CGL _Tier _I - _Paper 11

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Transcript of CGL _Tier _I - _Paper 11

  • Directions (Q. No. 1): Select the letter from the

    given responses, which can form a new

    meaningful word when it is added to the end of

    each of the following word.

    1. PAR MAR CAR

    (A) K (B) T

    (C) E (D) S

    Directions (Q. No. 2 to 4): From the given

    responses find the missing number.

    2.

    (A) 7 (B) 8

    (C) 6 (D) 9

    3.

    (A) 32 (B) 06

    (C) 12 (D) 20

    4.7 9 5 11

    4 15 12 7

    13 8 11 ?

    (A) 20 (B) 10

    (C) 30 (D) 70

    5. How many '8's are there followed by an even

    number and preceded by an odd number?

    e.g. (182)

    3 8 2 5 8 3 2 8 3 2 8 2 7 8 4 8 5 6 8 7 8 4 2 8 6

    (A) 5 (B) 4

    (C) 3 (D) 2

    6. In the following list of letters, how many

    vowels are followed by double letters which

    are again followed by a vowel?

    B K H H P D T P P H N P J J I M R F F G O U

    B B E H I N N A G D X X Q Y L S S K Z N P P

    I O T U U A C N

    (A) 2 (B) 3

    (C) 4 (D) 5

    7. If the code of STEADY is 931785 and that of

    ENTRY is 12345, what will be the code of

    SEDATE?

    (A) 814195 (B) 954185

    (C) 614781 (D) 918731

    Part - I(General Intelligence)Part - I(General Intelligence)Part - I(General Intelligence)Part - I(General Intelligence)

    8. How many 4's in the series are preceded

    by prime number but not followed by prime

    number?

    4, 1, 4, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 4, 1 8, 3, 4, 9, 2, 4, 8, 3,

    4, 8, 2, 8, 4, 5, 4, 8, 7, 4, 6, 4, 5, 4

    (A) 6 (B) 4

    (C) 3 (D) 5

    Directions (Q. No. 9 to 12): Find the missing

    number/letters/figure from the given

    responses.

    9. 4E, 8I, 13N, 19T, ?

    (A) 26U (B) 26A

    (C) 26Z (D) 25Y

    10. HIIJ, IJJK, JKKL, KLLM, LMMN, ?

    (A) LNNO (B) MNNP

    (C) NOOP (D) MNNO

    11. 1, 1, 6, 6, 11, 11, 16, ? , ?

    (A) 13, 11 (B) 16, 21

    (C) 17, 21 (D) 21, 16

    12.W U S Q

    , , , , ?S O K G

    (A) P/R (B) C/O

    (C) R/J (D) O/C

    Directions (Q. No. 13): In the following question

    you have to identify the correct response from

    the given premises stated according to

    following symbols.

    13. If '+' stands for 'division', '-' stands for 'equal

    to', '' stands for 'addition', '' stands for

    'greater than', '=' stands for 'less than', '>'

    stands for 'multiplication', and '

  • 1. PAR MAR CAR

    (A) K (B) T

    (C) E (D) S

    2.

    (A) 7 (B) 8

    (C) 6 (D) 9

    3.

    (A) 32 (B) 06

    (C) 12 (D) 20

    4.7 9 5 11

    4 15 12 7

    13 8 11 ?

    (A) 20 (B) 10

    (C) 30 (D) 70

    5.

    '8'

    3 8 2 5 8 3 2 8 3 2 8 2 7 8 4 8 5 6 8 7 8 4 2 8 6

    (A) 5 (B) 4

    (C) 3 (D) 2

    6.

    B K H H P D T P P H N P J J I M R F F G O U

    B B E H I N N A G D X X Q Y L S S K Z N P P

    I O T U U A C N

    (A) 2 (B) 3

    (C) 4 (D) 5

    7. STEADY 931785 ENTRY

    12345 SEDATE

    (A) 814195 (B) 954185

    (C) 614781 (D) 918731

    Part - I Part - I Part - I Part - I

    8. 4

    4, 1, 4, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 4, 1 8, 3, 4, 9, 2, 4, 8, 3,

    4, 8, 2, 8, 4, 5, 4, 8, 7, 4, 6, 4, 5, 4

    (A) 6 (B) 4

    (C) 3 (D) 5

    9. 4E, 8I, 13N, 19T, ?

    (A) 26U (B) 26A

    (C) 26Z (D) 25Y

    10. HIIJ, IJJK, JKKL, KLLM, LMMN, ?

    (A) LNNO (B) MNNP

    (C) NOOP (D) MNNO

    11. 1, 1, 6, 6, 11, 11, 16, ? , ?

    (A) 13, 11 (B) 16, 21

    (C) 17, 21 (D) 21, 16

    12.W U S Q

    , , , , ?S O K G

    (A) P/R (B) C/O

    (C) R/J (D) O/C

    13. '+' '-' '' ''

    '=' '>' '

  • 17.ABC BCD CDE

    : :: : ?F I L

    (A) DEF

    O(B)

    DEF

    N

    (C) EDF

    O(D)

    DEF

    M

    18. 1 : 8 : : 27 : ?

    (A) 37 (B) 47

    (C) 57 (D) 64

    19. 24 : 126 : : 48 : ?

    (A) 433 (B) 192

    (C) 240 (D) 344

    20. 987 : IHG: : 654 : ?

    (A) FDE (B) FED

    (C) EFD (D) DEF

    Directions: (Q. No. 21-26) Find the odd word/

    letter/number from the given responses.

    21. (A) Room (B) Chamber

    (C) Veranda (D) Cabin

    22. (A) Mouth Organ (B) Electric Guitar

    (C) Keyboard (D) Sonata

    23. (A) RNMP (B) JFEH

    (C) RPOQ (D) HDCF

    24. (A) AbcdE (B) IfghO

    (C) ApqrL (D) UlmnE

    25. (A) 6243 (B) 2643

    (C) 8465 (D) 4867

    26. (A) 49-33 (B) 62-46

    (C) 83-67 (D) 70-55

    27. If HONESTY is written as ABCXZDQ, how

    can TONY be written in that code?

    (A) DBCQ (B) QDCX

    (C) CBXZ (D) CQDC

    28. Sanmitra starts from his house and walks

    3 km towards north. Then he turns right

    and walks 2 km and then turns right and

    walks 5 km, then turns right and walks 2

    km and then again turns right and walks 2

    km. Which direction is he facing now?

    (A) North (B) South

    (C) West (D) East

    29. In a solid cube made up of 27 small cubes,

    two opposite sides are painted red, two

    opposite sides yellow and two other sides

    white. How many small cubes have the

    colours yellow and white alone in them?

    (A) 4 (B) 8

    (C) 12 (D) 16

    30. If B = 2, MAT = 34, then JOGLEX = ?

    (A) 70 (B) 71

    (C) 72 (D) 73

    31. 2 years ago a mother was 4 times as old as

    her son. 6 years from now her age will

    become more than double her son's age by

    10 years. What is the present ratio of their

    ages?

    (A) 2 : 1 (B) 38 : 11

    (C) 19 : 7 (D) 3 : 1

    32. Five birds are sitting on a tree. The Pigeon

    is to the right of the Parrot. the Sparrow is

    above the Parrot. The Crow is next to the

    Pigeon. The Crane in below the Crow.

    Which bird is at the centre?

    (A) Crow (B) Pigeon

    (C) Parrot (D) Sparrow

    Directions (Q. No. 33-34): From the given

    alternatives select the word which cannot be

    formed using the letters of the given word.

    33. SOCIALISATION

    (A) SCOUT (B) CLASS

    (C) LIAISON (D) ASSOCIATION

    34. ADMINISTRATOR

    (A) ADMIT (B) NEST

    (C) MANIA (D) ROAD

    35. A series of figures are given, and these can

    be grouped into classes. Select from

    amongst the alternatives one set of groups

    into which these figures can be classfied.

    (A) 1, 3, 8; 2, 4, 6; 5, 7, 9

    (B) 1, 4, 9; 3, 6, 8; 2, 5, 7

    (C) 3, 4, 7; 9, 8, 7; 4, 3, 1

    (D) 2, 3, 6; 9, 3, 4; 6, 3, 2

    36. Which one of the given responses would be

    a meaningful order of the following worlds?

    1. Income 2. Fame

    3. Education 4. Employment

    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2

    (C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

    37. If the day before yesterday was Thursday,

    when will Sunday be?

    (A) Tommorow

    (B) Day after tomorrow

    (C) Today

    (D) Two days after today

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  • 17.ABC BCD CDE

    : :: : ?F I L

    (A) DEF

    O(B)

    DEF

    N

    (C) EDF

    O(D)

    DEF

    M

    18. 1 : 8 : : 27 : ?

    (A) 37 (B) 47

    (C) 57 (D) 64

    19. 24 : 126 : : 48 : ?

    (A) 433 (B) 192

    (C) 240 (D) 344

    20. 987 : IHG: : 654 : ?

    (A) FDE (B) FED

    (C) EFD (D) DEF

    21. (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    22. (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    23. (A) RNMP (B) JFEH

    (C) RPOQ (D) HDCF

    24. (A) AbcdE (B) IfghO

    (C) ApqrL (D) UlmnE

    25. (A) 6243 (B) 2643

    (C) 8465 (D) 4867

    26. (A) 49-33 (B) 62-46

    (C) 83-67 (D) 70-55

    27. ABCXZDQ

    TONY

    (A) DBCQ (B) QDCX

    (C) CBXZ (D) CQDC

    28. 3

    2 5

    2

    2

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    29. 27

    (A) 4 (B) 8

    (C) 12 (D) 16

    30. B = 2, MAT = 34, JOGLEX = ?

    (A) 70 (B) 71

    (C) 72 (D) 73

    31.

    6 10

    (A) 2 : 1 (B) 38 : 11

    (C) 19 : 7 (D) 3 : 1

    32.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    33. SOCIALISATION

    (A) SCOUT (B) CLASS

    (C) LIAISON (D) ASSOCIATION

    34. ADMINISTRATOR

    (A) ADMIT (B) NEST

    (C) MANIA (D) ROAD

    35.

    (A) 1, 3, 8; 2, 4, 6; 5, 7, 9

    (B) 1, 4, 9; 3, 6, 8; 2, 5, 7

    (C) 3, 4, 7; 9, 8, 7; 4, 3, 1

    (D) 2, 3, 6; 9, 3, 4; 6, 3, 2

    36.

    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2

    (C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

    37.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

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  • 38. In the following question, among the four

    answer figures which one can be formed

    from the cut out pieces given below?

    Problem Figures

    Answer Figures

    39. Which represents Carrot, Food, Vegetable?

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    40. Which one set of letters when sequentially

    placed at the gaps in the given letter series

    shall complete it?

    _wi_ _w_nt_in_wi_

    (A) nttwiwn (B) ttinwin

    (C) tntiwtn (D) tntwitn

    41. 'Suma' is shorter than 'Uma', 'Neha' is

    taller than 'Suma', 'Sudha' is taller than

    'Uma' but shorter than 'Hema'. 'Uma is

    taller than 'Neha'. Who is the tallest among

    them?

    (A) Hema (B) Uma

    (C) Sudha (D) Neha

    42. Pointing to a lady in a photograph, Meera

    said, "Her father's only son's wife is my

    mother-in-law". How is Meers's husband

    related to that lady in the photo?

    (A) Nephew (B) Uncle

    (C) Son (D) Father

    43. In a row of 16 girls, when Hema was shifted

    by two places towards the left she became

    7th from the left end. What was her earlier

    position from the right end?

    (A) 7th (B) 8th

    (C) 9th (D) 10th

    Directions : In the following question a

    statement is followed by two assumptions I and

    II, You have to consider the statement to be

    true, even if it seems to be at variance from

    commonly known facts. You are to decide which

    of the given conclusions can definitely be

    drawn from the given statements. Indicate

    your answer.

    44. Statement :

    Education and wealth lead to progess.

    Assumptions :

    I. Progress is possible if you are wealthy.

    II. Educated people are wealthy.

    (A) Only I is valid

    (B) Only II is valid

    (C) Both assumptions are valid

    (D) Both assumptions are invalid

    45. Which alphabet will come in place of

    question mark?

    (A) S (B) D

    (C) U (D) W

    Directions (Q. 46) Study the following

    information carefully and answer the

    questions given below-

    A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are sitting around

    a circle facing at the centre. D is third to the left of

    H who is second to the left of B, A is fourth to the

    left of E who is second to the right of D. C is third to

    the right of H. I is not an immediate neighbour of

    D. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

    46. In which of the following pairs is the first

    person sitting to the immediate right of the

    second person?

    (A) DF (B) FE

    (C) GD (D) None of these

    Directions (Q. 47): In each of the questions below

    are given two statements followed by three

    conclusions. You have to take the given

    statements to be true even if they seem to at

    variance from commonly known facts. Read all the

    conclusions and then decide which of the given

    conclusions logically follows from the given

    statements disregarding commonly known facts.

    47. Statements: All students are teachers.

    Some teachers are leaders.

    Conclusions: I. All students are leaders.

    II. Some students are leaders.

    III. Some leaders are teachers.

    (A) None follow (B) Only I and II follow

    (C) Only III follows (D) All follow

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  • 38.

    39.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    40.

    _wi_ _w_nt_in_wi_

    (A) nttwiwn (B) ttinwin

    (C) tntiwtn (D) tntwitn

    41.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    42.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    43.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    I II

    44.

    I.

    II.

    (A) I

    (B) II

    (C)

    (D)

    45.

    (A) S (B) D

    (C) U (D) W

    A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H I

    D, H B

    A, E D

    C, H I, D

    G, E

    46.

    ?

    (A) DF (B) FE

    (C) GD (D)

    47.

    I.

    II.

    III.

    (A)

    (B) I II

    (C) III

    (D)

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  • Direction: In question no. 48, if a mirror is placedon the line AB, then which of the answer figuresin the fight image of given figure?

    48. Question Figure:

    Answer Figure:

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    49. How many triangles are there in the givenfigure?

    (A) 10 (B) 12

    (C) 14 (D)

    50. A word is represented by only set of numbers

    as given in any of the alternatives. The sets

    of numbers given in the alternatives are

    represented by two classes of alphabets as

    in the 2 matrices given below. The columns

    and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to

    4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter

    from these matrices can be column number.

    E.g. M and be represented by 55, 67, etc.

    Similarly identify the set for the word RUDE.

    (A) 56, 66, 10, 23 (B) 59, 99, 34, 11

    (C) 77, 56, 02, 01 (D) 95, 87, 42, 12

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  • AB

    48.

    (A) (B) (C) (D)

    49.

    (A) 10 (B) 12

    (C) 14 (D)

    50.

    I

    II

    'M'

    RUDE

    (A) 56, 66, 10, 23 (B) 59, 99, 34, 11

    (C) 77, 56, 02, 01 (D) 95, 87, 42, 12

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  • Part - II (Arithmetic)Part - II (Arithmetic)Part - II (Arithmetic)Part - II (Arithmetic)

    51. 7 men can complete a piece of work in 12

    days. How many additional men will be

    required to complete double to work in 8

    days?

    (A) 28 (B) 21

    (C) 14 (D) 7

    52. One pipe fills a water tank three times

    faster than another pipe. If the two pipes

    together can fill the empty tank in 36

    minutes, then how much time will the

    slower-pipe alone take to fill the tank?

    (A) 1 hr 21 min (B) 1 hr 48 min

    (C) 2 hrs (D) 2 hrs 24 min

    53. In an examination, a student scores 4

    marks for every correct answer and loses 1

    mark for every wrong answer. A student

    attempted all the 200 questions and scored

    marks. The number of questions, he

    answered correctly was

    (A) 82 (B) 80

    (C) 68 (D) 60

    54. Sin1. Sin2. Cos1. Cos2. Sin3. Sin4.

    Cos3. Cos4 ........Sin999 .Cos 998. Cos

    999 is equal to:-

    (A) 0.5 (B) 1.0

    (C) 0 (D) Infinite

    55. In a cyclic quadriletral two opposite angles

    are 90 each but both are in different

    semicircle so diagonal of the cyclic

    quardrilateral after joining another pair of

    angles of quardilateral will be -

    (A) longest chord of the circle

    (B) shortest chord of the circle

    (C) radius of the circle

    (D) None of these

    56. Each of the radius of the base and the height

    of a right circular cylinder is increased by

    10%. The volume of the cylinder is

    increased by

    (A) 3.31% (B) 14.5%

    (C) 33.1% (D) 19.5%

    57. The height of a cylinder and that of a cone

    are in the ratio 2:3 and the radii of their

    bases in the ratio 3:4. The ratio of their

    volumes will be

    (A) 1 : 9 (B) 2 : 9

    (C) 9 : 8 (D) 3 : 8

    58. A tradesman allows a discount of 15% on

    the marked price. How much above the cost

    price must he mark his goods so as to gain

    19%?

    (A) 34% (B) 40%

    (C) 25% (D) 30%

    59. If 1

    2xx

    , then the value of

    2 1

    2 1

    1nn

    x

    x

    where n is a positive integer,

    is

    (A) 0 (B) 2

    (C) -2 (D) -5

    60. The least number, which when divided by

    18, 27 and 36 separately leaves remainders

    5, 14 and 23 respectively, is

    (A) 95 (B) 113

    (C) 149 (D) 77

    61. Sin1 + Sin

    2 + Sin

    3 + Sin

    4 =4 then the

    value of Cos1.Cos

    2.Cos

    3.Cos

    4 is

    (A) 64 (B) 8

    (C) 4 (D) 0

    62. A farmer divides his herd of n cows among

    his four sons so that the first son gets one-

    half the herd, the second son gets one-

    fourth, the third son gets one-fifth, and the

    fourth son gets 7 cows. The value of n is

    (A) 80 (B) 100

    (C) 140 (D) 180

    63. If the number 4 8 3 2 7 * 8 is divisible by 11,

    then the missing digit * is

    (A) 5 (B) 3

    (C) 2 (D) 1

    64. The perimeters of two squares are 40 cm

    and 24 cm. The perimeter of a third square,

    whose area is equal to the difference of the

    areas of these squares, is

    (A) 34 cm (B) 32 cm

    (C) 38 cm (D) 30 cm

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  • Part -II Part -II Part -II Part -II

    51. 7 12

    8

    (A) 28 (B) 21

    (C) 14 (D) 7

    52.

    (A) 1 21 (B) 1 48

    (C) 2 (D) 2 24

    53.

    4

    1

    200 200

    (A) 82 (B) 80

    (C) 68 (D) 60

    54. Sin1. Sin2. Cos1. Cos2. Sin3. Sin4.

    Cos3. Cos4 ........Sin999 .Cos 998. Cos

    999

    (A) 0.5 (B) 1.0

    (C) 0 (D)

    55. 90

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    56.

    10%

    (A) 3.31% (B) 14.5%

    (C) 33.1% (D) 19.5%

    57. 2 : 3

    3 : 4

    (A) 1 : 9 (B) 2 : 9

    (C) 9 : 8 (D) 3 : 8

    58. 15%

    19%

    (A) 34% (B) 40%

    (C) 25% (D) 30%

    59.1

    2xx

    2 1

    2 1

    1nn

    x

    x

    n

    (A) 0 (B) 2

    (C) -2 (D) -5

    60. 18, 27 36

    5, 14 23

    (A) 95 (B) 113

    (C) 149 (D) 77

    61. Sin1 + Sin

    2 + Sin

    3 + Sin

    4 =4

    Cos1.Cos

    2.Cos

    3.Cos

    4

    (A) 64 (B) 8

    (C) 4 (D) 0

    62. n

    1/5 7

    n

    (A) 80 (B) 100

    (C) 140 (D) 180

    63. 4 8 3 2 7* 8 11

    *

    (A) 5 (B) 3

    (C) 2 (D) 1

    64. 40 24

    (A) 34 (B) 32

    (C) 38 (D) 30

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  • 65. A sum of money at some rate of simple

    interest amounts to ` 2,900 in 8 years and

    to ` 3,000 in 10 years. The rate of interest

    per annum is

    (A) 4% (B) 1

    2 %2

    (C) 3% (D) 2%

    66. In what time ` 8,000 will amount to ` 9,261

    at 10% per annum compound interest,

    when the interest is compounded half-

    yearly?

    (A) 1

    32

    years (B) 11

    2years

    (C) 1

    22

    years (D) 2 years

    67. A can give 40 metres start to B and 70 m to

    C in a race of one kilometre. How many

    metres start can B give to C in a race of

    one kilometre?

    (A) 30 m (B) 1

    314

    m

    (C) 3

    314

    m (D) 32 m

    68. A man purchased a bedsheet for ` 450 and

    sold it at a gain of 10% calculated on the

    selling price. The selling price of the

    bedsheet was

    (A) ` 460 (B) ` 475

    (C) ` 480 (D) ` 500

    69. By selling an article for ` 700 a man lost

    30%. At what price should he have sold it

    to gain 30%?

    (A) ` 910 (B) ` 1,200

    (C) ` 1,232 (D) ` 1,300

    70. A reduction of 20% in the price of wheat

    enables Lalita to buy 5 kg more wheat for `

    320. The original rate (in rupees per kg) of

    wheat was

    (A) 16 (B) 18

    (C) 20 (D) 21

    71. Aniruddha sold a bicycle at a gain of 8%.

    How it been sold for ` 75 more, the gain

    would have been 14%. The cost price of the

    bicycle was

    (A) ` 1,200 (B) ` 1,250

    (C) ` 1,350 (D) ` 1,500

    72. Richa purchased an article at 4/5 of its list

    price and sold it at 20% more than the list

    price. Richa's profit percent was

    (A) 50 (B) 40

    (C) 30 (D) 25

    73.2 1 1

    + + +2-2 26+2 7+ 6 8- 7

    is equal

    to

    (A) 0 (B) 2 2

    (C) 6 (D) 2 7

    74. The sum of two numbers is 8 and their

    product is 15. The sum of their reciprocals

    is

    (A) 8/15 (B) 15/8

    (C) 23 (D) 7

    75.1 2 3 4 5 6

    99 +99 +99 +99 +99 +997 7 7 7 7 7

    is

    equal to

    (A) 603 (B) 600

    (C) 598 (D) 597

    76. 3 3 3..... is equal to

    (A) 3 (B) 3

    (C) 2 3 (D) 3 3

    77. If 1

    x a+ = a

    and 1

    ay = - a then the value of

    4 4 2 2x + y -2x y is

    (A) 24 (B) 18

    (C) 16 (D) 12

    78. On selling an almirah for ` 2576, a person

    got a profit of 12%. Had it been bought for `

    100 less, the profit per cent would have

    been

    (A) 1

    119

    (B) 1

    133

    (C) 1

    1711

    (D) 9

    1711

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  • 65. 8 `

    2,900 10 ` 3,000

    (A) 4% (B) 1

    2 %2

    (C) 3% (D) 2%

    66. 10% ` 8,000

    ` 9,261

    (A) 1

    32

    (B) 11

    2

    (C) 1

    22

    (D) 2

    67. A, B 40 C

    70

    B, C

    (A) 30 (B) 1

    314

    (C) 3

    314

    (D) 32

    68. ` 450

    10%

    (A) ` 460 (B) ` 475

    (C) ` 480 (D) ` 500

    69. ` 700 30%

    30%

    (A) ` 910 (B) ` 1,200

    (C) ` 1,232 (D) ` 1,300

    70. 20% ` 320 5

    (A) 16 (B) 18

    (C) 20 (D) 21

    71. 8% `

    75 14%

    (A) ` 1,200 (B) ` 1,250

    (C) ` 1,350 (D) ` 1,500

    72. 4/5

    20%

    (A) 50 (B) 40

    (C) 30 (D) 25

    73.2 1 1

    + + +2-2 26+2 7+ 6 8- 7

    (A) 0 (B) 2 2

    (C) 6 (D) 2 7

    74. 8 15

    (A) 8/15 (B) 15/8

    (C) 23 (D) 7

    75.1 2 3 4 5 6

    99 +99 +99 +99 +99 +997 7 7 7 7 7

    (A) 603 (B) 600

    (C) 598 (D) 597

    76. 3 3 3.....

    (A) 3 (B) 3

    (C) 2 3 (D) 3 3

    77.1

    x a+ = a

    1ay = -

    a4 4 2 2x +y -2x y

    (A) 24 (B) 18

    (C) 16 (D) 12

    78. ` 2576

    12% ` 100

    (A) 1

    119

    (B) 1

    133

    (C) 1

    1711

    (D) 9

    1711

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  • 79. A cloth merchant sold half of his cloth at

    20% profit, half of the remaining cloth at

    20% loss and the rest was sold at his cost

    price. In the total transaction, his gain or

    loss will be

    (A) 5% profit (B) Neither loss nor gain

    (C) 5% loss (D) 10% profit

    80. In what ratio Dargeeling Tea costing ` 320

    per kg be mixed with Assam Tea costing `

    250 per kg so that there is a gain of 20% by

    selling the mixture at ` 324 per kg?

    (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3

    (C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 5

    81. If a number is increased by 20% and the

    resulting number is again increased by

    20%, what percent is the total increase?

    (A) 48 (B) 44

    (C) 41 (D) 40

    82. In an examination 42% students failed in

    Hindi and 52% failed in English. If 17%

    failed in both of these subjects, the

    percentage of students who passed in both

    the subjects, was

    (A) 23 (B) 27

    (C) 34 (D) 40

    83.1 1 1

    3+ + +3 3+ 3 3-3

    equals

    (A) 3 (B) 3+ 3

    (C) 6 (D) 6+ 3

    84. A cistern is normally filled in 8 hours; but

    takes two hours more to fill because of a

    leak in its botton. If the cistern is full, the

    leak will make it empty in

    (A) 16 hours (B) 20 hours

    (C) 32 hours (D) 40 hours

    85. A and B can complete a piece of work in 9

    and 12 days, respectively. If they work for a

    day alternately, starting with A, in how

    many days will the work be completed?

    (A) 10 (B) 1

    104

    (C) 1

    102

    (D) 3

    104

    86. A and B together can complete a work in

    15 days. A is 50% more efficient worker

    than B. How long will A take to complete

    the work alone?

    (A) 25 days (B) 21 days

    (C) 21.4 days (D) 22.5 days

    87. If each side of a square is increased by 10%

    what is the percentage of increase of the

    area?

    (A) 10 (B) 21

    (C) 42 (D) 100

    88. The area of an equilateral triangle,

    inscribed in a circle, is 4 3 cm2. The area

    of the circle in terms of will be

    (A) 4 6 (B) 5

    (C) 1

    53 (D) 6

    89. The sum '0.25 + 0.75 ' (where 0.25 denotes

    the recurring decimal 0.252525...... ) equals

    (A) 1 (B) 1.01

    (C) 1.01 (D) 1.001

    90. A whole number N, when divided by 4

    leaves remainder 3; and the quotient thus

    obtained leaves remainder 2 when divided

    by 3. The remainder, when N is divided by

    6, will be

    (A) 2 (B) 3

    (C) 4 (D) 5

    91. Which value of sec is not possible.

    (A) 2 (B) 3

    (C) 1/2 (D) 1000

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  • 79. 20%

    20%

    (A) 5% (B)

    (C) 5% (D) 10%

    80. ` 320 ` 250

    ` 324

    20%

    (A) 1:2 (B) 2:3

    (C) 3:2 (D) 2:5

    81. 20%

    20%

    (A) 48 (B) 44

    (C) 41 (D) 40

    82. 42% 52%

    17%

    (A) 23 (B) 27

    (C) 34 (D) 40

    83.1 1 1

    3+ + +3 3+ 3 3-3

    (A) 3 (B) 3+ 3

    (C) 6 (D) 6+ 3

    84. 8

    2

    (A) 16 (B) 20

    (C) 32 (D) 40

    B 9 12

    (A) 10 (B) 1

    104

    (C) 1

    102

    (D) 3

    104

    B 15

    B A 50%

    (A) 25 (B) 21

    (C) 21.4 (D) 22.5

    87. 10%

    (A) 10 (B) 21

    (C) 42 (D) 100

    88.

    4 3

    (A) 4 6 (B) 5

    (C) 1

    53 (D) 6

    89. '0.25 + 0.75 ' 0.25

    0.252525......

    (A) 1 (B) 1.01

    (C) 1.01 (D) 1.001

    90. N 4 3

    3

    2 N 6

    (A) 2 (B) 3

    (C) 4 (D) 5

    91. sec

    (A) 2 (B) 3

    (C) 1/2 (D) 1000

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  • 92. A single discount equivalent to successive

    discounts of 10%, 10% and 10% is

    (A) 30% (B) 10%

    (C) 72.9% (D) 27.1%

    93. A shopkeeper professes to sell his articles

    at a discount of 10% but increases the cost

    price of each article by 20%. His gain on

    each article is

    (A) 8% (B) 10%

    (C) 12% (D) 20%

    94. What should be the least number of years

    in which the simple interest on ` 2,600 at

    26 %

    3 per annum will be an exact number

    of rupees?

    (A) 6 (B) 5

    (C) 3 (D) 2

    95. At a point on ground, the angle of elevation

    of a vertical tower is found to be such that

    it's tangent is 5/12. On walking 192 metres

    towards the tower the tangent of the angle

    of elevation is 3/4. Find the height of the

    tower.

    (A) 160 metres (B) 180 metres

    (C) 240 metres (D) 260 metres

    96. In what ratio, must alcohol of 30% strength

    be mixed with that of 50% strength to get a

    mixture of alcohol of 35% strength?

    (A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 1

    (C) 3 : 3.5 (D) 3 : 5

    97. The ratio of A to B is 2 : 3, that of B to C is 4

    : 5, and of C to D is 6 : 7. The ratio A : B : C

    : D is

    (A) 16 : 24 : 30 : 35 (B) 16 : 24 : 50 : 70

    (C) 16 : 12 : 30 : 35 (D) 8 : 24 : 30 : 35

    98. From a point Q on a level ground, the angle

    of elevation of the top of a tower is 300. If

    the height of the tower is 100 m., the

    distance of point Q from the foot of the tower

    is.

    (A) 149 m. (B) 156 m.

    (C) 200 m. (D) 173 m.

    99. In the given figure if PQR is an isosceles

    triangle and PSR is an equilateral triangle

    and x = 26 then the value of y(in degrees)

    will be

    (A) 37 (B) 27

    (C) 17 (D) 47

    100. A and B together can complete a piece of

    work in 18 days, B and C in 24 days and A

    and C in 36 days. In how many days, will all

    of them together complete the work?

    (A) 16 (B) 15

    (C) 12 (D) 10

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  • 92. 10%, 10% 10%

    (A) 30% (B) 10%

    (C) 72.9% (D) 27.1%

    93. 10%

    20%

    (A) 8% (B) 10%

    (C) 12% (D) 20%

    94. ` 2,6002

    6 %3

    (A) 6 (B) 5

    (C) 3 (D) 2

    95.

    5/12 192

    3/4

    (A) 160 (B) 180

    (C) 240 (D) 260

    96. 30% 50%

    35%

    (A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 1

    (C) 3 : 3.5 (D) 3 : 5

    B 2 : 3, B C 4 : 5

    C D 6 : 7 A : B : C : D

    (A) 16 : 24 : 30 : 35 (B) 16 : 24 : 50 : 70

    (C) 16 : 12 : 30 : 35 (D) 8 : 24 : 30 : 35

    98. 100

    Q

    300 Q

    (A) 149 (B) 156

    (C) 200 (D) 173

    99. PQR PSR

    x = 26 y

    (A) 37 (B) 27

    (C) 17 (D) 47

    B 18 B C

    24 C 36

    (A) 16 (B) 15

    (C) 12 (D) 10

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  • 101. Consider the following treaties/agreements:

    1. Indira-Mujib treaty.

    2. Indo-Sri Lanka free trade agreement.

    3. Indo-Bhutan treaty of friendship.

    4. Indo-Myanmar border trade agreement

    Which one of the following is the correct

    chronological order of the above (starting

    with the earliest)?

    (A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 4-2-1-3

    (C) 3-1-4-2 (D) 3-4-1-2

    102. Which one among the following is not

    correct about the Subsidiary Alliance?

    (A) It was formulated by Wellesley

    (B) British army was posted in the

    subsidiary state

    (C) It did not recognize an adopted heir to a

    subsidiary state

    (D) A British Resident was posted in the

    subsidiary state

    103. Who was the author of Gita Govinda?

    (A) Jayadeva (B) Kalhana

    (C) Kalidasa (D) Raja Rao

    104. Who among the following started the first

    newspaper in India?

    (A) Dadabhai Naoroji

    (B) W.C. Bonnerjee

    (C) Rabindranath Tagore

    (D) James A Hickey

    105. Name the important french possession in

    India.

    (A) Goa (B) Pondicherry

    (C) Daman (D) Cochin

    106. What was Lala Lajpat Rai demonstrating

    against when he succumbed to police

    brutality?

    (A) Rowlatt Act

    (B) Minto Morley Reforms

    (C) Simon Commission

    (D) Pitts India Act

    107. Who among the following built the famous

    Khajuraho Temple?

    (A) The Chandella Kings

    (B) The Pala Kings

    (C) Vikramaditya

    (D) The Jaina Monks of Central India

    Part - III Part - III Part - III Part - III (General Awareness)

    108. That the Rig-Vedic aryans were a pastoral

    people is borne out by the fact that

    (A) There are many references to the cow

    in the Rig Veda

    (B) Most of the wars were fought for the

    sake of cows

    (C) Gifts made to priests were usually cows

    and not land

    (D) All of the above

    109. Which of the following organisations

    prepares topographical maps of India?

    (A) Geographical Survey of India

    (B) Survey of India

    (C) Geological Survey of India

    (D) Archaeological Survey of India

    110. Who among the following had got the Bharat

    Ratna Award before becoming the President

    of India?

    (A) Dr. Zakir Hussain

    (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    (C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

    (D) V.V. Giri

    111. AGMARK is

    (A) A cooperative for egg production

    (B) regulated agricultural market

    (C) farmers' cooperative

    (D) a quality guarantee stamp for commodities

    112. Which one of the following coasts of India is

    most affected by violent tropical cyclones?

    (A) Malabar (B) Andhra

    (C) Konkan (D) Gujarat

    113. Which one of the following can be

    considered as an initial warning of an

    approaching Tsunami?

    (A) Thundering noise

    (B) Squally winds and rainfall

    (C) Rapid withdrawal of water away from the

    beach

    (D) Rapid landward movement of water

    114. Isohaline is an imaginary line joining the

    places having equal:

    (A) radiation. (B) insolation.

    (C) salinity. (D) sunshine.

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  • Part - III Part - III Part - III Part - III

    101.

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    (A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 4-2-1-3

    (C) 3-1-4-2 (D) 3-4-1-2

    102.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    103.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    104.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    105.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    106.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    107.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    108.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    109.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    110.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    111. AGMARK

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    112.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    113.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    114.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

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  • 115. Which one of the following is the correct

    statement?

    (A) The Himalayan Pass Nathula is in

    Himachal Pradesh

    (B) The Dhaola Dhar Range of mountains

    is in Arunachal Pradesh

    (C) The Nanda Devi Peak is in Sikkim

    (D) The Pir Panjal Range of mountains is

    in Kashmir

    116. Which one of the following longitudes

    determines Indian Standard Time?

    (A) 85.50 E (B) 86.50 E

    (C) 84.50 E (D) 82.50 E

    117. Match List-I (Plant/Factory) with List-II

    (State) and select the correct answer using

    the codes given below the Lists:

    List-I (Plant/Factory) List-II (State)

    (A) Bokaro Steel Plant 1. Tamil Nadu

    (B) Bhilai Steel Plant 2 Madhya Pradesh

    (C) Integral Coach Factory 3. Chhattisgarh

    (D) Diesel Locomotive Works 4. Jharkhand

    5. Uttar Pradesh

    Codes:

    (A) A B C D

    4 1 5 3

    (B) A B C D

    2 3 1 5

    (C) A B C D

    4 3 1 5

    (D) A B C D

    2 1 5 3

    118. Which one of the following is the correct

    sequence of the geographical locations of

    the given European countries while starting

    from the West of Europe and going towards

    the East of Europe?

    (A) Portugal Greece Italy spain

    (B) Italy Greece Portugal Spain

    (C) Portugal Spain Italy - Greece

    (D) Italy Spain Portugal Greece

    119. Which one of the following is the oldest

    mountain range in India?

    (A) Himalayas (B) Aravali

    (C) Satpura (D) Nilgiri

    120. In which one of the following places was

    Asias first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) set

    up?

    (A) Santa Cruz (B) Kandla

    (C) Cochin (D) Surat

    121. The Constituent Assembly of India started

    functioning from

    (A) 9th December, 1946

    (B) 1st January, 1947

    (C) 26th January, 1947

    (D) 15th August, 1947

    122. The minimum age of voting in India was

    lowered from 21 to 18 years by the

    Constitutional Amendment Act.

    (A) 57th (B) 59th

    (C) 61st (D) 63rd

    123. If a money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is

    not returned by the Rajya Sabha within

    fourteen days, then

    (A) Lok Sabha will reconsider it

    (B) Money bill will be rejected

    (C) President will summon a joint meeting

    of both the Houses to discuss it.

    (D) The Bill will be sent to the President

    for his signature and consent

    124. Part III of the Constitution of India relates to

    (A) Directive Principles of State Policy

    (B) Fundamental Duties

    (C) Fundamental Rights

    (D) Citizenship

    125. Match List-I with List-II and select the

    correct answer using the code given below

    the Lists:

    List-I List-II

    (Provision of the (Source)

    Constitution of India)

    (A) Amendment of the 1. Constitution of

    Constitution Germany

    (B) Directive Principles 2. Constitution of

    Canada

    (C) Emergency Power of 3. Constitution of

    The President South Africa

    (D) The Union-State 4. Irish Constitution

    Relations

    Code:

    (A) A B C D

    1 2 4 3

    (B) A B C D

    3 4 1 2

    (C) A B C D

    1 4 2 3

    (D) A B C D

    3 1 4 2

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  • 115.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    116.

    (A) 85.50 E (B) 86.50 E

    (C) 84.50 E (D) 82.50 E

    117. I II

    I II

    (A) 1.

    (B) 2.

    (C) 3.

    (D) 4.

    5.

    (A) A B C D

    4 1 5 3

    (B) A B C D

    2 3 1 5

    (C) A B C D

    4 3 1 5

    (D) A B C D

    2 1 5 3

    118.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    119.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    120.

    (EPZ)

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    121.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    122.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    123.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    124. III

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    125. I II

    I II

    (A) 1.

    (B) 2.

    (C) 3.

    (D) 4.

    (A) A B C D

    1 2 4 3

    (B) A B C D

    3 4 1 2

    (C) A B C D

    1 4 2 3

    ) A B C D

    3 1 4 2

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  • 126. According to Article 164 (1) of the

    Constitution of India, in three States there

    shall be a Minister in charge of tribal

    welfare who may in addition be in charge

    of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and

    Backward Classes. Which one of the

    following States in not covered by the

    Article?

    (A) Jharkhand (B) Punjab

    (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Orissa

    127. If the Prime Minister is a member of the

    Rajya Sabha

    (A) He/she has to get elected to the Lok

    Sabha within six months

    (B) He/she can declare the governments

    policies only in the Rajya Sabha

    (C) He/she cannot take part in the voting

    when a vote of no confidence is under

    consideration

    (D) He/she cannot take part in the budget

    deliberations in the Lok Sabha

    128. Who among the following was elected

    President of India unopposed?

    (A) Dr. Rajendar Prasad

    (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

    (C) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

    (D) K. R. Narayanan

    129. Which one of the following Commissions is

    not provided in the Constitution of India?

    (A) Planning Commission

    (B) U.P.S.C.

    (C) Finance Commission

    (D) Election Commission

    130. The Articles of the Constitution of India

    which deal with the Directive Principles of

    State Policy are:

    (A) 26 to 41 (B) 30 to 45

    (C) 36 to 51 (D) 40 to 55

    131. Which of the following cytoplasmic

    organelles are treated as prokaryotic cells

    within the eukaryotic cells?

    (A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi bodies

    (C) Lysosomes (D) Glyoxysomes

    132. The total energy of a revolving electron in

    an atom

    (A) Cannot be negative

    (B) Can have any value above zero

    (C) Can never be positive

    (D) Will always be positive

    133. Nitrogenous food is

    (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid

    (C) Protein (D) Salts

    134. Which of the following causes Malaria?

    (A) Insect (B) Bacteria

    (C) Protozoa (D) Virus

    135. Pollutant from motor car exhaust that

    causes mental disease is

    (A) Lead (B) NO2(C) SO2 (D) Hg

    136. Which colour of light shows maximum

    deviation when passed through a prism?

    (A) White (B) Red

    (C) Violet (D) Green

    137. Identify the metal which is non toxic in

    nature

    (A) Chromium (B) Gold

    (C) Cadmium (D) Cobalt

    138. The mass number of a nucleus is

    (A) always less than its atomic number

    (B) always more than its atomic number

    (C) always equal to its atomic number

    (D) sometimes more and sometimes equal

    to its atomic number

    139. Which one of the following organs excretes

    water, fat and various catabolic wastes?

    (A) Kidney (B) Skin

    (C) Spleen (D) Salivary glands

    140. The most important ore of lead is

    (A) Galena (B) Magnetite

    (C) Pyrolusite (D) Siderite

    141. Deposition of uric acid crystals at the joint

    is the cause of

    (A) Arthritis (B) Osteoporosis

    (C) Osteomalacia (D) Rickets

    142. Which of the following state is related to

    'Chief Minister Tirth Darshan Yojana'?

    (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh

    (C) Rajasthan (D) Bihar

    143. Consider the following statements:

    1. Modem is used to link a computer with

    a telephone line so that data can be

    transmitted at high speeds from one

    computer to another.

    2. Pentium chip performs the function of

    RAM in a computer CPU.

    3. Giga represents 109.

    Which of the statements given above is/

    are correct?

    (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

    (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

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  • 126.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    127.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    128.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    129.

    (A) (B)

    (U.P.S.C.)

    (C) (D)

    130.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    131.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    132.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    133.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    134.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    135.

    (A) (B) NO2

    (C) SO2

    (D) Hg

    136.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    137.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    138.

    (A)

    (B)

    (C)

    (D)

    139.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    140. (lead)

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    141.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    142.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    143.

    1.

    2. CPU RAM

    3. 109

    (A) 1 3 (B) 1 2

    (C) 3 (D) 1, 2 3

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  • 144. Match List-I (Indian Sportspersons) with

    List-II (Game/Sport) and select the correct

    answer using the codes given below the Lists:

    List-I List-II

    (Indian Sportspersons) (Game/Sport)

    (A) Aparna Popat 1. Weightlifting

    (B) Koneru Humpy 2. Shooting

    (C) Abhinav Bindra 3. Chess

    (D) Kunjarani Devi 4. Badminton

    5. Hockey

    Codes:

    (A) A B C D

    2 5 4 3

    (B) A B C D

    4 5 2 3

    (C) A B C D

    2 3 4 1

    (D) A B C D

    4 3 2 1

    145. One which of the following achievements

    does the UNDP Human Development Report

    base its rating of Human Development

    Index (HDI) in respect of different

    countries?

    1. Life expectancy

    2. Educational attainment

    3. Adjusted real income

    Select the correct answer using the codes

    given below:

    Codes:

    (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

    (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

    146. From which of the games player Kim

    Clijsters retired?

    (A) Tennis (B) Badminton

    (C) Squash (D) Boxing

    147. Which country recently banned the use of

    Air Conditioners in Government offices?

    (A) China (B) India

    (C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh

    148. Who has been appointed as the new

    Chairperson of the Central Board of Direct

    Taxes?

    (A) Sudha Sharma (B) Mamta Sharma

    (C) Shikha Sharma (D) Chanda Kochhar

    149. Who has been honoured with the National

    Lata Mangeshkar Award?

    (A) Himesh Reshammiya (B) Hariharan

    (C) Harshit Saxena (D) Harjeet Mehndi

    150. Who is the author of the book 'The Casual

    Vacancy'?

    (A) J. K. Rowling (B) Salman Rushdie

    (C) Allison Moore (D) Bill Gates

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  • 144. I II

    I II

    (A) 1.

    (B) 2.

    (C) 3.

    (D) 4.

    5.

    (A) A B C D

    2 5 4 3

    (B) A B C D

    4 5 2 3

    (C) A B C D

    2 3 4 1

    (D) A B C D

    4 3 2 1

    145. (HDI)

    UNDP

    1.

    2.

    3.

    (A) 1 2 (B) 2 3

    (C) 1 3 (D) 1, 2 3

    146.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    147.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    148.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    149.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

    150.

    (A) (B)

    (C) (D)

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  • Directions [Q. No. 151 to 155]: Some of the

    sentences have errors and some have none.

    Find out which part of a sentence has error and

    blacken the oval corresponding to the

    appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If there is no error,

    blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the

    answer sheet.

    151. (A)The committee/(B) was unanimous/

    (C)in their decision/(D)no error.

    152. (A)I am not one/ (B)of those who trust/

    (C)every Tom, Dick and Harry whom I

    meet/(D)no error.

    153. (A)He knows/(B) to swim/(C)but I dont/

    (D)no error.

    154. (A)It is time /(B)you learn /(C)your lesson/

    (D)no error

    155. (A)If he would have seen / (B) me, he would

    have/(C) stopped the car/(D)no error.

    Directions [Q. No. 156 to 160]: Sentences are

    given with blanks to be filled in with an

    appropriate word.four alternatives are suggested

    for each question. Choose the correct alternative

    out of the four and indicate it by blackening the

    appropriate oval in the answer-sheet.

    156. The teacher was angry .. the students.

    (A) with (B )at

    (C) from (D) by

    157. He was annoyed his misconduct.

    (A) with (B) at

    (C) from (D) by

    158. What kind of _______ man you are!

    (A) a (B)an

    (C) the (D) no article used

    159 The mechanic .. the vehicle since this

    morning.

    (A) Repaired

    (B) repairing

    (C) has been repairing

    (D) will be repairing.

    160. Kumar .. boy swam across the sea for

    safety.

    (A) a 17 years old (B) a 17 year old

    (C) a 17 year aged (D) the 17 year old

    Directions: [Q. No. 161 to 170] in the following

    passage there are ten blanks each numbered.

    Find the right choice from the given

    alternatives. Each blank number corresponds

    to same numbered questions.

    In our system, a vast gap (161) the life of

    children led at school from what they experience

    outside. The space where they are (162) to learn

    about life is so far removed from (163) that we

    Part - IV (English Comprehension)Part - IV (English Comprehension)Part - IV (English Comprehension)Part - IV (English Comprehension)

    might as well ask (164) to buy space suits for

    their little ones, instead of school uniforms. (165)

    they read, listen to and copy from the blackboard

    is so meticulously deodorized and (166) that it

    carries no resonance of experienced reality and

    (167) in life.

    The school day becomes a (168) of didactic

    songs and memorized information. Special (169)

    are marked by elaborate acts of sycophancy and

    reaching. School authorities (170) stop talking

    about values, but ignore the cynicism field by the

    young over the high levels of chicanery and

    verbosity they find in about talk.

    161. (A) Occurs (B) Separates

    (C) Bridges (D) Escapes

    162. (A) About (B) Worried

    (C) Compelled (D) Supposed

    163. (A) Reality (B) School

    (C) Fantasy (D) Imagination

    164. (A) Teachers (B) Principals

    (C) Schools (D)Parents

    165. (A) When (B) How

    (C) What (D) Whenever

    166. (A) Sanctified (B) Emphasized

    (C) Memorized (D) Imbibed

    167. (A)Demand (B) Miseries

    (C) Joy (D) Applicability

    168. (A) Programme (B) Ritual

    (C) Consult (D) Tradition

    169. (A) Persons (B) leaders

    (C) Locations (D) Occasions

    170. (A)Always (B) Deliberately

    (C) Seldom (D) Relentlessly

    Directions:(q. Nos. 171-175):read the passage

    carefully then answer the following questions

    which are based on what is stated or implied

    in the passage.

    Man who is believed to have evolved from

    apes is a curious mixture of varied motives. He

    is not only the subject of needs but is also their

    creator. He not only seeks to satisfy his needs

    but also caters to his desire for beauty, his passion

    for more and more knowledge. Although in a

    general way, the maxim Necessity is the mother

    of invention is by no means the whole truth. Man

    is something much greater than an intelligent

    being using his intellect to make newer

    inventions from time to time. He has within his

    capacity to cut down his needs and learn to be

    happy with what he has. The real purpose

    underlying this maxim lies in its utility in the

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  • worldly sense. It tells us to be up and doing, not

    to be passive in our attitude to life. It asks us not

    to remain slaves of old habits and ways of life.

    We must face the new situations with a creative

    mind. Every new difficulty, every problem, which

    confronts us in life can be talked successfully

    with the spirit of inventiveness.

    171. Which of the following is NOT the whole

    truth, according to the passage?

    (A) Man has a desire for beauty and grace.

    (B) Necessity is the mother of invention

    (C) Man desires to cut down his needs and

    wants

    (D) Man learns to be happy with what he

    has

    172. What does the maxim mentioned in the

    passage teaches us?

    (A) To be worldly in the strict sense of the

    term

    (B) To, endeavour constantly to create new

    passions and desires

    (C) to be active in life and do something to

    help mankind

    (D) To be positive in life and get involved

    in our work

    173. What does the spirit within man tell him

    to do?

    (A) To be a mixture of varied motives

    (B) To evaluate the situation intelligently

    (C) To cut down his desires and passions

    (D) To acquire more and more wealth and

    comforts

    174. Which of the following statement/s is/ are

    true in the context of the passage?

    1) Man should be passive in his attitude

    to life

    2) Spirit of inventiveness may not stand

    in good stead in solving every new

    problem

    3) Man has a passion for more knowledge.

    (A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 & 2

    (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 & 3

    175. Which of the following is SIMILAR in

    meaning as word maxim as used in the

    passage?

    (A) principle (B) value

    (C)observation (D) justification

    Directions: [Q. No. 176 to 1800] out of four

    alternatives, choose the one which best

    expresses the meaning of the given word and

    mark it in the answer-sheet.

    176. CHIVALROUS

    (A) crude (B) gallant

    (C) handsome (D) tinkering

    177. DORMANT

    (A) Sleeping (B) humble

    (C) quick (D) active

    178. CAMOUFLAGE

    (A) hide (B) reveal

    (C) disguise (D) pretend

    179. LATENT

    (A) primitive (B) hidden

    (C) potent (D) talented

    180. AMPLE

    (A) meagre (B) quantitative

    (C) sufficient (D) tasty

    Directions [Q. No. 181 to 185]: Choose the wordopposite in meaning to the given word andmark it in the answer-sheet.

    181. EPHEMERAL

    (A) eternal (B) transitory

    (C) mortal (D) temporal

    182. LATENT

    (A) unspoken (B) later

    (C) implicit (D) obvious

    183. MONOTONOUS

    (A) disastrous (B) terrifying

    (C) terrible (D) interesting

    184. OBSCENE

    (A) disobedient (B) decent

    (C) dislocate (D) cautious

    185. FLOURISH

    (A) perish (B) degenerate

    (C) decay (D) dismiss

    Directions [Q. No. 186 to 190]:groups of fourwords are given. In each group, one wordis wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt wordand mark your answer in the answer-sheet.

    186. (A) prioratise (B) picturise

    (C) visualize (D) individualize

    187. (A) mendacious (B) obnoxcious

    (C) pernicious (D) ferocious

    188. (A) pennetrate (B) irritate

    (C) hesitate (D) perforate

    189. (A) passagway (B) causeway

    (C) subway (D) straightway

    190. (A) rapport (B) support

    (C) repport (D) purport

    Directions [Q. No. 191 to 195]: Fouralternatives are given for the idiom/phrasesunderlined in the sentence. Choose thealternative which best expresses the meaningof the idiom/phrase and mark it in the answer-sheet.

    191. That fellow trumped up a story.

    (A) translated

    (B) sang with the music of a trumpet

    (C) concocted

    (D) copied

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  • 192. A brave solider will never show the white

    feather in the face of his enemy.

    (A) show signs of cowardice

    (B) act arrogantly

    (C) show intimacy

    (D) act impudently

    193. You have to be tactful in handling the

    sensitive matters rather than putting the

    cart before the horse.

    (A) Treating things indifferently behaving

    thoughtlessly

    (B) Behaving thoughtlessly

    (C) Dealing with things in haste

    (D) Tackling things in the wrong way

    194. There followed an awkward silence after

    Ram declared his love to her.

    (A) Uncomfortable silence

    (B) Embarrassing silence

    (C) Clumsy silence

    (D) A period of embarrassment

    195. The two women are so jealous of each other,

    that at the drop of hat they start insulting

    each other.

    (A) when hat falls

    (B) when any one drops a hat

    (C) for no reason at all

    (D) on every occasion

    Direction [Q. No. 196 to 200]: Out of the four

    alternative choose the one which can be

    substituted for the given words/phrase in the

    following questions:-

    196. Compensation for loss.

    (A) Indemnity (B) Prodigy

    (C) Cognate (D) Conflagration

    197. Angry at injustice.

    (A) Demagogue (B) Indignant

    (C) Dexterous (D) Indemnity

    198. To turn out of society.

    (A) Discard (B) Ostracize

    (C) Boycott (D) Turn out

    199. The study of coins

    (A) Philatelist (B) Matins

    (C) Numismatics (D) Hedonism

    200. Forewarning of an impending danger.

    (A) Omen (B) Premonition

    (C) Panegyric (D) Sojourn

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