Compiled Geas Mcq

MULTIPLE CHOICEQuestions inGENERAL ENGINEERING CERTII-CONSOLIDATED ENGINEERING REVIEW & TRAINING INSTITUTE, INC.

Encoded by:

VILLAMAYOR, DON RYAN M.ECE-4/2006103613ECE003/C12

GENERAL ENGINEERING I1. A man borrows P6, 400 from a loan association. In repaying this dept, he has to pay P400 at the end of every 3 months on the principal and a simple interest of 16% on the principal outstanding at that time. Determine the total amount he has paid after paying all his debt.a. P 7490b. P 8576c. P12 400d. P68502. If the sum of P12 000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?a. P24, 457.24b. P57, 420.42c. P42, 516.12d. P30, 632.503. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output. This law is _________.a. Law of diminishing Returnb. Law of Diminishing Utilityc. Law of Supplyd. Law of Demand4. It occurs when the mathematical product of price and volume of sales remains constant regardless of any change in price.a. Elastic demandb. Inelastic demandc. Unitary demandd. Utility5. It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is no restriction against other suppliers from entering the market. This is _________.a. Monopolyb. Competitionc. Oligopolyd. Anomaly 6. It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic payment continue indefinitely.a. Annuity dueb. Deferred annuityc. Ordinary annuityd. Perpetuity7. A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P 127 460 and 24 monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month. Determine the nominal rate of interest.a. 36.3% compounded monthlyb. 30.5% compounded monthlyc. 25.15% compounded monthlyd. 32.5% compounded monthly8. A businessman bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10 semi-annual payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If rate of interest is 26% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each installment?a. P 4277.70b. P 4770.20c. P 4777.20d. P 4077.209. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is designed to produce a profit.a. Write off periodb. Physical lifec. Economic lifed. Perpetual life10. It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation expenses, initial taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put the equipment into operation.a. Depreciation costb. First costc. Salvage costd. Scrap cost11. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant each year.a. Matheson Formulab. Straight Line methodc. SYD Methodd. Sinking Fund Method12. A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine the length of the service life necessary if the depreciation method is straight line.a. 8 yrsb. 12 yrsc. 10 yrsd. 6 yrs13. A contractor imported an equipment paying P 2 500 000 to manufacturer. Freight and insurance charges amounted to P180, 000; customs brokers fee and arrastre services, P 85, 000; taxes, permits and installation expenses, P250, 000. The life of the unit is 10 years. Determine the book value of the unit at the end of years using sinking fund method at 8% interest. Salvage value is 10% of the first cost.a. P 1,589,496.90b. P 1,165,430.50c. P 1,805,460.50d. None of these14. A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present value of the annuity is P 2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the nominal rate of interest if it compounds quarterly.a. 6.45%b. 12.5%c. 10.5%d. 8.56%15. A loan of P30000 was to be amortized by a series of 10 equal semi-annual payments, the 1st payment being made 6 months after the loan was granted. The debtor continued paying the semi-annual installments but immediately after the sixth payments he was in the position to pay the remaining balance. What single amount must be paid if the interest is 14% compounded semi-annually?a. P 14,467.84b. P 16,750,50c. P 18,120.50d. P 12,845.6016. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage in practically any business transacti0on which a real person can do.a. Sole proprietorshipb. Partnershipc. Corporationd. None of these17. A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above the ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the velocity at the foot of the incline plane.a. 14.1 m/sb. 16.5 m/sc. 9.64 m/sd. 12.8 m/s18. It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an unbalanced force system, and of the means of determining the forces required to produce any desired change in its motion.a. Kinematicsb. Staticsc. Kineticsd. Robotics19. A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of the forces causing the motion.a. Kinematicsb. Staticsc. Kineticsd. Robotics20. This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction.a. Newtons 2nd lawb. Newtons 3rd lawc. Varignons theoremd. DAlemberts Principles21. These are system of forces whereby all forces dont meet even of they are extended along their line of axes.a. Concurrent forcesb. Parallel forcesc. Forces in spaced. Non-concurrent forces22. These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force.a. Resultantb. Equilibrantc. Componentd. Parallel23. It is the temperature reading whereby it is the same in the Fahrenheit and Celsius scale.a. 40oCb. -50oCc. -40oCd. -10oC24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple:a. The resultant force of a couple is zerob. The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axisc. The force couple must always be parallel with one anotherd. The force couple must be going on the same direction25. A car staring from rest pick-up at a uniform rate and passes three electric post in succession. The post is spaced 360 cm apart along a street road. The car takes 10 seconds to travel from the first post to the second post and takes 6 seconds to go from the 2nd to the 3rd post. Where did the car started from the first post?a. 73.5 mb. 75.3 cmc. 57.3d. 35.7 m26. It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocitya. Impulseb. Momentumc. Centroidd. Moment27. When the force is divided by the resisting area parallel to it.a. Shearing stressb. Normal stressc. Axial stressd. Bearing stress28. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How long will it take the body to return to the ground?a. 7.85 secondsb. 12.5 secondsc. 5.1 secondsd. 10.2 seconds29. It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply supporteda. Simple beamb. Cantilever beamc. Propped beamd. Overhanging beam30. The point on the beam where the shear is zeroa. Point of inflectionb. Maximum shearc. Maximum moment reactiond. Reaction31. The shear stress of a solid circular shaft has the formula _________.a. 16T/(pi)d^2b. 16T/(pi)d^4c. 16T/(pi)d^3d. 16T/(pi)d32. A simply supported beam carries a concentrated load of 120 kN. If the span is 8 m, the maximum moment developed is ________.a. 240 kN-mb. 160 kN-mc. 204 kN-md. 402 kN-m33. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power at 200 rpm. The transmitted power is _______.a. 20 kWb. 200 kWc. 10 kWd. 100 kW34. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is _______.a. Guy Lussacs Lawb. Hookes Lawc. Van der Walls Lawd. Charles Law35. The deformation due to the applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.a. PL/2AEb. PL/AEc. PL2/AEd. PA/EL36. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______________.a. Rectangleb. Trianglec. 2nd degreed. 3rd degree37. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.a. 8 rpmb. 12 rpmc. 10.6 rpmd. 9.97 rpm38. A car must attain a speed of 65 kph for zero side thrust. If coefficient of friction is 0.60, what maximum safe speed at which the car can go without sliding up the curvature of the 100 m radius?a. 100 kphb. 90 kphc. 122 kphd. 130 kph39. It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction.a. Scalar quantityb. Vector quantityc. Productd. Difference40. A cable has its ends at the same level which are 100m away. It weighs 5 kg/m and with a sag of 8 m at its center. The tension at the sag is ______.a. 708.25 kgb. 615.7 kgc. 781.25 kgd. 812.8 kg41. A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. if coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what height will it attain on its 5th bounce?a. 3 mb. 8 mc. 4 md. 6 m42. Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a total head of 100m. The available power from each tribune is _______.a. 12.286 mWb. 18.62 mWc. 16.82 mWd. 20.56 mW43. An object was fired at an initial velocity of 50 m/s at an inclination of 60o with the horizontal. How long did it take the object to strike the ground if it was fired at the same level with its range?a. 12.83 secb. 10.25 secc. 8.83 secd. 9.58 sec44. How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius of the tank is 4 m and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source 12 from the base of the tank.a. 5.5 hrsb. 6.45 hrsc. 8.26 hrsd. 7.6 hrs45. The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base is b and a height of h with respect to the base is ________.a. bh3/3b. bh3/12c. bh3/36d. bh3/446. The force required to pull a body resting on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is f is minimum when force is applied.a. Horizontallyb. 30oc. 45od. arctan f47. The energy involved due to the motion of the body is _____.a. Potential energyb. Kinetic energyc. Work energyd. Power48. A 2 m long uniform rod whose diameter is 4 cm is subjected to an axial tensile force of 200 kN. The young Modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. The rod is elongated by _______.a. 2.56 mmb. 1.38 mmc. 3.18 mmd. 3.81 mm49. A beam of negligible weight carries a concentrated load of 60 kN applied at center in a span of 6 m. The maximum moment developed is _______.a. 90 kN-mb. 120 kN-mc. 180 kN-md. 100 kN-m50. The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except:a. Degree of roughness of contract surfaceb. Area of contract surfacec. Normal forced. Weight of body51. It represents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of the corporation after all the claims have been settled.a. Preferred stockb. Common stockc. Bondd. Capital52. This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation.a. Debenture bondb. Joint bondc. Lien bondd. Mortgage bond53. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in operation or policy which is made.a. Increment costb. Differential costc. Fixed costd. Variable cost54. When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the demand this is __________.a. Law of supplyb. Law of diminishing returnc. Law of supply and demandd. Law of demand55. It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken by anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the othersa. Monopolyb. Competitionc. Utilityd. Oligopoly56. It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and the patronage of its customers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations.a. Good-will valueb. Salvage valuec. Fair valued. Book value57. It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating and maintenance for a long time or forever.a. First costb. Capitalized costc. Original costd. None of these58. It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic payments continue indefinitely.a. Ordinary annuityb. Annuity duec. Deferred annuityd. Perpetuity59. The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of depreciation is constant percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year.a. Straight Line Methodb. Sinking Fund methodc. SYD Methodd. Matheson Formula60. The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have already been recovered is _____.a. Economic lifeb. Write-off periodc. Physical lifed. Salvage life61. It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do.a. Corporationb. Partnershipc. Conglomerated. Proprietorship62. This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total expenses resulting in no profit.a. Kelvins lawb. Break-even pointc. Unhealthy pointd. Minimum cost Analysis63. Determine the exact simple interest on P 5, 000.00 from the period January 15 to June 20, 1996 if the rate of simple interest is 14%.a. P299.18b. P303.33c. P279.82d. P309.1864. If the sum of P12000 is deposited in an account earning interest at a rate of 9% compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?a. P 20,642.50b. P 32,120.30c. P 26,132.32d. P 24,457.2465. Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded quarterly.a. 11.882%b. 12.6%c. 10.5%d. 12.3%66. A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the annuity is P1200 and the accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate of interest.a. 11.35 percentb. 9.37 percentc. 10.67 percentd. 12.6 percent67. For its plant expansion, a company sets aside P 200,000 at the end of each year. It interest is 8% compounded annually, how long before P 2,500,000 can be accumulated?a. 8 yrsb. 9 yrsc. 10 yrsd. 11 yrs68. A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a salvage value of P10, 000. Using the straight line method, find the annual depreciation charge.a. P 8,000b. P 9,000c. P 7,000d. P 6,00069. A telephone switchboard cable can be made up of either enameled wire or tinned wire. There are 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a connection on the enameled wire is P33; on tinned wire is P23. A cable made of enameled wire coast P11 per linear meter and tinned wire P15.20 per linear meter. Calculate the length of cable used so that the cost of each installation will be the same.a. 892 mb. 726 mc. 846 md. 953 m70. A man borrows P 10,000 from a loan association. The rate of simple interest is 15%. But the interest is to be deducted from the load at the time the money is borrowed. At the end of one year, he has to pay back P10, 000. What is the actual rate of interest?a. 15%b. 16.5%c. 17.65%d. 18%71. An employee obtained a loan P 100,000 at a rate of 6% compounded annually in order to build a house. How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of 10 years?a. P 2,040.30b. P 1,102.40c. P 1,200.50d. P 1,350.6072. How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded daily.a. 6.5 yrsb. 5.8 yrsc. 6.1 yrsd. 7.2 yrs73. It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been manufactured and shift of population.a. Physical depreciationb. Depletionc. Functional depreciationd. Deflation74. It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be considered as being concentrated without changing its moment of inertia.a. Centroidb. Radius of gyrationc. Center of gravityd. Neutral axis75. The maximum moment of simply supported beam carrying a uniform load throughout its length L and carrying a uniform load whose intensity is W/L is ____.a. wL2/8b. wL2/12c. wL2/4d. wL2/276. A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod along the joint between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied either by an electric arc or by an oxyacetylene torch.a. Weldingb. Rivetingc. Solderingd. None of these77. The shearing stress developed on a soled circular shaft whose diameter is d and subjected to a torsion T is _________.a. 16T/d2b. 16T/dc. 16T/d3d. 16T/d478. It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the resisting area parallel to it.a. Axial stressb. Shearing stressc. Bearing stressd. Compressive stress79. A laterally supported beam 6 m long is carrying a concentrated load 30 kN applied at the middle of the beam. The maximum moment caused by this load with the weight of the beam is neglected is ________.a. 150 kN-mb. 280 kN-mc. 120 kN-md. 180 kN-m80. A solid circular shaft 6 cm in diameter was stressed to 40 MPa when transmitting power at 1200 rpm. What horsepower is transmitted? G= 100 GPa.a. 245.85 hpb. 285.75 hpc. 320.50 hpd. 296.45 hp81. A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40 cm deep. If it is 8 m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress developed is ______.a. 25 MPab. 30 MPac. 18 MPad. 20 MPa82. A rod tapers from a diameter of 5 cm to 2 cm in a length of 2 m. What axial tensile load can elongate the rod by 0.1mm if E=100 GPa.a. 1309 kNb. 2050 kNc. 1200 kNd. 1500 kN83. The moment of inertia of a triangle whose base b and height h with respect to its centroid is _____.a. bh3/12b. bh3/30c. bh3/36d. bh3/384. An object was fired at an inclination of 60o with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100 m/s/ the total time it will be in air is _______.a. 17.66 sb. 18.5 sc. 16.4 sd. 19.2 s85. A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is simply supported the maximum moment is _______.a. 80 kN-mb. 90 kN-mc. 120 kN-md. 70 kN-m86. It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction.a. Scalar quantityb. Vector quantityc. Resultantd. Displacement87. The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motiona. Torqueb. Resultantc. Equilibrantd. Couple88. The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet.a. Orbiting velocityb. Angular velocityc. Escape velocityd. Linear velocity89. It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at rest or in motion.a. Centrifugal forceb. Frictional forcec. Centripetal forced. Resultant force90. It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperaturea. Isobaric processb. Isothermal processc. Adiabatic processd. Isentropic process91. It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body.a. Impulseb. Momentumc. Workd. Power92. The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional with the square of the distance between them.a. Ohms Lawb. Avogadros Lawc. Coulombs Lawd. Faradays Law93. Which of the following is a vector quantity:a. Entropyb. Electric field intensityc. Kinetic energyd. Charge94. Evaluate (2i-3j)(i+j-k)(3i-k)a. 6b. 3c. 4d. 595. A ping pong ball was dropped from a height of 10 m into a cement slab. If coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what height does the ball attain on its 5th bounce.a. 6.88 mb. 5.99 mc. 8 m d. 7.5 m96. A 100 g bullet was fired into a 5 kg block suspended at the end of a 3 m long sting. Due to impact caused by bullet, the block was thrown, thus the string subtended 50o with the vertical. If the bullet was embedded on the block, find the muzzle velocity of the bullet.a. 200.6 m/sb. 252.6 m/sc. 213.5 m/sd. 233.85 m/s97. A block was made to slide down a 30o incline plane. If coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is 0.30, how long will it take the block to travel 20 m from the rest?a. 5.65 sb. 4.12 sc. 3.55 sd. 6.55 s

GENERAL ENGINEERING II

1. Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies.a. Convectionb. Radiationc. Conductiond. Emission2. It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time intervala. Instantaneous accelerationb. Constant accelerationc. Average accelerationd. Speed3. It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed.a. Equivalent forceb. Co-planarc. Concurrent forced. Equilibrant force4. The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time.a. Rate discountb. Nominal discountc. Actual discountd. Sales discount5. An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is?a. Ordinary annuityb. Suspended annuityc. Deferred annuityd. Annuity due6. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as?a. Compounded interestb. Nominal interestc. Simple interestd. Effective interest7. A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation.a. Debentureb. Mortgagec. Collaterald. Lien8. Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost inevitably result in the similar action by the other.a. Monopolyb. Oligopolyc. Competitiond. Necessity9. It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records.a. Resale valueb. Face valuec. Book valued. Written value10. The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents.a. Depreciationb. Depletionc. Devaluationd. Deviation11. It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to both the seller and the buyer.a. Fair valueb. Market valuec. Common valued. Safe value12. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given region of the country.a. Outletb. Branchc. Extensiond. Franchise13. It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation and maintenance.a. Total costb. Capitalized costc. Initial costd. Variable cost14. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.a. Collateralb. Bondc. Mortgaged. Contract15. What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit.a. Utility valueb. Present valuec. Salvage valued. Resale value16. Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.a. Free marketb. Perfect competitionc. Open marketd. Law of supply and demand17. In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost. A method called as __________.a. Rate of returnb. Annual cost patternc. Present worth patternd. Capital cost18. Annuity is required over 10 years to equate to a future amount of P 15, 000 with i=5%a. P 1, 192.57b. P 1, 912.75c. P 1, 219.60d. P 1, 921.6519. A debt of P 1000 is to be paid off in 5 equal yearly payments, each combining an amortization installment and interest at 4% on the previously unpaid balance of the debt. What should be the amount of each payment?a. P 220.50b. P 224.62c. P 242.61d. P 222.5020. P 1000 is deposited in a bank at 7% interest. What is the value of the money after 25 years, assuming that nothing was deposited after the initial deposit?a. P 5, 247.63b. P 5, 437.34c. P 5, 427.43d. P 5, 720.5121. What is the interest due on a P 1500 note for 4 years and 3 month, if it bears 12% ordinary simple interest?a. P 756b. P 765c. P 675d. P 57622. A P 1000-bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 10% payable annually is to be redeemed at P 1040 at the end of this period. If it is sold now at P 1,120. Determine the yield at this price.a. 4.68%b. 6.48%c. 8.64%d. 8.46%23. A company sets aside P 300,000 each year as a fund for expansion. If the fund earns 9% compounded annually, determine how long will it take before a building costing P 3, 000, 000 can be built?a. 7.34 yearsb. 7.44 yearsc. 7.20 yearsd. 7.54 years24. A man sold 7 more than 5/8 of his load of apple, after which he had 9 less than 2/5 of his original load left. What was the original load?a. 80b. 70c. 60d. 9025. The sum of the digit of the 3-digit number is 11. If we interchange the first and the last digits, the new number is greater than the original number by 594. If we interchange the last two digits of the new number, the resulting number is greater than the original by 576. Find the original number.a. 137b. 147c. 127d. 15726. In how many minutes after 2 oclock will the hands a clock first be at right angle to each other?a. 27 3/11b. 23 7/11c. 11 3/7d. 3 11/2727. A train an hour after starting, meets an accident which delayed the trip for one hour, after which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives 3 hrs after time. Had the incident happened 50 km further out the line, it would have arrived 3/2 hrs sooner. Find the length of the journey?a. 98.88 kmb. 88.88 kmc. 78 kmd. 68.88 km28. A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the same time it takes it to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?a. 1.5 kphb. 2.5 kphc. 2 kphd. 2.75 kph29. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?a. Arithmetic meanb. Medianc. Root mean squared. Range30. If Jun is 10% taller than Rene and Rene is 10% taller than Daf, then Jun is taller than Daf by __ %a. 18%b. 19%c. 23%d. 21%31. Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22a. 3.82b. 3.72c. 3.52d. 3.6232. If = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3., find the value of x?a. -1/2b. c. -1/3d. 1/333. In statistics, the standard deviation means?a. Central tendencyb. Dispersionc. Distributiond. Frequency34. If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle.a. 25 degreesb. 30 degreesc. 20 degreesd. 15 degrees35. A place on the terrestrial sphere has an altitude of 25o15N. how many nautical miles is that place from the north?a. 5, 883b. 5, 838c. 3, 885d. 5, 88336. The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is called the _______.a. Incenterb. Circumcenterc. Centroidd. Orthocenter37. What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60.a. 5.5b. 6.5c. 8.5d. 7.538. The deformation due to an applied axial load resisted by constant area is _______.a. PL/2AEb. PL/AEc. PL2/AEd. PA/EL39. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius.a. 7.99 rpmb. 9.97 rpmc. 10.97 rpmd. 8.99 rpm40. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground. How long will it take the body to return to the ground?a. 10.2 secb. 5.1 secc. 7.8 secd. 12.2 sec41. Which of the following cannot be a probability value?a. (0.99)^4b. 88/100c. (0.59)^(1/3)d. (0.50)^-142. If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is _______.a. A circle b. An ellipsec. A parabolad. A hyperbola43. The degree of y^3 + x = (y-xy)^-3 is a. 1b. 2c. 3d. 444. Find the Area bounded by y^2 = 4 x ad y^2=4-4x.a. 8b. 10c. 6d. 1245. Find the equation of the family of curves for which the slope at any point is equal to the reciprocal of the product of the coordinates of the point.a. y^2=lnx + 2Cb. y^2=ln2x + Cc. y^2=2(lnx + C)d. y^2=2lnx + Cx46. Given 4x^2 + 8y^2 = 32, find y.a. -8/y^3b. -6/y^3c. -2/y^3d. -4/y^347. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise known as _________.a. Guy Lussacs Lawb. Hookes Lawc. Charles Lawd. L.A. Law48. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is ______.a. Rectangleb. Trianglec. 2nd degreed. 3rd degree49. It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported.a. Simple beamb. Cantilever beamc. Propped beamd. Overhanging beam50. A ball was dropped into a hard court from a height of 10 m. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.95, what height it will attain on its 5th bounce?a. 4 mb. 5 mc. 6 md. 7 m

MULTIPLE CHOICEQUESTIONS inCHEMISTRY

Encoded by:Vicente, Jan PauloVizconde, JudilieneParadina, RyanPesigan, Mark LesterCuriba, Maria MilaDe Chavez, HaroldDela Cruz, JerishCoronel, Clarisse

1. What are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Eledctrions and ProtonsB. Protons and NeutronsC. Cations and AnionsD. Electrons and Neutrons

2. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom?

A. ElectronsB. ProtonsC. NeutronD. Molecule

3. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?


4. What is the particle of an atom that has no electrical charge?


5. The word atom comes from Greek Atomos which means what?

A. Extremely SmallB. InvisibleC. IndivisibleD. Microscopic

6. Who was the first person to propose that atoms have weights?

A. Ernest RutherfordB. DemocritusC. John DaltonD. Joseph John Thomson

7. Who discovered the electron?

A. Joseph John ThomsonB. John DaltonC. Humphrey DavyD. Ernest Rutherford

8. Who discovered the proton?

A. Eugene GoldsteinB. Pierre CurieC. Ernest RutherfordD. Michael Faraday

9. Who discovered the neutron?

A. James ChadwickB. Eugene GoldsteinC. Niels BohrD. Julius Lothar Meyer

10. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?

A. ElementB. IonC. MatterD. Molecule

11. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks called______.

A. moleculesB. atomC. elementsD. ions

12. How are substances classified?

A. Elements or CompoundsB. Metals or Non-metalsC. Acids or BasesD. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous

13. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances?

A. IonB. AtomC. MoleculeD. Element14. What is the result from the combination, in definite proportion of mass, of two or more elements?

A. MixtureB. CompoundC. SubstanceD. Chemical Reaction

15. How are mixtures classified?

A. Elements or CompoundsB. Metals, Nonmetals or MetalloidsC. Homogeneous or HeterogeneousD. Suspension, Colloids or Solutions

16. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture?

A. HomogeneousB. SuspensionC. ColloidD. Solution

17. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this mixture classified?

A. ColloidB. SuspensionC. SolutionD. Compound

18. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear homogeneous mixture. What is this homogeneous mixture called?

A. ColloidB. CompoundC. SuspensionD. Solution

19. How are elements classified?

A. Metals, Nonmetals or MetalloidsB. Homogeneous or HeterogeneousC. Suspension, Colloid, SolutionD. Quarks, Solids or Liquids

20. What are the three states of matter?

A. Solid, Liquid and GasB. Metals, Nonmetals and MetalloidsC. Suspension, Colloid and SolutionD. Quarks, Photons and Quasar

21. Compounds are mostly classified as:

A. Homogeneous and HeterogeneousB. Acids and BasesC. Gases, Liquids and SolidsD. Metals and Nonmetals

22. What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking?

A. DuctilityB. MalleabilityC. LusterD. Elasticity

23. What is the property of metals that reflects the light that strikes their surfaces, making them appear shiny?

A. MalleabilityB. DuctilityC. LusterD. Plasticity

24. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

A. Metals are neither malleable nor ductile.B. Metals have high thermal conductivity.C. Metals have high electrical conductivity.D. Metals have more luster.

25. What are elements that have properties intermediate between metals and nonmetals?

A. GasesB. SolidsC. LiquidsD. Metalloids

26. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?

A. Taste sourB. Feel slippery on the skinC. Turn litmus paper to redD. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas

27. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?

A. Feel slippery on the skinB. Turn litmus paper to blueC. Taste bitterD. Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas

28. An acid can react with base to produce a __________.

A. hydrogen gasB. saltC. oxideD. hydroxide

29. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid?

A. Phosphoric acidB. Sulfuric acidC. Nitric acidD. Acetic acid

30. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?

A. Citric acidB. Phosphoric acidC. Sulfuric acidD. Nitric acid

31. Table salt or sodium chloride may be formed by the reaction of:

A. Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonateB. Sodium and chlorineC. Hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonateD. Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide

32. What occurs when a substance is transformed into another substance with a totally different composition and properties?

A. Physical changeB. Chemical changeC. CatalystD. Chemical reaction

33. What occurs when a substance changes it appearance without changing its composition?

A. Chemical reactionB. Chemical changeC. Physical changeD. Catalyst

34. What is another term for chemical change?

A. Chemical reactionB. Phase changeC. State changeD. Composition change

35. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are uniform throughout.

A. homogeneousB. heterogeneousC. pure substanceD. pure compound

36. A material is said to be ______ if its composition and properties are not uniform throughout.

A. Un-pureB. homogeneousC. heterogeneousD. malicable

37. The properties of a material that changes when the amount of substance changes are called _______ properties.

A. intensiveB. extensiveC. physicalD. chemical

38. The properties of a material that do not change when the amount of substance changes are called _______ properties.

A. intensiveB. extensiveC. chemicalD. physical

39. Which of the following is NOT an intensive property of a material?

A. ColorB. Surface areaC. Melting pointD. Taste

40. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property of a material?

A. LengthB. VolumeC. DensityD. Weight

41. When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio of the masses of one element that combine with a given mass of another element in the different compounds is the ratio of small whole numbers. This statement is known as:

A. Graham Law of diffusionB. The uncertainty principleC. Law of definite proportionD. Law of multiple proportion

42. The masses of elements in a pure compound are always in the same proportion. This statement is known as ________.

A. Law of multiple proportionB. Law of definite proportionC. The periodic lawD. Daltons atomic theory43. Who formulated the atomic theory?

A. John DaltonB. Humphrey DavyC. Henri BecquerelD. Ernest Rutherford

44. Who revised the atomic theory by replacing the hard, indestructible spheres imagined by Dalton and proposed the raisin bread model of the atom?

A. Pierre CurieB. Robert Andrews MillikanC. Joseph John ThomsonD. Humphrey Davy

45. How does Joseph John Thomson call his model of the atom?

A. Orbital modelB. Planetary modelC. Radioactive modelD. Plum-pudding model

46. The discovery of radioactivity further confirms the existence of subatomic particles. Who discovered radioactivity?

A. Henri BecquerelB. Marie CurieC. Pierre CurieD. Niels Bohr

47. What is the common unit used to indicate the mass of a particle?

A. Atomic mass unit (amu)B. Charge unitC. CoulombD. Gram

48. What is the unit for a charge of a particle?

A. CoulombB. Charge unitC. Atomic mass unitD. Lepton

49. What is the charge of an electron in coulomb?

A. -1.70217733 x 10^-19B. -1.60217733 x 10^-19C. -1.50217733 x 10^-19D. -1.40217733 x 10^-19

50. What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?

A. 0B. 1 +C. 1 D. 0

51. What is the charge of a proton in coulombs?

A. + 1.70217733 x 10^-19B. + 1.60217733 x 10^-19C. + 1.50217733 x 10^-19D. + 1.40217733 x 10^-19

52. What is the charge of a proton in charge unit?

A. 0B. 1 +C. 1 D. 0

53. What is the mass of an electron in gram?

A. 10203 x 10^-23B. 8.218290 x 10^-25C. 1.672623 x 10^-24D. 9.109387 x 10^-28

54. What is the mass of an electron in amu?

A. 2.490210 x 10^-4B. 3.890140 x 10^-4C. 1.007276 x 10^-4D. 5.485799 x 10^-4

55. What is the mass of a proton in gram?

A. 2.490210 x 10^-24B. 3.890140 x 10^-24C. 1.007276 x 10^-24D. 5.485799 x 10^-24

56. What is the mass of a proton in amu?

A. 1.0052981B. 1.0072765C. 1.0086600D. 1.006624157. What is the mass of a neutron in grams?

A. 1.47495 x 10^24B. 1.37495 x 10^-24C. 1.67495 x 10^-24D. 1.77495 x 10^-24

58. What is the mass of a neutron in amu?

A. 1.00866B. 1.00521C. 1.00324D. 1.00000

59. The protons and neutrons are not considered are fundamental particles because they consist of a smaller particles called__________.

A. bosonsB. quarksC. leptonsD. fermions

60. The atomic number of an element is:

A. the sum of number of protons and electronsB. the number of protons in the nucleusC. the number of electronsD. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

61. Atoms of the same element which have different masses are called _______.

A. moleculesB. ionsC. nuclidesD. isotopes

62. What is an atom specific isotope called?

A. NuclideB. IonC. MoleculeD. Fermion

63. The number of _______ in an atom defines what element the atom is.

A. neutronB. electronsC. protonsD. protons and electrons

64. The number of __________ in an atom defines the isotopes of an element.

A. neutronsB. protonsC. electronsD. protons and neutrons

65. If electrons are removed from or added to a neutral atom, a charged particle of the same element, called _______ is formed.

A. ionB. cationC. anionD. isotope

66. A negatively charged ion which results when an electron is added to an atom called _____.

A. BosonB. FermionC. CationD. Anion

67. A positively charged ion which results when an electron is removed from an atom is called ____.A. AnionB. CationC. FermionD. Lepton

68. What is density number of an atom?

A. Atomic numberB. Mass numberC. Atomic massD. Atomic weight

69. The _______ of an atom is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.

A. mass numberB. atomic weightC. atomic massD. atomic number

70. When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic number, elements with similar properties appear at periodic intervals. This statement is known as _________.

A. Law of multiple proportionB. Law of definite proportionC. The periodic lawD. Daltons atomic theory

71. Who are the two chemists credited for the discovery of the periodic law?

A. Julius Lothar Meyer and Demitri Ivanovich MendeleevB. Humphrey Davy and Henri BecquerelC. Henri Becquerel and Ernest RutherfordD. Ernest Rutherforn and Julius Lothar Meyer

72. The elements with similar properties are placed in columns of the periodic table. These columns are commonly called _____.A. PeriodsB. GroupsC. FamiliesD. Groups or families

73. What are the rows in the periodic table called?

A. PeriodsB. TransitionsC. GroupsD. Families

74. Elements in Gropu1A in the periodic table are ______.

A. Boron groupB. Alkaline earth metalsC. Alkali metalsD. Carbon group

75. Elements in Group IIA in the periodic table are _____.

A. HalogensB. Alkaline earth metalsC. Alkali metalsD. Nitrogen group

76. The boron group is what group in the periodic table?

A. Group IIIAB. Group IVAC. Group VAD. Group VIA

77. What group in the periodic table is the carbon group?

A. Group IIIAB. Group IVAC. Group VAD. Group VIA

78. What group in the periodic table is the nitrogen group?

A. Group VAB. Group VIAC. Group VIIAD. Group IVA

79. The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?

A. Group VAB. Group VIAC. Group VIIAD. Group IVA

80. Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?

A. Group IVAB. Group VAC. Group VIAD. Group VIIA

81. The elements, germanium and silicon, which are commonly use for semiconductors belongs what group of elements?

A. Boron groupB. Carbon groupC. Nitrogen groupD. Halogens

82. What group in the periodic table are the noble gases?

A. Group 0B. Group VIIIAC. Group VIIAD. Group 0 or VIIIA

83. Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?

A. ArgonB. XenonC. RadonD. Antimony

84. What is the atomic number for oxygen?

A. 6B. 7C. 8D. 9

85. What is the atomic number of germanium?

A. 14B. 32C. 18D. 23

86. What is the atomic number of carbon?

A. 6B. 7C. 8D. 10

87. Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?

A. BerylliumB. MagnesiumC. CalciumD. Barium

88. Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?

A. ArgonB. KryptonC. NeonD. Helium

89. What is the most abundant element in terms of the number of atoms?

A. HydrogenB. HeliumC. OxygenD. Nitrogen

90. What is the most abundant element in the human body?

A. CarbonB. HydrogenC. OxygenD. Calcium

91. What is the second most abundant element in the human body?

A. CarbonB. HydrogenC. OxygenD. Nitrogen

92. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A. AntimonyB. BoronC. MagnesiumD. Silicon

93. Caustic soda is used in making soap, textiles and paper. What is another term for caustic soda?

A. Sodium benzoateB. Sodium hydroxideC. Potassium chlorateD. Cesium bromide94. What is used for the manufacture of explosives and fireworks?

A. Magnesium hydroxideB. Potassium chlorateC. Potassium perchlorateD. Cesium bromide

95. All alkaline metals will tarnish in air except ________.

A. MagnesiumB. BariumC. RadiumD. Beryllium

96. What alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its ability to allow x-rays to pass though with minimum absorption?

A. MagnesiumB. RadiumC. BerylliumD. Barium

97. What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a corrosion-resistant material?

A. MagnesiumB. TitaniumC. ZincD. Chromium

98. What element is used as electric power source for pacemakers artifact hearts?

A. PromethiumB. NeodymiumC. UraniumD. Plutonium

99. What element is commonly used in making lasers?

A. ChromiumB. NeodymiumC. PromethiumD. Terbium

100. What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?

A. HydrogenB. OxygenC. CarbonD. Uranium

101. What is the most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A. OxygenB. NitrogenC. HeliumD. Inert gases

102. What is the only gas in Group VIA in the periodic table?

A. ArgonB. KryptonC. OxygenD. Helium

103. What is the second most abundant element in the atmosphere?

A. HydrogenB. HeliumC. OxygenD. Nitrogen

104. What element is used in advertising signs?

A. NeonB. HeliumC. SodiumD. Xenon

105. What principle states about the fundamental limitation that, for a particle as small as the electron, one cannot know exactly where it is and at the same time know its energy how it is moving?

A. Autbau principleB. Uncertainty principleC. Pauli exclusion principleD. Kinetic molecular theory

106. Who discovered the uncertainty principle?

A. Werner Karl Heisenberg principle?B. Louie de BroglieC. Albert EinsteinD. John Newlands

107. What principle states that the electrons fill the orbitals, one at a time, starting with the lowest orbital then proceeding to the one with higher energy?


108. What principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers?


109. What describes how the electrons and distributed among the orbitals?

A. Electronegativity of the elementB. Electron configuration of an atomC. Energy state of the atomD. Pauli exclusion principle

110. The _______ of the atom describes the atom as having a nucleus at the center around which electrons move?

A. spin numberB. quantum mechanical modelC. quantum numberD. azimuthal number

111. What are the main energy levels where the valence electrons belong called?

A. Valence shellsB. Azimuthal shellsC. Spin shellsD. Quantum shells

112. The elements of groups IA, IIA, IIIA, IVA, VA, VIA, VIIA and VIIIA are called main group elements or

A. transitionB. representativesC. inner transitionsD. metals or nonmetals

113. For the representative elements, the number of valence electrons is the same as the _____.

A. number of electronsB. number of neutronsC. the rightmost digit of the group number of the elementD. number of electrons less the number of neutrons

114. For transition elements, the number of valence electron is the same as _______.

A. the group numberB. the rightmost digit of the group number of the elementC. the number of electrons less the number of neutronsD. the number of electrons less the number of protons

115. The size of the atom is dependent on which of the following:

A. the size of the nucleusB. the region of space occupied by its electronsC. the number of protons and neutronsD. all of the choices above

116. What happens to the atomic size of the elements in a group when you go from top to bottom of the group?

A. It remains the sameB. It increasesC. It decreasesD. It become zero

117. Who first predicted the Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) in 1924?

A. Albert EinsteinB. Satyendra Nath BoseC. Carl WiemanD. Wollgang Ketterie

118. The ionization energy is _________ to the atomic size of atom.

A. directly proportionalB. inversely proportionalC. equal toD. not related

119. What refers to the measure of the atoms tendency to attract an additional electron?

A. Period numberB. Electron affinityC. Ionization energyD. Electronegativity

120. The process of gaining or losing an electron results to the formation of a charged atom or molecule called _______.

A. ionB. cationC. anionD. crystal

121. Aside from liquid, gas and solid, there are two other states of matter.

A. Plasma and QuarkB. Quartz and PlasmaC. Quartz and QuasarD. Plasma and Bose-Einstein condensate

122. Who first identified plasma in 1879?

A. William CrookesB. Irving LangmuirC. Albert EinsteinD. Eric Cornell

123. Who coined the term plasma in 1928?

A. William CrookesB. Irving LangmuirC. Albert EinsteinD. Eric Cornell

124. What is made of gas atoms that have been cooled to near absolute zero at which temperature the atoms slow down, combine and forms a single entity known called a superatom?

A. Ionized gasB. Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC)C. PlasmaD. Quark

125. The fifth state of matter, the BEC (Bose-Einstein condensate) was first created in what year?

A. 1992B. 1993C. 1994D. 1995

126. What is a high-energy, electrically charged gas produced by heating the gas until the electrons in the outer orbitals of the atoms separate, leaving the atoms with a positive charge?

A. QuartzB. QuarkC. BECD. Plasma

127. Water has bigger density when it is in what state?

A. LiquidB. GasC. SolidD. Vapor

128. What is the temperature of water in solid state at 1 atm?

A. 40CB. 250CC. 00CD. 50C

129. The density of water is the largest at what temperature?

A. 20CB. 10CC. 30CD. 40C

130. What element has a very high melting point and ideal for filaments of light bulbs?

A. BariumB. AluminumC. TungstenD. Titanium

131. Metals can be drawn into wires. This illustrates what property of metals?

A. MalleabilityB. DuctilityC. RigidityD. Plasticity

132. Steel is the widely used construction material because of its high tensile strength. It is a combination of what element?

A. Iron and carbonB. Iron and aluminumC. Lead and carbonD. Lead and aluminum

133. What refers to the electrostatic attraction that holds together the oppositely charged ions, the cations and anions, in the solid compound?

A. Electronic bondB. Metallic bondC. Covalent bondD. Ionic bond

134. What states that atoms tend to gain, lose or share electrons until they are surrounded by eight valence electrons?

A. Figure of 8 ruleB. Octet ruleC. Ionic ruleD. Lewis rule

135. What indicates the number of valence electrons to the atom represented by dots scattedred on four sides of the atomic symbol?

A. Electron dot structureB. Lewis structureC. Crystalline structureD. Electron dot structure or Lewis structure

136. What is formed by sharing of electrons between atom?

A. Covalent bondB. Ionic bondC. Metallic bondD. Electronic band

137. What is the distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms called?

A. Bond lengthB. Molecular lengthC. Atomic distanceD. Atomic radius

138. The overall shape of a molecule is described by which two properties?

A. Bond distance and bond sizeB. Bond distance and bond angleC. Bond radius and bond angleD. Bond angle and bond size

139. What is an angle made by the lines joining the nuclei of the atoms in the molecule?

A. Atomic angleB. Bond angleC. Molecular angleD. Ionic angle

140. The best arrangement of a given number of shared and unshared electrons is the one that minimizes the repulsion among them. This is known as ___________.

A. valence bond theoryB. electron group theoryC. molecular polarity theoryD. valence-shell electron-pair repulsion theory

141. A covalent bond is formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals. This statement is the basic idea of which theory?

A. Valence bond theoryB. Energy group theoryC. Molecular polarity theoryD. Valence-shell electron-pair repulsion (VSPER) theory

142. What refers to the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract shared electrons?

A. ElectronegativityB. Electron affinityC. Ionization energyD. Periodic number

143. What type of bond occurs when the difference in electronegativity is greater than or equal to 2?

A. IonicB. Nonpolar covalentC. Polar covalentD. Either nonpolar covalent or polar covalent

144. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from:

A. 0.00 to 0.40B. 0.50 to 1.90C. 1.90 to 2.00D. 2.00 and up

145. When can we say that a molecule is polar?

A. When the centers of positive and negative charge do not coincideB. When the centers of positive and negative charge coincideC. When there is no positive nor negative chargeD. When there is only one charge, either negative or negative

146. What is the sum of the masses of the atoms in the molecule of the substance called?

A. Atomic massB. Molecular massC. Formula massD. Atomic weight

147. What refers to the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12?

A. Avogadros numberB. MoleC. Molar massD. amu

148. Which one is the Avogados number?

A. 6.20 x 10^23B. 6.62 x 10^23C. 6.32 x 10^23D. 6.22 x 10^23149. What is defined as the amount of substance that contains 6.02 x 1023 particles of that substance?

A. MoleB. Molar massC. Atomic massD. amu

150. What refers to the mass in grams of one mole of a substance?

A. Molar massB. Molecular massC. Atomic massD. Atomic weight

151. What is the unit of molar mass?

A. amuB. moleC. gramsD. grams per mole

152. The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases in the mixture. This statement is known as __________.

A. Daltons law of partial pressureB. Gay-Lusaac lawC. Boyles lawD. Charles law

153. The dry air is composed of how many percent nitrogen?

A. 73.1%B. 74.4%C. 76.1%D. 78.1%

154. The dry air is composed of how many percent oxygen?

A. 20.9%B. 21.2%C. 22.1%D. 23.7%

155. How much carbon dioxide is present in dry air?

A. 0.003%B. 0.03%C. 0.3%D. 3%

156. What is the mixing of gases due to molecular motion called?

A. DiffusionB. EffusionC. FissionD. Fusion

157. What refers to the passage of molecules of a gas from one container to another through a tiny opening between the containers?

A. DiffusionB. EffusionC. FissionD. Fusion

158. The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Who discovered this?

A. Gilbert LewisB. John TyndallC. Robert BrownD. Thomas Graham

159. What law states that the rate of effusion of a gas, which is the amount of gas that through the hole in a given amount of time, is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass?

A. Henrys lawB. Grahams law of effusionC. Hunds lawD. Lewis theory

160. What is a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles?

A. Carbon monoxideB. Carbon dioxideC. HydroxideD. Nitric acid

161. What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for among and acid rain?

A. Sulfur dioxideB. Nitrogen dioxideC. Carbon dioxideD. Hydroxide

162. What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a compound?

A. Interaction forcesB. Dispersion forcesC. Intermolecular forcesD. Induction forces

163. All are basic types of van der Waals forces except one. Which one?

A. Dipole-dipole interactionB. London dispersion forcesC. Heat bondingD. Hydrogen bonding

164. The three types of intermolecular forces exist in neutral molecules are collectively known as van der Waals forces. This is named after ________.

A. Diderick van der WaalsB. Derick van der WaalsC. Doe van der WaalsD. Eric van der Waals

165. A dipole has how many electrically charged pole(s)?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

166. Compounds containing hydrogen and other element are known as _________.

A. HydroxidesB. HydridesC. HydrosD. Hydrates

167. What is a special kind of dipole-dipole interaction formed when a hydrogen atom bonded to a highly electronegative atom is attracted to the lone pair of a nearby electronegativeatom?

A. Hydride bondB. Hydro bondC. Hydrogen bondD. Hydrate bond

168. What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state?

A. SublimationB. CondensationC. DepositionD. Vaporization

169. What is the process of changing from liquid state to solid state?

A. MeltingB. FreezingC. SublimationD. Condensation

170. What is the process of changing fro, liquid state to gas state?

A. VaporizationB. SublimationC. CondensationD. Deposition

171. What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state?

A. VaporizationB. DepositionC. SublimationD. Condensation

172. What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state?

A. DepositionB. VaporizationC. CondensationD. Sublimation

173. What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state?

A. FreezingB. MeltingC. CondensationD. Vaporization

174. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance to change from solid to liquid?

A. Molar heat of vaporizationB. Molar heat of solidificationC. Molar heat of fissionD. Molar heat of fusion

175. What refers to the amount of heat released by one mole of a substance when it change from liquid to solid?

A. Molar heat of vaporizationB. Molar heat of solidificationC. Molar heat of fissionD. Molar heat of fusion

176. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from liquid to gas?

A. Molar heat of vaporizationB. Molar heat of solidificationC. Molar heat of fissionD. Molar heat fusion

177. What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from gas to liquid?

A. Molar heat of vaporizationB. Molar heat of solidificationC. Molar heat of condensationD. Molar heat of fusion

178. Liquid that vaporizes easily are called ______ liquids.

A. volatileB. nonvolatileC. surfactantD. hydrophilic

179. What refers to the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by an increase in pressure?

A. Absolute temperatureB. Absolute zeroC. Critical temperatureD. Maximum temperature

180. What is a homogeneous mixture made of particles that exist as individual molrcules or ions?

A. SolutionB. SoluteC. SolventD. Colloid

181. What is the component of a solution that is dissolved?

A. SolventB. SoluteC. CatalystD. Colloid

182. What is the component of the solution in which the solute is dissolved?

A. SolventB. CatalystC. ReactantD. Medium

183. Bronze is a solid solution of copper and tin. Which of the following is true?

A. Tin is a solvent.B. Copper is a solute.C. Copper is the solvent.D. The solution is called aqueous solution.

184. When the solvent of the solution is water, it is a/an _____ solution.

A. wetB. liquidC. aqueousD. fluid

185. What is the most common solvent in medicines?

A. ParacetamolB. AcidC. EthanolD. Starch186. What is the term generally used to describe the combination of solute molecules or ions with solvent molecules?

A. SolubilityB. SolvationC. SaturationD. Transformation

187. What is the term used to describe the maximum amount of solute that a given solvent can dissolve to give a stable solution at a given temperature?

A. SolubilityB. SolvationC. SaturationD. Transformation

188. When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in the given solvent at a stated temperature, this solution formed is __________.

A. unsaturatedB. saturatedC. supersaturatedD. undersaturated

189. When the solution contains less solute particles than the maximum amount the solvent can dissolve at that temperature, the solution is ____________.


190. When the solution contains more solute particles than the solvent can normally hold, the solution is ________.


191. What is the most common solution on earth?

A. AirB. SeawaterC. BloodD. Freshwater

192. Solutions composed of two or more metals are called ________.

A. saturated solutionsB. supersaturated solutionsC. unsaturated solutionsD. alloys

193. The solubility of a substance in another substance is affected by the following factors except __________.

A. nature of solute and solventB. pressureC. volumeD. temperature

194. Liquids that do not mix are said to be _______.

A. miscibleB. immiscibleC. solubleD. nonsoluble

195. Water and alcohol are both liquids that can be mixed in any proportion. They are said to be __.

A. miscibleB. immiscibleC. solubleD. nonsoluble

196. How will an increase in temperature in solids affect the solubility?

A. It will cause a decrease in solubility.B. It will not affect the solubility at all.C. It will slightly affect solubility.D. It will cause an increase in solubility.

197. How will an increase in temperature of gases dissolving in liquids affect the solubility?

A. It will cause a decrease in solubility.B. It will not affect solubility at all.C. It will slightly affect solubility.D. It will cause an increase in solubility.

198. How does pressure affects the solubility of gases in liquids?

A. It decreases solubility.B. It does not affect solubility at all.C. It slightly affects solubility.D. It increases solubility.

199. How does pressure affects the solubility in liquids or of liquids in another liquid?

A. It decreases solubility.B. It does not affect solubility at all.C. It slightly affects solubility.D. It increases solubility.

200. The solubility of a gas in liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the solution. This is known as ______.

A. Hunds lawB. Pascals lawC. Henrys lawD. Daltons law

201. What refers to the measure of how fast a substance dissolves?

A. Rate of solubilityB. Rate of agitationC. Rate of dissolutionD. Rate of solution

202. How can the rate of dissolution be increased?

A. Reduce particle sizeB. AgitationC. Application of heatD. All of the above

203. ________ means there is only a little amount of solute dissolved in a solution.

A. ConcentratedB. DiluteC. SaturatedD. Unsaturated

204. ________ means there is a large amount of solute dissolved in the solution.

A. ConcentratedB. DiluteC. SaturatedD. Unsaturated

205. What is the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a solution to the total number of moles of all the components?

A. MolarityB. MolalityC. FormalityD. Mole fraction

206. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the volume of the solution in liters?


207. What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent?


208. What is the process of making a solution less concentrated as in the addition of more solvent?

A. ConcentrationB. DilutionC. SaturationD. Colligation

209. What is the process of changing liquid to gas that is usually accompanied by the production of the bubbles of vapor in the liquid?

A. VaporizingB. BoilingC. CondensingD. Sublimation

210. What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the prevailing atmospheric pressure?

A. Boiling pointB. Triple pointC. Saturation pointD. Critical point

211. What is the temperature at which liquid and solid are in equilibrium?

A. Boiling pointB. Resting pointC. Freezing pointD. Critical point

212. What refers to the decrease in the freezing point of a pure liquid when another substance is dissolved in the liquid?

A. Freezing point compressionB. Freezing point extensionC. Freezing point depressionD. Freezing point dilution

213. If two solutions have the same concentration of solute, they are ________.

A. hypertonicB. hypotonicC. isotonicD. photonic

214. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles than the other, the one with the higher concentration is described as _____.


215. If one of the two solutions has a bigger concentration of solute particles than the other, the one with the lower concentration is described as _____.


216. The movement of solvent particles through a semi-permeable membrane from the region lower solute concentration to the region of higher solute concentration is called _________.

A. osmosisB. hymolysisC. orenationD. dialysis

217. The term colloid comes from the Greek kolla and oidos which means _________.

A. cloudy auppearanceB. cloudy shapeC. glue appearanceD. glue color

218. What are suspensions of liquid or solid particles in a gas called?

A. EmulsionsB. AerosolsC. FoamsD. Sols

219. What in some aerosol products that can cause harm to the atmosphere?

A. SmogB. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)C. Emulsifying agentD. Hydrocarbons

220. What are colloidal dispersion of gas bubbles in liquids or solids?

A. EmulsionsB. AerosolsC. FoamsD. Sols

221. What is a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in either a liquid or a solid?

A. EmulsionsB. GelsC. FoamsD. Sols

222. What is a solid dispersed in either a solid or a liquid?


223. What is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase consists of fibrous, interwoven particles called fibrils which exert a marked effect on the physical properties of the dispersing medium?


224. Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are ______.

A. emulsionsB. gelsC. foamsD. sols

225. The substance usually used in cleaning toilets bowls and tiles is muriatic acid. What is another term for this?

A. Nitric acidB. Sulfuric acidC. Hydrochloric acidD. Phosphoric acid

226. Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield hydroxide ions. What is this statement commonly called?

A. Arrhenius theoryB. pH conceptC. Bronstead-Lowry theoryD. Le Chateliers principle

227. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the concentration of the solvent cation, H3O?

A. Lewis acidB. Lewis baseC. Arrhenius baseD. Arrhenius acid

228. What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water causes an increase in the concentration of the solvent anion, OH?

A. Lewis acidB. Lewis baseC. Arrhenius baseD. Arrhenius acid

229. What is the dissolution constant of water at 250C?

A. 1.8 x 10-15B. 1.8 x 10-16C. 1.8 x 10-17D. 1.8 x 10-18

230. What theory states that an acid in any substance that donates a proton to another substance, and a base is any substance that can accept a proton from any other substance?

A. Arrhenius theoryB. Bronsted-Lowry theoryC. Lewis theoryD. pH concept

231. What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone pair from another molecule, and a base is a substance that has a lone pair of electrons?

A. Arrhenius theoryB. Bronsted-Lowry theoryC. Lewis theoryD. pH concept

232. An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the _________ acid.

A. ArrheniusB. PureC. LewisD. Bronsted-Lowry

233. The Bronsted-Lowry acid is:

A. a proton donorB. a proton acceptorC. an electron pair acceptorD. an electron pair donor

234. The Bronsted-Lowry base is:A. a proton donorB. a proton acceptorC. an electron pair acceptorD. an electron pair donor

235. According to Gilbert Lewis an acid-base reaction as the sharing of an electron pair will form what type of bond?

A. Coordinate ionic bondB. Coordinate covalent bondC. Coordinate metallic bondD. Coordinate bond

236. What is the type of covalent bond in which the shared electrons are donated by one, not both, of the atoms involved?

A. Synchronous covalent bondB. Coordinated covalent bondC. Asynchronous covalent bondD. Translating covalent bond

237. What is the term used for the product of a Lewis acid-base reaction?

A. OxyacidsB. Binary acidsC. AcibasD. Adduct

238. Acids composed of only two elements; hydrogen and nonmetal are called __________.

A. Binary acidsB. Ternary acidsC. OxyacidsD. Organic acids

239. What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid?

A. OxygenB. SulfurC. WaterD. Carbon

240. Acids consist of three element; hydrogen and two nonmetals are called _____.

A. TriacidsB. Ternary acidsC. OxyacidsD. Organic acids

241. If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is called ____.

A. OxideB. OxyacidC. Oxide acidD. Acidic acid

242. Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid?

A. H2SO4B. H2SO3C. HNO2D. HNO3

243. Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid?

A. HNO4B. H2NO3C. HNO2D. HNO3

244. What acid is usually used in vinegars?

A. Sulfuric acidB. Acetic acidC. Nitric acidD. Carbonic acid

245. What acid is used in glass itching?

A. Acetylsalicylic acidB. Hydrofluoric acidC. Phosphoric acidD. Hydrochloric acid

246. What acid is usually present in some fruits?

A. Citric acidB. Carbonic acidC. Organic acidD. Nitric acid

247. What acid is used in carbonated drinks?

A. Carbonic acidB. Hydrofluoric acidC. Nitric acidD. Citric acid

248. What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin and other pain relievers?

A. Carbonic acidB. Acetylsalicylic acidC. Sulfuric acidD. Phosphoric acid

249. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers?


250. What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives?

A. Carbonic acidB. Acetylsalicylic acidC. Nitric acidD. Phosphoric acid

251. What acid is used in the batteries of cars or automobiles?


252. Bases are compounds consisting of:

A. metal and oxide ionB. nonmetal and oxide ionC. metal and hydroxide ionD. nonmetal and hydroxide ion253. Which base is used to remove carbon dioxide from air?

A. Lithium hydroxideB. Sodium hydroxideC. Aluminum hydroxideD. Magnesium hydroxide

254. What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restriction?

A. Magnesium hydroxideB. Sodium hydroxideC. Aluminum hydroxideD. Lithium hydroxide

255. Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small amounts and laxative if consumed in large dosage. What is common term for magnesium hydroxide?

A. Skim if MagnesiaB. Oil of MagnesiaC. Cream of MagnesiaD. Milk of Magnesia

256. What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion concentration?

A. Hydrometer readingB. pH scaleC. AlkalinityD. Basicity

257. Who proposed the pH scale in 1909?

A. Albert EinsteinB. J. Williard GibbsC. Henri HessD. Soren Sorensen

258. What does the symbol pH stands for?

A. The power of the hydroxide compoundB. The power of the hydroxide ionC. The power of the hydrogen ionD. The power of hydrogen

259. What is the pH of pure water?

A. 6.1B. 6.5C. 7D. 7.4

260. Which two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5?

A. Saliva and milkB. Orange juice and tomato juiceC. Vinegar and calamansi juiceD. Urine and apple juice

261. Which is most acidic?

A. VinegarB. Calamansi juiceC. Carbonated drinkD. Orange juice

262. Which is the best description of strong acids?

A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water.B. They dont dissociate or ionize completely in water.C. They are normally found in vinegars.D. They are the acids that do not contain hydrogen.

263. Which is the best description of weak acids?

A. They dissociate or ionize completely in water.B. They dont dissociate or ionize completely in water.C. They are normally found in hydrogen chloride form.D. They are the acids that not found in vinegars.

264. What is a measure of the H30+ concentration of a solution?

A. pHB. pOHC. indicatorD. OH-

265. What is a measure of the OH- concentration of a solution?

A. pHB. pOHC. IndicatorD. H30+266. What is the pH of a neutral solution?

A. 5B. 6C. 7D. 8

267. Which of the following pH is the most basic?

A. pH 8B. pH 9C. pH 11D. pH 13

268. What is the substance that changes color at a certain pH range?

A. Litmus paperB. IndicatorC. BalancerD. Lichen

269. What refers to the reaction between an acid and a base forming salt and water?

A. NeutralizationB. TitrationC. HydrolysisD. Buffer

270. What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base in one solution by adding a base or acid solution of known concentration until the acid or base in the solution of unknown concentration is fully neutralized?

A. NeutralizationB. TitrationC. HydrolysisD. Buffer

271. What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in titration is enough to fully neutralize the acid or base?

A. Neutral pointB. Titrant pointC. Central pointD. Equivalence point

272. What refers to the reaction between the ions of a salt and the ions of water?

A. Salt titrationB. Salt bufferingC. Salt neutralizationD. Salt hydrolysis

273. What is a solution consisting of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or of a weak base and its conjugate aid?

A. SeawaterB. SaltC. BufferD. Aqueous solution

274. What is the most common chemical reaction, which is the reaction of materials with oxygen accompanied by the giving off of energy in the form of heat?

A. CombustionB. Exothermic reactionC. Endothermic reactionD. Kinetic reaction

275. What is the area of chemistry that concerns with the rate at which chemical reactions occur?

A. Chemical collision theoryB. Chemical dynamicsC. Chemical kinematicsD. Chemical kinetics276. What is the minimum amount of energy need for a chemical reaction to occur called?

A. Initial energyB. Activation energyC. Ignition energyD. Catalystic energy

277. If the energy is released as the reaction occurs, it is a _____ reaction.

A. instantaneousB. spontaneousC. exothermicD. endothermic

278. If the energy is absorbed during the reaction, it is a _____ reaction.

A. instantaneousB. spontaneousC. exothermicD. endothermic

279. What is a substance that, when added to a reaction mixture, increases the rate of the reaction but is itself unchanged after the reaction is done?

A. Hydroxide ionsB. AccelerationsC. CatalystD. Neutral substance

280. What is a substance that slows down a chemical reaction?

A. InhibitorsB. RetardantC. CatalystD. Decelerators

281. How are catalysts classified?

A. Homogeneous and heterogeneousB. Slow and fastC. Pure and compositeD. Acidic and basic

282. What type of catalyst exists in the same phase as the reactants in a reaction mixture?

A. Homogeneous catalystB. Heterogeneous catalystC. Pure catalystD. Composite catalyst

283. What type of catalyst exists in separate phase as the reactants in the reaction mixture?

A. Homogeneous catalystB. Heterogeneous catalystC. Pure catalystD. Composite catalyst

284. Most heterogeneous catalyst are ________.

A. liquidsB. solidsC. gasesD. plasma

285. Which one is a factor that affects the rate of chemical reactions?

A. TemperatureB. Concentration and surface area of reactantsC. Presence of a catalystD. All of the above

286. What refers to the state at which the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal?

A. Chemical equilibriumB. Reversible equilibriumC. Reaction equilibriumD. Haber equilibrium

287. What is the study of heat formed or required by the chemical reaction?

A. StoichemistryB. ThermochemistryC. ThermodynamicsD. Enthalpy

288. What is the ratio of the equilibrium concentration of the products to the equilibrium concentration reactants with each species concentration raised to the corresponding stoichemistric coefficient found in the balanced reaction?

A. Equilibrium constantB. Equilibrium concentrationC. Chemical equilibriumD. Reaction quotient

289. What term is used as a qualitative description of the extent of a chemical reaction?

A. Equilibrium positionB. Chemical equilibriumC. EquilibriumD. Reaction equilibrium

290. What quantity is used to determine how far from equilibrium the chemical reaction is?

A. Reaction indexB. Chemical quotientC. Equilibrium quotientD. Reaction quotient

291. What states that if a change in conditions is imposed on a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium position will shift in the direction that tends to reduce the effects of that change?

A. Hess principleB. Catalyst effectC. Haber process principleD. Le Chatellers principle

292. What refers to the reaction of oxygen with an element or compound?

A. ReductionB. OxidationC. OxygenationD. Oxygenization

293. The loss of electron by a substance is known as ___________.

A. oxidationB. covalent processC. reductionD. ionic process

294. The gain of electrons by a substance is known as ___________.

A. oxidationB. covalent processC. reductionD. ionic process

295. What represents the charge that the atom would have if the electrons in each bond belonged entirely to the more electronegative atom?

A. Oxidation numberB. Atomic numberC. Atomic weightD. Electron affinity

296. A reduced substance is what type of agent?

A. Oxidizing agentB. Redox agentC. Reducing agentD. Nonredox agent

297. The oxidized substance is what type agent?

A. Oxidizing agentB. Redox agentC. Reducing agentD. Nonredox agent

298. What reaction does not involve any change in oxidation number?

A. Redox reactionB. Nonredox reactionC. Reducing reactionD. Oxidizing reaction

299. What is an apparatus that uses a spontaneous redox reaction to generate electricity?

A. Voltaic cellB. Fuel cellC. Lead cellD. Nickel cadmium cell

300. What is a branch of chemistry which is the study of carbon-containing molecules known as organic compounds?

A. Organic chemistryB. Inorganic chemistryC. StoichemistryD. Biochemistry

301. Which of the following is a crystalline form of carbon?

A. DiamondB. GraphiteC. FullerenesD. All of the above

302. What crystalline carbon is soft, black, slippery solid that possess metallic luster and conduct electricity?

A. CharcoalB. GraphiteC. DiamondD. Coke

303. What is formed when hydrocarbons such as methane are heated in the presence of very little oxygen?

A. Carbon blackB. CharcoalC. CokeD. Diamond

304. What type of carbon is produced when wood is heated intensely in the absence of air?


305. What type of carbon is used to remove undesirable odors from air?


306. What carbon is produced when coal is strongly heated in the absence of air?


307. What type of carbon is used in the manufacture of car tires?


308. Which of the following is NOT a property of inorganic compounds?

A. High melting and boiling pointsB. Mostly soluble in waterC. Conduct electric currentD. Usually flammable and combustible

309. Organic compounds:

A. Are generally soluble in non-polar systemsB. Are usually flammable and combustibleC. Have presence of covalent bondD. All of the above

310. Inorganic compounds:

A. Are generally soluble in non-polar solventsB. Are generally non flammableC. Have presence of ionic bondD. All of the above

311. The organic compounds are related to each other by a common feature involving a certain arrangement of atoms called __________.

A. HydrocarbonsB. ChainC. Functional groupsD. Alkanes

312. What is the simplest and most commonly encountered class of organic compounds?

A. CarbidesB. OxidesC. Carbon OxidesD. Hydrocarbons

313. Based on the type of bond existing between two carbon atoms, how do hydrocarbons classified?

A. Saturated and unsaturatedB. Pure and unpureC. Organic and inorganicD. Natural and artificial

314. What hydrocarbons contain only single bonds?

A. AlkanesB. AlkyneC. AlkeneD. Benzene

315. When a hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a long, straight or branched chain, it is classified as __________ type.

A. CyclicB. ChainC. PoleD. Linear

316. When hydrocarbon consists of carbon links that form a ring, it is classified as __________ type.

A. CyclicB. ChainC. PoleD. Linear

317. The aromatic hydrocarbons contain the structural unit called __________.A. AlkyneB. BenzeneC. AlkeneD. Alkane

318. What is a six- carbon ring with three alternating double bonds, or closely related rings or rings of similar nature where nitrogen replaces carbon in one or more ring positions?

A. AlkyneB. BenzeneC. AlkeneD. Alkane

319. What is another term for Alkanes?

A. OlefinsB. AcetyleneC. ParaffinsD. Methyl

320. What is the simplest alkane which is a major component of nature gas?

A. Methane B. OctaneC. OlefinD. Acetylene

321. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more double bonds?


322. What is another term for alkenes?

A. OlefinsB. EtheneC. ParaffinsD. Methyls

323. What is the simplest alkene, which is a plant hormone that plays important role in seed germination and ripening of fruits?

A. AnthraceneB. PropylC. EthyneD. Ethene

324. What are hydrocarbons that contain one or more triple bonds?


325. What is the simplest alkyne which is a highly reactive molecule?

A. EtheneB. Acetylene or EthyneC. PropylD. Alkyl

326. The compounds, benzene, naphthalene and anthracene are examples of what hydrocarbon?

A. Alphatic hydrocarbonB. Aromatic hydrocarbonC. AlkenesD. Alkynes

327. What aromatic hydrocarbon is used as acomponent of mothballs?

A. BenzeneB. NaphthaleneC. AnthracineD. Methyl

328. In 1956, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) devised a systematic way of naming organic compounds. What is this called?

A. System of NomenclatureB. System of IdentificationC. System of VerificationD. System of Unification

329. In naming of hydrocarbons, what refers to a side chain that is formed by removing a hydrogen atom from an alkane?

A. Alkyl groupB. Alken groupC. Methyl groupD. Alkyn group

330. Compounds that contain halogens are called __________.

A. AminesB. HalidesC. EthersD. Aldehydes

331. The organic compounds that contains oxygen but not in the carbonyl group are called __________.

A. Alcohols and EthersB. Amines and AmidesC. HalidesD. Aldehydes

332. What organic compounds contain the hydroxyl as the functional group and are considered derivates of water?

A. AlcoholsB. EthersC. AldehydesD. Ketones

333. What organic compounds contain nitrogen?

A. HalidesB. Amines and AmidesC. AlcoholsD. Ethers

334. What organic compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups that can be aliphatic or aromatic are attached to one oxygen atom?

A. AminesB. AlcoholsC. EthersD. Halides

335. Which of the following gases is usually used as a refrigerant?

A. KetoneB. MusconeC. Propyl etherD. Dimethyl ether

336. Which of the following statements regarding organic substances is FALSE?

A. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentration acidsB. All organic matter contains carbonC. Organic matter is generally stable at very high temperaturesD. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water

337. A substance that dissociates in solutions to produce positive and negative ions is called _________.

A. BaseB. AcidC. ElectrolyteD. Solvent

338. Which of the following is most likely to prove that a substance is inorganic?

A. The substance evaporates in room temperature and pressureB. The substance is heated together with copper oxide and the resulting gases are found to have no effect on limestoneC. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogenD. The substance floats in water

339. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?

A. HeliumB. NeonC. Carbon DioxideD. Sodium

340. What element is known as the lightest metal?

A. AluminumB. ManganeseC. MagnesiumD. Lithium

341. What refers to the attraction between like molecules?

A. AbsorptionB. DiffusionC. AdhesionD. Cohesion

342. Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?

A. Van de WaalsB. MetallicC. CovalentD. Ionic

343. When all of the atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called a/an __________.

A. CompoundB. ChemicalC. ElementD. Ion

344. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures because of which of the following?

A. The molecules are less energeticB. The molecules collide more frequentlyC. The activation energy is lessD. The molecules collide more frequently and the activation energy is less

345. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its:

A. Specific GravityB. Acid ContentC. Voltage outputD. Current value

346. An element maybe defined as a substance with all atoms of which have the same __________.

A. Number of neutronsB. RadioactivityC. Atomic weightD. Atomic number

347. The device which measures the acid content of the cell is called __________.

A. Acid meterB. HydrometerC. HygrometerD. Pyrometer

348. In a copper atom, the valence ring contains how many electrons?

A. No electronB. One electronC. Two electronsD. Four electrons

349. A __________ is a cell designed to produce electric current and can be recharged

A. Secondary cellB. Electrolyte cellC. Chemical cellD. Battery

350. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

A. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and reform reactantsB. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zeroC. The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a reaction depends on volumeD. The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse rate

351. What is the opposite of alkali?

A. AcidB. FluidC. CarbonD. Oxide

352. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the __________.

A. Thickness of the plateB. Plate surface areaC. Strength of the acidD. Discharge load

353. What represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom?

A. Molecular numberB. Proton numberC. Mass numberD. Atomic number

354. The electrolyte is a solution of water and __________.

A. Sulfuric acidB. Uric acidC. Nitric acidD. Formic acid

355. What is deuteron?

A. A neutron plus two protonsB. A nucleus containing a neutron and a protonC. An electron with a positive chargeD. A helium molecules

356. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?

A. PlutoniumB. CaliforniumC. UraniumD. Cobalt

357. The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is:

A. N2O5B. NO3C. NOD. N3O4

358. One of the following statements is wrong. Which one is it?

A. Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricityB. Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricityC. An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electronsD. The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton

359. What are compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural formula?

A. AldehydesB. AminesC. IsomersD. Esters

360. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water as a by-product?

A. AmineB. EsterC. PolymerD. Teflon

361. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt?

A. Lactic acidB. Citric acidC. Tartaric acidD. Lauric acid

362. What carboxylic acid is found in grapes?

A. Lactic acidB. Citric acidC. Tartaric acidD. Lauric acid363. What carboxylic acid is found in coconut oil?

A. Lactic acidB. Citric acidC. Tartaric acidD. Lauric acid

364. What do you call the distance pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged themselves when they combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?

A. Space-latticeB. CrystalC. GrainD. Unit cell

365. When a solid has crystalline structure, the atoms arranged in repeating structures called ________.

A. LatticeB. Unit cellC. CrystalD. Domain

366. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic misfit where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?

A. DiscrystallizationB. DislocationC. Slip stepD. Dispersion

367. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of __________.

A. IonB. ElectronC. ProtonD. Anode

368. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal?

A. OxidationB. CorrosionC. ReductionD. Ionization

369. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anodeB. At the cathodeC. At the electrodeD. At both cathode and anode

370. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?

A. At the anodeB. At the cathodeC. At the electrodeD. At both cathode and anode

371. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring sample of the element?

A. The chemical atomic weight of the isotopeB. The relative abundance of the isotopeC. The electromagnetivity of the isotopeD. The quantum number of the isotope

372. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic solution?

A. HydrolysisB. NeutralizationC. BufferizationD. Titration

373. Which of the following elements has the highest atomic number?

A. TitaniumB. PlutoniumC. UraniumD. Radium

374. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one?

A. May be expanded or may be compressedB. Have low densitiesC. Indefinite shapeD. Mixed uniformly when soluble in one another

375. All are properties of liquid state except one. Which one?

A. Do not expand nor compress to any degreeB. Usually flow readilyC. Indefinite shape but fixed volumeD. Do not mix by diffusion376. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzen

Compiled Geas Mcq

Documents

Transcript of Compiled Geas Mcq