksrs gq, fovkWDlhtfur :f/kj

okfil ân; esa vkrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

174. dFku : MkfoZu dh fQaps dbZ izdkj dh pksap n'kkZrh gS]

tks cMs+ mMrs gq, dhVksa vkSj dsDVl ds chtksa dks [kkus

ds fy, mi;qDr gksrh gSA

dkj.k : MkfoZu dh fQpksa ds iwoZth cht Hk{kh lewg

nf{k.kh vesfjdk dh eq[; Hkwfe ls xsykisxksl }hi ds

fofHké Hkksxksfyd {ks=kksa es fofdfjr gks x;s] tgk¡ mUgs

Li/kkZ eqDr u;s vkokl feys Fks

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

175. dFku : i`Foh ij lcls igys izdV gksus okys tho xSj

gfjr rFkk lEHkor% vok;qthoh FksA

dkj.k : Loiks"kh tho jlksLoiks"kh Fks ftlls fdlh Hkh

n'kk es vkWDlthu eqDr ugha gksrh FkhA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

176. dFku: vkeRkkSj ij, ,d efgyk eas Lru iku vof/k ds

nkSjku xHkZ/kkj.k ugha gksrk gSA

dkj.k : efgykvksa esa izloksRrj izksySfDVu gkeksZu dk lzko

Lru iku dks 'kq: djrk gS vkSj mls cuk;s j[krk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

177. dFku : 'lgsyh' efgykvksa ds fy, rS;kj fd;k x;k xSj-

gkeksZu ,oa xSj-LVsjk;My eq[kh; xHkZfujks/kd xksyh gSA

dkj.k : xksyh esa ik;k tkus okyk Ñf=ke ;kSfxd

lsUVØkseku tks ihr-fi.M ds dk;Z dks de dj nsrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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178. Assertion : Myocardial infarction often results

form a sudden decrease in coronary blood

supply resulting in decreased oxygen supply

Reason : The portion of myocardium without

oxygen supply dies within few minutes and then

refered to as an infarct or myocardial infarction

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

179. Assertion : If a person stands immobile for a

long time, it leads to an accumulation of fluid in

his leg

tissues and swelling of his feet.

Reason : Contraction of muscles compresses

the veins to move the blood inside them.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

180. Assertion : After hearing a sound, nerve

impulse passes from neurons to the brain.

Reason : The neurons which passes nerve

impulse from body organ to brain is called

afferent neuron.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

PART-D

GENERAL KNOWLEGDE, APTITUDE & LOGICAL

THINKING

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY

ONE is correct.

181. International Youth Day is observed on

(1) 10th August (2) 9th August

(3) 8th August (4) 12th August

178. dFku : dksjksujh :f/kj vkiwfrZ esa deh gksus ij vDlj

ek;ksdkfMZ;y buQkjDlu gksrk gSA

dFku : ek;kskdkfMZ;e ds Hkkx esa vkWDlhtu dh vkiwfrZ

ugh gksus ij dqN le; ds vUnj mldh eR;q gks tkrh

gS] og ;g buQkjDV vFkok ek;ksdkfMZ;y buQkjDLku

ds :i es lanfHkZr gksrk gSa

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

179. dFku : ;fn dksbZ O;fDr yEcs le; rd fLFkj jgrk gS

rkss mlds iSj ds Årdkas es rjy inkFkZ dk lap; gks

tkrk gS vkSj mlds iSjks esa lwtu vk tkrh gSA

dkj.k : eka'kisf'k;ksa dk ladqpu f'kjkvksa ds vUnj :f/kj

dks izokfgr djus ds fy, lafifMr / ncko Mkyrk gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

180. dFku : /ofu lquus ds i'pkr~ raf=kdk vkosx raf=kdkvksa

ls gks dj efLr"d rd igq¡prs gS

dkj.k : raf=kdk,a tks 'kjhj ds vax ls efLr"d rd

raf=kdk vkosx dks Hkstrs gS] vfHkokgh raf=kdk r=k

dgykrs gS

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

PART-D

GENERAL KNOWLEGDE, APTITUDE & LOGICAL

THINKING

lh/ks oLrqfu"B izdkj

bl [k.M esa 20 cgq&fodYih iz'u gSaA izR;sd iz'u ds

4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4) gSa] ftuesa ls flQZ ,d

lgh gSA

181. vUrjkZ"Vªh; ;qok fnol dc ekuk;k tkrk gSA

(1) 10th vxLr (2) 9th vxLr

(3) 8th vxLr (4) 12th vxLr

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182. Which of the following is the longest National'

Hiqhway-of India?

(1) NH-7 (2) NH-5

(3) NH-8 (4) NH-4

183. The constitution of India was adopted on

(1) 26th January 1950

(2) 15th August 1950

(3) 26th November 1949

(4) 26th December 1946

184. In Jute production India stands in the world at

(1) Frist (2) Second

(3) Third (4) Fourth

185. What is the Tagline of State Bank of India?

(1) For all your needs

(2) Together we can

(3) With you all the way

(4) Trusted family bank

186. Which of the following is the capital of

Seychelles?

(1) Port Louis (2) Victoria

(3) Suva (4) Ottawa

187. Who among the following is known as the father

operation food?

(1) Dr. Normal Borlaug

(2) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

(3) Dr. Verghese Kurien

(4) Dr. William Gande

188. What is the currency of 'Myanmar'?

(1) Kyat (2) Lira

(3) Euro (4) Won

189. Which of the following ocean is the smallest?

(1) Atlantic ocean (2) Arctic ocean

(3) Pacific ocean (4) Indian ocean

182. fuEu esa ls Hkkjr dk lcls yEck jk"Vªh; jktekxZ dkSu

lk gSA

(1) NH-7 (2) NH-5

(3) NH-8 (4) NH-4

183. Hkkjr dk laof/kku vaxhÑr fd;k x;k

(1) 26th tuojh 1950

(2) 15th vxLr 1950

(3) 26th uoEcj 1949

(4) 26th fnlEcj 1946

184. twV mRiknu es fo'o esa Hkkjr dk dkSulk LFkku vkrk gSA

(1) izFke (2) f}rh;d

(3) r`rh; (4) prqFkZ

185. LVsV cSad vkWQ bf.M;k dk VSxykbu D;k gS?

(1) vkidh lHkh vko';drkvksa ds fy,

(2) ge ,dlkFk dj ldrs gSaA

(3) iwjh rjg vkids lkFk

(4) fo'oLr ikfjokfjd CkSad

186. fuEu es ls ls'ksYl dh jkt/kkuh dkSu lh gS?

(1) iksVZ YkqbZl (2) foDVksfj;k

(3) lwok (4) vksVkok

187. fuEu esa ls fdls vkijs'ku ¶yM dk tud dgk tkrk

gS\

(1) MkW. ukWjesu cksjykWx

(2) MkW. M.S. LokehukFku

(3) MkW. oxhZt dqfj;u

(4) MkW. fofy;e xS.Ms

188. 'E;kWekj' dh eqæk D;k gS?

(1) D;kr (2) yhjk

(3) ;wjks (4) okWu

189. lcls NksVk egklkxj dkSulk gS?

(1) vVykfUVd egklkxj (2) vkdZfVd egklkxj

(3) iz'kkUr egklkxj (4) fgUn egklkj

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190. Which of the following sectors of Indian

economy is assocaited with agrcultura\

(1) Primary Sector (2) Secondary sector

(3) Tertiary sector (4) All of these

Directions : (191 to 191) In the following

questions, three out of the four alternatives

are same in a certain way and so form a

group. Find the odd one that does not

belong to the group.

191. (1) 2 - 4 (2) 4 - 8

(3) 6 -18 (4) 8 -32

192. How many pair of letters are there in the word

REPURCUSSION which have as many letters

between them in the word as in the alphabet.

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) More than three

Directions : Find the missing numbers :

193. 7, 13, 25, 49, _

(1) 97 (2) 96

(3) 95 (4) 94

Directions (194 to 194) : In each of the following

questions, a number series is given. After the

series, below it in the next line, a number is

given followed by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You

have to complete the series starting with the

number given following the sequence of the

given series. Then answer the question given

below it.

194. 11 15 38 126

7 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Which number will come in place of (C) ?

(1) 102 (2) 30

(3) 2140 (4) 80

195. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m.

Then I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then I

turn left and walk 10 m and then turning right

walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60

m. In which direction am I from the starting

point?

(1) North (2) North-west

(3) East (4) North-east

190. fuEu esa ls Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk dk dkSu lk {ks=k Ñf"k

ls lEcfU/kr gS\

(1) izkFkfed {ks=k (2) f}rh;d {ks=k

(3) r`rh;d {ks=k (4) buesa ls lHkh

funsZ'k : (191 ls 191) fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa, pkj fodYiksa esa

ls rhu fdlh u fdlh :i esa leku gS tks ,d lewg

cukrs gSA fo"ke in dks crkb, tks lewg ls lEcaf/kr

ugh gSA

191. (1) 2 - 4 (2) 4 - 8

(3) 6 -18 (4) 8 -32

192. 'kCn REPURCUSSION eas fdrus v{kj ;Xe gSA

ftlesa o.kZekyk ds :Ik esa 'kCn esa muds chp vusd

v{kj gSA

(1) rhu (2) ,d

(3) nks (4) rhu ls vf/kd

funsZ'k : YkqIr la[;k dks crkb,

193. 7, 13, 25, 49, _

(1) 97 (2) 96

(3) 95 (4) 94

funsZ'k (194 ls 194) : uhps fn;s x;s iz'uksa esa izR;sd es ,d

la[;k Js.kh ds ckn blds fups vxyh iafDr esa

la[;kvksa dks Øe'k% (A), (B), (C), (D) rFkk (E). ls

iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gSA vki dks Js.kh esa nh x;h

fuEufyf[kr la[;k Js.kh d vuqØe ds izkjEHku ls

rqyuk djrs gq, Jsz.kh dks iwjk djuk gSA

194. 11 15 38 126

7 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(C) ds LFkku ij dkSu lh la[;k vk;sxh?

(1) 102 (2) 30

(3) 2140 (4) 80

195. eS nf{k.k dh vksj eq¡g djds [kM+k gw¡ nka, eM+dj 20

eh0 pyk I rc fQj eSus nk;sa eqM+k vkSj 10 eho pyk I

fQj okW;s eqMdj 10 eh0 pyk iqu nk;s eqMdj 20 eh0

pkyk rc eSa nkW;s eqM+k vkSj iqu% 60 eh0 pyk I bl

le; izkjfEHkd LFky ls dkSu ls fn'kk es g¡w

(1) mRrj (2) mRrj-if'pe

(3) iwoZ (4) mRrj-iwoZ

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196. Pointing towards a man in the photograph, lady

said �the father of his brother is the only son of

my mother" How is the man related to lady?

(1) Brother (2) Son

(3) Cousin (4) Nephew

197. If P $ Q means P is the father of Q, P # Q

means P is mother of Q, & P Q means P is

the sister of Q. Then how is Q related to N if N #

L $ P Q

(1) grandson (2) granddaughter

(3) nephew (4) data inadequate

198. A dice has been thrown four times and

produces following results.

Which number will appear opposite to the

number 3 ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 1

Directions : (199 to 199) Following questions are based on

dice test. Numbers from 1 to 6 are marked on

different faces of the "Dice".

199. The number opposite to 4 is :

21 5

54 6 2

65

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 5 (4) 6

Directions : (200 to 200) A sheet has been folded

in the manner as shown in X, Y and Z

respectively and punched. You have to

choose from the alternatives how it will look

when unfolded.

200. X Y Z

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

196. rLohj esa vkneh dh vksj b'kkjk djrs gq, �efgyk us

dgk¡" fd blds HkkbZ dk firk esjh ek¡ dk bdykSrk csVk

gS efgyk ls ml O;fDr dk lEcU/k D;k gS?

(1) HkkbZ (2) iq=k (3) ppsjk HkkbZ (4) Hkkatk Hkrhtk

197. ;fn P $ Q dk rkRi;Z gS fd Q dk firk P gSA P #

Q dk rkRi;Z gS fd Q, dh ekrk P gSA PQ dk

rkRi;Z gS fd Q dh cgu P gSA ;fn N # L $ P Q

lEcU/k bl izdkj gS rc N ls Q dk lEcU/k D;k gSA

(1) ikS=k (2) iks=kh

(3) Hkrhtk (4) vkWdsMs vuqmiyC/k gSa

198. ,d ikWls dks pkj ckj Qsadus ij fuEufuf[kr ifj.kke

izkIr gksrs gSA

(3) ds lkeus dkSu lh la[;k fn[kkyk;h iMs+xh?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 1

funsZ'k : (199 ls 199) fuEufyf[kr iz'u ikWls dh ij[k ij

vk/kkfjr gSA ikWls ds fofHkUu ryksa ij 1 ls 6 rd dh

la[;k fpfUgr dh x;h gSA

199. 4 ds lkeus okyh la[;k gSA

21 5

54 6 2

65

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6

funsZ'k: (200 ls 200) Øe'k% fp=k esa n'kkZ;s x;s X, Y rFkk Z

dh rjg ,d 'khV dks eksM+dj iap fd;k x;k gSA vki

dks fodYiksa esa ls ,sls fodYi dks NkWVuk tks tks 'khV

[kksys tkus ij fn[kyk;xh iM+rk gSA

200. X Y Z

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)